ICS4 Exam 3

6. A nurse cares for a client with hepatic portal-systemic encephalopathy (PSE). The client is thin and cachectic in appearance, and the family expresses distress that the client is receiving little dietary protein. How should the nurse respond? a. A low-protein diet will help the liver rest and will restore liver function. b. Less protein in the diet will help prevent confusion associated with liver failure. c. Increasing dietary protein will help the client gain weight and muscle mass. d. Low dietary protein is needed to prevent fluid from leaking into the abdomen.

B A low-protein diet is ordered when serum ammonia levels increase and/or the client shows signs of PSE. A low-protein diet helps reduce excessive breakdown of protein into ammonia by intestinal bacteria. Encephalopathy is caused by excess ammonia. A low-protein diet has no impact on restoring liver function. Increasing the clients dietary protein will cause complications of liver failure and should not be suggested. Increased intravascular protein will help prevent ascites, but clients with liver failure are not able to effectively synthesize dietary protein.

2. A nurse assesses a client who has liver disease. Which laboratory findings should the nurse recognize as potentially causing complications of this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevated aspartate transaminase b. Elevated international normalized ratio (INR) c. Decreased serum globulin levels d. Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase e. Elevated serum ammonia f. Elevated prothrombin time (PT)

B, E, F Elevated INR and PT are indications of clotting disturbances and alert the nurse to the increased possibility of hemorrhage. Elevated ammonia levels increase the clients confusion. The other values are abnormal and associated with liver disease but do not necessarily place the client at increased risk for complications.

4. After teaching a client who has a history of cholelithiasis, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which menu selection made by the client indicates the client clearly understands the dietary teaching? a. Lasagna, tossed salad with Italian dressing, and low-fat milk b. Grilled cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and coffee with cream c. Cream of potato soup, Caesar salad with chicken, and a diet cola d. Roasted chicken breast, baked potato with chives, and orange juice

D Clients with cholelithiasis should avoid foods high in fat and cholesterol, such as whole milk, butter, and fried foods. Lasagna, low-fat milk, grilled cheese, cream, and cream of potato soup all have high levels of fat. The meal with the least amount of fat is the chicken breast dinner.

5. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed an infusion of vasopressin (Pitressin) for bleeding esophageal varices. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to a serious adverse effect? a. Nausea and vomiting b. Frontal headache c. Vertigo and syncope d. Mid-sternal chest pain

D Mid-sternal chest pain is indicative of acute angina or myocardial infarction, which can be precipitated by vasopressin. Nausea and vomiting, headache, and vertigo and syncope are not side effects of vasopressin.

4. A nurse assesses a male client who has symptoms of cirrhosis. Which questions should the nurse ask to identify potential factors contributing to this laboratory result? (Select all that apply.) a. How frequently do you drink alcohol? b. Have you ever had sex with a man? c. Do you have a family history of cancer? d. Have you ever worked as a plumber? e. Were you previously incarcerated?

A, B, E When assessing a client with suspected cirrhosis, the nurse should ask about alcohol consumption, including amount and frequency; sexual history and orientation (specifically men having sex with men); illicit drug use; history of tattoos; and history of military service, incarceration, or work as a firefighter, police officer, or health care provider. A family history of cancer and work as a plumber do not put the client at risk for cirrhosis.

12. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) after a cholecystectomy. The client states, When I wake up I am in pain. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer intravenous morphine while the client sleeps. b. Encourage the client to use the PCA pump upon awakening. c. Contact the provider and request a different analgesic. d. Ask a family member to initiate the PCA pump for the client.

B The nurse should encourage the client to use the PCA pump prior to napping and upon awakening. Administering additional intravenous morphine while the client sleeps places the client at risk for respiratory depression. The nurse should also evaluate dosages received compared with dosages requested and contact the provider if the dose or frequency is not adequate. Only the client should push the pain button on a PCA pump.

11. A nurse assesses a client who has cholecystitis. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the condition is chronic rather than acute? a. Temperature of 100.1 F (37.8 C) b. Positive Murphys sign c. Light-colored stools d. Upper abdominal pain after eating

C Jaundice, clay-colored stools, and dark urine are more commonly seen with chronic cholecystitis. The other symptoms are seen equally with both chronic and acute cholecystitis.

14. A nurse prepares to discharge a client with chronic pancreatitis. Which question should the nurse ask to ensure safety upon discharge? a. Do you have a one- or two-story home? b. Can you check your own pulse rate? c. Do you have any alcohol in your home? d. Can you prepare your own meals?

A A client recovering from chronic pancreatitis should be limited to one floor until strength and activity increase. The client will need a bathroom on the same floor for frequent defecation. Assessing pulse rate and preparation of meals is not specific to chronic pancreatitis. Although the client should be encouraged to stop drinking alcoholic beverages, asking about alcohol availability is not adequate to assess this clients safety.

8. After teaching a client who has been diagnosed with hepatitis A, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. Some medications have been known to cause hepatitis A. b. I may have been exposed when we ate shrimp last weekend. c. I was infected with hepatitis A through a recent blood transfusion. d. My infection with Epstein-Barr virus can co-infect me with hepatitis A.

B The route of acquisition of hepatitis A infection is through close personal contact or ingestion of contaminated water or shellfish. Hepatitis A is not transmitted through medications, blood transfusions, or Epstein-Barr virus. Toxic and drug-induced hepatitis is caused from exposure to hepatotoxins, but this is not a form of hepatitis A. Hepatitis B can be spread through blood transfusions. Epstein-Barr virus causes a secondary infection that is not associated with hepatitis A.

6. A nurse collaborates with an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to provide care for a client who is in the healing phase of acute pancreatitis. Which statements focused on nutritional requirements should the nurse include when delegating care for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Do not allow the client to eat between meals. b. Make sure the client receives a protein shake. c. Do not allow caffeine-containing beverages. d. Make sure the foods are bland with little spice. e. Do not allow high-carbohydrate food items.

B, C, D During the healing phase of pancreatitis, the client should be provided small, frequent, moderate- to high-carbohydrate, high-protein, low-fat meals. Protein shakes can be provided to supplement the diet. Foods and beverages should not contain caffeine and should be bland.

1. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a Whipple procedure. Which clinical manifestations alert the nurse to a complication from this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Clay-colored stools b. Substernal chest pain c. Shortness of breath d. Lack of bowel sounds or flatus e. Urine output of 20 mL/6 hr

B, C, D, E Myocardial infarction (chest pain), pulmonary embolism (shortness of breath), adynamic ileus (lack of bowel sounds or flatus), and renal failure (urine output of 20 mL/6 hr) are just some of the complications for which the nurse must assess the client after the Whipple procedure. Clay-colored stools are associated with cholecystitis and are not a complication of a Whipple procedure.

9. A nurse prepares to assess the emotional state of a client with end-stage pancreatic cancer. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Bring the client to a quiet room for privacy. b. Pull up a chair and sit next to the clients bed. c. Determine whether the client feels like talking about his or her feelings. d. Review the health care providers notes about the prognosis for the client.

C Before conducting an assessment about the clients feelings, the nurse should determine whether he or she is willing and able to talk about them. If the client is open to the conversation and his or her room is not appropriate, an alternative meeting space may be located. The nurse should be present for the client during this time, and pulling up a chair and sitting with the client indicates that presence. Because the nurse is assessing the clients response to a terminal diagnosis, it is not necessary to have detailed information about the projected prognosis; the nurse knows that the client is facing an end-of-life illness.

18. A nurse cares for a client who has chronic cirrhosis from substance abuse. The client states, All of my family hates me. How should the nurse respond? a. You should make peace with your family. b. This is not unusual. My family hates me too. c. I will help you identify a support system. d. You must attend Alcoholics Anonymous.

C Clients who have chronic cirrhosis may have alienated relatives over the years because of substance abuse. The nurse should assist the client to identify a friend, neighbor, or person in his or her recovery group for support. The nurse should not minimize the clients concerns by brushing off the clients comment. Attending AA may be appropriate, but this response doesnt address the clients concern. Making peace with the clients family may not be possible. This statement is not client-centered.

10. A nurse assesses clients at a community health center. Which client is at highest risk for pancreatic cancer? a. A 32-year-old with hypothyroidism b. A 44-year-old with cholelithiasis c. A 50-year-old who has the BRCA2 gene mutation d. A 68-year-old who is of African-American ethnicity

C Mutations in both the BRCA2 and p16 genes increase the risk for developing pancreatic cancer in a small number of cases. The other factors do not appear to be linked to increased risk.

13. A nurse cares for a client with acute pancreatitis. The client states, I am hungry. How should the nurse reply? a. Is your stomach rumbling or do you have bowel sounds? b. I need to check your gag reflex before you can eat. c. Have you passed any flatus or moved your bowels? d. You will not be able to eat until the pain subsides.

C Paralytic ileus is a common complication of acute pancreatitis. The client should not eat until this has resolved. Bowel sounds and decreased pain are not reliable indicators of peristalsis. Instead, the nurse should assess for passage of flatus or bowel movement.

11. After teaching a client who has plans to travel to a non-industrialized country, the nurse assesses the clients understanding regarding the prevention of viral hepatitis. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. I should drink bottled water during my travels. b. I will not eat off anothers plate or share utensils. c. I should eat plenty of fresh fruits and vegetables. d. I will wash my hands frequently and thoroughly.

C The client should be advised to avoid fresh, raw fruits and vegetables because they can be contaminated by tap water. Drinking bottled water, and not sharing plates, glasses, or eating utensils are good ways to prevent illness, as is careful handwashing.

3. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a paracentesis 1 hour ago. Which assessment finding requires action by the nurse? a. Urine output via indwelling urinary catheter is 20 mL/hr b. Blood pressure increases from 110/58 to 120/62 mm Hg c. Respiratory rate decreases from 18 to 14 breaths/min d. A decrease in the clients weight by 6 kg

A Rapid removal of ascetic fluid causes decreased abdominal pressure, which can contribute to hypovolemia. This can be manifested by a decrease in urine output to below 30 mL/hr. A slight increase in systolic blood pressure is insignificant. A decrease in respiratory rate indicates that breathing has been made easier by the procedure. The nurse would expect the clients weight to drop as fluid is removed. Six kilograms is less than 3 pounds and is expected.

1. A nurse obtains a clients health history at a community health clinic. Which statement alerts the nurse to provide health teaching to this client? a. I drink two glasses of red wine each week. b. I take a lot of Tylenol for my arthritis pain. c. I have a cousin who died of liver cancer. d. I got a hepatitis vaccine before traveling.

B Acetaminophen (Tylenol) can cause liver damage if taken in large amounts. Clients should be taught not to exceed 4000 mg/day of acetaminophen. The nurse should teach the client about this limitation and should explore other drug options with the client to manage his or her arthritis pain. Two glasses of wine each week, a cousin with liver cancer, and the hepatitis vaccine do not place the client at risk for a liver disorder, and therefore do not require any health teaching.

3. A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from acute pancreatitis. Which statements should the nurse include in this clients teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Take a 20-minute walk at least 5 days each week. b. Attend local Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) meetings weekly. c. Choose whole grains rather than foods with simple sugars. d. Use cooking spray when you cook rather than margarine or butter. e. Stay away from milk and dairy products that contain lactose. f. We can talk to your doctor about a prescription for nicotine patches.

B, D, F The client should be advised to stay sober, and AA is a great resource. The client requires a low-fat diet, and cooking spray is low in fat compared with butter or margarine. If the client smokes, he or she must stop because nicotine can precipitate an exacerbation. A nicotine patch may help the client quit smoking. The client must rest until his or her strength returns. The client requires high carbohydrates and calories for healing; complex carbohydrates are not preferred over simple ones. Dairy products do not cause a problem.

4. A nurse cares for a client who presents with tachycardia and prostration related to biliary colic. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Contact the provider immediately. b. Lower the head of the bed. c. Decrease intravenous fluids. d. Ask the client to bear down. e. Administer prescribed opioids.

A, B Clients who are experiencing biliary colic may present with tachycardia, pallor, diaphoresis, prostration, or other signs of shock. The nurse should stay with the client, lower the clients head, and contact the provider or Rapid Response Team for immediate assistance. Treatment for shock usually includes intravenous fluids; therefore, decreasing fluids would be an incorrect intervention. The clients tachycardia is a result of shock, not pain. Performing the vagal maneuver or administering opioids could knock out the clients compensation mechanism.

5. A nurse plans care for a client who has hepatopulmonary syndrome. Which interventions should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Oxygen therapy b. Prone position c. Feet elevated on pillows d. Daily weights e. Physical therapy

A, C, D Care for a client who has hepatopulmonary syndrome should include oxygen therapy, the head of bed elevated at least 30 degrees or as high as the client wants to improve breathing, elevated feet to decrease dependent edema, and daily weights. There is no need to place the client in a prone position, on the clients stomach. Although physical therapy may be helpful to a client who has been hospitalized for several days, physical therapy is not an intervention specifically for hepatopulmonary syndrome.

7. A nurse cares for a client with pancreatic cancer who is prescribed implanted radioactive iodine seeds. Which actions should the nurse take when caring for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Dispose of dirty linen in a red biohazard bag. b. Place the client in a private room. c. Wear a lead apron when providing client care. d. Bundle care to minimize exposure to the client. e. Initiate Transmission-Based Precautions.

B, C, D The client should be placed in a private room and dirty linens kept in the clients room until the radiation source is removed. The nurse should wear a lead apron while providing care, ensuring that the apron always faces the client. The nurse should also bundle care to minimize exposure to the client. Transmission-Based Precautions will not protect the nurse from the implanted radioactive iodine seeds.

6. An emergency room nurse assesses a client with potential liver trauma. Which clinical manifestations should alert the nurse to internal bleeding and hypovolemic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension b. Tachycardia c. Flushed skin d. Confusion e. Shallow respirations

B, D Symptoms of hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock include hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, pallor, diaphoresis, cool and clammy skin, and confusion.

13. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of carcinoma of the liver? a. A 22-year-old with a history of blunt liver trauma b. A 48-year-old with a history of diabetes mellitus c. A 66-year-old who has a history of cirrhosis d. An 82-year-old who has chronic malnutrition

C The risk of contracting a primary carcinoma of the liver is higher in clients with cirrhosis from any cause. Blunt liver trauma, diabetes mellitus, and chronic malnutrition do not increase a persons risk for developing liver cancer.

3. A nurse delegates hygiene care for a client who has advanced cirrhosis to an unlicensed nursing personnel (UAP). Which statements should the nurse include when delegating this task to the UAP? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply lotion to the clients dry skin areas. b. Use a basin with warm water to bathe the client. c. For the clients oral care, use a soft toothbrush. d. Provide clippers so the client can trim the fingernails. e. Bathe with antibacterial and water-based soaps.

A, C, D Clients with advanced cirrhosis often have pruritus. Lotion will help decrease itchiness from dry skin. A soft toothbrush should be used to prevent gum bleeding, and the clients nails should be trimmed short to prevent the client from scratching himself or herself. These clients should use cool, not warm, water on their skin, and should not use excessive amounts of soap.

5. A nurse plans care for a client who has acute pancreatitis and is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO). With which health care team members should the nurse collaborate to provide appropriate nutrition to this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Registered dietitian b. Nursing assistant c. Clinical pharmacist d. Certified herbalist e. Health care provider

A, C, E Clients who are prescribed NPO while experiencing an acute pancreatitis episode may need enteral or parenteral nutrition. The nurse should collaborate with the registered dietitian, clinical pharmacist, and health care provider to plan and implement the more appropriate nutritional interventions. The nursing assistant and certified herbalist would not assist with this clinical decision.

2. After teaching a client who is recovering from laparoscopic cholecystectomy surgery, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. Drinking at least 2 liters of water each day is suggested. b. I will decrease the amount of fatty foods in my diet. c. Drinking fluids with my meals will increase bloating. d. I will avoid concentrated sweets and simple carbohydrates.

B After cholecystectomy, clients need a nutritious diet without a lot of excess fat; otherwise a special diet is not recommended for most clients. Good fluid intake is healthy for all people but is not related to the surgery. Drinking fluids between meals helps with dumping syndrome, which is not seen with this procedure. Restriction of sweets is not required.

2. A nurse assesses a client with cholelithiasis. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as contributors to this clients condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Body mass index of 46 b. Vegetarian diet c. Drinking 4 ounces of red wine nightly d. Pregnant with twins e. History of metabolic syndrome f. Glycosylated hemoglobin level of 15%

A, D, F Obesity, pregnancy, and diabetes are all risk factors for the development of cholelithiasis. A diet low in saturated fats and moderate alcohol intake may decrease the risk. Although metabolic syndrome is a precursor to diabetes, it is not a risk factor for cholelithiasis. The client should be informed of the connection.

2. A nurse cares for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver. Which action should the nurse take to decrease the presence of ascites? a. Monitor intake and output. b. Provide a low-sodium diet. c. Increase oral fluid intake. d. Weigh the client daily.

B A low-sodium diet is one means of controlling abdominal fluid collection. Monitoring intake and output does not control fluid accumulation, nor does weighing the client. These interventions merely assess or monitor the situation. Increasing fluid intake would not be helpful.

19. A nurse cares for a client with hepatitis C. The clients brother states, I do not want to contract this infection, so I will not go into his hospital room. How should the nurse respond? a. If you wear a gown and gloves, you will not get this virus. b. Viral hepatitis is not spread through casual contact. c. This virus is only transmitted through a fecal specimen. d. I can give you an update on your brothers status from here.

B Although family members may be afraid that they will contract hepatitis C, the nurse should educate the clients family about how the virus is spread. Viral hepatitis, or hepatitis C, is spread via blood-to-blood transmission and is associated with illicit IV drug needle sharing, blood and organ transplantation, accidental needle sticks, unsanitary tattoo equipment, and sharing of intranasal cocaine paraphernalia. Wearing a gown and gloves will not decrease the transmission of this virus. Hepatitis C is not spread through casual contact or a fecal specimen. The nurse would be violating privacy laws by sharing the clients status with the brother.

15. After teaching a client who has alcohol-induced cirrhosis, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. I cannot drink any alcohol at all anymore. b. I need to avoid protein in my diet. c. I should not take over-the-counter medications. d. I should eat small, frequent, balanced meals.

B Based on the degree of liver involvement and decreased function, protein intake may have to be decreased. However, some protein is necessary for the synthesis of albumin and normal healing. The other statements indicate accurate understanding of self-care measures for this client.

14. A telehealth nurse speaks with a client who is recovering from a liver transplant 2 weeks ago. The client states, I am experiencing right flank pain and have a temperature of 101 F. How should the nurse respond? a. The anti-rejection drugs you are taking make you susceptible to infection. b. You should go to the hospital immediately to have your new liver checked out. c. You should take an additional dose of cyclosporine today. d. Take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours until you feel better.

B Fever, right quadrant or flank pain, and jaundice are signs of liver transplant rejection; the client should be admitted to the hospital as soon as possible for intervention. Anti-rejection drugs do make a client more susceptible to infection, but this client has signs of rejection, not infection. The nurse should not advise the client to take an additional dose of cyclosporine or acetaminophen as these medications will not treat the acute rejection.

4. A nurse cares for a client who is hemorrhaging from bleeding esophageal varices and has an esophagogastric tube. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Sedate the client to prevent tube dislodgement. b. Maintain balloon pressure at 15 and 20 mm Hg. c. Irrigate the gastric lumen with normal saline. d. Assess the client for airway patency.

D Maintaining airway patency is the primary nursing intervention for this client. The nurse suctions oral secretions to prevent aspiration and occlusion of the airway. The client usually is intubated and mechanically ventilated during this treatment. The client should be sedated, balloon pressure should be maintained between 15 and 20 mm Hg, and the lumen can be irrigated with saline or tap water. However, these are not a higher priority than airway patency.

15. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as at high risk for pancreatic cancer? a. A 26-year-old with a body mass index of 21 b. A 33-year-old who frequently eats sushi c. A 48-year-old who often drinks wine d. A 66-year-old who smokes cigarettes

D Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include obesity, older age, high intake of red meat, and cigarette smoking. Sushi and wine intake are not risk factors for pancreatic cancer.

16. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a Whipple procedure. Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Drainage from a fistula b. Absent bowel sounds c. Pain at the incision site d. Nasogastric (NG) tube drainage

A Complications of a Whipple procedure include secretions that drain from a fistula and peritonitis. Absent bowel sounds, pain at the incision site, and NG tube drainage are normal postoperative findings.

9. A nurse assesses clients at a community health fair. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of hepatitis B? a. A 20-year-old college student who has had several sexual partners b. A 46-year-old woman who takes acetaminophen daily for headaches c. A 63-year-old businessman who travels frequently across the country d. An 82-year-old woman who recently ate raw shellfish for dinner

A Hepatitis B can be spread through sexual contact, needle sharing, needle sticks, blood transfusions, hemodialysis, acupuncture, and the maternal-fetal route. A person with multiple sexual partners has more opportunities to contract the infection. Hepatitis B is not transmitted through medications, casual contact with other travelers, or raw shellfish. Although an overdose of acetaminophen can cause liver cirrhosis, this is not associated with hepatitis B. Hepatitis E is found most frequently in international travelers. Hepatitis A is spread through ingestion of contaminated shellfish.

1. A nurse cares for a client who has obstructive jaundice. The client asks, Why is my skin so itchy? How should the nurse respond? a. Bile salts accumulate in the skin and cause the itching. b. Toxins released from an inflamed gallbladder lead to itching. c. Itching is caused by the release of calcium into the skin. d. Itching is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction.

A In obstructive jaundice, the normal flow of bile into the duodenum is blocked, allowing excess bile salts to accumulate on the skin. This leads to itching, or pruritus. The other statements are not accurate.

8. A nurse cares for a client with end-stage pancreatic cancer. The client asks, Why is this happening to me? How should the nurse respond? a. I dont know. I wish I had an answer for you, but I dont. b. Its important to keep a positive attitude for your family right now. c. Scientists have not determined why cancer develops in certain people. d. I think that this is a trial so you can become a better person because of it.

A The client is not asking the nurse to actually explain why the cancer has occurred. The client may be expressing his or her feelings of confusion, frustration, distress, and grief related to this diagnosis. Reminding the client to keep a positive attitude for his or her family does not address the clients emotions or current concerns. The nurse should validate that there is no easy or straightforward answer as to why the client has cancer. Telling a client that cancer is a trial is untrue and may diminish the client-nurse relationship.

3. A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from laparoscopic cholecystectomy surgery. The client reports pain in the shoulder blades. How should the nurse respond? a. Ambulating in the hallway twice a day will help. b. I will apply a cold compress to the painful area on your back. c. Drinking a warm beverage can relieve this referred pain. d. You should cough and deep breathe every hour.

A The client who has undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy may report free air pain due to retention of carbon dioxide in the abdomen. The nurse assists the client with early ambulation to promote absorption of the carbon dioxide. Cold compresses and drinking a warm beverage would not be helpful. Coughing and deep breathing are important postoperative activities, but they are not related to discomfort from carbon dioxide.

16. A nurse cares for a client with hepatopulmonary syndrome who is experiencing dyspnea with oxygen saturations at 92%. The client states, I do not want to wear the oxygen because it causes my nose to bleed. Get out of my room and leave me alone! Which action should the nurse take? a. Instruct the client to sit in as upright a position as possible. b. Add humidity to the oxygen and encourage the client to wear it. c. Document the clients refusal, and call the health care provider. d. Contact the provider to request an extra dose of the clients diuretic.

A The client with hepatopulmonary syndrome is often dyspneic. Because the oxygen saturation is not significantly low, the nurse should first allow the client to sit upright to see if that helps. If the client remains dyspneic, or if the oxygen saturation drops further, the nurse should investigate adding humidity to the oxygen and seeing whether the client will tolerate that. The other two options may be beneficial, but they are not the best choices. If the client is comfortable, his or her agitation will decrease; this will improve respiratory status.

7. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed lactulose (Heptalac). The client states, I do not want to take this medication because it causes diarrhea. How should the nurse respond? a. Diarrhea is expected; thats how your body gets rid of ammonia. b. You may take Kaopectate liquid daily for loose stools. c. Do not take any more of the medication until your stools firm up. d. We will need to send a stool specimen to the laboratory.

A The purpose of administering lactulose to this client is to help ammonia leave the circulatory system through the colon. Lactulose draws water into the bowel with its high osmotic gradient, thereby producing a laxative effect and subsequently evacuating ammonia from the bowel. The client must understand that this is an expected and therapeutic effect for him or her to remain compliant. The nurse should not suggest administering anything that would decrease the excretion of ammonia or holding the medication. There is no need to send a stool specimen to the laboratory because diarrhea is the therapeutic response to this medication.

10. A nurse teaches a client with hepatitis C who is prescribed ribavirin (Copegus). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients discharge education? a. Use a pill organizer to ensure you take this medication as prescribed. b. Transient muscle aching is a common side effect of this medication. c. Follow up with your provider in 1 week to test your blood for toxicity. d. Take your radial pulse for 1 minute prior to taking this medication.

A Treatment of hepatitis C with ribavirin takes up to 48 weeks, making compliance a serious issue. The nurse should work with the client on a strategy to remain compliant for this length of time. Muscle aching is not a common side effect. The client will be on this medication for many weeks and does not need a blood toxicity examination. There is no need for the client to assess his or her radial pulse prior to taking the medication.

7. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an open Whipple procedure. Which action should the nurse perform first? a. Assess the clients endotracheal tube with 40% FiO2. b. Insert an indwelling Foley catheter to gravity drainage. c. Place the clients nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. d. Start lactated Ringers solution through an intravenous catheter.

A Using the ABCs, airway and oxygenation status should always be assessed first, so checking the endotracheal tube is the first action. Next, the nurse should start the IV line (circulation). After that, the Foley catheter can be inserted and the nasogastric tube can be set.

1. An infection control nurse develops a plan to decrease the number of health care professionals who contract viral hepatitis at work. Which ideas should the nurse include in this plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Policies related to consistent use of Standard Precautions b. Hepatitis vaccination mandate for workers in high-risk areas c. Implementation of a needleless system for intravenous therapy d. Number of sharps used in client care reduced where possible e. Postexposure prophylaxis provided in a timely manner

A, C, D, E Nurses should always use Standard Precautions for client care, and policies should reflect this. Needleless systems and reduction of sharps can help prevent hepatitis. Postexposure prophylaxis should be provided immediately. All health care workers should receive the hepatitis vaccinations that are available.

17. A nurse cares for a client who is scheduled for a paracentesis. Which intervention should the nurse delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Have the client sign the informed consent form. b. Assist the client to void before the procedure. c. Help the client lie flat in bed on the right side. d. Get the client into a chair after the procedure.

B For safety, the client should void just before a paracentesis. The nurse or the provider should have the client sign the consent form. The proper position for a paracentesis is sitting upright in bed or, alternatively, sitting on the side of the bed and leaning over the bedside table. The client will be on bedrest after the procedure.

17. A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from an open Whipple procedure. Which action should the nurse take? a. Clamp the nasogastric tube. b. Place the client in semi-Fowlers position. c. Assess vital signs once every shift. d. Provide oral rehydration.

B Postoperative care for a client recovering from an open Whipple procedure should include placing the client in a semi-Fowlers position to reduce tension on the suture line and anastomosis sites, setting the nasogastric tube to low suction to remove free air buildup and pressure, assessing vital signs frequently to assess fluid and electrolyte complications, and providing intravenous fluids.

5. A nurse plans care for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention should the nurse include in this clients plan of care to reduce discomfort? a. Administer morphine sulfate intravenously every 4 hours as needed. b. Maintain nothing by mouth (NPO) and administer intravenous fluids. c. Provide small, frequent feedings with no concentrated sweets. d. Place the client in semi-Fowlers position with the head of bed elevated.

B The client should be kept NPO to reduce GI activity and reduce pancreatic enzyme production. IV fluids should be used to prevent dehydration. The client may need a nasogastric tube. Pain medications should be given around the clock and more frequently than every 4 to 6 hours. A fetal position with legs drawn up to the chest will promote comfort.

12. An emergency room nurse assesses a client after a motor vehicle crash. The nurse notices a steering wheel mark across the clients chest. Which action should the nurse take? a. Ask the client where in the car he or she was sitting during the crash. b. Assess the client by gently palpating the abdomen for tenderness. c. Notify the laboratory to draw blood for blood type and crossmatch. d. Place the client on the stretcher in reverse Trendelenburg position.

B The liver is often injured by a steering wheel in a motor vehicle crash. Because the clients chest was marked by the steering wheel, the nurse should perform an abdominal assessment. Assessing the clients position in the crash is not needed because of the steering wheel imprint. The client may or may not need a blood transfusion. The client does not need to be in reverse Trendelenburg position.

6. After teaching a client who is prescribed pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. The capsules can be opened and the powder sprinkled on applesauce if needed. b. I will wipe my lips carefully after I drink the enzyme preparation. c. The best time to take the enzymes is immediately after I have a meal or a snack. d. I will not mix the enzyme powder with food or liquids that contain protein.

C The enzymes should be taken immediately before eating meals or snacks. If the client cannot swallow the capsules whole, they can be opened up and the powder sprinkled on applesauce, mashed fruit, or rice cereal. The client should wipe his or her lips carefully after drinking the enzyme preparation because the liquid could damage the skin. Protein items will be dissolved by the enzymes if they are mixed together.