Maternity Final Part IV

To promote wellness and prevent illness throughout the life span, it is important for the nurse to be cognizant of immunization recommendations for women older than 18 years. Match each immunization with the correct schedule. a. Tetanus-diphtheria-pertussis (Tdap) b. Measles, mumps, rubella c. Herpes zoster d. Hepatitis B e. Influenza f. Human papillomavirus (HPV) 1. Three injections for girls between the ages 9 to 26 years 2. Primary series of three injections 3. Annually 4. Once and then a booster every 10 years 5. One dose after age 65 years 6. Once if born after 1956

1. ANS: F 2. ANS: D 3. ANS: E 4. ANS: A 5. ANS: C 6. ANS: B This guideline is applicable to most women; however, health care providers individualize the timing of tests and immunizations for each woman.

1. The practice of the calendar rhythm method is based on the number of days in each menstrual cycle. The fertile period is determined after monitoring each cycle for 6 months. The beginning of the fertile period is estimated by subtracting 18 days from the longest cycle and 11 days from the shortest. If the woman's cycles vary in length from 24 to 30 days, then her fertile period would be day _____ through day ______.

ANS: 6; 19 To avoid pregnancy, the couple must abstain from intercourse on days 6 through 19. Ovulation occurs on day 12 (plus or minus 2 days either way).

13. Which term best describes the conscious decision concerning when to conceive or avoid pregnancy as opposed to the intentional prevention of pregnancy during intercourse? a. Family planning b. Birth control c. Contraception d. Assisted reproductive therapy

ANS: A Family planning is the process of deciding when and if to have children. Birth control is the device and/or practice used to reduce the risk of conceiving or bearing children. Contraception is the intentional prevention of pregnancy during sexual intercourse. Assisted reproductive therapy is one of several possible treatments for infertility.

17. Which nonpharmacologic contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%? a. Standard days' variation b. Periodic abstinence c. Postovulation d. Coitus interruptus

ANS: A The standard days' variation on the calendar method has a failure rate of 12% and is a variation of the calendar rhythm method with a fixed number of days for fertility in each cycle. The periodic abstinence method has a failure rate of 25% or higher. The postovulation method has a failure rate of 25% or higher. The coitus interruptus method has a failure rate of 27% or higher.

2. Individual irregularities in the ovarian (menstrual) cycle are most often caused by what? a. Variations in the follicular (preovulatory) phase b. Intact hypothalamic-pituitary feedback mechanism c. Functioning corpus luteum d. Prolonged ischemic phase

ANS: A Almost all variations in the length of the ovarian cycle are the result of variations in the length of the follicular phase. An intact hypothalamic-pituitary feedback mechanism would be regular, not irregular. The luteal phase begins after ovulation. The corpus luteum is dependent on the ovulatory phase and fertilization. During the ischemic phase, the blood supply to the functional endometrium is blocked, and necrosis develops. The functional layer separates from the basal layer, and menstrual bleeding begins.

9. A woman is 16 weeks pregnant and has elected to terminate her pregnancy. Which is the mostcommon technique used for the termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester? a. Dilation and evacuation (D&E) b. Methotrexate administration c. Prostaglandin administration d. Vacuum aspiration

ANS: A D&E can be performed at any point up to 20 weeks of gestation. It is more commonly performed between 13 and 16 weeks of gestation. Methotrexate is a cytotoxic drug that causes early abortion by preventing fetal cell division. Prostaglandins are also used for early abortion and work by dilating the cervix and initiating uterine wall contractions. Vacuum aspiration is used for abortions in the first trimester.

9. Which statement indicates that a client requires additional instruction regarding BSE? a. "Yellow discharge from my nipple is normal if I'm having my period." b. "I should check my breasts at the same time each month, after my period." c. "I should also feel in my armpit area while performing my breast examination." d. "I should check each breast in a set way, such as in a circular motion."

ANS: A Discharge from the nipples requires further examination from a health care provider. The breasts should be checked at the same time each month. The armpit should also be examined. A circular motion is the best method during which to ascertain any changes in the breast tissue.

7. Which statement regarding emergency contraception is correct? a. Emergency contraception requires that the first dose be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. b. Emergency contraception may be taken right after ovulation. c. Emergency contraception has an effectiveness rate in preventing pregnancy of approximately 50%. d. Emergency contraception is commonly associated with the side effect of menorrhagia.

ANS: A Emergency contraception should be taken as soon as possible or within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy. If taken before ovulation, follicular development is inhibited, which prevents ovulation. The risk of pregnancy is reduced by as much as 75%. The most common side effect of postcoital contraception is nausea.

18. Which statement best describes Kegel exercises? a. Kegel exercises were developed to control or reduce incontinent urine loss. b. Kegel exercises are the best exercises for a pregnant woman because they are so pleasurable. c. Kegel exercises help manage stress. d. Kegel exercises are ineffective without sufficient calcium in the diet.

ANS: A Kegel exercises help control the urge to urinate. Although these exercises may be fun for some, the most important factor is the control they provide over incontinence. Kegel exercises help manage urination, not stress. Calcium in the diet is important but not related to Kegel exercises.

1. A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. Which is the most important action the nurse should perform during the assessment process? a. Obtain a history of the woman's menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months. b. Determine the client's weight gain and loss pattern for the previous year. c. Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes. d. Explore the client's previous experiences with conception control.

ANS: A The calendar method of conception control is based on the number of days in each cycle, counting from the first day of menses. The fertile period is determined after the lengths of menstrual cycles have been accurately recorded for 6 months. Weight gain or loss may be partly related to hormonal fluctuations, but it has no bearing on the use of the calendar method. Integumentary changes may be related to hormonal changes, but they are not indicators for use of the calendar method. Exploring previous experiences with conception control may demonstrate client understanding and compliancy, but these experiences are not the most important aspect to assess for the discussion of the calendar method.

8. Ovarian function and hormone production decline during which transitional phase? a. Climacteric b. Menarche c. Menopause d. Puberty

ANS: A The climacteric phase is a transitional period during which ovarian function and hormone production decline. Menarche is the term that denotes the first menstruation. Menopause refers only to the last menstrual period.Puberty is a broad term that denotes the entire transitional period between childhood and sexual maturity.

12. Although reported in small numbers, toxic shock syndrome (TSS) can occur with the use of a diaphragm. If a client is interested in this form of conception control, then the nurse must instruct the woman on how best to reduce her risk of TSS. Which comment by the nurse would be mosthelpful in achieving this goal? a. "You should always remove your diaphragm 6 to 8 hours after intercourse. Don't use the diaphragm during menses, and watch for danger signs of TSS, including a sudden onset of fever over 38.4 C, hypotension, and a rash." b. "You should remove your diaphragm right after intercourse to prevent TSS." c. "It's okay to use your diaphragm during your menstrual cycle. Just be sure to wash it thoroughly first to prevent TSS." d. "Make sure you don't leave your diaphragm in for longer than 24 hours, or you may get TSS."

ANS: A The nurse should instruct the client on the proper use and removal of the diaphragm and include the danger signs of TSS. The diaphragm must remain against the cervix for 6 to 8 hours to prevent pregnancy, but it should not remain in place longer than 8 hours to avoid the risk of TSS. The diaphragm should not be used during menses

1. Due to the effects of cyclic ovarian changes in the breast, when is the best time for breast self-examination (BSE)? a. Between 5 and 7 days after menses ceases b. Day 1 of the endometrial cycle c. Midmenstrual cycle d. Any time during a shower or bath

ANS: A The physiologic alterations in breast size and activity reach their minimal level approximately 5 to 7 days after menstruation ceases. Therefore, BSE is best performed during this phase of the menstrual cycle. Day 1 of the endometrial cycle is too early to perform an accurate BSE. After the midmenstrual cycle, breasts are likely to become tender and increase in size, which is not the ideal time to perform BSE. Lying down after a shower or bath with a small towel under the shoulder of the side being examined is appropriate teaching for BSE. A secondary BSE may be performed while in the shower.

11. Which female reproductive organ(s) is(are) responsible for cyclic menstruation? a. Uterus b. Ovaries c. Vaginal vestibule d. Urethra

ANS: A The uterus is responsible for cyclic menstruation and also houses and nourishes the fertilized ovum and the fetus. The ovaries are responsible for ovulation and the production of estrogen. The vaginal vestibule is an external organ that has openings to the urethra and vagina. The urethra is not a reproductive organ, although it is found in the area.

4. Many pregnant teenagers wait until the second or third trimester to seek prenatal care. What should the nurse recognize as reasons for this delay? (Select all that apply.) a. Lack of realization that they are pregnant b. Uncertainty as to where to go for care c. Continuing to deny the pregnancy d. Desire to gain control over their situation e. Wanting to hide the pregnancy as long as possible

ANS: A, B, C, E These reasons are all valid explanations why teens delay seeking prenatal care. An adolescent often has little to no understanding of the increased physiologic needs that a pregnancy places on her body. Once care is sought, it is often sporadic, and many appointments are usually missed. The nurse should formulate a diagnosis that assists the pregnant teen to receive adequate prenatal care. Planning for her pregnancy and impending birth actually provides some sense of control for the teen and increases her feelings of competency. Receiving praise from the nurse when she attends her prenatal appointments will reinforce the teen's positive self-image

3. The nurse is responsible for providing health teaching regarding the side effects of COCs. These side effects are attributed to estrogen, progesterone, or both. Which side effects are related to the use of COCs? (Select all that apply.) a. Gallbladder disease b. Myocardial infarction and stroke c. Hypotension d. Breast tenderness and fluid retention e. Dry skin and scalp

ANS: A, B, D Serious side effects include stroke, myocardial infarction, hypertension, gallbladder disease, and liver tumors. More common side effects include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, increased appetite, oily skin and scalp, and chloasma.

2. Which statements regarding menstruation (periodic uterine bleeding) are accurate? (Select all that apply.) a. Menstruation occurs every 28 days. b. During menstruation, the entire uterine lining is shed. c. Menstruation begins 7 to 10 days after ovulation. d. Menstruation leads to fertilization. e. Average blood loss during menstruation is 50 ml.

ANS: A, B, E Menstruation is the periodic uterine bleeding that is controlled by a feedback system involving three cycles: the endometrial cycle, the hypothalamic-pituitary cycle, and the ovarian cycle. The average length of a menstrual cycle is 28 days; however, variations are normal. During the endometrial cycle, the functional two thirds of the endometrium is shed. The average blood loss is 50 ml with a normal range of 20 to 80 ml. Menstruation occurs 14 days after ovulation. The lack of fertilization leads to menstruation

1. The nurse is reviewing the educational packet provided to a client about tubal ligation. Which information regarding this procedure is important for the nurse to share? (Select all that apply.) a. "It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure." b. "Tubal ligation is an effective form of 100% permanent sterilization. You won't be able to get pregnant." c. "Sterilization offers some form of protection against STIs." d. "Sterilization offers no protection against STIs." e. "Your menstrual cycle will greatly increase after your sterilization."

ANS: A, D A woman is unlikely to become pregnant after tubal ligation. However, sterilization offers no protection against STIs and is not 100% effective. Typically, the menstrual cycle remains the same after a tubal ligation.

16. Which information regarding substance abuse is important for the nurse to understand? a. Although cigarette smoking causes a number of health problems, it has little direct effect on maternity-related health. b. Women, ages 21 to 34 years, have the highest rates of specific alcohol-related problems. c. Coffee is a stimulant that can interrupt body functions and has been related to birth defects. d. Prescription psychotherapeutic drugs taken by the mother do not affect the fetus; otherwise, they would not have been prescribed.

ANS: B Although a very small percentage of childbearing women have alcohol-related problems, alcohol abuse during pregnancy has been associated with a number of negative outcomes. Cigarette smoking impairs fertility and is a cause of low-birth-weight infants. Caffeine consumption has not been related to birth defects. Psychotherapeutic drugs have some effect on the fetus, and that risk must be weighed against their benefit to the mother.

18. Which contraceptive method best protects against STIs and the HIV? a. Periodic abstinence b. Barrier methods c. Hormonal methods d. Same protection with all methods

ANS: B Barrier methods, such as condoms, protect against STIs and the HIV the best of all contraceptive methods. Periodic abstinence and hormonal methods, such as birth control pills, offer no protection against STIs or the HIV.

3. A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Oral contraceptives are a highly effective method, but they have some side effects." b. "Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill." c. "Oral contraceptives will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication." d. "The pill is a good choice for a woman of your age and with your personal history."

ANS: B Because the liver metabolizes oral contraceptives, their effectiveness is reduced when they are simultaneously taken with anticonvulsants. Stating that the pill is an effective birth control method with side effects is a true statement, but this response is not the most appropriate. The anticonvulsant reduces the effectiveness of the pill, not the other way around. Stating that the pill is a good choice for a woman of her age and personal history does not teach the client that the effectiveness of the pill may be reduced because of her anticonvulsant therapy.

25. Nurses, certified nurse-midwives, and other advanced practice nurses have the knowledge and expertise to assist women in making informed choices regarding contraception. A multidisciplinary approach should ensure that the woman's social, cultural, and interpersonal needs are met. Which action should the nurse first take when meeting with a new client to discuss contraception? a. Obtain data about the frequency of coitus. b. Determine the woman's level of knowledge concerning contraception and her commitment to any particular method. c. Assess the woman's willingness to touch her genitals and cervical mucus. d. Evaluate the woman's contraceptive life plan.

ANS: B Determining the woman's level of knowledge concerning contraception and her commitment to any particular method is the primary step of this nursing assessment and necessary before completing the process and moving on to a nursing diagnosis. Once the client's level of knowledge is determined, the nurse can interact with the woman to compare options, reliability, cost, comfort level, protection from STIs, and her partner's willingness to participate. Although important, obtaining data about the frequency of coitus is not the first action that the nurse should undertake when completing an assessment. Data should include not only the frequency of coitus but also the number of sexual partners, level of contraceptive involvement, and the partner's objections. Assessing the woman's willingness to touch herself is a key factor for the nurse to discuss should the client express an interest in using one of the fertility awareness methods of contraception. The nurse must be aware of the client's plan regarding whether she is attempting to prevent conception, delay conception, or conceive.

8. An unmarried young woman describes her sex life as "active" and involving "many" partners. She wants a contraceptive method that is reliable and does not interfere with sex. She requests an intrauterine device (IUD). Which information is most important for the nurse to share? a. "The IUD does not interfere with sex." b. "The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease will be higher with the IUD." c. "The IUD will protect you from sexually transmitted infections." d. "Pregnancy rates are high with the IUD."

ANS: B Disadvantages of IUDs include an increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in the first 20 days after insertion, as well as the risks of bacterial vaginosis and uterine perforation. The IUD offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) or the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), as does a barrier method. Because this woman has multiple sex partners, she is at higher risk of developing an STI. Stating that an IUD does not interfere with sex may be correct; however, it is not the most appropriate response. The typical failure rate of the IUD is approximately 1%.

25. During a health history interview, a woman states that she thinks that she has "bumps" on her labia. She also states that she is not sure how to check herself. The correct response by the nurse would be what? a. Reassure the woman that the examination will reveal any problems. b. Explain the process of vulvar self-examination, and reassure the woman that she should become familiar with normal and abnormal findings during the examination. c. Reassure the woman that "bumps" can be treated. d. Reassure her that most women have "bumps" on their labia.

ANS: B During the assessment and evaluation, the responsibility for self-care, health promotion, and enhancement of wellness is emphasized. The pelvic examination provides a good opportunity for the practitioner to emphasize the need for regular vulvar self-examination. Providing reassurance to the woman concerning the "bumps" would not be an accurate response

2. A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs). Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "They're not very effective, and it is very likely that you'll get pregnant." b. "FAMs can be effective for many couples; however, they require motivation." c. "These methods have a few advantages and several health risks." d. "You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry."

ANS: B FAMs are effective with proper vigilance about ovulatory changes in the body and with adherence to coitus intervals. FAMs are effective if correctly used by a woman with a regular menstrual cycle. The typical failure rate for all FAMs is 24% during the first year of use. FAMs have no associated health risks. The use of birth control has associated health risks. In addition, taking a pill daily requires compliance on the client's part

23. A male client asks the nurse why it is better to purchase condoms that are not lubricated with nonoxynol-9 (a common spermicide). Which response by the nurse is the most accurate? a. "The lubricant prevents vaginal irritation." b. "Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against STIs as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of the HIV and can cause genital lesions." c. "The additional lubrication improves sex." d. "Nonoxynol-9 improves penile sensitivity."

ANS: B Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against STIs as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of the HIV and can cause genital lesions. Nonoxynol-9 may cause vaginal irritation, has no effect on the quality of sexual activity, and has no effect on penile sensitivity.

15. What fatty acids (classified as hormones) are found in many body tissues with complex roles in many reproductive functions? a. GnRH b. Prostaglandins (PGs) c. FSH d. Luteinizing hormone (LH)

ANS: B PGs affect smooth muscle contraction and changes in the cervix. GnRH is part of the hypothalamic-pituitary cycle, which responds to the rise and fall of estrogen and progesterone. FSH is part of the hypothalamic-pituitary cycle, which responds to the rise and fall of estrogen and progesterone. LH is part of the hypothalamic-pituitary cycle, which responds to the rise and fall of estrogen and progesterone.

3. How would the physiologic process of the sexual response best be characterized? a. Coitus, masturbation, and fantasy b. Myotonia and vasocongestion c. Erection and orgasm d. Excitement, plateau, and orgasm

ANS: B Physiologically, according to Masters (1992), sexual response can be analyzed in terms of two processes: vasocongestion and myotonia. Coitus, masturbation, and fantasy are forms of stimulation for the physical manifestation of the sexual response. Erection and orgasm occur in two of the four phases of the sexual response cycle. Excitement, plateau, and orgasm are three of the four phases of the sexual response cycle.

11. The lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) of birth control is popular in developing countries and has had limited use in the United States. As breastfeeding rates increase, more women may rely upon this method for birth control. Which information is most important to provide to the client interested in using the LAM for contraception? a. LAM is effective until the infant is 9 months of age. b. This popular method of birth control works best if the mother is exclusively breastfeeding. c. Its typical failure rate is 5%. d. Feeding intervals should be 6 hours during the day.

ANS: B The LAM works best if the mother is exclusively or almost exclusively breastfeeding. Disruption of the breastfeeding pattern increases the risk of pregnancy. After the infant is 6 months of age or menstrual flow has resumed, effectiveness decreases. The typical failure rate is 1% to 2%. Feeding intervals should be no greater than 4 hours during the day and 6 hours at night.

15. Which benefit regarding FAMs makes it an appealing choice for some women? a. Adherence to strict recordkeeping b. Absence of chemicals and hormones c. Decreased involvement and intimacy of partner d. Increased spontaneity of coitus

ANS: B The absence of chemicals or hormones to alter the natural menstrual flow is extremely important to some women. The strict recordkeeping with FAMs may be difficult and creates a potential risk for failure. These methods require increased involvement by the partner; however, they also reduce the spontaneity of coitus

12. Which body part both protects the pelvic structures and accommodates the growing fetus during pregnancy? a. Perineum b. Bony pelvis c. Vaginal vestibule d. Fourchette

ANS: B The bony pelvis protects and accommodates the growing fetus. The perineum covers the pelvic structures. The vaginal vestibule contains openings to the urethra and vagina. The fourchette is formed by the labia minor.

21. The unique muscle fibers that constitute the uterine myometrium make it ideally suited for what? a. Menstruation b. Birth process c. Ovulation d. Fertilization

ANS: B The myometrium is made up of layers of smooth muscle that extend in three directions. These muscles assist in the birth process by expelling the fetus, ligating blood vessels after birth, and controlling the opening of the cervical os.

24. A 62-year-old woman has not been to the clinic for an annual examination for 5 years. The recent death of her husband reminded her that she should come for a visit. Her family physician has retired, and she is going to see the women's health nurse practitioner for her visit. What should the nurse do to facilitate a positive health care experience for this client? a. Remind the woman that she is long overdue for her examination and that she should come in annually. b. Carefully listen, and allow extra time for this woman's health history interview. c. Reassure the woman that a nurse practitioner is just as good as her old physician. d. Encourage the woman to talk about the death of her husband and her fears about her own death.

ANS: B The nurse has an opportunity to use reflection and empathy while listening, as well as ensure an open and caring communication. Scheduling a longer appointment time may be necessary because older women may have longer histories or may need to talk. A respectful and reassuring approach to caring for women older than age 50 years can help ensure that they continue to seek health care. Reminding the woman about her overdue examination, reassuring the woman that she has a good practitioner, and encouraging conversation about the death of her husband and her own death are not the best approaches

20. Importantly, the nurse must be aware of which information related to the use of IUDs? a. Return to fertility can take several weeks after the device is removed. b. IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse. c. IUDs offer the same protection against STIs as the diaphragm. d. Consent forms are not needed for IUD insertion.

ANS: B The woman has up to 5 days to insert the IUD after unprotected sex. The return to fertility is immediate after the removal of the IUD. IUDs offer no protection against STIs. A consent form is required for insertion, as is a negative pregnancy test.

28. Which statement by the client indicates that she understands BSE? a. "I will examine both breasts in two different positions." b. "I will examine my breasts 1 week after my menstrual period starts." c. "I will examine only the outer upper area of the breast." d. "I will use the palm of the hand to perform the examination."

ANS: B The woman should examine her breasts when hormonal influences are at their lowest level. The client should be instructed to use four positions: standing with arms at her sides, standing with arms raised above her head, standing with hands pressed against hips, and lying down. The entire breast needs to be examined, including the outer upper area. The client should use the sensitive pads of the middle three fingers.

27. A client at 24 weeks of gestation says she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. Why should the nurse counsel her to eliminate all alcohol intake? a. Daily consumption of alcohol indicates a risk for alcoholism. b. She is at risk for abusing other substances as well. c. Alcohol places the fetus at risk for altered brain growth. d. Alcohol places the fetus at risk for multiple organ anomalies

ANS: C No period during pregnancy is safe to consume alcohol. The documented effects of alcohol consumption during pregnancy include fetal mental retardation, learning disabilities, high activity level, and short attention span. The fetal brain grows most rapidly in the third trimester and is vulnerable to alcohol exposure during this time. Abuse of other substances has not been linked to alcohol use.

3. Women of all ages will receive substantial and immediate benefits from smoking cessation. The process is not easy, and most people have attempted to quit numerous times before achieving success. Which organizations provide self-help and smoking cessation materials? (Select all that apply.) a. Leukemia and Lymphoma Society b. March of Dimes c. American Cancer Society d. American Lung Association e. Easter Seals

ANS: B, C, D The March of Dimes, the American Lung Association, and the American Cancer Society have self-help materials available. The Leukemia and Lymphoma Society support research for these two types of cancer. Easter Seals is best known for its work with disabled children.

29. What is the primary reason why a woman who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy? a. Personal risk behaviors influence fertility. b. Mature women have often used contraceptives for an extended time. c. Her ovaries may be affected by the aging process. d. Prepregnancy medical attention is lacking.

ANS: C Once the mature woman decides to conceive, a delay in becoming pregnant may occur because of the normal aging of the ovaries. Older adults participate in fewer risk behaviors than younger adults. The past use of contraceptives is not the problem. Prepregnancy medical care is both available and encouraged.

2. Postabortion instructions may differ among providers regarding tampon use and the resumption of intercourse. However, education should be provided regarding serious complications. When should the woman who has undergone an induced abortion be instructed to return to the emergency department? (Select all that apply.) a. Fever higher than 39 C b. Chills c. Foul-smelling vaginal discharge d. Bleeding greater than four pads in 2 hours e. Severe abdominal pain

ANS: B, C, E The client should report to a health care facility for any of the following symptoms: fever higher than 38 C, chills, bleeding more than two saturated pads in 2 hours or heavy bleeding lasting for days, foul-smelling discharge, abdominal tenderness or pain, and cramping or backache.

4. The client and her partner are considering male sterilization as a form of permanent birth control. While educating the client regarding the risks and benefits of the procedure, which information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Sterilization should be performed under general anesthesia. b. Pain, bleeding, and infection are possible complications. c. Pregnancy may still be possible. d. Vasectomy may affect potency. e. Secondary sex characteristics are unaffected.

ANS: B, C, E Vasectomy is the most commonly used procedure for male sterilization and is performed on an outpatient basis under local anesthesia. Pain, bleeding, swelling, and infection are considered complications. Reversal is generally unsuccessful; however, it may take several weeks to months for all sperm to be cleared from the sperm ducts. Another form of contraception is necessary until the sperm counts are zero. Vasectomy has no effect on potency, and secondary sex characteristics are not affected.

1. What are the two primary functions of the ovary? (Select all that apply.) a. Normal female development b. Ovulation c. Sexual response d. Hormone production e. Sex hormone release

ANS: B, D The two functions of the ovaries are ovulation and hormone production. The presence of ovaries does not guarantee normal female development. The ovaries produce estrogen, progesterone, and androgen. Ovulation is the release of a mature ovum from the ovary. Sexual response is a feedback mechanism involving the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland, and ovaries.

20. Which questionnaire would be best for the nurse to use when screening an adolescent client for an eating disorder? a. Four Cs b. Dietary Guidelines for Americans c. SCOFF screening tool d. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

ANS: C A screening tool specifically developed to identify eating disorders uses the acronym SCOFF. Each question scores 1 point. A score of 2 or more indicates that the client may have anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The letters represent the following questions: • Do you make yourself Sick because you feel too full? • Do you worry about loss of Control over the amount that you eat? • Have you recently lost more than One stone (14 pounds) in a 3-month period? • Do you think that you are too Fat, even if others think you are thin? • Does Food dominate your life? The 4 Cs are used to determine cultural competence. Dietary Guidelines for Americans provide nutritional guidance for all, not only for those with eating disorders. The DEXA scan is used to determine bone density.

5. Which client would be an ideal candidate for injectable progestins such as Depo-Provera (DMPA) as a contraceptive choice? a. The ideal candidate for DMPA wants menstrual regularity and predictability. b. The client has a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer. c. The ideal candidate has difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily. d. The client is homeless or mobile and rarely receives health care.

ANS: C Advantages of DMPA include its contraceptive effectiveness, compared with the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives, and the requirement of only four injections a year. The disadvantages of injectable progestins are prolonged amenorrhea and uterine bleeding. The use of injectable progestin carries an increased risk of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. To be effective, DMPA injections must be administered every 11 to 13 weeks. Access to health care is necessary to prevent pregnancy or potential complications

6. A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection, and she has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. How should the nurse initially respond? a. Inform the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Papanicolaou (Pap) test for which she is scheduled. b. Reassure the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination. c. Ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection. d. Ask the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination.

ANS: C An important element of the health history and physical examination is the client's description of any symptoms she may be experiencing. The best response is for the nurse to inquire about the symptoms the woman is experiencing. Women should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have sexual intercourse for 24 to 48 hours before obtaining a Pap test. Although the woman may need to reschedule a visit for her Pap test, her current symptoms should still be addressed.

5. The nurse guides a woman to the examination room and asks her to remove her clothes and put on an examination gown with the front open. The woman replies, "I have special undergarments that I do not remove for religious reasons." Which is the most appropriate response from the nurse? a. "You can't have an examination without removing all your clothes." b. "I'll ask the physician to modify the examination." c. "Tell me about your undergarments. I'll explain the examination procedure, and then we can discuss how you can comfortably have your examination." d. "I have no idea how we can accommodate your beliefs."

ANS: C Explaining the examination procedure reflects cultural competence by the nurse and shows respect for the woman's religious practices. The nurse must respect the rich and unique qualities that cultural diversity brings to individuals. The examination can be modified to ensure that modesty is maintained. In recognizing the value of cultural differences, the nurse can modify the plan of care to meet the needs of each woman. Telling the client that her religious practices are different or strange is inappropriate and disrespectful to the client.

27. If consistently and correctly used, which of the barrier methods of contraception has the lowest failure rate? a. Spermicides b. Female condoms c. Male condoms d. Diaphragms

ANS: C For typical users, the failure rate for male condoms may approach 18%. Spermicide failure rates are approximately 28%. The failure rate for female condoms is approximately 21%. The failure rate for diaphragms with spermicides is 12%.

4. A woman who has just undergone a first-trimester abortion will be using oral contraceptives. To protect against pregnancy, the client should be advised to do what? a. Avoid sexual contact for at least 10 days after starting the pill. b. Use condoms and foam for the first few weeks as a backup. c. Use another method of contraception for 1 week after starting the pill. d. Begin sexual relations once vaginal bleeding has ended.

ANS: C If oral contraceptives are to be started within 3 weeks after an abortion, additional forms of contraception should be used throughout the first week to avoid the risk of pregnancy

14. In the acronym BRAIDED, which letter is used to identify the key components of informed consent that the nurse must document? a. B stands for birth control. b. R stands for reproduction. c. A stands for alternatives. d. I stands for ineffective.

ANS: C In the acronym BRAIDED, A stands for alternatives and information about other viable methods.B stands for benefits and information about the advantages of a particular birth control method and its success rates. Rstands for risks and information about the disadvantages of a particular method and its failure rates. I stands for inquiries and the opportunity to ask questions.

16. The nurse is providing contraceptive instruction to a young couple who are eager to learn. The nurse should be cognizant of which information regarding the natural family planning method? a. The natural family planning method is the same as coitus interruptus or "pulling out." b. This contraception method uses the calendar method to align the woman's cycle with the natural phases of the moon. c. This practice is the only contraceptive method acceptable to the Roman Catholic Church. d. The natural family planning method relies on barrier methods during the fertility phases.

ANS: C Natural family planning is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic Church. "Pulling out" is not the same as periodic abstinence, another name for natural family planning. The phases of the moon are not part of the calendar method or any method. Natural family planning is another name for periodic abstinence, which is the accepted way to pass safely through the fertility phases without relying on chemical or physical barriers.

7. Preconception and prenatal care have become important components of women's health. What is the guiding principal of preconception care? a. Ensure that pregnancy complications do not occur. b. Identify the woman who should not become pregnant. c. Encourage healthy lifestyles for families desiring pregnancy. d. Ensure that women know about prenatal care.

ANS: C Preconception counseling guides couples in how to avoid unintended pregnancies, how to identify and manage risk factors in their lives and in their environment, and how to identify healthy behaviors that promote the well-being of the woman and her potential fetus. Preconception care does not ensure that pregnancy complications will not occur. In many cases, problems can be identified and treated and may not recur in subsequent pregnancies. For many women, counseling can allow behavior modification before any damage is done, or a woman can make an informed decision about her willingness to accept potential hazards. If a woman is seeking preconception care, then she is likely aware of prenatal care.

19. The microscopic examination of scrapings from the cervix, endocervix, or other mucous membranes to detect premalignant or malignant cells is called what? a. Bimanual palpation b. Rectovaginal palpation c. Papanicolaou (Pap) test d. Four As procedure

ANS: C The Pap test is a microscopic examination for cancer that should be regularly performed, depending on the client's age. Bimanual palpation is a physical examination of the vagina. Rectovaginal palpation is a physical examination performed through the rectum. The four As procedure is an intervention to help a client stop smoking.

26. Which statement regarding female sexual response is inaccurate? a. Women and men are more alike than different in their physiologic response to sexual arousal and orgasm. b. Vasocongestion is the congestion of blood vessels. c. Orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle. d. Facial grimaces and spasms of the hands and feet are often part of arousal.

ANS: C The final state of the sexual response cycle is the resolution phase after orgasm. Men and women are surprisingly alike. Vasocongestion causes vaginal lubrication and engorgement of the genitals. Arousal is characterized by increased muscular tension (myotonia).

13. Which phase of the endometrial cycle best describes a heavy, velvety soft, fully matured endometrium? a. Menstrual b. Proliferative c. Secretory d. Ischemic

ANS: C The secretory phase extends from the day of ovulation to approximately 3 days before the next menstrual cycle. During this secretory phase, the endometrium becomes fully mature again. During the menstrual phase, the endometrium is shed. The proliferative phase is a period of rapid growth. During the ischemic phase, the blood supply is blocked and necrosis develops.

10. A woman will be taking oral contraceptives using a 28-day pack. What advice should the nurse provide to protect this client from an unintended pregnancy? a. Limit sexual contact for one cycle after starting the pill. b. Use condoms and foam instead of the pill for as long as the client takes an antibiotic. c. Take one pill at the same time every day. d. Throw away the pack and use a backup method if two pills are missed during week 1 of her cycle

ANS: C To maintain adequate hormone levels for contraception and to enhance compliance, clients should take oral contraceptives at the same time each day. If contraceptives are to be started at any time other than during normal menses or within 3 weeks after birth or an abortion, then another method of contraception should be used through the first week to prevent the risk of pregnancy. Taken exactly as directed, oral contraceptives prevent ovulation, and pregnancy cannot occur. No strong pharmacokinetic evidence indicates a link between the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and altered hormonal levels in oral contraceptive users. If the client misses two pills during week 1, then she should take two pills a day for 2 days and finish the package and use a backup contraceptive method for the next 7 consecutive days.

26. What is the importance of obtaining informed consent for a number of contraceptive methods? a. Contraception is an invasive procedure that requires hospitalization. b. The method may require a surgical procedure to insert a device. c. The contraception method chosen may be unreliable. d. The method chosen has potentially dangerous side effects.

ANS: D Being aware of the potential side effects is important for couples who are making an informed decision about the use of contraceptives. The only contraceptive method that is a surgical procedure and requires hospitalization is sterilization. Some methods have greater efficacy than others, and this efficacy should be included in the teaching.

17. As part of their participation in the gynecologic portion of the physical examination, which approach should the nurse take? a. Take a firm approach that encourages the client to facilitate the examination by following the physician's instructions exactly. b. Explain the procedure as it unfolds, and continue to question the client to get information in a timely manner. c. Take the opportunity to explain that the trendy vulvar self-examination is only for women at risk for developing cancer. d. Help the woman relax through the proper placement of her hands and proper breathing during the examination.

ANS: D Breathing techniques are important relaxation techniques that can help the client during the examination. The nurse should encourage the client to participate in an active partnership with the health care provider. Explanations during the procedure are fine, but many women are uncomfortable answering questions in the exposed and awkward position of the examination. Vulvar self-examination on a regular basis should be encouraged and taught during the examination.

24. Which statement regarding the term contraceptive failure rate is the most accurate? a. The contraceptive failure rate refers to the percentage of users expected to have an accidental pregnancy over a 5-year span. b. It refers to the minimum rate that must be achieved to receive a government license. c. The contraceptive failure rate increases over time as couples become more careless. d. It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users.

ANS: D Contraceptive effectiveness varies from couple to couple, depending on how well a contraceptive method is used and how well it suits the couple. The contraceptive failure rate measures the likelihood of accidental pregnancy in the first year only. Failure rates decline over time because users gain experience.

21. Which statement is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions? a. Medical abortions are performed only for maternal health. b. They can be achieved through surgical procedures or with drugs. c. Medical abortions are mostly performed in the second trimester. d. They can be either elective or therapeutic.

ANS: D Medical abortions can be either elective (the woman's choice) or therapeutic (for reasons of maternal or fetal health) and are performed through the use of medications rather than surgical procedures. Medical abortions are usually performed in the first trimester.

22. Which hormone is responsible for the maturation of mammary gland tissue? a. Estrogen b. Testosterone c. Prolactin d. Progesterone

ANS: D Progesterone causes maturation of the mammary gland tissue, specifically acinar structures of the lobules. Estrogen increases the vascularity of the breast tissue. Testosterone has no bearing on breast development. Prolactin is produced after birth and released from the pituitary gland; it is produced in response to infant suckling and an emptying of the breasts.

22. A woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of contraception. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse, "My period is due in a few days, and my temperature has not gone up." What is the nurse's most appropriate response? a. "This probably means that you're pregnant." b. "Don't worry; it's probably nothing." c. "Have you been sick this month?" d. "You probably didn't ovulate during this cycle."

ANS: D The absence of a temperature decrease most likely is the result of a lack of ovulation. Pregnancy cannot occur without ovulation, which is being measured using the BBT method. A comment such as, "Don't worry; it's probably nothing," discredits the client's concerns. Illness is most likely the cause of an increase in BBT.

6. A client currently uses a diaphragm and spermicide for contraception. She asks the nurse to explain the major differences between the cervical cap and the diaphragm. What is the mostappropriate response by the nurse? a. "No spermicide is used with the cervical cap, so it's less messy." b. "The diaphragm can be left in place longer after intercourse." c. "Repeated intercourse with the diaphragm is more convenient." d. "The cervical cap can be safely used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later."

ANS: D The cervical cap can be inserted hours before sexual intercourse without the need for additional spermicide later. Spermicide should be used inside the cap as an additional chemical barrier. The cervical cap should remain in place for 6 hours after the last act of intercourse. Repeated intercourse with the cervical cap is more convenient because no additional spermicide is needed.

10. A blind woman has arrived for an examination. Her guide dog assists her to the examination room. She appears nervous and says, "I've never had a pelvic examination." What response from the nurse would be most appropriate? a. "Don't worry. It will be over before you know it." b. "Try to relax. I'll be very gentle, and I won't hurt you." c. "Your anxiety is common. I was anxious when I first had a pelvic examination." d. "I'll let you touch each instrument that I'll use during the examination as I tell you how it will be used."

ANS: D The client who is visually impaired needs to be oriented to the examination room and needs a full explanation of what the examination entails before the nurse proceeds. Telling the client that the examination will be over quickly diminishes the client's concerns. The nurse should openly and directly communicate with sensitivity. Women who have physical disabilities should be respected and involved in the assessment and physical examination to the full extent of their abilities. Telling the client that she will not be hurt does not reflect respect or sensitivity. Although anxiety may be common, the nurse should not discuss her own issues nor compare them to the client's concerns.

14. Which part of the menstrual cycle includes the stimulated release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)? a. Menstrual phase b. Endometrial cycle c. Ovarian cycle d. Hypothalamic-pituitary cycle

ANS: D The cyclic release of hormones is the function of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands. The menstrual cycle is a complex interplay of events that simultaneously occur in the endometrium, hypothalamus, pituitary glands, and ovaries. The endometrial cycle consists of four phases: menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase, and ischemic phase. The ovarian cycle remains under the influence of FSH and estrogen.

19. Nurses should be cognizant of what information with regard to the noncontraceptive medical effects of combination oral contraceptives (COCs)? a. COCs can cause TSS if the prescription is wrong. b. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding is usually a little more profuse than in normal menstruation and lasts a week for those who use COCs. c. COCs increase the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancers. d. Effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements.

ANS: D The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements. TSS can occur in some who use the diaphragm, but it is not a consequence of taking oral contraceptive pills. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is lighter than in normal menstruation and lasts a couple of days. Oral contraceptive pills offer protection against the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancers.

30. What is the most dangerous effect on the fetus of a mother who smokes cigarettes while pregnant? a. Genetic changes and anomalies b. Extensive central nervous system damage c. Fetal addiction to the substance inhaled d. Intrauterine growth restriction

ANS: D The major consequences of smoking tobacco during pregnancy are low-birth-weight infants, prematurity, and increased perinatal loss. Cigarettes will not normally cause genetic changes or extensive central nervous system damage. Addiction to tobacco is not usually a concern related to the neonate.

23. What is the goal of a long-term treatment plan for an adolescent with an eating disorder? a. Managing the effects of malnutrition b. Establishing sufficient caloric intake c. Improving family dynamics d. Restructuring client perception of body image

ANS: D The treatment of eating disorders is initially focused on reestablishing physiologic homeostasis. Once body systems are stabilized, the next goal of treatment for eating disorders is maintaining adequate caloric intake. Although family therapy is indicated when dysfunctional family relationships exist, the primary focus of therapy for eating disorders is to help the adolescent cope with complex issues. The focus of treatment in individual therapy for an eating disorder involves restructuring cognitive perceptions about the individual's body image.

4. Which action would be inappropriate for the nurse to perform before beginning the health history interview? a. Smile and ask the client whether she has any special concerns. b. Speak in a relaxed manner with an even, nonjudgmental tone. c. Make the client comfortable. d. Tell the client her questions are irrelevant.

ANS: D The woman should be assured that all of her questions are relevant and important. Beginning any client interaction with a smile is important and assists in putting the client at ease. If the nurse speaks in a relaxed manner, then the client will likely be more relaxed during the interview. The client's comfort should always be ensured before beginning the interview.