ITN Final Exam Questions
Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.) 64.102.90.23 127.0.0.1 172.19.20.5 192.0.2.123 169.254.1.5 240.2.6.255 a link-local address a TEST-NET address an experimental address a private address a loopback address
169.254.1.5 a link-local address 192.0.2.123 a TEST-NET address 240.2.6.255 an experimental address 172.19.20.5 a private address 127.0.0.1 a loopback address Explanation: Link-Local addresses are assigned automatically by the OS environment and are located in the block 169.254.0.0/16. The private addresses ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. TEST-NET addresses belong to the range 192.0.2.0/24. The addresses in the block 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.254 are reserved as experimental addresses. Loopback addresses belong to the block 127.0.0.0/8.
Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?
192.168.1.64/26 Explanation: For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.
What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?
1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been given the network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet across the four networks shown. How many total host addresses are unused across all four subnets? Network A (30 Hosts) R1 Network C R2 Network B R2 Network D (14 Hosts)
200 Explanation: The network IP address 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 provides 62 usable IP addresses for each subnet. Subnet A needs 30 host addresses. There are 32 addresses wasted. Subnet B uses 2 of the 62 available IP addresses, because it is a serial link. Consequently, it wastes 60 addresses. Likewise, subnet C wastes 60 addresses. Subnet D needs 14 addresses, so it wastes 48 addresses. The total wasted addresses are 32+60+60+48=200 addresses.
What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?
2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64 Explanation: The /64 represents the network and subnet IPv6 fields. The fourth field of hexadecimal digits is referred to as the subnet ID. The subnet ID for this address is 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::0/64.
A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
255.255.255.0
A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices: Subnetwork A: IP phones - 10 addresses Subnetwork B: PCs - 8 addresses Subnetwork C: Printers - 2 addressesWhat single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?
255.255.255.128 Explanation: The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts in it so the subnet mask must have at least 7 host bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8 hosts bits, but this does not meet the requirement of providing the maximum number of subnets.
A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 61 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
255.255.255.192
A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
255.255.255.224
A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices: IP phones - 22 addressesPCs - 20 addresses neededPrinters - 2 addresses neededScanners - 2 addresses needed The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?
255.255.255.224 Explanation: If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be examined for the number of hosts, which in this case is 22 hosts. Thus, 5 host bits are needed. The /27 or 255.255.255.224 subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these networks.
Questions to review
82, 80, 77, 76, 59, 86, 96, 104, 106, 118. 131, 146
What service is provided by HTTP?
A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.
What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting. All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium. After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)
A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table. The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet.
Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window. Explanation: The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct application and window within that application.
Match each description with the corresponding TCP mechanism. (Not all options are used.) Number of bytes a destination device can accept and process at one time Used to identify missing segments of data Method of managing segments of data loss Received by a send before transmitting more segments in a session Acknowledgement Retransmission FCS Sequence Number Window Size
Acknowledgement Received by a send before transmitting more segments in a session Retransmission Method of managing segments of data loss Sequence Number Used to identify missing segments of data Window Size Number of bytes a destination device can accept and process at one time
What service is provided by Internet Messenger?
An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)
Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. Perform the capture on different network segments. Explanation: Traffic flow patterns should be gathered during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. The capture should also be performed on different network segments because some traffic will be local to a particular segment.
What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted. Answers Explanation & Hints: The transport input ssh command when entered on the switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.
An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)
Configure the IP domain name on the router. Generate the SSH keys. Enable inbound vty SSH sessions. Explanation: There are four steps to configure SSH support on a Cisco router:Step 1: Set the domain name.Step 2: Generate one-way secret keys.Step 3: Create a local username and password.Step 4: Enable SSH inbound on a vty line.
Match each type of frame field to its function. (Not all options are used.) Always stores the entire frame Check the CRC before forwarding Checks the frame length before forwarding Does not forward broadcasts Has low latency May forward runt frames Begins forwarding when the destination address is received Cut-through Store-and-Forward
Cut-through Has low latency May forward runt frames Begins forwarding when the destination address is received Store-and-Forward Always stores the entire frame Check the CRC before forwarding Checks the frame length before forwarding Does not forward broadcasts
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?
DHCP
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 53. What service is the client requesting?
DNS
Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS, AAAA, and MX in order to provide services?
DNS Explanation: A DNS server stores records that are used to resolve IP addresses to host names. Some DNS record types include the following: A - an end device IPv4 address NS - an authoritative name server AAAA - an end device IPv6 address MX - a mail exchange record
Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)
Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another. Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.
Which two statements describe features of an IPv4 routing table on a router? (Choose two.)
Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the routing table: C and S . If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry will be included in the routing table with source code S
A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)
EMI RFI Explanation: EMI and RFI signals can distort and corrupt data signals that are carried by copper media. These distortions usually come from radio waves and electromagnetic devices such as motors and florescent lights. Crosstalk is a disturbance that is caused by adjacent wires bundled too close together with the magnetic field of one wire affecting another. Signal attenuation is caused when an electrical signal begins to deteriorate over the length of a copper cable.
A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?
Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter. Answers Explanation & Hints: While at the privileged mode prompt such as Router#, type exit ,press Enter , and the banner message appears. Power cycling a network device that has had the banner motd command issued will also display the banner message, but this is not a quick way to test the configuration.
Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?
FE80::/10 Explanation: Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8.
A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic cabling in a new technology center. Which two issues should be considered before implementing fiber optic media? (Choose two.)
Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires. Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more expensive than copper cabling.
Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component. (Not all options are used.) This part of the address is used by an organization to identify subnets This network portion of the address is assigned by the provider This part of the address is the equivalent to the host portion of an IPv4 address Global routing prefix Subnet Mask Subnet ID Interface ID
Global routing prefix This network portion of the address is assigned by the provider Subnet Mask Subnet ID This part of the address is used by an organization to identify subnets Interface ID This part of the address is the equivalent to the host portion of an IPv4 address
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 143. What service is the client requesting?
IMAP
Match the characteristic to the category. (Not all options are used.) Contained in the Layer 3 header Contained in the Layer 2 header Separated into OUI and unique identifier Separated into a network portion and a unique identifier 32 or 128 bits 48 bits 64 bits IP Address MAC Address
IP Address Separated into a network portion and a unique identifier 32 or 128 bits Contained in the Layer 3 header MAC Address Contained in the Layer 2 header Separated into OUI and unique identifier 48 bits
What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)
IP addresses Layer 1 statuses Explanation: The command show ip interface brief shows the IP address of each interface, as well as the operational status of the interfaces at both Layer 1 and Layer 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed and duplex settings, use the command show running-config interface. Next-hop addresses are displayed in the routing table with the command show ip route, and the MAC address of an interface can be seen with the command show interfaces.
What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)
If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply. If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast. Explanation: When a node encapsulates a data packet into a frame, it needs the destination MAC address. First it determines if the destination device is on the local network or on a remote network. Then it checks the ARP table (not the MAC table) to see if a pair of IP address and MAC address exists for either the destination IP address (if the destination host is on the local network) or the default gateway IP address (if the destination host is on a remote network). If the match does not exist, it generates an ARP broadcast to seek the IP address to MAC address resolution. Because the destination MAC address is unknown, the ARP request is broadcast with the MAC address FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. Either the destination device or the default gateway will respond with its MAC address, which enables the sending node to assemble the frame. If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will discard the packet because a frame cannot be created.
What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?
It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.
What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?
It encourages competition and promotes choices. Explanation: A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a user point of view. If a protocol can only be run on one brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed equipment in a network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An open standard protocol will in general be implemented by a wide range of vendors.
How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?
It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files. Explanation: The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext passwords in the configuration file so that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized users.
A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?
It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network. Explanation: Stateless DHCPv6 or stateful DHCPv6 uses a DHCP server, but Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) does not. A SLAAC client can automatically generate an address that is based on information from local routers via Router Advertisement (RA) messages. Once an address has been assigned to an interface via SLAAC, the client must ensure via Duplicate Address Detection (DAD) that the address is not already in use. It does this by sending out an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message and listening for a response. If a response is received, then it means that another device is already using this address.
What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?
It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.
A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?
It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.
Match the header field with the appropriate layer of the OSI model. (Not all options are used.) Source IP address Destination Port Number Destination Options FCS (Frame Check Sequence) 802.2 header TTL Acknowledgement Number Destination MAC Address Layer 2 Layer 3 Layer 4
Layer 2 802.2 header FCS (Frame Check Sequence) Destination MAC Address Layer 3 TTL Source IP address Layer 4 Acknowledgement Number Destination Port Number
What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?
Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client. Explanation: IMAP and POP are protocols that are used to retrieve email messages. The advantage of using IMAP instead of POP is that when the user connects to an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are downloaded to the client application. IMAP then stores the email messages on the server until the user manually deletes those messages.
Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)
NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion. NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.
Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)
POP DNS
Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.) Requires a specific user interface No dedicated server is required A background service is required Client an server roles are set on a per request basis Device can only function in one role at a time Peer-to-Peer Network Peer-to-Peer Application
Peer-to-Peer Network No dedicated server is required Client an server roles are set on a per request basis Peer-to-Peer Application Client an server roles are set on a per request basis A background service is required Explanation: Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and devices can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis. Because they do not require formalized accounts or permissions, they are best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and background service to be running, and can be used in more diverse situations
Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.) IP address of a server Location of a desktop PC in a classroom USB port on a desktop PC in a classroom Path of cables that connect rooms to wiring closets Physical Topology Diagram Logical Topology Diagram
Physical Topology Diagram Location of a desktop PC in a classroom Path of cables that connect rooms to wiring closets Logical Topology Diagram IP address of a server Explanation: A logical topology diagram typically depicts the IP addressing scheme and groupings of devices and ports. A physical topology diagram shows how those devices are connected to each other and the network, focusing on the physical locations of intermediary devices, configured ports, and cabling.
Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols.
TCP: FTP HTTP SMTP UDP: DHCP TFTP
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 69. What service is the client requesting?
TFTP
What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?
The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.
What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?
The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.
Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers?
The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6. The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
Switch1> con<f>ig t %Invalid Input detected at '^' mark Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?
The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command Answers Explanation & Hints: In order to enter global configuration mode, the command configure terminal , or a shortened version such as config t , must be entered from privileged EXEC mode. In this scenario the administrator is in user EXEC mode, as indicated by the > symbol after the hostname. The administrator would need to use the enable command to move into privileged EXEC mode before entering the configure terminal command.
What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks. Answers Explanation & Hints: When a host needs to send a message to another host located on the same network, it can forward the message directly. However, when a host needs to send a message to a remote network, it must use the router, also known as the default gateway. This is because the data link frame address of the remote destination host cannot be used directly. Instead, the IP packet has to be sent to the router (default gateway) and the router will forward the packet toward its destination. Therefore, if the default gateway is incorrectly configured, the host can communicate with other hosts on the same network, but not with hosts on remote networks.
The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?
The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network. Explanation: A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network. In a switch this is achieved using the command ip default-gateway <ip address>.
Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?
The untwisted length of each wire is too long. Answers Explanation & Hints: When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is terminated, it is important to ensure that the untwisted wires are not too long and that the flexible plastic sheath surrounding the wires is crimped down and not the bare wires. None of the colored wires should be visible from the bottom of the jack.
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.) C:\Windows\system32> tracert 192.168.100.1 Tracing route to 192.168.100.1 over maximum of 30 hops 1 1ms <1ms <1ms 10.10.10.10 2 2ms 2ms 1ms 192.168.1.22 3 2ms <2ms >1ms 192.168.1.62 4 2ms <2ms >1ms 172.16.1.1 5 2ms <2ms >1ms 192.168.100.1 Trace complete
There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1. There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1. Explanation: The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3 connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between the hosts.
Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by each router that receives a packet?
Time-to-Live
Which type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-on disables the local software firewall?
Trojan horse Explanation: A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a memory location than it can hold.
Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)
UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network. The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data. The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC. Explanation: Layer 4 port numbers identify the application or service which will handle the data. The source port number is added by the sending device and will be the destination port number when the requested information is returned. Layer 4 segments are encapsulated within IP packets. UDP, not TCP, is used when low overhead is needed. A source IP address, not a TCP source port number, identifies the sending host on the network. Destination port numbers are specific ports that a server application or service monitors for requests.
What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware? (Choose two.)
Update the operating system and other application software. Install and update antivirus software. Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist must be aware of the technologies and measures that are used as countermeasures to protect the organization from threats and vulnerabilities.
What service is provided by HTTPS?
Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate requirements making it popular in home automation applications?
ZigBee
An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?
all IPv6 configured routers on the local link
Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
application session presentation Explanation: The TCP/IP model and OSI model perform similar functions. However, the TCP/IP model uses four layers and the OSI model uses seven layers. The layers in each model can be mapped to each other as follows: OSI application -> TCP/IP applicationOSI presentation -> TCP/IP applicationOSI session -> TCP/IP applicationOSI transport -> TCP/IP transportOSI network -> TCP/IP internetOSI data link -> TCP/IP network accessOSI physical -> TCP/IP network access
What characteristic describes antispyware?
applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software
Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?
audio conference, financial transactions, web page Explanation: QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue management strategies that enforce priorities for different categories of application data. Thus, this queuing enables voice data to have priority over transaction data, which has priority over web data.
A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?
authorization Explanation: After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.
What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two.)
directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks providing end devices with a unique network identifier
What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)
does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection operates independently of the network media Explanation: The Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best effort protocol. This means that IP requires no end-to-end connection nor does it guarantee delivery of packets. IP is also media independent, which means it operates independently of the network media carrying the packets.
Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?
frame check sequence field
Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection
Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection applies delimiting of Ethernet frame fields to synchronize communication between nodes
What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
loss of signal strength as distance increases Answers Explanation & Hints: Data is transmitted on copper cables as electrical pulses. A detector in the network interface of a destination device must receive a signal that can be successfully decoded to match the signal sent. However, the farther the signal travels, the more it deteriorates. This is referred to as signal attenuation.
What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
low-quality cable or connectors improper termination
What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?
malicious software or code running on an end device
What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communcations to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)
message encoding delivery options message size
A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer. That printer has been shared so that other computers on the home network can also use the printer. What networking model is in use?
peer-to-peer (P2P) Explanation: Peer-to-peer (P2P) networks have two or more network devices that can share resources such as printers or files without having a dedicated server.
A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)
ping ipconfig nslookup Explanation: The ipconfig and nslookup commands will provide initial IP address and DNS configuration information to the technicians and determine if DHCP is assigning correct information to the PCs. The ping utility would be used to verify, or not, connectivity to the default gateway (router) using the configured default gateway address, or using the known correct default gateway address if these are found to be different. The arp -a or netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor commands could be used if the problem is then suspected to be an IP address to MAC address mapping issue. The telnet and tracert utilities could be used to determine where the problem was located in the network if the default gateway configuration was found to be correct.
What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)
port numbering use of checksum Explanation: Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right applications. Error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is received. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to regulate the amount of traffic sent before receiving an acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.
What are proprietary protocols?
protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation Explanation: Proprietary protocols have their definition and operation controlled by one company or vendor. Some of them can be used by different organizations with permission from the owner. The TCP/IP protocol suite is an open standard, not a proprietary protocol.
What is a function of the data link layer?
provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media
An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees.What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)
quality of service fault tolerance security
Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1? R1(S0/0/0) <=> (S0/0/0) R2 || G0/0 || G0/0 S1 S1 || || PC1(192.168.10.8.24) PC1(192.168.11.5/24)
remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0 Explanation: When PC1 forms the various headers attached to the data one of those headers is the Layer 2 header. Because PC1 connects to an Ethernet network, an Ethernet header is used. The source MAC address will be the MAC address of PC1 and the destination MAC address will be that of G0/0 on R1. When R1 gets that information, the router removes the Layer 2 header and creates a new one for the type of network the data will be placed onto (the serial link).
A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)
security interference coverage area Explanation: The three areas of concern for wireless networks focus on the size of the coverage area, any nearby interference, and providing network security. Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks, as a wireless network will require minimal cabling for providing wireless access to hosts. Mobility options are not a component of the areas of concern for wireless networks.
What characteristic describes adware?
software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?
store-and-forward
Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
store-and-forward switching
What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
subnet ID global routing prefix interface ID
Which information does the show startup-config command display?
the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM
Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?
the network performance baseline
Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?
to enable the switch to be managed remotely Answers Explanation & Hints: A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to transmit frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely through the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP address must be applied to a virtual interface rather than to a physical interface. Routers, not switches, function as default gateways.
What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?
to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data
A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than normal to load.The web page does eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in the network?
tracert
What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?
twisting the wires together into pairs Explanation: To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP cable wires are twisted together into pairs. Twisting the wires together causes the magnetic fields of each wire to cancel each other out.
Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP)? (Choose two.)
video voice
A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?
when the value in the TTL field reaches zero Explanation: When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL field is decremented by 1. When the value in the field reaches zero, the receiving router will not forward the packet, and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message back to the source.
Users report that the network access is slow. After questioning the employees, the network administrator learned that one employee downloaded a third-party scanning program for the printer. What type of malware might be introduced that causes slow performance of the network?
worm Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist needs to be familiar with the characteristics of the different types of malware and attacks that threaten an organization.