ITIL4 Foundation
7. What is an event? a) The addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services b) Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration item c) Cause of one or more incidents d) An unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in the quality of a service
Answer B Explanations:An event is defined as any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration item (CI).
3. Which activity captures the demand for incident resolution and service requests? a) Change control b) Problem management c) Service desk d) Service catalogue management
Answer C Explanations:The purpose of the service desk practice is to capture the demand for incident resolution and service requests.
How does categorization of incidents assist the incident management practice? a) It helps direct the incident to the correct support area. b) It determines the priority assigned to the incident. c) It ensures that incidents are resolved in timescales agreed with the customer. d) It determines how the service provider is perceived.
Answer: A Explanations:More complex incidents will usually be escalated to a support team for resolution. Typically, the routing is based on the incident category, which should help to identify the correct team.
Which of the following is NOT an activity of supplier management? a) Contract negotiation and agreement. b) To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users. c) Service operation. d) To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided.
Answer: A Explanations:SLM is a vital process for every IT service provider organization in that it is responsible for agreeing and documenting service level targets and responsibilities within SLAs and service level requirements (SLRs) for every service and related activity within IT.
13. Which ITIL concept describes governance? a) The seven guiding principles b) The four dimensions of service management c) The service value chain d) The service value system
Answer: A Explanations:The ITIL Service Value System (SVS) describes how all the components and activities of the organization work together as a system to enable value creation. It includes governance, ITIL guiding principles, service value chain, practice, and continual improvement.
What is the purpose of service level management? a) To ensure that all current and planned IT services are delivered to agreed achievable targets. b) To obtain/build activity that ensures the service components are available when and where they are needed and meet agreed specifications. c) To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels. d) To track and manage improvement ideas from identification to final action, organizations use a database or structured document called a continual improvement register (CIR).
Answer: A Explanations:The purpose of the SLM process is to ensure that all current and planned IT services are delivered to agreed achievable targets. This is accomplished through a constant cycle of negotiating, agreeing, monitoring, reporting on and reviewing IT service targets and achievements, and through the instigation of actions to correct or improve the level of service delivered.
10. What are the types of asset management? a) IT asset management and software asset management b) IT asset management and technical management c) Operational management and IT asset management d) Operational and technical management
Answer: A Explanations:The two types of asset management are IT asset management (ITAM) and software asset management (SAM).
12. What is the best way to track and manage improvements? a) Use a structured document called a continual improvement register b) Appoint a leader for managing the improvements c) Ask everyone to track and manage improvements initiated by them d) Don't track and manage improvements
Answer: A Explanations:To track and manage improvement ideas from identification to final action, organizations use a database or structured document called a continual improvement register (CIR).
21. What is a workaround? a) A tangible or intangible deliverable that is produced by carrying out an activity. b) Temporary solutions aimed at reducing or eliminating the impact of Known Errors (and thus Problems) for which a full resolution is not yet available. c) A possible event that could cause harm or loss or make it more difficult to achieve objectives d) Problem control activities that includes problem analysis and documenting workarounds and known errors.
Answer: B Explanations:A workaround is a temporary way to restore service failures to a usable level. ... The workarounds are used for reducing or eliminating the Impact of an Incident or Problem for which a full Resolution is not yet available. Workarounds could be found while trying to resolve incidents or problems.
Which is a potential benefit of using an IT service management tool to support the 'incident management' practice? a) It may ensure that the cause of incidents is identified within agreed times. b) It may provide automated matching of incidents to problems or known errors. c) It may ensure that supplier contracts are aligned with the needs of the service provider. d) It may provide automated resolution and closure of complex incidents.
Answer: B Explanations:Modern IT service management tools can provide automated matching of incidents to other incidents, problems or known errors.
20. Arrange the following steps of software lifecycle in correct order.1. Retire 2. Test 3. Operate 4. Deploy 5. Ideation 6. Develop 7. Design a) Retire, Test, Operate, Deploy, Ideation, Develop, Design b) Ideation, Design, Develop, Deploy, Test, Operate, Retire c) Ideation, Test, Develop, Deploy, Design, Operate, Retire d) None of the above
Answer: B Explanations:Software lifecycle has following steps- Ideation, Design, Develop, Deploy, Test, Operate, Retire
8. Which of the following is a standard change? a) Resolving an incident or implementing a security patch b) Moving a desktop for a single user c) Increasing the memory of a server to avoid an incident d) Uninstalling a new patch that has caused a high-priority incident
Answer: B Explanations:Standard changes are low risk and low cost and also occur frequently. Option B is thus a standard change.
Which practice ensures that stakeholders' needs are understood and product and services are prioritized appropriately? a) Continual improvement b) Relationship management c) Change control d) Service desk
Answer: B Explanations:The purpose of the relationship management practice is to establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels. This practice ensures that stakeholders needs and drivers are understood and products and services are prioritized appropriately.
Which two needs should change control balance? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4
Answer: C Explanations:Change control must balance the need to make beneficial changes that will deliver additional value with the need to protect customers and users from the adverse effect of changes.
22. Which practice identifies metrics that reflect a customer experience of a service? a) Continual improvement. b) Service desk c) Service level management d) Problem management
Answer: C Explanations:Service level management identifies metrics and measures that are a truthful reflection of the customer's actual experience and level of satisfaction with the whole service, and "Engagement is needed to understand and confirm the actual ongoing needs and requirements of customers, not simply what is interpreted by the service provider or has been agreed several years before.
4. Which value chain activity ensures the availability of service components? a) Improve b) Engage c) Obtain/build d) Deliver and support
Answer: C Explanations:The obtain/build activity ensures that the service components are available when and where they are needed and meet agreed specifications.
What is the purpose of problem management? a) Helps direct the incident to the correct support area b) Reduces the likelihood and impact of incidents c) Ensures services are restored as soon as possible d) Determines how the service provider is perceived
Answer: C Explanations:The purpose of problem management is to reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents and managing workarounds and known errors.
Which practice provides a single point of contact for users? a) Incident management. b) Change control. c) Service desk. d) Service request management.
Answer: C Explanations:The purpose of the service desk practice is to capture demand for incident resolution and service requests. It should also be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its users
6. New or changed components are deployed to all targets at the same time. Which type of deployment approach does this statement represent?" a) Phased deployment b) Continuous delivery c) Big bang deployment d) Pull deployment
Answer: C Explanations:The statement New or changed components are deployed to all targets at the same time" corresponds to big bang deployment apporach."
Which of the following is an example of workaround? a) Server memory is increased when the server is unresponsive b) A defective network switch is replaced with a new one c) A server is restarted to resolve an incident d) An email server is restored after an incident is reported
Answer: C Explanations:Workaround is a temporary solution applied to an incident. Options one, two, and four are the permanent solutions, while option three is a temporary one.
5. Which of the following is an example of incident? a) A user wants to reset the password of a server b) A user has requested access to a shared repository c) A backup server is being rebooted while services are running on the primary server d) An application is not available during the business hours
Answer: D Explanations:Options a and b are examples of service request, while option c is a routine activity with no interruption in service. Option d is an incident as an incident is an unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in the quality of a service.
Which of the following can be used to access service desks? a) Phone calls b) Email c) Text and social media messaging d) All of the above
Answer: D Explanations:Service desks provide a variety of channels for access, which include phone calls, service portals and mobile applications, walk-in service desks, chat, and emails.
2. What is the definition of utility? a) A tangible or intangible deliverable that is produced by carrying out an activity b) The assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements c) A possible event that could cause harm or loss or make it more difficult to achieve objectives d) The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need
Answer: D Explanations:Utility determines whether a service or product is fit for use or not. It is the functionality offered by service or product.
15. Which of the following is NOT a key skillset required for service desk agents? a) Effective communication b) Empathy c) Customer service skills d) Technical skills
Answer: D Explanations:While empathy, excellent customer service, and effective communication are some of the key skills of service desk, it may not be highly technical.
11. Which of the following are problem control activities? 1. Performing trend analysis of incident records 2. Preassessing the status of known errors that have not been resolved 3. Prioritizing problems for analysis based on the risk 4. Finding and documenting a workaround for future incidents when a problem cannot be resolved quickly a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 and 4
Answer: D 3. Prioritizing problems for analysis based on the risk 4. Finding and documenting a workaround for future incidents when a problem cannot be resolved Explanations:Problem control activities include problem analysis and documenting workarounds and known errors.
