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9. Which statement is most accurate concerning decentralized staffing? A) It carries risks that employees may be treated unequally or inconsistently. B) It uses one individual or a computer to do the staffing. C) The manager's role is that of making minor adjustments or providing input. D) It provides good control for the organization.

Ans: A Feedback: A manager being perceived as granting special treatment to some employees is a risk of decentralized staffing.

13. In checking the background of a potential candidate for hire, which is the least frequently checked source? A) Academic and professional credentials B) References of former employers C) References of recent teachers D) Verification of work history

Ans: A Feedback: Academic and professional credentials are the least frequently checked background information.

14. Which of the following use of limited resources would most likely result in increased reimbursement revenues? Increasing the A) education on appropriate documentation on patient care records B) number of clinical nurse specialists C) educational paid days for licensed staff D) mix and number of clinical staff

Ans: A Feedback: Although B, C, and D have the potential to improve patient care, education on documentation would most likely increase revenues.

8. Which of the following would be an illegal interview inquiry? A) Questions about the applicant's marital status or number of children B) If necessary to perform the job, the languages the applicant speaks or writes C) Inquiries into actual convictions that relate to the individual's fitness to perform a job D) Place of residence and how long the applicant has resided in the city or state

Ans: A Feedback: Asking an applicant about their marital status or whether they have children is unlawful.

13. The entry job stage is characterized by skill development and A) congruity between self and job role B) job esteem C) sense of purpose D) indifference

Ans: A Feedback: During the entry phase of learning a job, an individual begins to develop congruity between job role and self-identity.

8. Which of the following would be a normal and expected behavioral response during the unfreezing phase? A) Anger B) Withdrawal and acceptance C) Open acceptance D) Active collaboration

Ans: A Feedback: During the unfreezing stage, people become discontented, and even angry, with the status quo. Ironically, they may also become angry that change is needed, because of the resistance that is a normal and expected part of the change process.

10. Which of the following behaviors/attitudes make it likely that a planned change will be unsuccessful? A) The suggested change is brought forward only after the plan has been formalized. B) All individuals who may be affected by the change are involved in planning for the change. C) The change agent is sensitive to the internal and external environment of the organization. D) An assessment of resources to carry out the plan is completed before unfreezing.

Ans: A Feedback: Employees should be involved in the change process. When information and decision making are shared, subordinates will be more accepting of the change.

1. Fiscal planning is A) a learned skill that improves with practice B) a job role of the facility business manager C) part of the organizing phase of the management process D) reactive based on political, social, and economic forces

Ans: A Feedback: Fiscal planning is a learned skill and must include nursing management input. It should never be reactive and it is part of the planning process of management.

11. Self-selected downward transfers A) often increase the chances of long-term career success B) occur when one employee transfers to a new position with a similar salary, but a decrease in energy expenditure C) are an inappropriate type of transfer and should not be allowed except in extreme cases D) occur most often during periods of highest employee productivity

Ans: A Feedback: For individuals to gain experience in a new area and to enhance long-term career goals, a self-selected downward transfer may be used.

5. It is 2 PM. You are calculating the nursing care hours for the 3-to-11 PM shift and must decide whether you need to call in additional help. You have three RNs, three nursing assistants, and one ward clerk scheduled. You have 22 patients with the following acuity and nursing care hours allotted for the evening shift: Category I, 4 patients @ 2.0 hours Category II, 2 patients @ 2.3 hours Category III, 10 patients @ 2.8 hours Category IV, 6 patients @ 3.4 hours You calculate your needed hours of nursing care at A) 61 hours B) 52.6 hours C) 68.4 hours D) 48.4 hours

Ans: A Feedback: Four category I patients require 8 hours of care; two category II patients require 4.6 hours of care; 10 category 3 patients require 28 hours; six category IV patients require 20.4 hours; total nursing care hours equal 61.

2. What is the primary reason that first- and middle-level managers experience more interruptions than higher level managers? A) First- and middle-level managers generally directly interact with a greater number of subordinates in daily planning. B) First- and middle-level managers are more social in nature. C) First- and middle-level managers are busier than higher level managers. D) Clerical and secretarial help assigned to first- and middle-level managers are less efficient than those assigned to higher level managers.

Ans: A Feedback: Frequent interruptions are common for first- and middle-level managers, who have a larger number of direct reports than do higher level managers.

8. The largest of the budget expenditures for healthcare organizations is A) the workforce or personnel budget B) short-term capital acquisitions C) the operating budget D) supplies and equipment

Ans: A Feedback: Health care is labor intensive; therefore, the personnel budget makes up the largest expense.

10. Proper placement of employees within the organization A) occurs when an attempt is made to place employees in units where they have the greatest chance of success B) is overrated as a retention strategy because most employees readily adapt to whatever unit on which they are placed C) refers to placing employees on units that have the greatest need for new staff D) occurs when employees are able to modify their own personal values and beliefs to coincide with that of the unit on which they are placed

Ans: A Feedback: If employees are placed where they have the greatest chance of success, employee morale and retention will be positively affected.

7. Which of the following is an appropriate strategy for planning, conducting, and controlling the interview? A) When an applicant clearly does not have the proper qualifications for a position, the interviewer should be tactful, but advise the applicant as soon as possible that they lack the appropriate qualifications for the job. B) Personal questions should be asked early during the interview process so a rapport can be established between the interviewer and the applicant. C) The interviewer should develop questions that can be answered with a yes or no answer. D) The interviewer should assess an applicant's perceptive skills by sending nonverbal cues to the applicant during their responses.

Ans: A Feedback: In situations in which the interviewee is not qualified for the position, the interviewer must inform the interviewee of this early and tactfully. After the interview is completed, the interviewer should take notes for the file of the exact reason for rejection in case of later discrimination charges.

11. Which statement best describes the induction part of employee indoctrination? A) A phase that occurs after hiring but before performing the role B) Activities performed by the personnel department C) Information included in the employee's handbook D) Responsibility of the staff development department

Ans: A Feedback: Induction, the first phase of indoctrination, includes all activities that educate the new employee about the organization and personnel policies and procedures.

12. The primary impetus for the development of the prospective payment system was A) skyrocketing healthcare costs following the advent of Medicare and Medicaid B) the passage of the Health Maintenance Act of 1973 C) the introduction of the Health Security Act to Congress D) a coalition held by the three largest private insurers in 1975

Ans: A Feedback: Prospective payment systems were the result of skyrocketing medical costs in the United States.

2. Responsibility accounting is a term that means A) each of an organization's revenues, expenses, assets, and liabilities is someone's responsibility B) managers have a responsibility to submit their budgets on time C) the financial officer for a healthcare organization must meet with department heads before submitting a final budget for approval D) fiscal accounting should be honest and accurate

Ans: A Feedback: Responsibility accounting requires that someone must be responsible for all revenue, expenses, assets, and liabilities.

3. Which statement most accurately reflects self-scheduling? A) Self-scheduling requires greater worker accountability. B) The manager has little responsibility in self-scheduling. C) Self-scheduling has few or no shortcomings. D) Self-scheduling works in most organizations.

Ans: A Feedback: Self-scheduling requires greater worker participation in decision making and shared responsibility for adequate staffing.

1. To maintain adequate staff in their organization, managers should A) use knowledge of turnover rates on their units for planning and hiring B) look at staff-to-patient ratios at other healthcare organizations in the area C) proactively plan to hire two RNs for each unit each year D) hire consultants to study national turnover rates to determine recruitment needs

Ans: A Feedback: Staffing needs are unique to each institution and should be determined by looking at patient census, patient healthcare needs, the type of patient care management used, and budget.

6. In question 5, after calculating your hours, you are now able to determine that for the upcoming shift A) you need one more staff member B) you have exactly the right amount of staff C) you have one staff member too many D) you need two more staff members

Ans: A Feedback: That you will need one more staff member is determined by dividing 61 nursing care hours by 8, which is the number of staff people currently assigned to the shift. The answer, 7.6, shows you that you are short 0.4 nursing care positions (5 hours) for the upcoming shift.

13. In planning strategies to prevent stagnation and promote renewal, which of the following actions would most likely result in the desired outcome? A) Developing a program for recruitment of young talent B) Rewarding employees by promoting from within C) Having set pay increases mandated annually D) Using longevity to determine committee selection

Ans: A Feedback: The constant influx of young talent brings new ideas to the organization.

4. The manager must remember that a daily list A) is a planning tool, and thus must have flexibility in its implementation B) should include all the planner's short-term, intermediate, and long-term goals C) should be highly structured with little time for the unexpected, thus decreasing the possibility of procrastination D) should not be changed once initial planning is completed

Ans: A Feedback: The daily list must not be longer than what can reasonably be accomplished in one day and should leave some time for the unexpected.

5. Refusing to work with a staff member who dresses unprofessionally most closely represents which change strategy? A) Power-coercive B) Normative-reeducative C) Rational-empirical D) Resistance-withdrawal

Ans: A Feedback: The power-coercive strategy assumes that people are often set in their ways and will change only when faced by negative sanctions or some other method that demonstrates power and/or coercion.

12. Time management can best be described as A) short-term planning B) strategic planning C) learning how to do things quickly D) sticking to a daily plan

Ans: A Feedback: Time management is short-term planning.

4. Distributing flyers that charge arbitrary action on the part of an employer in an effort to garner interest in employee unionization would be a part of what phase of planned change? A) Unfreezing B) Movement C) Refreezing D) Resistance

Ans: A Feedback: Unfreezing occurs when the change agent coerces members of the group to change, or when guilt, anxiety, or concern can be elicited.

12. Which description best describes a tradition bearer change agent? A) An individual who sees problems in the present and wants to make things better B) A person who wants to preserve what is best from the past C) Someone who is dissatisfied with the status quo D) An individual who welcomes change

Ans: B Feedback: A tradition bearer wants to preserve what is best from the past.

2. Jim has been a registered nurse for 6 months. Although the first 6 months were difficult, he is beginning to feel more comfortable in his new role as a registered nurse. Jim is probably in what stage of his career development? A) Experimentation B) Entry C) Mastery D) Disengagement

Ans: B Feedback: Although Jim is beginning to feel comfortable, he is still in the entry stage because he has not yet obtained the skills necessary for mastery.

5. To avoid promoting socialization, a manager should A) enforce an open-door policy B) encourage subordinates to make appointments regarding issues not needing immediate attention C) meet with subordinates at the nurse's station to discuss personal issues rather than in his or her office D) maintain a close personal relationship with each of his or her employees

Ans: B Feedback: Appointments will discourage employees from entering the managers office just to chat.

7. If an item is "cost-effective," it can be inferred that A) it is the least expensive product available on the market at the time of purchase B) it is worth the cost C) it is reimbursable by third-party insurance companies D) its cost was anticipated in the current budget cycle

Ans: B Feedback: Cost-effective does not necessarily mean the cheapest, but it requires that the expenditure be worth the cost.

1. Which is the first step in time management? A) Complete the highest priority task. B) Allow time for planning and establishing priorities. C) Reprioritize based on new information received. D) Delegate work you cannot reasonably accomplish in a 24-hour time span.

Ans: B Feedback: Daily planning is essential if the manager is to manage by efficiency rather than by crisis.

8. A nurse has been transferred to another unit in the hospital to perform the same type of duties. This type of transfer is called a(n) A) accommodating transfer B) lateral transfer C) diagonal transfer D) downward transfer

Ans: B Feedback: Doing the same type of duties in another location is called a lateral transfer.

9. In some large organizations today, groups of individuals are committed full time to managing the change process. These groups A) are called change coalitions B) have representation from all key stakeholders C) are made up of quality circles D) are teams of resistance breakers

Ans: B Feedback: In some large organizations today, multidisciplinary teams of individuals, representing all key stakeholders in the organization, are assigned the responsibility for managing the change process. In such organizations, this team manages the communication between the people leading the change effort and those who are expected to implement the new strategies.

10. The measurement of NCH/PPD will provide what information? A) The acuity level of the patients on a particular unit in a 24-hour time span B) The total number of hours worked by nursing personnel on a particular unit in a 24-hour time span divided by the patient census C) The specific amount of money spent on staffing during a 24-hour period D) The quality of nursing care that was provided on a particular unit in a 24-hour time span

Ans: B Feedback: NCH/PPD refers to number of nursing care hours worked in 24 hours divided by the patient census.

7. Which of the following statements about time management is true? A) Most people have an accurate perception of the time they spend on a particular task or the total amount of time they are productive during the day. B) Nurses who are self-aware and have clearly identified personal goals and priorities have greater control over how they spend their time, expend their energy, and what they accomplish. C) Writing goals down is a waste of time if the goals are limited in number. D) It is necessary to maintain a time inventory for only 2 or 3 days to establish a pattern of time management.

Ans: B Feedback: Nurses who are self-aware and have clearly identified personal goals and priorities have greater control over how they spend their time, expend their energy, and what they accomplish.

1. Recruitment from outside the organization A) promotes long-term retention of employees B) potentially increases the number of qualified candidates C) promotes nepotism D) produces the most qualified candidates

Ans: B Feedback: Recruiting from outside the organization provides an opportunity to increase the pool of candidates for positions but is no guarantee that these candidates will be more qualified or motivated than those that come from within the organization.

5. Interview research has shown that A) intrarater reliability is high if the interview is unstructured B) interrater reliability improves if the interview is structured C) validity decreases when there is a team approach to the interview D) positive information is weighed more heavily than negative information

Ans: B Feedback: Reliability means that something is measured consistently time after time. Therefore, if more than one interviewer uses the same format to interview a candidate, the reliability of the interviews improves.

10. A factor that may lead nurses to become disengaged in their careers is that A) nurses don't feel they have careers B) boredom and job indifference increase with time on the same job C) many nurses begin their nursing career in midlife or interrupt their careers for childrearing D) there is no identifiable factor influencing job disengagement

Ans: B Feedback: Research has shown that boredom and job indifference leading to disengagement increase with time on the same job.

11. Managers should prioritize by A) doing trivial items first to get them out of the way B) putting some items in the "don't do" category C) avoiding overwhelming tasks D) delegating the most important things to someone else

Ans: B Feedback: The "don't do" list contains items that will take care of themselves, are already outdated, or are best accomplished by someone else. In the case of items that are best done by someone else, the manager should pass these along in a timely fashion.

7. The most realistic and appropriate goal for a manager with regard to staffing and scheduling is to A) schedule staff so there is no overtime B) ensure that there is adequate staff to meet the needs of each patient C) develop trust in staff by seeing that staffing is carried out in a fair manner D) ensure that staff members usually have days off and special requests granted

Ans: B Feedback: The manager is tasked with seeing that patient care needs are met first and foremost.

3. Which of the following is a responsibility of the unit manager in fiscal planning? A) To shelter staff from feeling a responsibility for achieving budgetary planning goals B) To monitor and evaluate all aspects of the unit's budget control C) To streamline the number of subordinates involved in the budgetary process D) To control unpredictable census variations that may undermine the personnel budget

Ans: B Feedback: The manager's responsibility is to monitor all aspects of the unit's budget.

8. In planning care for a group of patients, the team leader should A) make sure that each patient on the team receives equal amounts of nursing care B) begin by considering the needs of the patients who need the greatest amount of or the most specialized care C) begin by considering the needs of the patients who need the least amount of care D) ask his or her team members who they feel like taking care of that day

Ans: B Feedback: The patients who need the greatest amount of care should be considered first when planning for group care.

8. Which is the most accurate statement regarding staffing and scheduling policies? A) It is more important to communicate policies verbally than in writing. B) It is necessary that policies are written in a manner that allows some flexibility. C) Policies should focus on the process. D) Managers should have autocratic control over scheduling and staffing policies.

Ans: B Feedback: To retain employees, the staffing policies must allow some flexibility, which could include job sharing, flextime, a part-time staffing pool for weekends, or allowing employees to exchange hours of work among themselves.

12. A system that allows employees to select among variations in work start time schedules to meet their personal needs is called A) self-scheduling B) flextime C) decentralized staffing D) cyclical staffing

Ans: B Feedback: When a hospital uses flextime, employees arrive at the unit and leave at many different times.

3. What is the relationship between the national and local economy and an organization's ability to maintain an adequate workforce? A) When the economy is on an upswing, many unemployed nurses return to work and recruitment becomes easier. B) When the economy is good, the probability of a nursing shortage developing increases. C) Although the economy tends to affect the size of the blue-collar workforce, professions such as nursing remain fairly stable regardless of economic changes. D) When there is an economic downturn, many nurses reduce their work hours from full time to part time.

Ans: B Feedback: When the economy is good, the public spends more money on health care and nurses reduce the number of hours they work, creating nursing shortages.

10. A charge nurse with a polychronic time management style A) would likely have an extremely neat workspace at the nurse's station B) is more apt to be male than female C) would tend to emphasize relationships rather than tasks D) is likely to finish assigned tasks ahead of time whenever possible

Ans: C Feedback: A polychronic work style is one in which the person typically does two or more things simultaneously and emphasizes relationships rather than tasks.

1. The most fiscally responsible method for determining staffing needs for a hospital unit would be using the A) maximum patient load capacity of the unit B) numbers of patients present for an upcoming shift C) the agreed-on staffing formula currently in use D) total beds on the unit

Ans: C Feedback: A staffing formula is the best way to determine staffing needs, provided it is based on an accurate patient classification system.

2. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the role of unit managers in recruitment and selection? A) The more centralized nursing management is and the more complex the personnel department, the greater the involvement of the unit manager. B) Unit managers should always leave such decisions to a centralized personnel department so consistency can be maintained. C) Regardless of the extent of their involvement, all managers must be aware of recruitment and selection constraints within their organization. D) Unit managers should always assume total responsibility for recruitment and selection of personnel on their units.

Ans: C Feedback: Although some institutions have personnel departments and nurse recruiters to carry out most of the hiring responsibilities, the nurse manager must understand how recruitment and selection are accomplished within the organization.

7. Which of the following represents a driving force for movement to national healthcare insurance in the United States? A) American citizens are generally satisfied with their health care. B) The American Medical Association has a powerful lobby for protecting third-party reimbursement. C) Private health insurance premiums have skyrocketed beyond the reach of most consumers. D) A national health insurance plan may result in some rationing of services.

Ans: C Feedback: Because many Americans cannot afford even basic health care, the country is moving toward a national healthcare plan that would ensure health care for every person.

2. Which of the following is not an appropriate reason for change? A) Change to solve some problem B) Change to make work procedures more efficient so time will not be wasted on relatively unimportant tasks C) Change to eliminate boredom on the part of the change agent D) Change to reduce unnecessary work load

Ans: C Feedback: Boredom is not an appropriate reason for change.

6. The most effective way of handling a large task is A) to sit down and do it all at once so the task will not be procrastinated B) to delegate it to someone else to do C) to break it down into smaller units and accomplish part of the task at several different times D) to put it off until there is adequate time to devote your undivided attention to the task

Ans: C Feedback: Breaking down a task, or chunking, prevents the person from becoming overwhelmed by the size of the task.

4. Career planning A) is the organization's responsibility B) requires spontaneous assessment of goals C) is made easier when a career map is used to develop a long-term plan D) should be episodic in nature

Ans: C Feedback: Effective career planning requires long-term planning, is the responsibility of the individual, and is easier when career maps are used.

11. The provision of health care in an organized system to subscribing members in a geographical area with an agreed-on set of basic and preventive supplemental health maintenance and treatment services for a fixed, prepaid charge describes A) preferred provider organizations (PPOs) B) a traditional third-party payer indemnity plan C) a health maintenance organization (HMO) D) diagnostic-related groupings (DRGs)

Ans: C Feedback: HMOs provide health care in an organized system to subscribing members in a geographical area with an agreed-on set of basic and preventive supplemental health maintenance and treatment services for a fixed, prepaid charge.

3. Which of the following actions may keep an organization from becoming ever-renewing? A) Retired staff are replaced with new graduate nurses. B) State-of-the-art cardiac monitoring equipment is placed in the ICU. C) A set pay increase is mandated annually, regardless of merit. D) A suggestion committee composed of staff and management meets monthly to discuss problems and pose solutions.

Ans: C Feedback: If employees are rewarded with an annual raise regardless of merit, they will have little incentive to perform their jobs to the best of their ability.

4. Which of the following is an outcome of decentralized staffing? A) Increased fairness to employees through consistent, objective, and impartial application B) Cost-effectiveness through better use of resources C) Greater manager autonomy to control more closely the staffing on the units, resulting in an increase in self-esteem and teamwork D) Increased availability of data for monitoring the effect of staffing size and composition, quality of care, and costs

Ans: C Feedback: In an institution that has no human resources department and no nurse recruiters, the unit manager does the hiring and has greater autonomy in personnel matters.

9. Management development classes A) are not cost-effective, but increase worker satisfaction B) are necessary for all individuals in management positions C) require the inclusion of social learning activities D) are a responsibility of middle-level management

Ans: C Feedback: Management development is cost-effective for the organization, but may not be necessary for all managers. Top executives in the organization have a responsibility to support the management development program. The inclusion of social learning activities in management development increases the possibility for employee retention.

9. When processing the employment application, selectors should A) accept the resume as an honest and objective source of data regarding the applicant B) require a physical examination before making a hiring decision C) always follow up on references and verify employment history D) use unsolicited personal information about an applicant as a valid reason for job disqualification

Ans: C Feedback: Some managers prefer to verify credentials and references before the interview; others do it after the interview. Either way, doing a comprehensive check of credentials and references is of absolute importance.

10. A well-selected patient classification system A) eliminates most staffing problems B) decreases the amount of overtime C) provides an understanding of staffing problems D) eliminates the need for adjustment or review

Ans: C Feedback: The main strength of the patient classification system is that it provides data with which to make staffing decisions. It will not solve all staffing problems and it will not replace a manager's judgment.

9. To reduce paper clutter in the workspace, the manager should A) increase face-to-face communication to reduce memos B) realize that most paper clutter can be thrown away C) look at, prioritize, and deal with correspondence as soon as possible after it arrives D) make piles of related materials

Ans: C Feedback: Whenever possible, incoming correspondence should be handled the day it arrives. It should either be thrown away or filed according to the date to be completed.

5. All department heads are required to rejustify their fiscal needs annually during the budget cycle. Budget allocations are made accordingly. This is a description of A) incremental budgeting B) perpetual budgeting C) zero-based budgeting D) managed care

Ans: C Feedback: Zero-based budgeting begins each year with zero and requires rejustification.

13. Fiscal accountability for staffing is A) incompatible with ethical accountability B) only the responsibility of the centralized staffing office C) inappropriate with new practice models D) a critical responsibility of mangers

Ans: D Feedback: Accountability for a prenegotiated budget is a management function.

3. Which of the following does not qualify as organizational justification for a career development program? A) Employee attrition can be reduced. B) Personnel can be used more effectively. C) Quality of work life can be improved. D) Employees can make more money.

Ans: D Feedback: Although employees may earn more money as a result of career development, it is not the reason that organizations undertake career development programs. All of the other foils are justification for organizations to have career development programs.

11. New practice models that change staffing mix A) automatically cancel the patient classification system B) will result in fiscal savings C) require no changes in scheduling policies D) impact patient care assignment methods

Ans: D Feedback: As new practice models are introduced, there must be a simultaneous examination of the existing staff mix and patient care assessments to ensure that appropriate changes are made to the staffing and scheduling policies.

13. Capitation refers to A) a reimbursement schema whereby healthcare organizations receive a predetermined amount (based on a patient's diagnosis) for services provided B) the limited availability of services to patients in managed care organizations C) the use of a "gatekeeper" to ensure appropriate utilization of services D) a predetermined, negotiated payment to providers, per patient, regardless of whether services are used

Ans: D Feedback: Capitation is a predetermined, negotiated payment to providers, per patient, regardless of whether services are used.

12. Competency of an employee is best determined by A) an examination of patient records by a review team B) self-reporting on an administered skills checklist C) evidence of attendance at continuing education classes D) documentation of effectively meeting role demands

Ans: D Feedback: Competency relates to role and is determined by each role demand.

15. Which best describes critical pathways? A) Determines justifiable differences among clients B) Decreases the amount of paperwork required for reimbursement C) Reduces administrative costs D) Provides a means of standardizing care for clients of similar diagnosis

Ans: D Feedback: Critical pathways are one means of standardizing care for clients with similar diagnosis.

2. Which of the following statements about patient classification systems is the most accurate? A) Classification systems are able to solve staffing problems. B) Nursing care hours assigned to a classification system should remain constant. C) A good classification system is without fault. D) Internal and external forces may affect classification systems.

Ans: D Feedback: Examples of internal and external forces that may affect a patient classification system are a sudden increase in nursing or medical students using the unit, a lower skill level of new graduates, or cultural or language difficulties of recently hired foreign nurses.

12. Which one of the following questions asked during an interview is acceptable? A) Are you married? B) Have you ever been arrested? C) What is your religious preference? D) What professional organizations do you belong to?

Ans: D Feedback: It is lawful for an interviewer to ask about professional organizations, but the interviewer cannot ask the interviewee to produce a list of all memberships.

1. The person who is dedicated to tradition, suspicious of innovation, and resistant to most change probably is best reflective of which behavioral pattern? A) Rejector B) Early adopter C) Early majority D) Laggard

Ans: D Feedback: Laggards, the last to adopt an innovation, are dedicated to tradition.

4. Which of the following is a leadership role in fiscal planning? A) Coordinates the monitoring aspects of budget control B) Accurately assesses personnel needs using agreed-on standards or an established patient classification system C) Assesses the internal and external environment of the organization in forecasting to identify driving forces and barriers to fiscal planning D) Is visionary in identifying short- and long-term unit fiscal needs

Ans: D Feedback: Leaders are visionary; the other roles are management related.

7. Long-term coaching for career development A) should occur annually at performance appraisal reviews B) should focus on employee performance deficits C) requires the same intensity as a mentoring relationship D) occurs over the entire employment tenure of an employee

Ans: D Feedback: Long-term coaching should occur at a time other than the performance interview, although that is also a place when it can occur informally. Long-term coaching should be tied to the employment tenure of the individual.

3. Which of the following is an external time waster? A) Failure to set objectives B) Inability to say no C) Procrastination D) Meetings

Ans: D Feedback: Meetings are an external time waster; the others are internal time wasters.

14. Nonlinear dynamics of organizational change imply that change A) occurs in sequential steps B) is predictable C) should rely on policies and hierarchies D) is most powerful at the micro level

Ans: D Feedback: Rather than focusing on the macro level of the organizational system, complexity theory suggests that most powerful change processes occur at the micro level, where relationships, interactions, and simple rules shape emerging patterns.

6. Which of the following represents a management function in planned change? A) Inspiring group members to be involved in planned change B) Visionary forecasting C) Role modeling high-level interpersonal communication skills in providing support for individuals undergoing rapid or difficult change D) Recognizing the need for planned change and identifying the options and resources available to implement change

Ans: D Feedback: Recognizing the need for planned change and identifying the options and resources available to implement change are management functions; the other choices are leadership functions.

11. The successful change agent makes a commitment to A) help followers arrive at total consensus regarding the change B) encourage subgroup opposition to change so many viewpoints can be heard C) utilize change by drift if the resistance to change is too strong D) be available to support those affected by a change until the change is complete

Ans: D Feedback: The change agent needs to offer support to others so that the change remains.

5. Resumes should A) emphasize strong and weak points equally B) be at least four to five pages in length C) reflect complex, scholarly language D) be concise and easy to read

Ans: D Feedback: The content of a resume should be able to be grasped quickly by the individual doing the hiring, so conciseness and readability are of key importance.

6. Which of the following is a personal responsibility for career management? A) Development of career ladders B) Establishment of career paths C) Providing challenging assignments D) Development of a career plan

Ans: D Feedback: The first three choices are management responsibilities. Only the development of a career plan is the responsibility of the individual.

6. Equipment depreciation, the number and type of supplies needed by patients, and overtime that occurs in response to an emergency are all examples of A) controllable expenses B) fixed expenses C) capital budget expenditures D) uncontrollable expenses

Ans: D Feedback: The items mentioned cannot be controlled or fixed and are not part of capital costs.

6. To increase the reliability and validity of an interview, the interviewer should A) conduct single, rather than multiple, interviews B) trust his or her first impressions of an applicant C) avoid taking notes during the interview D) develop a structured interview format

Ans: D Feedback: The same structured interview should be used for all employees applying for the same job classification.


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