LAB 7-10 review

A _________ fracture occurs at the ankle, and affects the medial malleolus of the distal tibia and the lateral malleolus of the distal fibula. epiphyseal compression Pott's Colles

Pott's

Which type of muscle tissue is highly branched, possess intercalated discs and is comprised of cells having a single nucleus? cardiac elastic skeletal smooth

cardiac

Which 3 bones are fused together to form the pelvic bone? navicular, cuboid, cuneiform ischium, ilium, pubis malleus, incus, stapes trapezoid, hamate, lunate

ischium, ilium, pubis

Which type of arthritis could be treated by all of the following medications: steroids, standard DMARDs, and biologic DMARDs. dysplastic arthritis rheumatoid arthritis osteoarthritis gouty arthritis

rheumatoid arthritis

When classifying bones by shape, small, flat, oddly-shaped bones located between flat bones of the skull are called _______ bones short sutural sub-flat sesamoid

sutural

The calcaneus bone is the site of attachment of the calcaneal tendon. The calcaneal tendon is also known as the malleolar tendon interosseous membrane Achilles tendon tendon tarsalus

Achilles tendon

When classifying bones by shape, the humerus is classified as a _______ bone, and _________ are classified as irregular bones. long; short flat; short long; vertebrae flat; vertebrae

long; vertebrae

Interactions between thin and thick myofilaments of the sarcomere are responsible for ________. the conduction of action potentials in the muscle fiber muscle fatigue muscle contraction muscle relaxation

muscle contraction

"Cocking" the myosin head requires energy. What molecule acts as an ATPase to break down ATP for the energy needed to cock the myosin head? calcium sodium actin myosin

myosin

Acetylcholine is a(n) __________, which is a type of chemical released by neurons that changes the plasma membrane permeability or other properties of another cell. inorganic neurolipid enzyme neurotransmitter polypeptide

neurotransmitter

The _________ of the ulna forms the point of your elbow. coronoid process olecranon radial notch medial epicondyl

olecranon

Immature bone cells that secrete osteoid are called _________, and bone stem cells are called ___________. osteons; osteocytes osteoblasts; osteogenic cells osteoblasts; osteoclasts osteocytes; osteoclasts

osteoblasts; osteogenic cells

What functional category is a fibrous gomphosis? diarthrosis syndesmosis synarthrosis amphiarthrosis

synarthrosis

A cartilaginous, immovable joint that joins two adjacent bones is called a ___________. synchrondrosis synostosis symphysis syndesmosis

synchrondrosis

Epiphyseal lines of mature long bones are examples of immoveable, bony __________. synchondroses gomphoses synostoses sutures

synostoses

During contraction, the entire skeletal muscle shortens and produces a pull, called ______, on the tendons on either end of the muscle. flexion strain tension tautness

tension

When an action potential travels along the sarcolemma, it triggers the release of calcium ions by the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). What part of the SR releases calcium? Z line T tubule medial sulcus terminal cisternae

terminal cisternae

Why do skeletal muscle cells contain high numbers of mitochondria? to give the muscle cell its striated appearance so that the heart continues to beat to efficiently move digested food through the GI tract to supply the ATP needed for skeletal muscle function

to supply ATP needed for skeletal muscle function

_______ covers the active sites of actin prior to calcium binding to troponin. myosin titan tropomyosin troponin

tropomyosin

The wrist exhibits biaxial movement, which means that it moves in _____ planes. four three all two

two

A soft callus is primarily comprised of ____________, while a hard callus is mainly comprised of ___________. cartilage; bone fibrin; bone bone; cartilage fibrin; cartilage

cartilage; bone

What structural category is the slightly moveable pubic symphysis? elastic fibrous cartilaginous bony

cartilaginous

Certain _________ fractures that occur between the epiphysis and epiphyseal cartilage can permanently stop growth at that site. epiphyseal metaphyseal chondrocytic diaphyseal

epiphyseal

What transport process is utilized when ACh is released into the synaptic cleft? receptor-mediated endocytosis pinocytosis exocytosis phagocytosis

exocytosis

What type of cartilage forms the soft callus during bone fracture repair? fibrocartilage dense cartilage hyaline cartilage elastic cartilage

fibrocartilage

A _________ fracture occurs only when one side of the shaft is broken. greenstick transverse Colles comminuted

greenstick

The acetabulum articulates with the head of the humerus head of the femur none of the listed answers are correct sacral region of the vertebral column

head of the femur

Which of the following choices have the steps of a bone fracture repair in the correct order? hematoma formation, soft callous formation, bone remodeling, hard callus formation hematoma formation, soft callous formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling soft callous formation, hematoma formation, bone remodeling, hard callus formation soft callous formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling, hematoma formation

hematoma formation, soft callous formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling

The only bone that doesn't articulate with any other bone is the ______ bone. calcaneous navicular hyoid pisiform

hyoid

When a person has an abnormal spine curvature called ___________, their head and shoulders are positioned forward, but if their stomach muscles are slacked, have hyperextended knees, and flat feet, they most likely have an abnormal spine curvature called ___________. kyphosis/lordosis lordosis/kyphosis lordosis/scoliosis scoliosis/kyphosis

kyphosis/lordosis

Which cellular component/feature do skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle share? highly branched cells under involuntary control presence of striations large number of mitochondria

large number of mitochondria

A _________ fracture occurs at the distal portion of the radius, and is typically a result from reaching out to cushion a fall. transverse compression Colles Pott's

Colles

For severe rheumatoid arthritis that hasn't been helped by medication, a doctor may suggest joint replacement surgery. The medical term for joint replacement is ________________. arthrodesis arthroplasty arthroscopy angioplasty

arthroplasty

Which of the following wouldn't be a possible cause for osteoarthritis? family history autoimmune disease being overweight repetitive joint damage

autoimmune disease

What function do phagocytes perform during the bone healing process? produce histamine to increase inflammation build new matrix release factors that help in clot formation cleans the fracture of debris and any germs that are present

cleans the fracture of debris and any germs that are present

__________ fractures shatter the affected bone area into a multitude of bony fragments. spiral transverse comminuted displaced

comminuted

__________ fractures occur in the vertebrae subjected to extreme pressure and is often associated with osteoporosis. Pott's compression comminuted Colles

compression

Osteoarthritis is also called ____________________ disease. degenerative joint arthritic dysplasia arthritic dysbiosis gouty arthritic

degenerative joint

Mature bone cells that maintain the bone matrix are called _______, and multinucleated cells that dissolve the bone matrix are called _________. osteons; osteocytes osteoblasts; osteoclasts osteoblasts; osteogenic cells osteocytes; osteoclasts

osteocytes; osteoclasts

What occurs during bone remodeling? removal of existing bone by osteoclasts and the deposition of new bone by osteoblasts removal of existing bone by osteoclasts and the deposition of new bone by osteogenic cells removal of existing bone by osteoblasts and the deposition of new bone by osteoclasts removal of existing bone by osteocytes and the deposition of new bone by osteogenic cells

removal of existing bone by osteoclasts and the deposition of new bone by osteoblasts

Which of the following rib descriptions is FALSE? rib pairs 8-10 are called vertebrochondral ribs rib pairs 1-8 are called vertebrosternal ribs rib pairs 8-12 are called "false ribs" rib pairs 11-12 are called "floating ribs"

rib pairs 1-8 are called vertebrosternal ribs

An abnormal lateral ("side-to-side") curvature of the spine is called _________, When this curvature occurs for an unknown reason, it is referred to as ___________. kyphosis; idiopathic scoliosis; idiopathic scoliosis; cryptic kyphosis; cryptic

scoliosis; idiopathic

When classifying bones by shape, carpal bones are classified as _______ bones, and the _________ is classified as a sesamoid bone. irregular; patella short; flat irregular; flat short; patella

short; patella

Which type of muscle tissue is comprised of multinucleated, striated cells that are under voluntary control? skeletal elastic cardiac smooth

skeletal

Which type of muscle tissue is comprised of cells that lack striations? cardiac elastic skeletal smooth

smooth