Maternity Week 2 TB CH 3, 10, 11, 12

A nurse is examining a female client and tests the clients vaginal pH. Which finding would the nurse interpret as normal? a. 4.5 b. 7 c. 8.5 d. 10

a. 4.5 The vagina has an acidic environment; therefore a pH of 4.5 would indicate an acidic environment. A pH of 7 is considered neutral; a pH above 7 is considered alkaline.

A biophysical profile has been completed on a pregnant woman. The nurse interprets which score as normal? a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3

a. 9 The biophysical profile is a scored test with five components, each worth 2 points if present. A total score of 10 is possible if the NST is used. Overall, a score of 8 to 10 is considered normal if the amniotic fluid volume is adequate. A score of 6 or below is suspicious, possibly indicating a compromised fetus; further investigation of fetal well-being is needed.

When assessing a woman in her first trimester, which emotional response would the nurse most likely expect to find? a. Ambivalence b. Introversion c. Acceptance d. Emotional lability

a. Ambivalence During the first trimester, the pregnant woman commonly experiences ambivalence, with conflicting feelings at the same time. Introversion heightens during the first and third trimesters when the woman's focus is on behaviors that will ensure a safe and healthy pregnancy outcome. Acceptance usually occurs during the second trimester. Emotional lability (mood swings) is characteristic throughout a woman pregnancy.

A group of students are reviewing the signs of pregnancy. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which as presumptive signs? (Select all that apply.) a. Amenorrhea b. Nausea c. Abdominal enlargement d. Braxton-Hicks contractions e. Fetal heart sounds

a. Amenorrhea b. Nausea

A nurse is discussing fetal development with a pregnant woman. The woman is 12 weeks pregnant and asks, "Whats happening with my baby?" Which of the following would the nurse integrate into the response? (Select all that apply.) a. Continued sexual differentiation b. Eyebrows forming c. Startle reflex present d. Digestive system becoming active e. Lanugo present on the head

a. Continued sexual differentiation d. Digestive system becoming active At 12 weeks, sexual differentiation continues and the digestive system shows activity. Eyebrows form and startle reflex is present between weeks 21 and 24. Lanugo on the head appears about weeks 13-16

A group of students are reviewing information about genetic inheritance. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as an example of an autosomal recessive disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Cystic fibrosis b. Phenylketonuria c. Tay-Sachs disease d. Polycystic kidney disease e. Achondroplasia

a. Cystic fibrosis b. Phenylketonuria c. Tay-Sachs disease Examples of autosomal recessive disorders include cystic fibrosis, phenylketonuria, and Tay-Sachs disease. Polycystic kidney disease and achondroplasia are examples of autosomal dominant diseases.

A pregnant woman undergoes maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) testing at 16 to 18 weeks gestation. Which of the following would the nurse suspect if the woman's level is decreased? a. Down syndrome b. Sickle-cell anemia c. Cardiac defects d. Open neural tube defect

a. Down syndrome Decreased levels might indicate Down syndrome or trisomy 18. Sickle cell anemia may be identified by chorionic villus sampling. MSAFP levels would be increased with cardiac defects, such as tetralogy of Fallot. A triple marker test would be used to determine an open neural tube defect.

A nurse is describing advances in genetics to a group of students. Which of the following would the nurse least likely include? a. Genetic diagnosis is not available as early as the second trimester. b. Genetic testing can identify presymptomatic conditions in children. c. Gene therapy can be used to repair missing genes with normal ones. d. Genetic agents may be used in the future to replace drugs.

a. Genetic diagnosis is not available as early as the second trimester. Genetic diagnosis is now possible very early in pregnancy. Genetic testing can now identify presymptomatic conditions in children and adults. Gene therapy can be used to replace or repair defective or missing genes with normal ones. Gene therapy has been used for a variety of disorders, including cystic fibrosis, melanoma, diabetes, HIV, and hepatitis. the potential exists for creation of increased intelligence and size through genetic intervention. Recent research using gene therapy shows promise for the generation of insulin-producing cells to cure diabetes. In the future, genetic agents may replace drugs, general surgery may be replaced by gene surgery, and genetic intervention may replace radiation.

When describing genetic disorders to a group of childbearing couples, the nurse would identify which as an example of an autosomal dominant inheritance disorder? a. Huntington's disease b. sickle cell disease c. Phenylketonuria d. Cystic fibrosis

a. Huntington's disease Huntington's disease is an example of an autosomal dominant inheritance disorder. Sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, and cystic fibrosis are examples of autosomal recessive inheritance disorders.

A nurse is assessing a pregnant woman on a routine checkup. When assessing the womans gastrointestinal tract, which of the following would the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Hyperemic gums b. Increased peristalsis c. Complaints of bloating d. Heartburn e. Nausea

a. Hyperemic gums c. Complaints of bloating d. Heartburn e. Nausea Gastrointestinal system changes include hyperemic gums due to estrogen and increased proliferation of blood vessels and circulation to the mouth; slowed peristalsis; acid indigestion and heartburn; bloating and nausea and vomiting.

A woman in the 34th week of pregnancy says to the nurse, I still feel like having intercourse with my husband. The woman's pregnancy has been uneventful. The nurse responds based on the understanding that: a. It is safe to have intercourse at this time. b. Intercourse at this time is likely to cause rupture of membranes. c. There are other ways that the couple can satisfy their needs. d. Intercourse at this time is likely to result in premature labor.

a. It is safe to have intercourse at this time. Sexual activity is permissible during pregnancy unless there is a history of vaginal bleeding, placenta previa, risk of preterm labor, multiple gestation, incompetent cervix, premature rupture of membranes, or presence of infection.

Assessment of a pregnant woman reveals a pigmented line down the middle of her abdomen. The nurse documents this as which of the following? a. Linea nigra b. Striae gravidarum c. Melasma d. Vascular spiders

a. Linea nigra Linea nigra refers to the darkened line of pigmentationdown the middle of the abdomen in pregant women. Striae gravidarum refer to stretch marks, irregular reddish streaks on the abdomen, breasts, and buttocks. Melasma refers to the increased pigmentation on the face, also known as the "mask of pregnancy." Vascular spiders are small, spiderlike blood vessels that appear usually above the waist and on the neck, thorax, face, and arms.

When describing the ovarian cycle to a group of students, which phase would the instructor include? a. Luteal phase b. Proliferative phase c. Menstrual phase d. Secretory phase

a. Luteal phase The ovarian cycle consists of three phases: the follicular phase, ovulation, and the luteal phase. The endometrial cycle includes the proliferative phase, menstrual phase, and secretory phase.

A client with a 28-day cycle reports that she ovulated on May 10. The nurse would expect the clients next menses to begin on a. May 24 b. May 26 c. May 30 d. June 1

a. May 24 For a woman with a 28-day cycle, ovulation typically occurs on day 14. Therefore, her next menses would begin 14 days later, on May 24

A nurse is conducting a class for a group of teenage girls about female reproductive anatomy and physiology. Which of the following would the nurse include as an external female reproductive organ? Select all that apply. a. Mons pubis b. Labia c. Vagina d. Clitoris e. Uterus

a. Mons pubis b. Labia d. Clitoris

A woman just delivered a healthy term newborn. Upon assessing the umbilical cord, the nurse would identify which of the following as normal? (Select all that apply.) a. One vein b. Two veins c. One artery d. Two arteries e. One ligament

a. One vein d. Two arteries The normal umbilical cord contains one large vein and two small arteries.

A woman comes to the prenatal clinic suspecting that she is pregnant, and assessment reveals probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following would be included as part of this assessment? (Select all that apply.) a. Positive pregnancy test. b. Ultrasound visualization of the fetus c. Auscultation of a fetal heart beat d. Ballottement e. Absence of menstruation f. Softening of the cervix

a. Positive pregnancy test. d. Ballottement f. Softening of the cervix Probable signs of pregnancy include a positive pregnancy test, ballottement, and softening of the cervix (Goodell's sign). Ultrasound visualization of the fetus, auscultation of a fetal heart beat, and palpation of fetal movements are considered positive signs of pregnancy. Absence of menstruation is a presumptive sign of pregnancy.

In a clients, seventh month of pregnancy, she reports feeling "dizzy", like "I'm going to pass out, when I lie down flat on my back." The nurse integrates which of the following into the explanation? a. Pressure of the gravid uterus on the vena cava b. A 50% increase in blood volume c. Physiologic anemia due to hemoglobin decrease d. Pressure of the presenting fetal part o n the diaphragm

a. Pressure of the gravid uterus on the vena cava The client is describing symptoms of supine hypotension syndrome, which occurs when the heavy gravid uterus falls back against the superior vena cava in the supine positon . The vena cava is compressed, reducing venous return, cardiac output, and blood pressure, with increased orthostasis. The increased blood volume and physiologic anemia are unrelated to the client's symptoms. Pressure on the diaphragm would lead to dyspnea.

A pregnant woman is scheduled to undergo percutaneous umbilical blood sampling. When discussing this test with the woman, the nurse reviews what can be evaluated with the specimens collected. Which of the following would the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Rh incompatibility b. Fetal acidbase status c. Sex-linked disorders d. Enzyme deficiencies e. Coagulation studies

a. Rh incompatibility b. Fetal acidbase status e. Coagulation studies Specimens obtained via percutaneous umbilical cord sampling can be evaluated for coagulation studies, blood group typing, complete blood count, karyotyping, and blood gas analysis. Fetal infection, Rh incompatibility, and fetal acidbase status can be determined. Sex-linked disorders and enzyme deficiencies can be evaluated with chorionic villus sampling.

The nurse is teaching a health education class on male reproductive anatomy and asks the students to identify the site of sperm production. Which structure, if identified by the group, would indicate to the nurse that the teaching was successful? a. Testes b. Seminal vesicles c. Scrotum d. Prostate gland

a. Testes The testes are responsible for sperm production. The seminal vesicles produce nutrient seminal fluid. The scrotum surrounds and protects the testes. The prostate gland and the seminal vesicles produce fluid to nourish the sperm

After teaching a group of students about the discomforts of pregnancy, the students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which as common during the first trimester? (Select all that apply.) a. Urinary frequency b. Breast tenderness c. Cravings d. Backache e. Leg cramps

a. Urinary frequency b. Breast tenderness c. Cravings Discomforts common in the first trimester include urinary frequency, breast tenderness, and cravings. Backache and leg cramps are common during the second trimester. Legs cramps are also common during the third trimester. 1st: 0 -13 weeks 2nd: 14 - 26 weeks 3rd: 27 - 40 weeks

A pregnant woman in her second trimester tells the nurse, "I've been passing a lot of gas and feel bloated." Which of the following suggestions would be helpful for the woman? Select all apply a. Watch how much beans and onions you eat. b. Limit the amount of fluid you drink with meals. c. Try exercising a little more. d. Some say that eating mints can help. e. Cut down on your intake of cheeses.

a. Watch how much beans and onions you eat. c. Try exercising a little more. d. Some say that eating mints can help. For gas and bloating, the nurse would instruct the woman to avoid gas-forming foods, such as beans, cabbage, and onions, as well as foods that have a high content of white sugar. Adding more biter to the diet, increasing fluid intake, and increasing physical exercise are also helpful in reducing flatus. In addition, reducing the amount of swallowed air when chewing gum or smoking will reduce gas build-up. Reducing the intake of carbonated beverages and cheese and eating mints can also help reduce flatulence during pregnancy.

After teaching a group of students about fetal development, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as providing the barrier to other sperm after fertilization? a. Zona pellucida b. Zygote c. Cleavage d. Morula

a. Zona pellucida The zona pellucida is the clear protein layer that acts as a barrier to other sperm once one sperm enters the ovum for fertilization. The zygote refers to the union of the nuclei of the ovum and sperm resulting in the diploid number of chromosomes. Cleavage is another term for mitosis. The morula is the result of four cleavages leading to 16 cells that appear as a solid ball of cells. The morula reaches the uterine cavity about 72 hrs after fertilization.

A nurse is describing the structure and function of the reproductive system to an adolescent health class. The nurse describes the secretion of the seminal vesicles as which of the following? a. Mucus-like b. Alkaline c. Acidic d. Semen

b. Alkaline The paired seminal vesicles secrete an alkaline fluid that contains fructose and prostaglandins. The fructose supplies energy to the sperm on its journey to meet the ovum, and the prostaglandins assist in sperm mobility. The Cowper's glands secrete a mucus-like fluid. The vagina is an acidic environment. Semen refers to the sperm-containing fluid.

After teaching a group of students about fetal development, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as essential for fetal lung development? a. Umblilical cord b. Amniotic fluid c. Placenta d. Trophoblasts

b. Amniotic fluid Amniotic fluid is essential for fetal growth and development, especially fetal lung development. The umbilical cord is the lifeline from the mother to the growing embryo. The placenta serves as the interface between the mother and developing fetus. It secretes hormones and supplies the fetus with nutrients and oxygen needed for growth. The trophoblasts differentiate into all the cells that form that placenta.

A nursing instructor is describing the hormones involved in the menstrual cycle to a group of nursing students. The instructor determines the teaching was successful when the students identify follicle-stimulating hormone as being secreted by which of the following? a. Hypothalamus b. Anterior pituitary gland c. Ovaries d. Corpus luteum

b. Anterior pituitary gland Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. The hypothalamus secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone. The ovaries secrete estrogen. The corpus luteum secretes progesterone.

The nurse is assessing a 13-year-old girl who has had her first menses. Which of the following events would the nurse expect to have occurred first? a. Evidence of pubic hair b. Development of breast buds c. Onset of menses d. Growth spurt

b. Development of breast buds Pubertal events preceding the first menses have an orderly progression beginning with the development of breast buds, followed by the appearance of pubic hair, then axillary hair, then a growth spurt. Menses typically occurs about 2 years after the start of breast development.

A nurse is developing a teaching plan about nutrition for a group of pregnant women. Which of the following would the nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.) a. Keep weight gain to 15 lb b. Eat three meals with snacking c. Limit the use of salt in cooking d. Avoid using diuretics e. Participate in physical activity

b. Eat three meals with snacking d. Avoid using diuretics e. Participate in physical activity

During a prenatal class for a group of new mothers, the nurse is describing the hormones produced by the placenta. Which of the following would the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Prolactin b. Estriol c. Relaxin d. Progestin e. Human chorionic somatomammotropin

b. Estriol c. Relaxin d. Progestin e. Human chorionic somatomammotropin Estriol, relaxin, progestin, and human chorionic somatomammotropin are secreted by the placenta. Prolactin is secreted after delivery for breastfeeding.

After the nurse describes fetal circulation to a pregnant woman, the woman asks why her fetus has a different circulation pattern than hers. In planning a response, the nurse integrates understanding of which of the following? a. Fetal blood is thicker than that of adults and needs different pathways. b. Fetal circulation carries highly oxygenated blood to vital areas first. c. Fetal blood has a higher oxygen saturation and circulates more slowly. d. Fetal heart rates are rapid and circulation time is double that of adults.

b. Fetal circulation carries highly oxygenated blood to vital areas first. Fetal circulation functions to carry highly oxygenated blood to vital areas first while shunting it away from less vital ones. Fetal blood is not thicker than that of adults. Large volumes of oxygenated blood are not needed because the placenta essentially takes over the functions of the lung and liver during fetal life. Although fetal R normally range from 120 to 160 beats per minute, circulation time is not doubled.

When describing the structures involved in fetal circulation, the nursing instructor describes which structure as the opening between the right and left atrium? a. Ductus venosus b. Foramen ovale c. Ductus arteriosus d. Umbilical artery

b. Foramen ovale the foramen ovale is the opening between the right and left atrium. The ductus venous connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena carva. The ductus arterious connects the main pulmonary artery to the aorta. The umbilical artery carries blood to the placenta.

During a routine prenatal visit, a client, 36 weeks pregnant, states she has difficulty breathing and feels like her pulse rate is really fast. The nurse finds her pulse to be 100 beats per minute (increased from baseline readings of 70 to 74 beats per minute. and irregular, with bilateral crackles in the lower lung bases. Which nursing diagnosis would be the priority for this client? a. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to supine hypotensive syndrome b. Impaired gas exchange related to pulmonary congestion c. Activity intolerance related to increased metabolic requirements d. Anxiety related to fear of pregnancy outcome

b. Impaired gas exchange related to pulmonary congestion Typically, heart rate increases by approximately 10 to 15 beats per minute during pregnancy and the lungs should be clear. Dyspnea may occur during the third trimester as the enlarging uterus presses on the diaphragm. However, the findings described indicate that the woman is experiencing impaired gas exchange. There is no evidence to support problems with tissue perfusion, activity, or anxiety.

A nursing instructor is preparing a teaching plan for a group of nursing students about the potential for misuse of genetic discoveries and advances. Which the following would the instructor most likely include? a. Gene replacement therapy for defective genes b. Individual risk profiling and confidentiality c. Greater emphasis on the causes of diseases d. Slower diagnosis of specific disease

b. Individual risk profiling and confidentiality

A clients last menstrual period was April 11. Using Nageles rule, her expected date of birth (EDB. would be: a. January 4 b. January 18 c. January 25 d. February 24

b. January 18 April 11 + 7 days - 3 months

A woman comes to the clinic complaining of a vaginal discharge. The nurse suspects that the client has an infection. When gathering additional information, which of the following would the nurse be least likely to identify as placing the client at risk for an infection? a. Recent antibiotic therapy for an upper respiratory infection b. Last menstrual period about 5 days ago c. Weekly douching d. Frequent use of feminine hygiene sprays.

b. Last menstrual period about 5 days ago The vagina has an acidic environment, which protects it against ascending infections. Antibiotic therapy, douching, perineal hygiene sprays, and deodorants upset the acid balance within the vaginal environment and can predispose women to infections. Menstrual period about 5 days ago is not considered a risk factor.

A nurse is assessing a child with Klinefelter's syndrome. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Gross mental retardation b. Long arms c. Profuse body hair d. Gynecomastia e. Enlarged testicles

b. Long arms d. Gynecomastia Manifestations of Klinefelter's syndrome include mild mental retardation, small testicles, infertility, long arms and legs, gynecomastia, scant facial and body hair, and decreased libido.

When describing the hormones involved in the menstrual cycle, a nurse identifies which hormone as responsible for initiating the cycle? a. Estrogen b. Luteinizing hormone c. progesterone d. Prolactin

b. Luteinizing hormone

When describing the male sexual response to a group of students, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when they identify emission as which of the following? a. Semen forced through the urethra to the outside b. Movement of sperm from the testes and fluid into the urethras c. Dilation of the penile arteries with increased blood flow to the tissues. d. Bodys return to the physiologic nonstimulated state

b. Movement of sperm from the testes and fluid into the urethras Emission refers to the movement of sperm from the testes and fluids from the accessory glands into the urethra, where it is mixed to form semen. As the urethra fills with semen, the base of the erect penis contracts, thus increases pressure. This pressure force the semen through the urethra to the outside (ejaculation). Dilation of the penile arteries with increased blood flow describes erection. The body's return to the physiologic nonstimulated state describes resolution.

A nurse is teaching a class on X-linked recessive disorders. Which of the following statements would the nurse most likely include? a. Males are typically carriers of the disorders. b. No male-to-male transmission occurs. c. Daughters are more commonly affected with the disorder. d. Both sons and daughters have a 50% risk of the disorder.

b. No male-to-male transmission occurs. Most X-linked disorders demonstrate a recessive pattern of inheritance. Males are more affected than females. A male has only one X chromosome and all the genes on his X chromosome will be expressed, whereas a female will usually need oth X chromosomes to carrry the disease. There is no male-to-male transmission (since not X chromosome from the male is transmitted to male offspring), but any man who is affected will have carrier daughter. if a woman is carrier, ther is a 50% chance that her sons will be affected and a 50% chance that her daughters will be carrieers.

A clients maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP. level was unusually elevated at 17 weeks. The nurse suspects which of the following? a. Fetal hypoxia b. Open spinal defects c. Down syndrome d. Maternal hypertension

b. Open spinal defects Elevated MSAFP levels are associated with open neural tube defects. Fetal hypoxia would be noted with fetal heart rate tracings and via nonstress and contraction stress testing. MSAFP in conjunction with marker screening tests would be more reliable for detecting Down syndrome. Maternal hypertension would be noted via serial blood pressure monitoring.

After teaching a group of students about the different perinatal education methods, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as the Bradley method? a. Psychoprophylactic method b. Partner-coached method c. Natural childbirth method d. Mind prevention method

b. Partner-coached method The Bradley meth is also a partner-coached method that uses various exercises and slow, controlled abdominal breathing to accomplish relaxation and active participation of the partner as labor coach. The Dick-Read method is referred to as natural childbirth. Dick-Read believed that prenatal instruction was essential for pain relief and that emotional factors during labor interfered with the normal labor progression. The woman achieves relaxation and reduces pian by arming herself with the knowledge of normal childbirth and using abdominal breathing during contractions.

The nurse is preparing an outline for a class on the physiology of the male sexual response. Which event would the nurse identify as occurring first? a. Sperm emission b. Penile vasodilation c. Psychological release d. Ejaculation

b. Penile vasodilation

A woman comes to the clinic for an evaluation. During the visit, the woman tells the nurse that her menstrual cycles have become irregular. "I've also been waking up at night feeling really hot and sweating." The nurse interprets these findings as which of the following? a. Menopause b. Perimenopause c. Climacteric d. Menarche

b. Perimenopause

Assessment of a pregnant woman reveals that she compulsively craves ice. The nurse documents this finding as which of the following? a. Quickening b. Pica c. Ballottement d. Linear nigra

b. Pica

Assessment of a pregnant woman reveals oligohydramnios. The nurse would be alert for the development of which of the following? a. Maternal diabetes b. Placental insufficiency c. Neural tube defects d. Fetal gastrointestinal malformations

b. Placental insufficiency A deficiency of amniotic fluid, oligohydramnios, is associated with uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal renal abnormalities. Excess amniotic fluid is associated with maternal diabetes, neural tube defects, and malformations of the gastrointestinal tract and central nervous system.

After teaching a class on the stages of fetal development, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as a stage? (Select all that apply.) a. Placental b. Preembryonic c. Umbilical d. Embryonic e. Fetal

b. Preembryonic c. Umbilical e. Fetal The three stages of fetal development are the preembryonic, embryonic, and fetal stage.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a pregnant woman and notes that she is gravid II. The nurse interprets this to indicate the number of: a. Deliveries b. Pregnancies c. Spontaneous abortions d. Pre-term births

b. Pregnancies Gravid refers to a pregnant woman - gravid I during the first pregnancy, gravid II during the second pregnancy, and so on. Para refers to the number deliveries at 20 weeks or greater that a woman has, regardless of whether the newborn is bron alive or dead. A would be the number of abortions P would be the number preterm births

When describing the menstrual cycle to a group of young women, the nurse explains that estrogen levels are highest during which phase of the endometrial cycle? a. Menstrual b. Proliferative c. Secretory d. Ischemic

b. Proliferative Estrogen levels are the highest during the proliferative phase of the endometrial cycle, when the endometrial glands enlarge in response to increasing amounts of estrogen. Progesterone is the predominant hormone of the secretory phase. Levels of estrogen and progesterone drop sharply during the ischemic phase and fall during the menstrual phase.

When describing perinatal education to a pregnant woman and her partner, the nurse emphasizes that the primary goal of these classes is to: a. Equip a couple with the knowledge to experience a pain-free childbirth b. Provide knowledge and skills to actively participate in birth and parenting c. Eliminate anxiety so that they can have an uncomplicated birth d. Empower the couple to totally control the birth process

b. Provide knowledge and skills to actively participate in birth and parenting The primary focus of perinatal education is to provide information and support to clients and their families to foster a more active role in the upcoming birth. It also includes preparation for breastfeeding, infant care, transition to new parenting roles, relationships skills, family health promotion, and sexuality. Some methods of childbirth education focus on pain-free childbirth. Information provided in childbirth education classes helps to minimize anxiety and provide the couple with control over the situation, but elimination of anxiety or total control is unrealistic

A primiparous client is being seen in the clinic for her first prenatal visit. It is determined that she is 11 weeks pregnant. The nurse develops a teaching plan to educate the client about what she will most likely experience during this period. Which of the following would the nurse include? a. Ankle edema b. Urinary frequency c. Backagche d. Hemorrhoids

b. Urinary frequency The client is in her first trimester and would most likely experience urinary frequency as the growing uterus presses on the bladder. Ankle edema, backache, and hemorrhoids would be more common during the later stages of pregnancy.

A pregnant woman comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that she has been having a whitish vaginal discharge. The nurse suspects vulvovaginal candidiasis based on which assessment finding? a. Fever b. Vaginal itching c. Urinary frequency d. Incontinence

b. Vaginal itching Vaginal secretions become more acidic, white, and thick during pregnancy. Most women experience an increase in a whitish vaginal discharge, called leukorrhea. This is normal except when it is accompanied by itching and irritation, possible suggesting Candida albicans, a monilial vaginitis, which is a very common occurrence in this glycogen-rich environment. Fever would suggest a more serious infection. Urinary frequency occurs commonly in the first and third trimester. Incontinence would not be associated with vulvovaginal candidiasis, would require additional evaluation.

A group of nursing students are reviewing information about the male reproductive structures. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as accessory organs? (Select all that apply.) a. Testes b. Vas deferens c. Bulbourethral glands d. prostate gland e. Penis

b. Vas deferens c. Bulbourethral glands d. prostate gland The organs of the male reproductive system include the two testes (where sperm cells and testosterone are made), the penis, the scrotum and the accessory organs (epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, ejaculatory duct, urethra, bulbourethral glands, and prostate gland).

A nurse is assessing a child with Klinefelter's syndrome. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess? (Select all that apply.) a. A needle will be inserted directly into the fetus's umbilical vessel. b. You'll have an intravaginal ultrasound to measure fluid in the fetus. c. The doctor will take a sample of fluid from your bag of waters. d. A small piece of tissue from the fetal part of the placenta is taken.

b. You'll have an intravaginal ultrasound to measure fluid in the fetus. Fetal nuchal translucency testing involves an intravaginal ultrasound that measures fluid collection in the subcutaneous space between the skin and cervical spine of the fetus. Insertion of needle into the fetus's umbilical vessel describes percutaneous umbilical blood sampling. Taking a sample of fluid from the amniotic sac (bag of waters) describes an amniocentesis. Obtaining a small tissue specimen from the fetal part of the placenta describes chorionic villus sampling.

Which of the following would the nurse include when teaching a pregnant woman about chorionic villus sampling? a. The results should be available in about a week. b. You'll have an ultrasound first and then the test. c. Afterwards, you can resume your exercise program. d. This test is very helpful for identifying spinal defects.

b. You'll have an ultrasound first and then the test. With CVS, an ultrasound is done first to localize the embryo. Results are usually available within 48 hrs. After the procedure, the woman should refrain from any strenuous activity for the next 48 hrs. CVS can be used to detect numerous genetic disorders but not neural tube (spinal) defects

The nurse is developing a presentation for a community group of young adults discussing fetal development and pregnancy. The nurse would identify that the sex of offspring is determined at the time of: a. meiosis b. fertilization c. Formation of morula d. Oogenesis

b. fertilization Sex determination occurs at the time of fertilization. Meiosis refers to cell division resulting in the formation of an ovum or sperm with half the number of chromosomes. The morula develops after a series of our cleavages following the formation of the zygote. Oogenesis refers to the development of a mature ovum, which has half the number of chromosomes.

The nurse is discussing the insulin needs of a primaparous client with diabetes who has been using insulin for the past few years. The nurse informs the client that her insulin needs will increase during pregnancy based on the nurses understanding that the placenta produces a. hCG, which increases maternal glucose levels b. hPl, wich deceases the effectiveness of insulin c. Estriol, which interferes with insulin crossing the placenta d. Relaxin, which decreases the amount of insulin produced

b. hPl, wich deceases the effectiveness of insulin hPl acts as an antagonist to insulin, so the mother must produce more insulin to overcome this resistance. if the mother has diabetes, then her insulin need would most likely increase to meet this demand. hCG does not affect insulin and glucose level. Estrogen, not estriol, is believed to oppose insulin. In addition, insulin does not cross the placenta. Relaxin is not associated with insulin resistance.

A nurse strongly encourages a pregnant client to avoid eating swordfish and tilefish because these fish contain which of the following? a. Excess folic acid, which could increase the risk for neural tube defects b. Mercury, which could harm the developing fetus if eaten in large amounts c. Lactose, which leads to abdominal discomfort, gas, and diarrhea d. Low-quality protein that does not meet the woman's requirements

b. mercury, which could harm the developing fetus if eaten in large amounts Nearly all fish and shellfish contain traces of mercury and some contain higher levels of mercury that may harm the developing fetus if ingested by pregnant women in large amounts. Among these fish are shark, swordfish, king mackerel, and tilefish. Folic acid is found in dark green vegetables, baked beans, black-eyed peas, citrus fruits, peanuts, and liver. Folic acid supplements are needed to prevent neural tube defects. Women who are lactose intolerant experience abdominal discomfort, gas, and diarrhea if they ingest foods containing lactose. Fish and shellfish are an important part of a healthy diet because they contain high-quality proteins, are low in saturated fat, and contain omega-3 fatty acids.

A nurse measures a pregnant woman's fundal height and finds it to be 28 cm. The nurse interprets this to indicate which of the following? a. 14 weeks gestation b. 20 weeks gestation c. 28 weeks gestation d. 36 weeks gestation

c. 28 weeks gestation Typically, the height of the fundus is measured when the uterus arises out of the pelvis to evaluate fetal growth. At 12 week's gestration the fundus can be palated at the symphysis pubis. At 16 weeks' gestration the fundus is midway between the symhysis and the umbilicus. At 20 weeks the fundus can be palpated at the umbilicus and measures approximately 20 cm from the syphysis pubis.

A client who is 4 months pregnant is at the prenatal clinic for her initial visit. Her history reveals she has 7-year-old twins who were born at 34 weeks gestation, a 2-year old son born at 39 weeks gestation, and a spontaneous abortion 1 year ago at 6 weeks gestation. Using the GTPAL method, the nurse would document her obstetric history as: a. 3 2 1 0 3 b. 3 1 2 2 3 c. 4 1 1 1 3 d. 4 2 1 3 1

c. 4 1 1 1 3 Gravida: number of pregnancies: 4 T: number of term 1 P number of preterm 1 A: number of ended prior to age of 20 weeks 1 L: number of living children 3

A woman is at 20 weeks gestation. The nurse would expect to find the fundus at which of the following? a. Just above the symphysis pubis b. Mid-way between the pubis and umbilicus c. At the level of the umbilicus d. Mid-way between the umbilicus and xiphoid process

c. At the level of the umbilicus

A gravida 2 para 1 client in the 10th week of her pregnancy says to the nurse, "I've never urinated as often as I have for the past three weeks". Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make? a. Having to urinate so often is annoying. I suggest that you watch how much fluid you are drinking and limit it. b. You shouldn't be urinating this frequently now; it usually stops by the time you're eight weeks pregnant. Is there anything else bothering you? c. By the time you are 12 weeks pregnant, this frequent urination should no longer be a problem, but it is likely to return toward the end of your pregnancy. d. Women having their second child generally don't have frequent urination. Are you experiencing any burning sensations?

c. By the time you are 12 weeks pregnant, this frequent urination should no longer be a problem, but it is likely to return toward the end of your pregnancy. As the uterus grows, it presses on the urinary bladder, causing the increased frequency of urination during the first trimester. This complaint lessens during the second trimester only to reappear in the third trimester as the fetus begins to descend into the pelvis, causing pressure on the bladder.

During a vaginal exam, the nurse notes that the cervix has a bluish color. The nurse documents this finding as: a. Hegar's sign b. Goodell's sign c. Chadwick's sign d. Ortolani's sign

c. Chadwick's sign Bluish coloration of the cervix is termed Chadwick's sign. Hegar's sign refers to the softening of the lower uterine segment or isthmus. Goodell's sign refers to the softening of the cervix. Ortolani's sign is maneuver done to identify developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants.

On the first prenatal visit, examination of the womans internal genitalia reveals a bluish coloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. The nurse records this finding as: a. Hegar's sign b. Goodell's sign c. Chadwick's sign d. Homan's sign

c. Chadwick's sign Chadwick's sign refers to the bluish coloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. Hegar's sign refers to softening of the isthmus. a. Hegar's sign: softening of the uterus b. Goodell's sign: oftening of the cervix d. Homan's sign: indicates pain on dorsiflexion of the food.

When preparing a woman for an amniocentesis, the nurse would instruct her to do which of the following? a. Shower with an antiseptic scrub. b. Swallow the perprocedure sedative. c. Empty her bladder. d. Lie on her left side.

c. Empty her bladder. Before an amniocentesis, the woman should empty her bladder to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. Showering with an antiseptic scrub and pre-procedural sedation are not necessary. The woman usually is positioned in a way that proves an adequate pocket of amniotic fluid on ultrasound.

After teaching a group of students about female reproductive anatomy, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as the site of fertilization? a. Vagina b. Uterus c. Fallopian tubes d. Vestibule

c. Fallopian tubes Fertilization occurs in the distal portion of the fallopian tubes. The lining of the uterus is shed with menstruation. The vagina connects the external genitalia to the uterus. The vestibule is an oval area enclosed by the labia minora laterally.

A nurse is working with a pregnancy woman to schedule follow-up visits for her pregnancy. Which statement by the woman indicates that she understands the scheduling? a. I need to make visits every 2 months until I'm 36 weeks pregnant. b. Once I get to 28 weeks, I have to come twice a month. c. From now until I'm 28 weeks, I'll be coming once a month. d. I'll make sure to get a day off every 2 weeks to make my visits.

c. From now until I'm 28 weeks, I'll be coming once a month. Continuous prenatal care is important for a successful pregnancy outcome. The recommended follow-up visit schedule for a healthy pregnant woman is as follows; every 4 weeks up to 28 weeks (7 months); every 2 weeks from 29 to 36 weeks; every week from 37 weeks to birth

Prenatal testing is used to assess for genetic risks and to identify genetic disorders. In explaining to a couple about an elevated alpha-fetoprotein screening test result, the nurse would discuss the need for: a. Special care needed for a Down syndrome infant b. A more specific determination of the acidbase status c. Further, more definitive evaluations to conclude anything d. Immediate termination of the pregnancy based on result

c. Further, more definitive evaluations to conclude anything

A pregnant woman is flying across the country to visit her family. After teaching the woman about traveling during pregnancy, which statement indicates that the teaching was successful? a. I'll sit in a window seat so I can focus on the sky to help relax me. b. I won't drink too much fluid so I don't have to urinate so often. c. I'll get up and walk around the airplane about every 2 hrs. d. I'll do some upper arm stretches while sitting in my seat.

c. I'll get up and walk around the airplane about every 2 hrs. When traveling by airplane, the woman should get up and walk about the plane every 2 hours to promote circulation. An aisle seat is recommended so that she can have easy access to the aisle. drinking water throughout the flight is encouraged to maintain hydration. Calf-tensing exercises are important to improve circulation to the lower extremities.

A pregnant woman has a rubella titer drawn on her first prenatal visit. The nurse explains that this test measures which of the following? a. Platelet level b. Rh status c. Immunity to German measles d. Red blood cell count

c. Immunity to German measles A rubella titer detects antibodies for the virus that causes German measles. If the titer is 1:8 or less, the woman is not immune and requires immunization after birth. Platelet level and red blood cell count would be determined by a complete blood count. Rh status would be determined by blood typing.

Which of the following changes in the musculoskeletal system would the nurse mention when teaching a group of pregnant women about the physiologic changes of pregnancy? a. Ligament tightening b. Decreased swayback c. Increased lordosis d. Joint contraction

c. Increased lordosis With pregnancy, the woman's center of gravity shifts forward, requiring a realignment of the spinal curvatures. There is an increase in the normal curve (lordosis). Ligaments o f the sacroiliac joints and pubis symphysis soften and stretch. Increased swayback and an upper spine extension to compensate for the enlarging abdomen occur. Joint relaxation and increased mobility occur due to the influence of the hormones relaxin and progesterone.

A woman in her second trimester comes for a follow-up visit and says to the nurse, "I feel like I'm on an emotional roller-coaster." Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? a. How often has this been happening to you? b. Maybe you need some medication to level things out. c. Mood swings are completely normal during pregnancy. d. Have you been experiencing any thoughts of harming yourself.?

c. Mood swings are completely normal during pregnancy.

A woman suspecting she is pregnant asks the nurse about which signs would confirm her pregnancy. The nurse would explain that which of the following would confirm the pregnancy? a. Absence of menstrual period b. Abdominal enlargmenet c. Palpable fetal movement d. Morning sickness

c. Palpable fetal movement Only positive signs of pregnancy would confirm a pregnancy. The positive signs of pregnancy confirm that a fetus is growing in the uterus. Visualizing the fetus by ultrasound, palpating for fetal movements, and hearing a fetal hearbeat are all signs that make the pregnancy a certainty. Absence of menstrual period and morning sickness are presumptive signs, which can be due to conditions other than pregnancy. Abdominal enlargement is a probable sign.

The nurse is assessing a pregnant woman in the second trimester. Which of the following tasks would indicate to the nurse that the client is incorporating the maternal role into her personality? a. The woman deomonstrates concern for herself and her fetus as a unit. b. The client identifies what she must give up to assume her new roles. c. The woman acknowledges the fetus as a separate entity within her. d. The client demonstrates unconditional acceptance without rejection.

c. The woman acknowledges the fetus as a separate entity within her. Incorporation of the maternal role into her personality indicates acceptance by the pregnant woman. In doing so, the woman becomes able to identify the fetus as a separate individual. Demonstrating concern for herself and her fetus as a unit is associated with introversion and more commonly occurs during the third trimester. Identification of what the mother must give up to assume the new role occurs during the first trimester. Demonstrating unconditional acceptance without rejection occurs during the third trimester.

When describing amniotic fluid to a pregnant woman, the nurse would include which of the following? a. This fluid acts as the transport mechanism for oxygen and nutrients. b. The fluid is mostly protein to provide nourishment to your baby. c. This fluid acts as a cushion to help to protect your baby from injury d. The amount of fluid remains fairly constant throughout the pregnancy.

c. This fluid acts as a cushion to help to protect your baby from injury Amniotic fluid protects the floating embryo and cushions the fetus from trauma. The placenta acts as a transport mechanism for oxygen and nutrients. Amniotic fluid is primarily water with some organic matter. Throughout pregnancy, amniotic fluid volume fluctuates.

While talking with a pregnant woman who has undergone genetic testing, the woman informs the nurse that her baby will be born with Down syndrome. The nurse understands that Down syndrome is an example of: a. multifactorial inheritance b. X-linked recessive inheritance c. Trisomy numeric abnormality d. Chromosomal deletion

c. Trisomy numeric abnormality Down syndrome is an example of a chromosomal abnormality involving the number of chromosomes (trisomy numeric abnormality), in particular chromosome 21, in which the individual has three copies of that chromosome. Multifactorial inheritance gives rise to disorders such as cleft lip, congenital heart disease, neural tube defects, and pyloric stenosis. X-linked recessive inheritance is associated with disorders such as hemophilia. Chromosomal deletion is involved with disorders such as cri-du-chat syndrome

A pregnant woman in the 36th week of gestation complains that her feet are quite swollen at the end of the day. After careful assessment, the nurse determines that this is an expected finding at this stage of pregnancy. Which intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest? a. Limit your intake of fluids. b. Eliminate salt from your diet. c. Try elevating your legs when you sit. d. Wear Spandex-type full-length pants.

c. Try elevating your legs when you sit. The PT is experiencing dependent edema due to the effect of gravity and increased capillary permeability caused by elevated hormone levels and increased blood volume, and accompanied by sodium and water retention. The best suggestion would be to encourage the PT to elevate her legs when sitting to promote venous return and minimize the effects of gravity. Neither fluids nor salt should be limited or eliminated.

Which female reproductive tract structure would the nurse describe to a group of young women as containing rugae that enable it to dilate during labor and birth? a. Cervix b. Fallopian tube c. Vagina d. Vulva

c. Vagina The vagina is a tubular, fibromuscular organ lined with mucous membrane that lies in a series of transverse folds called rugae. These rugae allow for extreme dilation of the canal during labor and birth. The cervix, the lower portion of the uterus, is composed of fibrous connective tissue that dilates during labor. The fallopian tube transports the ovum from the ovary to the uterus. The vulva is a collective term used to refer to the external female reproductive organs (mons pubis, labia majora and minora, clitoris, vestibular structures, and perineum).

After teaching a group of adolescent girls about female reproductive development, the nurse determines that teaching was successful when the girls state that menarche is defined as a womans first: a. Sexual experience b. Full hormonal cycle c. menstrual period d. Sign of breast development

c. menstrual period Menarche is defined as the establishment of menstruation. It does not refer to the woman's first sexual experience, full hormonal cycle, or sign of breast development.

The nurse is teaching a pregnant woman about recommended weight gain. The woman has a prepregnancy body mass index of 26. The nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the woman states that she should gain no more than which amount during pregnancy? a. 35 to 40 lbs b. 25 to 34 lbs c. 28 to 40 lbs d. 15 to 25 lbs

d. 15 to 25 lbs A woman with a body mass index of 26 is considered overweight and should gain no more than 15 to 25 lb during pregnancy. Women with a body mass index of 18.5 to 24.9 should gain 25 to 35 lb. A woman with a body mass index less than 18.5 should gain 28 to 40 lb.

A couple comes to the clinic for preconception counseling and care. As part of the visit, the nurse teaches the couple about fertilization and initial development, stating that the zygote formed by the union of the ovum and sperm consists of how many chromosomes? a. 22 b. 23 c. 44 d. 46

d. 46 with fertilization, the ovum, containing 23 chromosomes, and the sperm, containing 3 chromosomes, join, forming a zygote with a diploid number or 46 chromosomes.

A nursing instructor is teaching a class to a group of students about pregnancy, insulin, and glucose. Which of the following would the instructor least likely include as opposing insulin? a. Prolactin b. Estrogen c. Progesterone d. Cortisol

d. Cortisol Prolactin, estrogen, and progesterone are all thought to oppose insulin. As a result, glucose is lees likely to enter the mother's cells and is more likely to cross over the placenta to the fetus. Afte first trimester, hPL from the placenta and steroids (cortisol) from the adrenal cortex act against insulin. hPL acts as an antagonist against maternal insulin, and thus more insulin must be secreted to counteract the increasing levels of hPL and cortisol during the last half of pregnancy.

When assessing a woman at follow-up prenatal visits, the nurse would anticipate which of the following to be performed? a. Hemoglobin and hematocrit b. Urine for culture c. Fetal ultrasound d. Fundal height measurement

d. Fundal height measurement

When teaching a pregnant client about the physiologic changes of pregnancy, the nurse reviews the effect of pregnancy on glucose metabolism. Which of the following would the nurse include as the underlying reason for the effect? a. Pancreatic function is affected by pregnancy. b. Glucose is utilized more rapidly during a pregnancy. c. The pregnant woman increases her dietary intake. d. Glucose moves through the placenta to assist the fetus.

d. Glucose moves through the placenta to assist the fetus. The growing fetus has large needs for glucose, amino acids, and lipids, placing demands on maternal glucose stores. During the first half of pregnancy, much of the maternal glucose is diverted to the growing fetus. The pancreas continues to function during pregnancy. However, the placental hormones can affect maternal insulin levels. The demand for glucose by the fetus during pregnancy is high, but it is not necessarily used more rapidly. Placental hormones, not the woman's dietary intake, play a major role in glucose metabolism during pregnancy.

A pregnant client in her second trimester has a hemoglobin level of 11 g/dL. The nurse interprets this as indicating which of the following? a. Iron-deficiency anemia b. A multiple gestation pregnancy c. Greater-than -expected weight gain d. Hemodilution of pregnancy

d. Hemodilution of pregnancy During pregnancy, the red blood cell count increases along with an increase in plasma volume. However, there is a greater increase in the plasma volume as a result of hormonal factors and sodium and water retentions. Thus, the plasma increase exceeds the increase in RBCs, resulting in hemodilution of pregnancy, which is also called physiologic anemia of pregnancy. Changes in maternal iron levels would be more indicative of an iron-deficiency anemia. Although anemia may be present with a multiple gestation, an ultrasound would be a more reliable method of identifying it. Weight gain does not correlate with hemoglobin levels.

A pregnant woman needs an update in her immunizations. Which of the following vaccinations would the nurse ensure that the woman receives? a. Measles b. Mumps c. Rubella d. Hepatitis B

d. Hepatitis B Hepatitis B vaccine should be considered during pregnancy. Immunizations for measles, mumps, and rubella are contraindicated during pregnancy.

When assessing a pregnant woman in her last trimester, which question would be most appropriate to use to gather information about weight gain and fluid retention? a. What is your usual dietary intake for a typical day? b. What size maternity clothes are you wearing now? c. How puffy does your face look by the end of a day? d. How swollen do your ankles appear before you go to bed?

d. How swollen do your ankles appear before you go to bed? Edema, especially in the dependent areas such as the legs and feet, occurs throughout the day due to gravity. It improves after a night's sleep. Therefore, questioning the PT about ankle swelling would provide the most valuable information. a. Asking about her usual dietary intake would be valuable in assessing complaints of heartburn and indigestion. b. The size of maternity clothing may provide information about weight gain but would have little significance for fluid retention. c. Swelling in the face may suggest preeclampsia, especially if it is accompanied by dizziness, blurred vision, headaches, upper quadrant pain, or nausea.

After teaching a pregnant woman about the hormones produced by the placenta, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the woman identifies which hormone produced as being the basis for pregnancy tests? a. Human placental lactogen (hPL) b. Estrogen (estriol) c. Progesterone (progestin) d. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

d. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) The placenta produces hCG, which is the basis for pregnancy tests. This hormone preserves the corpus luteum and its progesterone production so that the endometrial lining is maintained. Human placental lactogen modulates fetal and maternal metabolism and participates in the development of the breasts for lactation. Estrogen causes enlargement of the woman's breasts, uterus, and external genitalia and stimulates myometrial contractility. Progesterone maintains the endometrium.

The nurse is explaining the events that lead up to ovulation. Which hormone would the nurse identify as being primarily responsible for ovulation? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Luteinizing hormone

d. Luteinizing hormone At ovulation, a mature follicle ruptures in response to a surge of luteinizing hormone. Estrogen is predominant at the end of the follicular phase, directly preceding ovulation. Progesterone peaks 5 to 7 days after ovulation. Follicle-stimulating hormone is highest during the first week of the follicular phase of the cycle.

After teaching a group of pregnant women about breast-feeding, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which hormone as important for the production of breast milk after childbirth? a. Placental estrogen b. Progesterone c. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone d. Prolactin

d. Prolactin After childbirth and expulsion of the placenta, prolactin stimulates the production of milk. Placental estrogen and progesterone stimulate the development of the mammary glands during pregnancy. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone induces the release of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone to assist with ovulation.

While talking with a woman in her third trimester, which behavior indicates to the nurse that the woman is learning to give of oneself? a. Showing concern for self and fetus as a unit. b. Unconditionally accepting the pregnancy without rejection c. Longing to hold infant d. Questioning ability to become a good mother

d. Questioning ability to become a good mother Learning to give of oneself would be demonstrated when the woman questions her ability to become a good mother to the infant. Showing concern for herself and fetus as a unit reflects the task of ensuring safe passage throughout pregnancy and birth. Unconditionally accepting the pregnnacy reflects the task of seeking acceptance of the infant by others. Longing to hold the infant relects the task of seeking acceptance of self in the maternal role to the infant.

During a nonstress test, when monitoring the fetal heart rate, the nurse notes that when the expectant mother reports fetal movement, the heart rate increases 15 beats or more above the baseline. The nurse interprets this as: a. Variable decelerations b. Fetal tachycardia c. A nonreactive pattern d. Reactive pattern

d. Reactive pattern A reactive non stress test indicates fetal activity, as evidenced by acceleration of the fetal heart rate by at least 15 ppm for at least 15 seconds within a 20 minute recording period. If this does not occur, the test is considered nonreactive. An increase in the fetal heart rate does not indicate variable decelerations. Fetal tachycardia would be noted as a heart rate greater than 160 bpm

A woman comes to the clinic complaining that she has little sexual desire. As part of the clients evaluation, the nurse would anticipate the need to evaluate which hormone level? a. Progesterone b. Estrogen c. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone d. Testosterone

d. Testosterone Testosterone is needed to stimulate sexual desire in women. Thus, an evaluation of this level would be done. Progesterone is often called the hormone of pregnancy because of its calming effect (reduction in uterine contractions) on the uterus, allowing pregnancy to be maintained. Estrogen is the predominant hormone at the end of the follicular phase. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone induces the release of FSH and LH to assist with ovulation.

The nurse teaches a primigravida client that lightening occurs about 2 weeks before the onset of labor. The mother will most likely experience which of the following at that time? a. Dysuria b. Dyspnea c. Constipation d. Urinary frequency

d. Urinary frequency Lightening refers to the descent to the fetal into the pelvis and engagement. With this descent, pressure on the diaphragm decreases, easing breathing, but pressure on the bladder increases, leading to urinary frequency. Dysuria might indicate a urinary tract infection. Constipation may occur throughout pregnancy due to decreased peristalsis, but it is unrelated to lightening.

The nurse is creating a diagram that illustrates the components of the male reproductive system. Which structure would be inappropriate for the nurse to include as an accessory gland? a. Seminal vesicles b. Prostate gland c. Cowpers glands d. Vas deferens

d. Vas deferens The vas deferens is part of the ductal system of the male reproductive system responsible for transporting sperm from the epididymis. Accessory glands include the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and Cowper's or bulbourethral glands.

A nursing instructor is describing the various childbirth methods. Which of the following would the instructor include as part of the Lamaze method? a. Focus on the pleasurable sensations of childbirth. b. Concentration on sensations while turning on to own bodies c. Interruption of the fear-tension-pain cycle d. use of specific breathing and relaxation techniques

d. use of specific breathing and relaxation techniques Lamaze method: Psychoprophylactic method; mind prevention; use of specific breathing and relaxation techniques