MB ASCP Study Questions (1)
The 5' phosphate covalently binds to the
3' hydroxyl of an adjacent nucleotide to create a phosphodiester bond and resultant dinucleotide.
Larger fragments of DNA are best separated on A. 0.5% agarose. B. 5% agarose. C. 15% polyacrylamide. D. 20% polyacrylamide.
A. 0.5% agarose.
If two parents are heterozygous for an autosomal recessive disease, then their offspring will most likely follow this gene frequency pattern: A. 25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous, and 25% homozygous recessive B. 50% homozygous dominant, and 50% homozygous recessive C. 100% homozygous for the dominant phenotype D. 100% homozygous for the recessive phenotype
A. 25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous, and 25% homozygous recessive (Basic Punnett square)
Of the following PCR based methodologies listed below, which employs a set of primer pairs designed in such a way that they overlap, but only one will bind to the target in the presence of SNPs? A. Amplification Refractory Mutation System (ARMS) B. PCR-RFLP C. Heteroduplex analysis D. Dot/slot blot
A. Amplification Refractory Mutation System (ARMS)
Which of the following is least likely to increase the specificity of a PCR reaction? A. Decrease the annealing temperature of primers B. Incorporate DMSO or formamide into the PCR reaction C. Use a high fidelity polymerase D. Use Nested PCR
A. Decrease the annealing temperature of primers
The physician suspects a single-gene disorder may be the cause of those clinical manifestations. A blood specimen was then sent to your clinical laboratory for mutation screening in the Huntington gene. Which of these methods would best accomplish this task. A. Standard PCR B. PFGE C. RAPD-PCR D. Methylation-specific PCR
A. Standard PCR
Bone marrow transplantation is a great method used to treat several malignant and benign cancers, particularly leukemias. Before transplantation (or engraftment analysis), several polymorphic loci are screen in both the recipient and donor cells. The main goal of this screening is to: A. find at least one or more informative loci between both the donor and recipient B. find exactly ten informative loci between both the donor and recipient C. find all the non-informative loci between both the donor and recipient D. find the blood type/group of both the donor and recipient
A. find at least one or more informative loci between both the donor and recipient
A Hind III restriction enzyme digest gel indicates partial digestion. Which of the following statements would most likely explain this result? A. Reaction components were vortexed for 10 minutes before incubation B. Restriction enzyme buffer final concentration was 1X C. HINDIII was added last to reaction components D. Spermidine was used to stabilize the reaction
Answer Key: A - Reaction components were vortexed for 10 minutes before incubation
What is the function of the exon portion of a transcribed RNA? A. coding sequence for protein translation B. start site for DNA polymerase C. in-between coding sequence with a regulatory role D. interfering sequence to silence targeted genes E. stop site for DNA polymerase
Answer Key: A - coding sequence for protein translation Feedback: Exons are the coding portions of genes that contain specific sequence for translation into protein. Introns, or intervening regions, were first thought to be "junk" and serve no purpose. It is now clear that many intronic sequences serve important roles in the regulation of transcription
A report for a patient determined to have a gene mutation by sequencing should include the A. exact base change and location of the sequenced mutation B. likelihood of the mutation in at-risk family members C. concentration of polyacrylamide used to resolve the sequence D. disclaimer that the results could be due to maternal cell contamination.
Answer Key: A - exact base change and location of the sequenced mutation
Contamination of reagents with previous PCR products can be reduced by A. incorporating dU into PCR products followed by treatment with UNG. B. incorporating depurinating chemicals into the master mix. C. using dedicated negative displacement pipettes. D. aliquoting enzymes and buffer into master mix solutions.
Answer Key: A - incorporating dU into PCR products followed by treatment with UNG.
_________ is used to decontaminate the lab bench. A. 10% bleach B. 70% Ethanol C. 95% Ethanol D. dd water
Answer Key: A 10% bleach
The most appropriate sequencing template for determining gene expression is A. cDNA. B. genomic DNA. C. tRNA. D. M13 phage.
Answer Key: A cDNA.
In an electrophoresis chamber, the sample loading wells are positioned closest to the: A. cathode. B. voltmeter. C. electrode chamber. D. casting tray.
Answer Key: A cathode.
The purpose of including a selectable marker in a plasmid for cloning is to A. detect clones that are transformed. B. provide a site of sequence insertion. C. allow for self-replication of the vector. D. provide ampicillin resistance to cosmids.
Answer Key: A detect clones that are transformed.
Extracted RNA samples should be shipped A. frozen, on dry ice. B. at ambient temperature. C. in EDTA anticoagulant. D. spotted on Guthrie cards.
Answer Key: A frozen, on dry ice.
Nonspecific extra PCR products can results from: A. mispriming B. high annealing temperatures C. high agarose gel concentrations D. omission of MgCl2 from the PCR
Answer Key: A mispriming Feedback: Just as cross-hybridization can occur with blot hybridization, aberrant primer binding, or mispriming, can occur in PCR. A fragment synthesized from mispriming will carry the primer sequence and become a target for subsequent rounds of amplification
Which of the following PCR-derived assays involves the use of a second round of PCR amplification of the initial amplification product? A. nested PCR B. real-time PCR C. reverse transcriptase PCR D. multiplex PCR E. ligase chain reaction (LCR)
Answer Key: A nested PCR Feedback: Nested primers, internal to the initial set of primers, allow for a second phase of amplification. This provides greater sensitivity at the cost of increased risk of spurious amplification of contaminants. While reverse transcriptase utilizes a 2-step process, the initial step of reverse transcription is not technically an amplification step like PCR (Source: ASCP Quick Compendium - Companion for Molecular Pathology - p.7
Star activity refers to A. over-digestion. B. nonspecific amplification. C. template dissociation. D. prehybridization blocking.
Answer Key: A over-digestion.
Which of the following steps is required when accessioning a specimen for molecular analysis? A. Assign a unique laboratory ID number. B. Call the patient to confirm test requested. C. Record the vacutainer catalog and lot number. D. Evaluate the specimen for presence of jaundice.
Answer Key: A- Assign a unique laboratory ID number.
Which of the following systems is MOST appropriate for transfer of DNA from a polyacrylamide gel to a nylon membrane? A. Capillary transfer B. Electroblotting C. High ionic strength transfer buffer D. A charged nitrocellulose membrane
Answer Key: B
Which of the following is the normal range of repeats for Fragile X? A. 4-60 B. 5-44 C. 59-200 D. 200-500
Answer Key: B - 5-44
Which of the following actions should NOT be done to a nylon membrane containing DNA after a Southern transfer? A. UV crosslink the DNA to the membrane B. Bake the membrane at 80C overnight C. Allow a positively charged membrane to air-dry overnight. D. Place the membrane on a UV transilluminator for 10 minutes.
Answer Key: B - Bake the membrane at 80C overnight
A technologist performs FISH and finds a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 14 and 18. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Burkitt's lymphoma B. Follicular lymphoma C. Marginal Zone lymphoma D. Mantle cell lymphoma
Answer Key: B - Follicular lymphoma
Which nucleotide is most often methylated? A. adenine B. cytosine C. guanine D. thymine
Answer Key: B - cytosine Feedback: To remember, one can simplify the choices by recalling that most DNA methylation takes place with CpG islands, multiple CpG repeats located proximal to silenced genes.
Which of the following amino acids are associated with histones? A. asparagine B. lysine C. leucine D. tryptophan
Answer Key: B - lysine
Peak overlap on an electropherogram most likely indicates a A. sequence of long repeats. B. potential heterozygote. C. terminator label. D. methylated cytosine.
Answer Key: B - potential heterozygote.
Ethidium bromide ______ the migration of DNA by 15%. A. speeds B. slows C. has no affect
Answer Key: B - slows
What is the most common underlying cause of autosomal recessive disorders? A. membrane receptor proteins B. enzymes C. structural proteins D. mitochondrial proteins E. regulatory proteins
Answer Key: B Enzymes Feedback: Mutations in all of these proteins, with the exception of enzymes, usually manifest in a dominant fashion. Enzyme defects are usually inherited in a recessive pattern because, if one copy of the enzyme goes, 50% activity is usually sufficient for the catalysis of most reactions. This means that most enzymatic defects only manifest when both copies are lost, hence recessive inheritance.
Parentage testing reports must include which of the following information? A. Correlation with morphologic findings. B. Identity of analyst completing the test. C. Kilobase size of alleles for PCR. D. Mean maternity probability index.
Answer Key: B Identity of analyst completing the test.
The molecular method involved in imprinting is: A. Depurination B. Methylation C. Ligation D. Deacetylation
Answer Key: B Methylation
Which of the following conditions is most appropriate for storage of a liver sample for future DNA extraction? A. 10% DMSO in complete culture medium B. Snap frozen with liquid nitrogen C. Frozen slowly to prevent ice crystal formation D. Fixed in formalin and glycerol at 4C
Answer Key: B Snap frozen with liquid nitrogen
An agarose gel electrophoresis photograph shows evidence of smearing in all the lanes. Which of the following reasons would most likely explain this result? A. Alkaline pH buffer was used B. Wells were overloaded C. DNA was undigested D. Wells were punctured after loading
Answer Key: B Wells were overloaded
The best way to remove RNase: A. bake at 100 degrees C for 4 hours B. bake at 250 degrees C for 4 hours C. 0.01% DEPC at 37 degrees C for 1 hour D. autoclave for 30 minutes
Answer Key: B bake at 250 degrees C for 4 hours
Increased formamide concentration during hybridization results in A. low stringency hybridization. B. high stringency hybridization. C. non-specific hybridization. D. cross hybridization.
Answer Key: B high stringency hybridization.
What happens to when chromosomes lose their telomerase activity? A. it will increase in length after every cell cycle B. it will decrease in length after every cell cycle C. it will remain the same after every cell cycle D. none of the above
Answer Key: B it will decrease in length after every cell cycle
Mutations in which of the following genes results in resistance of M. tuberculosis to isoniazid treatment? A. pncA B. katG C. RIF D. plcD E. vanA
Answer Key: B katG Feedback: Mutations in the gene katG cause isoniazid resistance in M. tuberculosis, most these mutations occur in codon 315. -RIF gene mutations cause rifampin resistance, -while mutations in the pncA gene result in pyrazinamide resistance. -vanA is a gene found in S. aureus and is associated with resistance to vancomycin
The detection of which gene by PCR is the gold standard for detection of MRSA strains? A. gyrA B. mecA C. femA D. PBP E. PBP2a
Answer Key: B mecA Feedback: This gene encodes PBP2a, an altered penicillin-binding protein that includes methicillin resistance. mecA is located on a mobile element, outside the normal bacterial genome, that is called the staphylococcal cassette chromosome mec (SCCmec)
Which of the following terms refers to the proportion of individuals affected by an autosomal dominant condition that displays manifestations? A. codominance B. penetrance C. expressivity D. influence E. passivity
Answer Key: B penetrance Feedback: Certain autosomal dominant conditions are variably expressed due to differences in penetrance and expressivity. Penetrance refers to how people with the genetic abnormality manifest disease, and expressivity refers to how severe those manifestations are.
What is the percent incorporation of radioactivity for the random primed 32P dCTP (3000 Ci/mmol) labeling of an oligonucleotide probe in a 50 uL standard reaction. 4.92 x 104 cpm were precipitated by TCA and 5.28 x 104 cpm is the total cpm in the sample. A. 1.86% B. 98.4% C. 93.0% D. 46.5%
Answer Key: C
Which of the following transitions best describes the cell's entry into the cell cycle? A. S to M B. G2 to M C. G1 to S D. G1 to G2 E. G1 to M
Answer Key: C - G1 to S Feedback: The S phase marks the beginning of the cell cycle, though as a cycle it has no true beginning or end. During S phase, protein production shifts into high gear and many proteins that are required for subsequent mitosis are synthesized.
Which term best describes the ability to obtain positive results in concordance with positive results obtained by the reference method? A. accuracy B. precision C. sensitivity D. specificity
Answer Key: C - Sensitivty
Quality control procedures for amplification reactions should include all of the following EXCEPT A. including a negative control with each reaction B. separating set-up and post-amplification work areas C. irradiating master mix reagents before amplification D. avoiding freeze-thaw cycles of oligonucleotide primers
Answer Key: C - irradiating master mix reagents before amplification
Which of the following is the best transport option for tissue? A. dry ice B. -80 degrees C C. liquid nitrogen D. 37 degrees C
Answer Key: C - liquid nitrogen
The stock solution of HCI is 1M. How much stock solution is required to prepare 250 mL of 50 mM HCI? A. 0.2 mL B. 5 mL C. 12.5 mL D. 125 mL
Answer Key: C 12.5 mL
The first and most frequently observed mutation in CFTR is a ____ deletion that removes an amino acid residue from position 508 of the protein. A. 2bp B. 1bp C. 3bp D. 5bp
Answer Key: C 3bp
Which of the following positions is important to the formation of the phosphodiester bond? A. 5' hydroxyl B. 3' phosphate C. 5' phosphate D. A & B E. A, B, C
Answer Key: C 5' phosphate Feedback: The 5' phosphate covalently binds to the 3' hydroxyl of an adjacent nucleotide to create a phosphodiester bond and resultant dinucleotide.
In the bDNA technique, after the addition of ___________ the presence of the target sequence is achieved by measuring the amount of light emitted from the sample compared to the amount of light emitted by control samples. A. Luciferase B. Cleavase C. Alkaline phosphatase D. RNase H Answer Key: C
Answer Key: C Alkaline phosphatase
Which of the following techniques is a probe amplification method? A. SDA B. NASBA C. Invader D. bDNA
Answer Key: C Invader
Preferred method for electroblotting transfer is: A. Agarose gel electrophoresis B. Capillary electrophoresis C. PAGE D. none of the above
Answer Key: C PAGE polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
Which of the following RNA Polymerases will synthesize tRNA? A. RNA Polymerase I B. RNA Polymerase II C. RNA Polymerase III D. none of the above
Answer Key: C RNA Polymerase III
Which of the following information is included in MSDS? A. Catalog number B. Product price C. Waste disposal methods D. Chemical concentration
Answer Key: C Waste disposal methods
The most critical parameter of allelic designation by dot blot detection is the A. wavelength of UV used to irradiate the nitrocellulose membrane. B. high resolution electrophoretic separation of the starting sample. C. complete denaturation of DNA after application to the membrane. D. copy number reconstruction of the alkaline blotting manifold.
Answer Key: C complete denaturation of DNA after application to the membrane.
Which of the following is NOT a component of Pyrosequencing? A. sulfurylase B. luciferase C. ddNTPs D. APS
Answer Key: C ddNTPs Feedback: With this system, there are no gels, fluorescent dyes, or ddNTPs
Which of the following could be used to determine two or more homologous alleles generated by the same primer set in a PCR reaction? A. pulsed field electrophoresis B. capillary electrophoresis C. heteroduplex analysis D. Southern blot
Answer Key: C heteroduplex analysis
Most people with the C282Y or H63D HFE gene mutations develop hemachromatosis symptoms. This is a result of: A. iron loss B. excessive drinking C. high penetrance D. glycogen accumulation
Answer Key: C high penetrance Feedback: The most frequently observed mutation in hemachromatosis is C282Y, present in approximately 10% of the white population, with disease frequency of 2-3 per 1000 people.
Calf intestinal phosphatase is used during the cloning procedure to A. phosphorylate cloned DNA. B. inhibit transformation of E. coli. C. prevent vector re-ligation. D. repair ss nicks in the plasmid.
Answer Key: C prevent vector re-ligation
What is the concentration in pmol/ml, of high molecular weight DNA with a concentration of 412.5ug/ml, given the length of the DNA at 7250 nt? A. 17pmol/ul B. 1.7pmol/ul C. 0.017pmol/ml D. 0.17pmol/ml
Answer Key: D Feedback: pg = 1x106 ug 7250nt/2 = 3625bp 3625bp x 660pg/pmol = 2.4x106 pg/pmol 412.5ug/mL x 1pg/1x106 ug = .0004125pg/mL .0004125pg/mL x 1pmol/2.4x106pg = 0.17pmol/mL
Which of the following chemicals, when added during DNA extraction, results in a thick, gelatinous appearance to the solution as white blood cells are being lysed? A. Diethylpyrocarbonate B. Proteinase K C. RNase D. Sodium dodecyl sulfate
Answer Key: D - Sodium dodecyl sulfate
The factor V Leiden mutation can be detected by: A. PCR-RFLP B. SSP-PCR C. Invader technology D. all of the above methods
Answer Key: D - all of the above
Which of the following represents a full turn in B-form DNA? A. 10 base pairs B. 3.4 nm C. 36 degrees D. A & B E. A, B, C
Answer Key: D 10 bp and 3.4 nm Feedback: B-form DNA, the only physiologically relevant isoform, has a periodicity of 10 base pairs per full turn. This equates to a 36 degree rotation for each base pair. The length of 10 consecutive bases is 3.4 nm.
What is the number of base pairs that each histone core complex binds? A. 17 B. 54 C. 107 D. 146 E. 213
Answer Key: D 146 Feedback: The core histone complex is an octamer of 2 molecules each of H2, H3, H4, and H5. The net positive charge of the protein complex binds the negatively charged DNA with a periodicity of 146 bases. That is, 146 base pairs of DNA coil around the histone core in a solenoid configuration.
The concentration of double stranded DNA with an opticial density reading of 1.0 is A. 0.5 ug/uL. B. 1.0 ug/uL. C. 10 ug/ml. D. 50 ug/ml. Answer Key: D
Answer Key: D 50 ug/ml
What percentage of the human genome consists of repeated sequences? A. 5% B. 1% C. 25% D. 50%
Answer Key: D 50%
All of the following are high-risk types of human papilloma viruses, EXCEPT: A. 16 B. 31 C. 45 D. 62
Answer Key: D 62 Feedback: The high-risk types include HPV 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, 59, 68, 73, and 82. These types are considered carcinogenic, while other types, such as 6 and 11, are low-risk.
Which of the following compositions of gels would allow for the efficient separation of linear DNA molecules in the range of 100 to 300 basepairs in length? A. 0.3% agarose B. 1.0% agarose C. 1.0% polyacrylamide D. 8.0% polyacrylamide Answer Key: D
Answer Key: D 8.0% polyacrylamide
All of the following are major histocompatibility loci, EXCEPT: A. HLA-A B. HLA-B C. HLA-C D. HLA-D E. HLA-DP
Answer Key: D HLA-D Feedback: The class I loci, HLA-A, -B, -C, along with the class II loci, HLA-DP, -DQ, and -DR are all located on the short arm of chromosome 6. There are multiple alleles at each locus, generating an enormous variety of genotypes
Which of the following controls are critical for ensuring that amplification is occurring in a patient sample and that lack of PCR product is not due to the presence of inhibitors? A. reagent blank B. sensitivity control C. negative control D. amplification control
Answer Key: D amplification control Feedback: In order to rule out false negatives due to amplification failure, an amplification control aimed at a target that is always present can be incorporated into an amplification assay
Which of the following is the best definition of a restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)? A. decrease in the number of polymorphisms due to fragment length B. decrease in fragment length of DNA regardless of polymorphism C. multiple pleomorphic configurations of DNA D. an altered length of DNA due to a mutation of a restriction endonuclease sequence E. decreased DNA configurations relative to length of DNA
Answer Key: D an altered length of DNA due to a mutation of a restriction endonuclease sequence Feedback: RFLP, or restriction fragment length polymorphis, refers to the change in length of DNA fragments due to a mutation of restriction enzyme recognition and/or cleavage sites. As a result an enzyme cannot cut at the site and the fragment length is greater.
Which of the following techniques are isothermal? A. SDA B. NASBA C. LCR D. both a & b Answer Key: D
Answer Key: D both a & b A. SDA B. NASBA
Which of the following type of bond or force exists between DNA and histones? A. covalent B. hydrophobic C. hydrophilic D. ionic
Answer Key: D ionic
A technologist receives an unlabeled collection tube with a requisition for a factor V leiden test. What should the technician do? A. Run the Factor V test B. Ask for another sample C. throw the sample away D. notify the supervisor and reject the specimen
Answer Key: D notify the supervisor and reject the specimen
What type of inheritance pattern is characterized by affecting males in every other generation? A. autosomal dominant B. autosomal recessive C. mitochondrial D. X-linked dominant E. X-linked recessive
Answer Key: E X-linked recessive Feedback: Because males are homozygous for X, they are affected more frequently than females, who are most often heterozygous carriers
Which of the following formulas is correct for melting temperature? A. 4 (A+T) + 2 (G+C) B. 4 (G+C) + 2 (A+T) C. 4 (G+A) + 2 (T+C) D. 4(G+T) + 2 (A+C)
B. 4 (G+C) + 2 (A+T)
In mantle cell lymphoma (MCL), this is the fusion gene created: A. EWS-FLI1 B. CCND1-IGH C. BCR-IGH D. c-myc-EWS
B. CCND1-IGH
Mutations in the CFTR gene is associated with what disease? A. Fragile X B. Cystic fibrosis C. Sickle cell anemia D. Mantle Cell lymphoma
B. Cystic fibrosis
After an amplification procedure followed by gel electrophoresis, you took a photo of your gel. You notice consistent bands in all your gel lanes. However, you also see what appears to be a faint but noticeable band in your reagent blank lane. What is your best explanation for the reagent blank band? A. Taq polymerase concentration was too low in this PCR reaction B. There was obvious contamination in this PCR reaction C. The primers concentration was too high in this PCR reaction D. The dNTPs concentration was too high in this PCR reaction
B. There was obvious contamination in this PCR reaction
Most critical step in determining the specificity of a PCR reaction? A. denature temp B. annealing temp C. extension temp D. number of cycles in PCR
B. annealing temp
Acute promyelocytic Leukemia (APL) is blamed for this translocation: A. t(8;14) B. t(15;17) C. t(9;22) D. t(11;22)
B. t(15;17)
Which system involves the use of 2 distinct probes to generate a fluorescent signal? A. Taqman B. molecular beacon C. FRET D. Scorpion
C. FRET
Which of the following molecular methodologies would be the best for detecting a trinucleotide repeat disorder such as Huntington's Disease? A. Single strand conformation polymorphism analysis B. Heteroduplex analysis C. Variable number tandem repeat analysis D. Reverse-Transcriptase PCR
C. Variable number tandem repeat analysis
While at the doctor's office with your father, you overheard his physician tell another physician that test results came in, confirming the presence of the Factor V Leiden mutation, a mutation associated with deep venous thrombosis. Which of the following is the mutation your father has: A. A1691G B. G1619A C. 1691G>A D. C282Y
C.1691G>A
The most frequently observed mutation in hemachromatosis is
C282Y
is used to prevent recircularization and religation of linearized cloning vehicle DNA by removing phosphate groups from both 5´-termini (1-5).
Calf intestinal phosphatase
Which of the following will successfully decon a bench top that has been exposed to DNA amplification products? A. 70% Ethanol B. 10% Methanol C. 100% IPA D. 5% Bleach
D. 5% bleach
Southern blot can be used for all of the following purposes, except: A. Paternity testing B. Gene discovery and mapping C. Mutation analysis and identification D. Chromosomal staining
D. Chromosomal staining
Which virus can be tested by liquid based cytology? A. HIV B. HBV C. HCV D. HPV
D. HPV
Which of the following is not a probe-labeling method? A. labeling my random priming B. Labeling by nick translation C. End-labeling (using a terminal transferase enzyme) D. Labeling by hybrid capture
D. Labeling by hybrid capture
All of the following microorganisms are tested by Hybrid Capture, EXCEPT: A. CMV B. HPV C. C. trachomatis D. MRSA
D. MRSA Feedback: MRSA is tested by Real-time PCR
Which of the following is not a PCR step? A. Denaturation B. Elongation C. Annealing D. Termination
D. Termination
The mode of inheritance of mitochondrial DNA is: A. Dominant B. recessive C. codominant D. maternal
D. maternal
refers to how severe genetic abnormality manifestations are.
Expressivity
refers to how people with the genetic abnormality manifest disease
Penetrance
In the bDNA technique the label probe is usually _____________ , which after addition of a corresponding substrate emits a chemiluminescence signal that is proportional to the amount of target sequence in the sample.
an alkaline phosphatase (AP)-labeled oligonucleotide
HPV 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, 59, 68, 73, and 82
high-risk types of HPV
Histones are positively charged molecules which allow a tighter bonding to the
negatively charged DNA molecule. (IONIC BOND)
mutations in the pncA gene result in
pyrazinamide resistance.
RIF gene mutations cause
rifampin resistance
This translocation is associated with Burkitt's lymphoma A. t(18;14) B. t(9;22) C. t(8;14) D. t(15;17)
t(8;14)
vanA is a gene found in S. aureus and is associated with resistance to
vancomycin