MDCB Review
A dose of 3000 cGy is to be delivered at a depth of 8 cm at a PDD of 76. What is the dose to an underlying organ at 14 cm at a PDD of 58? A: 2289 cGy B: 3947 cGy C: 4231 cGy D: 5172 cGy
2289 cGy
Which of the following are part of the law of Bergonie and Tribondeau? 1: Highly specialized cells are less radio sensitive 2: Highly mitotic cells are more radio sensitive 3: Highly proliferative cells are less radio sensitive A: 1,2 B: 1,3 C: 2,3 D: 1,2,3
A: 1,2 Highly specialized cells are less radio sensitive and highly mitotic cells are more radio sensitive
Positioning lasers are located: 1: Side/lateral 2: Overhead 3: Sagittal 4: Coronal A: 1,2 B: 1,2,3 C: 2,3 D: All of the above
B: 1,2,3 Side/lateral, overhead and sagittal
Prescriptions should include which of the following? 1: Site 2: Description of ports 3: Radiation modality 4: Dose per fraction 5: Number of fractions 6: Total dose 7: Isodose or prescription point 8: Therapist signature A: 1,2,4,5,6,7,8 B: 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 C: 1,3,4,5,6,7 D: 1,2,3,4,6,7
B: 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 Site, description of ports, radiation modality, dose per fraction, number of fractions, total dose and isodose or prescription point
One part of the staging by the American joint committee on cancer is called histologic type, this refers to: A: Staging of the cell B: Cell type C: Differentiation of the cell D: Grading of the cell
B: Cell type
Pap testing is a screening tool used to detect which cancer? A: Ovarian B: Cervical C: Vaginal D: Vulvar
B: Cervical
As the field of view increases and the metric size remains constant, the spatial resolution will: A: Increase B: Decrease C: Stays the same
B: Decrease
A patient is lying on the anterior portion of his body being treated to an AP/PA Pelvis. The field size is 15x15 with an SSD of 90. What is the patients position? A: Supine B: Prone C: Lateral D: Decubitus
B: Prone
The unit of absorbed dose is the: A: Rem/sievert B: Rad/gray C: roentgen D: curie/becquerel
B: Rad/gray
The cell that determines if the person has Hodgkin's is: A: Hurthel cell B: Reed sternberg cell C: Germ cell D: Squamous cell
B: Reed sternberg cell
To include the external iliac nodes the field must go superior to the level of: A: L4 B: S1 C: S3 D: L3
B: S1
After a single injection of iodine 131, what is the proper procedure for disposing of the syringe? A: Place in biohazard container B: Send to the manufacturer for disposal C: Reuse for next patient D: None of the above
B: Send to the manufacturer for disposal
Electron cones are primarily used to treat: A: Deep tumors and enter body openings B: Superficial tumors and enter body openings C: Skin cancers only D: Keloids only
B: Superficial tumors and enter body openings
You were treating an SAD AP/PA Set up, if the Optical distance indicator bulb is not working you would: A: Stop treatment and replace the bulb B: Use the front point and continue treatment until it is fixed C: Use your lasers to get the SSD
B: Use the front point and continue treatment until it is fixed
Which of the following units is used when expressing Ionization in air? A: Rad B: roentgen C: sievert D: gray E: becquerel
B: roentgen
Abdominal treatment is sure to cause nausea and vomiting. The patient should be instructed to take anti-emetics 30 minutes before the treatment to control the vomiting or nausea. One common anti-emetic prescribed to the patient would be: A: Lomotil or Imodium B: Pepcid C: Augmentin D: Compazine
D: Compazine
CPT codes are used for billing. CPT stands for: A: Clinical procedure text B: Clinical planning terminology C: Common procedural terminology D: Current procedural terminology
D: Current procedural terminology
Which of the following is the most serious side effect of a patient's platelet count dropping to 8000? A: Anemia B: Infection C: Petechia D: Hemorrhage
D: Hemorrhage
________ is a type of shock that is caused by internal or external bleeding. A: Cardiogenic B: Septic C: Hypoglycemic D: Hypovolemic
D: Hypovolemic
Where should the upper and lower field edges be placed for the treatment of metastatic spine cancer? A: Mid vertebral body B: Medial aspect of the vertebral body C: Superior aspect of the vertebral body D: Intervertebral space
D: Intervertebral space
Virchows node lies in the: A: Ilium B: Mediastinum C: Right supraclavicular D: Left supraclavicular
D: Left supraclavicular
Which pathological type does not need therapy? A: Ductal carcinoma in situ B: Invasive ductal carcinoma C: Invasive lobular carcinoma D: Lobular carcinoma in situ
D: Lobular carcinoma in situ
Which of the following tissues will most likely require a homogeneity correction factor of .25 gmcc? A: Bone B: Breast C: Liver D: Lung
D: Lung
When tissue is oxygenated: A: A higher dose is required for a given effect B: DNA becomes radiation resistant C: Cell death is less likely D: More free radicals are formed
D: More free radicals are formed
Unintentional misconduct is also called: A: Libel B: Slander C: Defamation D: Negligence
D: Negligence
A door interlock system has been found to be in operable. This unit can be operated only If: A: The patient has been set up B: The switch is not repairable C: The radiation safety officer is present D: None of the above
D: None of the above
Which of the following is an advantage of SAD treatment over SST treatment? A: Depth of tumor is defined B: Field size is defined at the skin C: Lasers are easily used D: Patient is not moved
D: Patient is not moved
When a patient has a Foley catheter, it is important to do which of the following? A: Place for drainage bag above the level of the pelvis B: Place the drainage bag on a table or stretcher that the patient is laying on C: Clamp off the Foley catheter D: Place the drainage bag below the level of the pelvis
D: Place the drainage bag below the level of the pelvis
What is the only R that selectively Increases Tumor cell kill? A: Repair B: Redistribution C: Regeneration D: Reoxygenation E: RBE
D: Reoxygenation
A patient can pursue legal action for alleged malpractice against the therapist involved, the involved radiation oncologist, in the hospital under the doctrine of: A: Personal liability B: Autonomy C: Res ipsa loquitor D: Respondeat superior
D: Respondeat Superior
Which pediatric cancer is most commonly associated with leukocoria (abnormal white reflection of the retina)? A: Leukemia B: Medulloblastoma C: Neuroblastoma D: Retinoblastoma
D: Retinoblastoma
A more widely excepted procedure for assessing axillary node status once the primary breast tumor has been identified is: A: Specificity testing B: Predictive value testing C: Sentinel lymph node D: Axillary node surgery
D: Sentinel lymph node
Molded sheets of lead that are placed on the skin surface are commonly employed for use with: A: Brachytherapy B: Cobalt 60 treatments C: Megavoltage treatments D: Superficial and ortho voltage treatments
D: Superficial and ortho voltage treatments
Which of the following may fog due to humidity and temperature changes yet is easy to process and provides a permanent record of exposure? A: Geiger Muller B: Scintillation counter C: TLD badge D: PIC (pocket Ionization chamber) E: Film badge
E: Film badge
In reviewing a patient's blood chemistry, which of the following BUN ranges would be considered normal? A: 0.4 to 1.4 mg/100 ml B: 1.0 to 5 mg/100 ml C: 5 to 25 mg/100 ml D: 25 to 50 mg/100 ml
C: 5 to 25 mg/100 ml
What thickness of lead is equivalent to 7.5 cm of cerrobend? A: 3.0 cm B: 4.5 cm C: 6 cm D: 9 cm
C: 6 cm
The peak incidence of leukemia is during what time period? A: 7-12 months B: 1-6 years C: 7-12 years D: 20 years E: unknown
C: 7-12 years
According to the American cancer society, what percentage of lung cancer's are caused by smoking? A: 37% B: 67% C: 87% D: 97%
C: 87%
Foaming agents, such as _______ have become widely used as an immobilization device. A: Vac lock B: Thermal plastic molds C: Alpha cradles D: Bite blocks
C: Alpha cradles
What do the ABCD's of melanoma represent? A: Adenocarcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, carcinoma in situ, dermatoma B: Abrasion, bruise, cut, dimpling C: Asymmetry, border, color, diameter D: Appearance, blackness, contour, depth
C: Asymmetry, border, color, diameter
A radiation high energy room shall have emergency off buttons installed ________. A: In the treatment room B: On the control Console C: Both of the above D: None of the above
C: Both of the above In the treatment room and on the control console
At what anatomical location does the trachea bifurcate into the right and left main stem bronchi? A: Pleura B: Primary bronchi C: Carina D: Alveoli
C: Carina
Which of the following is most radio resistant? A: Circulating blood B: Lung cells C: Central nervous system D: Renal cells
C: Central nervous system
You see a person walking down the hallway and noticed they have a jerky/lurching kind of gait. What part of the brain is afflicted? A: Midbrain B: Reticular formation C: Cerebellum D: Temporel lobe's
C: Cerebellum
Familial adenomatous polypopis (FAP) and hereditary nonpolypopis colorectal syndrome (HNPCC) are most closely associated with which type of cancer? A: Esophageal B: Pancreatic C: Colorectal D: Anal
C: Colorectal
A T1N0MX tumor house how many positive lymph nodes? A: 0 B: 1 C: 2 D: Unknown
A: 0
As recommended by Martin, to produce a high-quality digital radiograph, slice thickness and spacing should be ____ mm through the region containing the tumor. A: 1 mm B: 2 mm C: 3 mm D: 4 mm
A: 1 mm *we don't modify slices during CT as we scan* 2 mm is standard slice thickness.
A sign " caution radiation this equipment produces radiation when energized" must be placed in the: 1: Control Console 2: Treatment head 3: Treatment table A: 1 only B: 2 only C: 1,3 D: 1,2,3
A: 1 only Control Consol
Central axis depth dose distribution depends on beam energy. Which of the following is true? 1: depth of a given isodose curve increases with beam energy 2: absorbed dose outside primary beam is greater for higher energies 3: An advantage of orthovoltage is increased Scatter dose A: 1 only B: 2 only C: 3 only D: 1,2,3
A: 1 only Depth of a given isodose curve increases with beam energy
Which of the following are all possible sources of light field incongruence? 1: Mirror misalignment 2: Gantry angulation's 3: Collimator misalignment A: 1 only B: 1,2 C: 1,3 D: 1,2,3
A: 1 only Mirror misalignment
In treatment planning, the reduction of critical Oregon dose and unnecessary tissue radiation can be accomplished by employing? 1: Shaped fields 2: Electron Contamination 3: Overlapping A: 1 only B: 2 only C: 3 only D: 1,2,3
A: 1 only Shaped fields
Localization for the above tumor will require diligent computer planning, optimal plan could be fairly conformed fields. What will the radiation treatment field design and technique include? 1: Wedged pair, right and left laterals 2: Right lateral and vertex 3: Whole brain radiation 4: Whole brain and C2 helmet field A: 1,2 B: 3,4 C: 1,2,3 D: All of the above
A: 1,2 Wedged pair, right and left lateral's as well as right lateral and vertex
Which of the following treatment techniques are most frequently used when radiating the prostate? 1: Supine positioning 2: Prone positioning 3: Full bladder 4: Empty Bladder A: 1,3 B: 1,4 C: 2,3 D: 2,4
A: 1,3 Supine positioning and full bladder
The average rate of respiration for an adult in breaths per minute is: A: 16 to 20 B: 20 to 24 C: 24 to 28 D: 28 to 32
A: 16 to 20
The intensity of a radioactive beam is measured at a distance of 100 cm and found to be 250 mR/min. What will be the intensity of this beam at 105 cm? A: 226.8 mR/min B: 238.1 mR/min C: 262.5 mR/min D: 275.6 mR/min
A: 226.8 mR/min
What is the TD5/5 for the kidney? A: 2300 cGy B: 4500 cGy C: 5000 cGy D: 6000 cGy E: 3000 cGy
A: 2300 cGy
External beam radiation for prostate cancer is used very successfully. All of the following are true except: A: 50-60 Gy is usually delivered through four field techniques B: Boosts can be done through reduced Horfield technique of bilateral arc (physician preference) C: 6 MV to 18 MV beams are usually utilized D: Boosts are done to spare the rectum and urinary bladder will still delivering dose to the prostate
A: 50-60 Gy is usually delivered through four field techniques
Compton Scattering results in the ejection of an electron and.... A: A scattered Photon with a longer wavelength than the incident Photon B: A scattered Photon with a shorter wavelength than the incident Photon C: A scattered Photon with the same wavelength as an incident Photon D: An equal sharing of the Photon energy by the electron and recoil nucleus E: None of the above
A: A scattered Photon with a longer wavelength than the incident Photon
A respiratory rate of less than 10 breaths per minute in the adult patient may result in which of the following? A: Cyanosis B: Loss of consciousness C: Mental status changes D: All of the above
A: All of the above
Medication that relieves itching is a: A: Anti-pruritic B: Antiemetic C: Antihistamine D: Antipyretic
A: Anti-pruritic
What is the most significant risk factor associated with mesothelioma? A: Asbestos exposure B: Smoking C: Sun exposure D: Radiation exposure
A: Asbestos exposure
What is the most common form of skin cancer? A: Basal cell carcinoma B: Squamous cell carcinoma C: Melanoma D: Kaposi Sarcoma
A: Basal cell carcinoma
What is the major toxic affect of chemotherapeutic regimens? A: Bone marrow depression B: Nausea and vomiting C: Stomatosis D: Epilation
A: Bone marrow depression
The most common metastatic sites for breast cancer are: A: Bone, lung, liver B: Lung and uterus C: Liver, brain and cervix D: Brain, bone and Eye
A: Bone, lung, liver
A patient fell to the floor when getting off the treatment table. What is the best order of action? A: Call the doctor, help the patient up and complete the incident report B: Help the patient up, complete the incident report and call the doctor C: Help the patient up, call the doctor and complete the incident report D: Complete the incident report, call the doctor and help the patient up
A: Call the doctor, help the patient up and complete the incident report
The principal objective in performing field symmetry and flatness checks is the determination of: A: Dose rate consistency across the field B: Dose rate consistency at the central axis C: Film density across the field D: Attenuation at the central axis
A: Dose rate consistency across the field
This device is used for detection rather than measurement of radiation sources and low level radioactive contamination. A: Geiger Muller B: Scintillation counter C: TLD badge D: PIC (pocket Ionization chamber)
A: Geiger Muller
When used with higher energy treatment units, compensating filters compared to a bolus have the advantage of: A: Greater skin sparing B: Increased beam divergence C: Increased percent depth dose D: Reduced geometric Penumbra
A: Greater skin sparing
_______ complex immobilization devices, such as thermal plastic Immobilization devices and foaming agent devices, to the treatment couch will provide for tighter tolerance settings. A: Indexing B: Radiographing C: Taping D: Recycling
A: Indexing
Injury or compression of this part of the brain would cause cardiac and respiratory irregularities/arrest. A: Medulla oblongata B: Midbrain C: Cerebellum D: Hypothalamus
A: Medulla oblongata
In what general anatomical location is Waldeyer ring located? A: Mouth B: Anus C: Small intestine D: Axilla
A: Mouth
To reduce magnification during fluoroscopy, the image intensifier should be: A: Moved as close to the patient as possible B: Moved as far as possible away from the patient C: Rotated in the direction of the central ray D: Centered
A: Moved as close to the patient as possible
Which salivary gland is associated with the stensen duct? A: Parotid B: Submandibular C: Sublingual D: Minor
A: Parotid
Mesothelioma is a cancer of which respiratory system component? A: Pleura B: Primary bronchi C: Carina D: Alveoli
A: Pleura
A total dose of 7200 cGy in fractions of 180 cGy is used to treat which male reproductive cancer? A: Prostate B: Testicle C: Penis D: All of the above
A: Prostate
The spleen is commonly associated with which of the following blood cell types? A: Red blood cells (erythrocytes) B: B cell Lymphocytes C: T cell Lymphocytes D: Macrophages
A: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
A patient has Cesium 137 implanted into tandem and all voids for 48 hours for a cervical cancer. Her excretions can be disposed of by. A: Release them into the public sewer B: Hold them until they are no longer radioactive and then dispose of them C: Hold them until they have decayed for 1 half life D: Hold them until they have decayed for 2 half lives
A: Release them into the public sewer
Plays the biggest role in the sparing effect seen in fractionation. A: Repair B: Redistribution C: Regeneration D: Reoxygenation E: RBE
A: Repair
What is the most common histologic form of cervical cancer? A: Squamous cell B: Adenocarcinoma C: Epithelial D: Germ cell
A: Squamous cell
The first echelon of lymphatic drainage of the floor of mouth would be to: A: Submental nodes B: Parotid nodes C: Sub digastric node D: Posterior cervical chain
A: Sub mental nodes
What landmark is typically used to determine the lower border of the mantle field? A: T 10 B: T 12 C: Carina D: Xiphoid
A: T 10
To avoid beam divergence into the lung by the tangential fields: A: The central axis of the tangential field can be separated by slightly more than 180 until the deep margins become parallel B: The central axis of the tangential fields can be separated by slightly less than 180 C: The couch can be turned 5° toward the collimator when the medial field is treated and 5° away from the collimator when the lateral field is treated D: The collimator can be rotated to follow the slope of the chest wall
A: The central axis of the tangential field can be separated by slightly more than 180 until the deep margins become parallel
The window width on a CT image is: A: The range of numbers displayed on a CT image B: The number of columns and rows of pixels demonstrated on an image C: An unwanted image Characteristic D: The Central hounsfield unit of all the CT numbers displayed on an image
A: The range of numbers displayed on a CT image
_______ is the degree to which the design of a particular user interface takes into account how that piece of software fits into the overall patient visit and the logic that is required by the user to figure out how to use it. A: Usability B: User interface C: Standards based interface D: Proprietary interface
A: Usability
Most radiation interaction with tissues occurs with: A: Water B: Carbohydrates C: Proteins D: Nucleic acid's
A: Water
________ takes into consideration how much a machine will run in a normal week. A: Workload B: Occupancy factor C: Use factor D: Barrier factor
A: Workload
The average energy deposited per unit path length to a medium by ionizing radiation as it passes through that medium best describes: A: Linear energy transfer (LET) B: Radiation absorbed dose (Rad) C: Radiation equivalent man (Rem) D: Tissue absorbed dose (TAR)
A: linear energy transfer (LET)
What is the recommended total dose limit to a fetus? A: .5 Rem/yr B: .5 Rem/gestational period C: .05 Rem/yr D: .1 Rem/yr
B: .5 Rem/gestational period
Patients rights include which of the following? 1: The right to refuse treatment 2: The right to confidentiality 3: The right to possess or on his or her radiographs 4: know the risks and benefits to procedures being performed on him or her A: 1,3,4 B: 1,2,4 C: 2,3 D: 1,2,3
B: 1,2,4 The right to refuse treatment, the right to confidentiality and to know the risks and benefits to procedures being performed on him or her
When treating an Ewing's tumor of a long bone with external beam, which of the following are true? 1: If the tumor is mid bone both the epiphyseal plates should be included in the treatment field. 2: Total dose to deliver ranges from 55-60 Gy including the boost 3: It is of great importance to avoid radiation of the entire circumference of the limb, which could disturb lymphatic drainage secondary to radiation fibrosis. A: 1,2 B: 1,3 C: 2,3 D: 1,2,3
B: 1,3 If the tumor is mid bone both epiphyseal plates should be included in the treatment field and it is of great importance to avoid radiation of entire circumference of the limb, which could disturb lymphatic drainage secondary to radiation Fibrosis
It is important when treating an extremity for soft tissue sarcoma to have a strip of unirradiated tissue near the treatment volume to: 1: Maintain some lymphatic function 2: Avoid Increased fracture possibilities 3: Avoid circumferential fibrosis A: 1,2 B: 1,3 C: 2,3 D: 1,2,3
B: 1,3 Maintain some lymphatic function and circumferential fibrosis
Which of the following are recommended when discarding needles? 1: Never recap a needle before discarding 2: Break all needles to prevent reclamation from the trash 3: When unsure, consider all needles to be contaminated A: 1,2 B: 1,3 C: 2,3 D: 1,2,3
B: 1,3 Never recap a needle before discarding and when unsure, consider all needles to be contaminated
Of the four methods by which contrast media may be introduced into the body, which are the most common in CT simulation? 1: Oral 2: Intrathecal 3: Intravascular 4: Intra-articular A: 1,2 B: 1,3 C: 2,3,4 D: 1,2,4
B: 1,3 Oral and intravascular
Pelvic radiation frequently causes: 1: Diarrhea 2: Vomiting 3: Chest pain 4: Abdominal cramping A: 1,2 B: 1,4 C: 2,3 D: 3,4
B: 1,4 Diarrhea and abdominal cramping
A spine us to be treated at 80 cm SSD with two adjacent 20 cm field lengths. If the field match at 5 cm depth, the skin gap should be: A: .625 cm B: 1.25 cm C: 2.0 cm D: 3.37 cm
B: 1.25 cm
The limit for a controlled area is: A: 10 mR/week B: 100 mR/week C: 20 mR/hr D: 10 mR/hr
B: 100 mR/week
A patient is treated on the 6 MV linear Accelerator. The patient is setup to 94 cm SSD. The TAR at 6 cm depth is 0.888 and the output in air at the isocenter is 1.02 cGy/MU. How many monitor units will it take to deliver 100 cGy to a depth of 6 MV? A: 90 MU B: 110 MU C: 112 MU D: 116 MU
B: 110 MU
Craniospinal field 8x10 with SSD of 100 is being treated. What is the collimator angle needed to eliminate divergence? A: 11° on the spine field B: 11° on the brain field C: 6° on the spine field D: 6° on the brain field
B: 11° on the brain field Collimate Brain field to eliminate divergence for spine field, kicking the couch for Brain field will eliminate divergence on the rain field. Everything is done on the Brain field but just means different goals between collimator and couch kicks. Nothing will be "spine field"
Calculate the equivalent square for a 10x15 cm rectangular field. A: 11.5x11.5 cm B: 12x12 cm C: 12.2x12.2 cm D: 13x13 cm
B: 12x12 cm
Which of the following is an example of radio Surgery? A: 3000 cGy/ 5 fractions B: 1500 cGy/ 1 fraction C: 5000 cGy/ 10 fractions D: 4000 cGy/ 3 fractions
B: 1500 cGy/ 1 fraction
According to the NCRP report 69, the alignment of the light beam and the therapy beam on any side of a 10x10 cm Fields shall not exceed: A: 1 mm B: 2 mm C: 3 mm D: 5 mm E: 4 mm
B: 2 mm
The proper sequence of materials traveled by an electron therapy mode of linear accelerator is: 1: Ion chamber 2: Scattering foil 3: X-ray Collimator A: 1,2,3 (Ion chamber, scattering foil, x-ray Collimator) B: 2,1,3 (scattering foil, ion chamber, x-ray Collimator) C: 3,2,1 (x-ray Collimator, Scattering foil, ion chamber) D: 3,1,2 (x-ray Collimator, ion chamber, scattering foil)
B: 2,1,3 Scattering foil, ion chamber, x-ray Collimator
How much does oxygen enhance cell kill, compared to non-oxygenated cells? A: 1.5 times B: 2.5 times C: 3.5 times D: It does not since it is a radio protector
B: 2.5 times
A dose of 5000 cGy is prescribed at axis in 25 fractions using a cobalt 60 unit at an 80 cm SAD. If a readout error resulted in a 75 cm SAD, the actual delivered dose per fraction was: A: 197 cGy B: 228 cGy C: 243 cGy D: 269 cGy
B: 228 cGy 5000/25=200 I1/I2= (d2/d1)^2 x/200= (80/75)^2
According to the current NCRP recommendations, the guidance level for cumulative exposure for a 28-year-old occupational worker with three years of experience is: A: 8 Rem (80 mSv) B: 28 Rem (280 mSv) C: 35 Rem (350 mSv) D: 47 Rem (470 mSv)
B: 28 Rem (280 mSv)
A normal white blood count is: A: 3.90 to 5.40 million/mm3 B: 3900 to 10,800 /mm3 C: 12.0 to 16.0 million/mm3 D: 150,000 to 425,000 /mm3
B: 3900 to 10,800 /mm3
What is the TD5/5 for the brain? A: 2300 cGy B: 4500 cGy C: 5000 cGy D: 6000 cGy E: 3000 cGy
B: 4500 cGy
The chemotherapeutic agents most used in GI cancer is? A: Nitrogen mustard B: 5 FU C: Vincristine D: Adriamycin
B: 5 FU
The field width of the treatment beam is defined by the _______ Isodose line. A: 10% B: 50% C: 80% D: 90%
B: 50%
The staging system associated with Hodgkin's disease is: A: Dukes B: Ann Arbor C: French American British D: Clarks
B: Ann Arbor
Why should a patient's arms be positioned above his or her head during radiation treatments of a primary lung cancer? A: Patient comfort B: Avoid treating normal Tissue C: Capture an additional device charge D: Physician preference
B: Avoid treating normal Tissue
This seems to be the only cancer to follow a linear relationship to dose. A: Leukemia B: Breast C: Thyroid D: Lung E: Bone F: Skin
B: Breast
A therapist who just completed a treatment leaves the area grumbling "I hate to do AIDS patients because I am afraid of catching the disease". A member of the housekeeping staff here's the therapist and asks who has AIDS. The therapist responds by giving the patients name and room number. After this incident housekeeping personnel refuses to clean the room. One person from housekeeping tells the story to members of the housekeepers church, where the patient is also a member. After learning of the patient's condition, the church asked the patient not to return. What type of complaint might be brought against the technologist? A: Negligence B: Defamation C: Assault D: False imprisonment
B: Defamation
The main shaft of a typical long bone is Termed The: A: Periosteum B: Diaphysis C: Epiphysis D: Shaftosis
B: Diaphysis
Your patient is receiving radiation to the pelvic region and has an onset of diarrhea 1 to 2 weeks after the start of treatment the patient education information the therapist would review with this patient would be: A: Eat a high residue, low protein, high fiber diet, take anti-diarrheal medication such as MiraLAX and flowease as directed B: Eat a low residue, high protein, low fiber diet, take anti-diarrheal medication such as lomotil or Imodium as directed C: Limit your fluid intake to restore your electrolyte balance D: Spicy foods will be tolerated well
B: Eat a low residue, high protein, low fiber diet, take anti-diarrheal medication such as lomotil or Imodium as directed
Radiation therapy for a stage III cervical tumor is treated via: A: External beam 2 Field to 50 Gy and heyman capsules for an additional dose of 20 Gy. B: External beam 4 field to 50 Gy and tandem and ovoid's for an additional dose of 30 Gy C: Tandem and ovoid's for a total dose of 60 Gy D: External beam 4 field to 40 Gy and tandem and ovoid's for an additional 40 Gy
B: External beam 4 field to 50 Gy and tandem and ovoid's for an additional dose of 30 Gy
The purpose of an immobilization device is to: A: Make the patients position comfortable B: Facilitate reproducing and maintaining the position C: Prevent the patient from falling off the couch D: Help the therapist set up the treatment faster
B: Facilitate reproducing and maintaining the position
In general, the best method for a technologist is maintain Medical a Asepsis and Avoid The spread of infection is by frequent and proper: A: Mask usage B: Handwashing C: Isolation usage D: Personal hygiene
B: Handwashing
Areas that have an exposure of > 1 mSv in 1 hour at 30 cm, is classified as: A: Radiation area B: High radiation area C: Very high radiation area D: Radioactive materials
B: High radiation area
An area outside the target area which receives a higher dose than the specified target dose is termed a: A: Cold spot B: Hotspot C: Threshold spot D: Tolerance spot
B: Hotspot
Aggressive breast cancer which presents with extensive lymphatic permeation, erythematous skin and warmth is: A: Tubular Carcinoma B: Inflammatory Carcinoma C: Paget's disease D: Papillary
B: Inflammatory Carcinoma
Which of the following represents the path of a photon when it enters the image intensifier? A: Input phosphor, electrostatic lenses, photo cathode, anode, output screen B: Input phosphor, photo cathode, electrostatic lenses, anode, output screen C: Input phosphor, anode, electrostatic lenses, photo cathode, output screen D: Anode, input phosphor, electrostatic lenses, photo cathode, output screen
B: Input phosphor, photo cathode, electrostatic lenses, anode, output screen
IMRT is a treatment planning and delivery process that seeks to achieve treatment plan optimization by varying the _______ of treatment beams in addition to their position. A: Field size B: Intensity C: Area D: Energy
B: Intensity
ICD-CM stands for: A: Internal course of diagnosis clinical modification B: International classification of diseases clinical modification C: International classification of diagnosis clinical modification D: International course of diseases conical modification
B: International classification of diseases clinical modification
Which of the following types of medical apparatus should normally remain at the level above the patient at all times? A: Chest drainage tubes B: Intravenous infusion equipment C: Suction apparatus D: Urinary drainage equipment
B: Intravenous infusion equipment
Audible and visual contact with the patients: A: May be used only if it is a child B: Is mandatory for every treatment C: Doesn't apply to radiation therapy D: Is optional
B: Is mandatory for every treatment
The American Cancer Society strongly recommends mass screening for all the following except: A: Breast Cancer B: Lung cancer C: Prostate Cancer D: Colorectal cancer
B: Lung cancer
When Target margins are small, patient immobilization is: A: Not necessary because the patients are told to hold still during the treatment B: More important than when margins are generous, because small Target margins are more vulnerable to misalignments C: The same as when margins are generous because the patients are told to not move during treatment D: Not necessary because it does not improve setup accuracy
B: More important than when margins are generous, because small Target margins are more vulnerable to misalignments
Which of the following oxygen delivery devices is used to deliver high concentrations of O2 to the patient without allowing the patient to inhale any CO2 that has been exhaled? A: Nasal cannula B: Non-rebreather facemask C: Oxygen Tent D: plain facemask
B: Non-rebreather facemask
The daily treatment record should be checked for accuracy at least: A: Once a day B: Once a week C: Twice a week D: Once a month
B: Once a week
Which imaging modality is beneficial in distinguishing between reoccurrence disease and other tissue changes post treatment? A: CT B: PET C: Plain films D: MR
B: PET
Where is a chest tube generally placed? A: Peritoneal cavity B: Pleural cavity C: Interstitial Lung spaces D: Pericardial space
B: Pleural cavity
Patients receiving treatment via multiple fields: A: May be moved between treatment fields B: Preferably should remain in the same position for all fields C: Should be encouraged to move between fields D: Should be treated only one field per day
B: Preferably should remain in the same position for all fields
You are treating a 31-year-old male diagnosed with 3 cm Low grade Glioma located in the right posterior parietal lobe. Plan is to perform partial excision and follow with external beam radiation and radio sensitizing agent (pyramidine) What will the objective of a partial excision be? 1: Preserve normal brain tissue 2: Limit neurological, motor deficits 3: To cross the blood brain barrier 4: To preserve the tumor specimen A: 1,2,3 B: 2,3,4 C: 1,2 D: All of the above
C: 1,2 Preserve normal brain tissue and limit neurological, motor deficits
Direct window viewing is normally preferred for _______ type installations. 1: Superficial 2: Orthovoltage 3: Megavoltage 4: Super voltage A: 1,3 B: 2,3,4 C: 1,2 D: 3,4
C: 1,2 Superficial and ortho voltage
According to anatomical orientation (not in a coordinate system) what are the three planes? 1: Superior to inferior 2: Left to right 3: Anterior to posterior 4: Pre-and post A: 1,2 B: 2,3 C: 1,2,3 D: All of the above
C: 1,2,3 Superior to inferior, left to right and anterior to posterior
An MSDS provides information about: 1: Route of entry into the body 2: First aid to be given to the exposed individual 3: Manufacturing process of the chemical affect of the chemical on the body A: 1,2 B: 3,4 C: 1,2,3 (all)
C: 1,2,3 (all)
The portal vein drains: 1: Gastric veins 2: Superior mesenteric vein 3: Splenic vein 4: Celiac vein 5: Inferior mesenteric vein 6: Small intestine vein A: 1,2,3,4,5 B: 1,2,4,5,6 C: 1,2,3,5 D: 2,3,4
C: 1,2,3,5 Gastric veins, superior mesenteric vein, splenic vein and inferior mesenteric vein
Which of the following can be used as a legal document? 1: Patient's chart 2: Patients port films 3: Treatment billing slip 4: Consent form A: 1,2,3 B: 2,3,4 C: 1,2,4 D: All of the above
C: 1,2,4 Patient's chart, patient's port films and consent form
Which of the following are common presenting symptoms of pancreatic cancer? 1: Jaundice 2: Nausea and vomiting 3: A 10% weight loss 4: Anorexia A: 1,2 B: 2,3 C: 1,3,4 D: 1,2,3
C: 1,3,4 Jaundice, a 10% weight loss and anorexia
Should you increase your distance from the source to three times the original, your exposure would become: A: 9 Times the original B: 2 times the original C: 1/9 the original D: 1/2 the original
C: 1/9 the original
What finishing angle results from an arc set up with the starting angle at 270° clockwise rotation? MU/degree=1.25 and the MU setting is 208. A: 47 B: 76 C: 104 D: 123
C: 104 208/1.25= 166.4 (crosses out the MU) 270-166=104 (going clockwise so subtract) 180 is neutral, 0 is posterior to the pt Going clockwise 0, 270, 180, 90
The gantry is angled _______ when treating the supraclavicular field. A: 0° B: 5° to 10° C: 10° to 15° D: 15° to 20°
C: 10° to 15°
The ratio of compression to ventilation for two person CPR is: A: 15:1 B: 15:2 C: 5:1 D: 5:2
C: 15:2 On the exam she put 5:1
Which of the following methods may reduce the dose to the small bowel during radiation therapy? 1: Supine positioning 2: Prone positioning 3: Full bladder 4: Empty Bladder A: 1,3 B: 1,4 C: 2,3 D: 2,4
C: 2,3 Prone positioning and full bladder
When a combined therapy of external radiation and Brachytherapy is selected for carcinoma's of the cervix, a shielding block is used with the AP/PA external beam fields to prevent excessive radiation to the: 1: Symphysis pubis 2: Urinary bladder 3: Rectal mucosa A: 1,2 B: 1,3 C: 2,3 D: 1,2,3
C: 2,3 Urinary bladder and rectal mucosa
The following is true of the ACR standard concerning a patient chart audit: 1: Chart audits should be performed by a member of the staff providing service 2: Charts should be audited by a reviewer Monthly 3: Audits may be performed by a reviewer within or outside of the organization A: 1,2 B: 1,3 C: 2,3 D: 1,2,3
C: 2,3 Charts should be audited by a reviewer monthly and audits may be performed by a reviewer within or outside of the organization
Which of the following are a benefit of TLD over film badges? 1: can be read many times 2: More accurate 3: Not affected by temperature and pressure 4: Can be worn for longer periods of time A: 1,3,4 B: 1,2,4 C: 2,3,4 D: 1,2,3
C: 2,3,4 More accurate, not affected by temperature and pressure and can be worn for longer periods of time
A right side brain lesion is to receive 300 cGy at midline using parallel opposed fields with a 2:1 (right, left) weighting. The total dose delivered at midline by the right side is: A: 100 cGy B: 150 cGy C: 200 cGy D: 300 cGy
C: 200 cGy
The accumulated dose limit (DL) for a technologist who is 26 years old is: A: 16 mSv B: 400 mSv C: 260 mSv D: 80 mSv
C: 260 mSv Age x 10 Board only looks for sieverts
And external contour is obtained to: 1: Localize internal structures 2: Illuminate contour irregularities 3: Aid in treatment planning A: 1 only B: 2 only C: 3 only D: 1,2,3
C: 3 only Aid in treatment planning
The daily x-ray output Constancy should be no more than _______. If it should be greater than _____ , The patient should not be treated. A: 2%, 5% B: 2%, 4% C: 3%, 5% D: 3%, 6%
C: 3%, 5%
Point A is defined as: 1: 2 cm inferior and 2 cm lateral from the external OS 2: Pelvic wall 3: 2 cm superior and 2 cm lateral from External OS 4: Ureter crosses uterine artery A: 1,2 B: 2,3 C: 3,4 D: 1,4
C: 3,4 2 cm superior and 2 cm lateral from External OS, ureter crosses uterine artery
You are outside the room and are treating a patient. One of the therapist begins to speak to you while the other therapist is monitoring the patient closely. You are both near the patient audio device you ask the therapist to: A: Stop the discussion until the patient has completed treatment B: Move so the patient does not hear the conversation C: Continue with the discussion as you continue to monitor the patient because they cannot hear you
C: Continue with the discussion as you continue to monitor the patient because they cannot hear you THROWN OUT SHE MEANT TO ASK ABOUT THE AUDIO DEVICE?
According to the ACR, which method is the correct way to make corrections in a patient's treatment chart? A: Use a sharpie or other heavy marker to completely block out the mistake B: Notify a supervisor and leave the actual correction up to this individual C: Cross the mistake out with a single line, make the correct mark, and initial the correction D: Fill out a new chart
C: Cross the mistake out with a single line, make the correct mark, and initial the correction
Which is not a personnel monitoring device? A: TLD B: Film dosimeter C: Cutie pie D: Pocket Ionization chamber
C: Cutie pie
What communication standards are shaped by a joint committee of the national electronic manufacturers association (NEMA) and the American College of radiology (ACR)? A: Data entry B: HIPAA C: DICOM D: HL7
C: DICOM
During rotation therapies with an arc angle of 100°, the point of maximum dose is normally located: A: At depth of dmax B: Displaced away from the irradiated sector C: Displaced towards the irradiated sector D: On the isocenter
C: Displaced towards the irradiated sector
The node of cloquet is located in the: A: Ilium B: Supraclavicular area C: Femoral D: Popliteal
C: Femoral
The reduction of electron Contamination in Photon Beams can be accomplished by all of the following except: A: Employing electron filters B: Increasing distance between shadow tray and surface C: Increasing field size D: Reducing the angle of incidence
C: Increasing field size
The penetrating power of an X-ray beam can be increased by: A: Decreasing the HVL B: Decreasing the kVp C: Increasing tube filtration D: Increasing tube current
C: Increasing tube filtration
Which organization accredits hospitals and other healthcare institutions in the United States? A: American hospital association (AHA) B: American medical Association (AMA) C: Joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations (JCAHO) D: American College of radiology (ACR)
C: Joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations (JCAHO)
The major advantage of Cerrobend is its: A: Higher beam attenuation B: Increased hardness C: Lower melting points D: Reduced size
C: Lower melting points
During total body radiation the principal organs requiring shielding are the: A: Kidneys B: Liver C: Lungs D: Testes
C: Lungs
Which of the following has the highest incidence of bone tumors? A: Ewing sarcoma B: Chondro sarcoma C: Metastatic bone lesions D: Multiple myeloma
C: Metastatic bone lesions
A craniospinal patient is being treated on the 6 MV Machine with a 100 SAD with the following field sizes: x=22 y1(inferior)=0 y2(superior)=17 The patient has a separation of 16 and is being treated midplane. What is the angle needed to eliminate divergence from this field? A: 10° on the brain field B: 10° on the spine field C: no collimation needed D: 7° on the brain field
C: No collimation needed
The chemical that has been found to have the most dramatic radiosensitizing effect has been. A: RO-07-0582 B: Misonidazole C: Oxygen D: WR-2721
C: Oxygen
The bodies center of gravity is located at the: A: Waist line B: Chest C: Pelvis D: Shoulders
C: Pelvis
The primary reason to use bolus material is to: A: Compensate for surface irregularities one photon beams are used B: Compensate for surface irregularities when any beam energy is used C: Reduce the depth of the maximum dose when photon beams are used D: Reduce the percent depth dose when photon beams are used
C: Reduce the depth of the maximum dose when photon beams are used
What can be considered a high-protein food? A: Sandwich with fruit and coffee B: Cottage cheese with fruit and peanut butter cookies and chocolate milkshake C: Sandwich, yogurt shake, peanut butter cookies and hot fudge sundae D: Chef salad with crackers, ice tea and apple
C: Sandwich, yogurt shake, peanut butter cookies and hot fudge sundae
What is the most common long-term side effect of total lymphoid radiation? A: Skin Erythema B: Dysphagia C: Secondary malignancy D: Developmental anomalies
C: Secondary malignancy
The ultimate goal in Maslow's hierarchy scale of emotional development is called: A: Belonging B: Self-esteem C: Self actualization D: Acceptance
C: Self actualization
Respiration induced organ motion in the upper abdomen: A: There's nothing to worry about because the diaphragm separates the chest from the abdomen B: Should be considered when radiating patients in the prone position only C: Should be considered when shielding the kidneys D: Does not exist
C: Should be considered when shielding the kidneys
Which of the following parameters is not needed in constructing low melting alloy shielding blocks? A: Beam energy B: Source to film distance C: Source to skin distance D: Source to tray distance
C: Source to skin distance
A treatment plan is created using forward planning. The MLC's are used to conform to the patient. Many treatment segments at the same gantry angle are given. The MLC's move only when the beam is off. This is called: A: Sliding window IMRT B: Dynamic IMRT C: Step and shoot IMRT D: Conformal therapy
C: Step and shoot IMRT
An allogenic bone marrow transplant is one in which: A: The bone marrow is removed from the patient when the tumor appears most aggressive the marrow is treated with high-dose radiation and then re-infused into the patient B: The bone marrow is removed from the patient when the disease is in remission and then re-infused following total body radiation and chemo therapy C: The bone marrow from a sibling is infused into the patient after TBI and Chemotherapy D: The bone marrow is removed from a compatible match and infused into the patient prior to TBI
C: The bone marrow from a sibling is infused into the patient after TBI and chemotherapy
TD5/5 is defined as: A: The dose that is necessary to control all but 5% of the tumors B: The total dose absorbed by the tissue radiated over the five week treatment. C: The dose which will cause 5% of the population to experience a defined side effect within five years D: The whole body dose which will kill 5% of the population within five years
C: The dose which will cause 5% of the population to experience a defined side effect within five years
Changes in the treatment plan may be made any time during the course of treatment, and the radiation therapist is responsible for ensuring that changes are implemented as ordered by the physician. Therefore: A: The radiation therapist is not responsible for ensuring that changes are implemented B: The radiation therapist reviews the prescription weekly C: The radiation therapist reviews the prescription immediately before the delivery of each treatment fraction D: The radiation therapist reviewed the prescription immediately after the delivery of each treatment fraction
C: The radiation therapist reviews the prescription immediately before the delivery of each treatment fraction
Accurate reproducibility is a must. Head rotation and tilting create the potential for difficulties and reproduce ability. One way to achieve accuracy and reproducibility is to utilize: A: Abdominal straps and a jump rope strap B: Tape and an abdominal strap C: Thermoplastic mask D: Blocking or multi leaf collimation
C: Thermoplastic mask
Most frequent site of nosocomial infections are: A: Respiratory tract B: Wounds C: Urinary tract D: Digestive tract
C: Urinary tract
The NRC requires _____ checks and full calibration _____ for a cobalt 60 unit. A: daily/weekly B: Weekly/monthly C: monthly/yearly D: Weekly/yearly
C: monthly/yearly
Which of the following side effects can occur when radiation therapy is given to the breast? 1: Erythema 2: Diarrhea 3: Nausea 4: Arm Edema A: 1,2 B: 2,4 C: 1,3 D: 1,4
D: 1,4 Erythema and arm Edema
The use of shielding blocks will require dose calculations involving: 1: Depth 2: Blocked field 3: Unblocked field A: 1,2 B: 1,3 C: 2,3 D: 1,2,3
D: 1,2,3 Depth, blocked field and unblocked field
Radiation therapy technique for treatment of pancreatic tumors include: 1: Shrinking field techniques giving 6500 rads in 7 to 8 weeks 2: Split course radiation giving 6000 rads in 10 weeks 3: Intraoperative external beam giving 15 to 20 Gy in a single electron beam fraction A: 1,2 B: 1,3 C: 2,3 D: 1,2,3
D: 1,2,3 (all)
Which of the following communication sends messages to the patient? 1: Tone of voice 2: Eye contact 3: Appearance of the radiation therapist A: 1 only B: 1,2 C: 3 only D: 1,2,3
D: 1,2,3 (all)
You are treating a patient with an SSD treatment using parallel opposed portals. The patient separation is 18 cm and you are treating to midline. What is the SSD on the patient skin anteriorly and posteriorly? A: 91 cm and 91 cm B: 89 cm and 89 cm C: 100 cm and 91 cm D: 100 cm and 100 cm
D: 100 cm and 100 cm SSD treatment isocenter is placed on skin surface for ALL fields.
The CT number for dense bone is: A: -1000 B: -100 C: 0 D: 1000
D: 1000
A field of 75x50 cm (on skin) is required to treat a hemi-body patient. The maximum CSF is 40x40 cm. The patient must be placed at a minimum of ____ cm SSD. (Standard SSD on this machine is 100 cm). A: 53.3 B: 155.6 C: 164.5 D: 187.5 E: 210.0
D: 187.5 Direct proportion equation
When present during an exposure, the Protection Factor for Radio protectors would be: A: 4 times the does necessary B: 10 times the does necessary C: 1.5 times the dose necessary D: 2 times the dose necessary
D: 2 Times the dose necessary
A protective (reverse) isolation unit is most likely used for patients with: 1: Suspected Hepatitis 2: Suppressed immune system's 3: Tuberculosis 4: Enteric disorders 5: All of the above A: 1,2 B: 1,4 C: 2,3,4 D: 2 only E: 4 only
D: 2 only Suppressed immune system's
Food aversion in radiated patients is common, and especially to foods such as: 1: Vegetables 2: Meat 3: Sweets A: 1 B: 2 C: 3 D: 2,3
D: 2,3 Meat and sweets
When doing the following procedures, which one needs to be a sterile technique? 1: Sputum culture 2: Throat culture 3: Paracentesis 4: Enema A: 1,2 B: 3,4 C: 2,3,4 D: 3 only E: 4 only
D: 3 only Paracentesis
After what dose of radiation may xerostomia become permanent? A: 1000 to 2000 cGy B: 2000 to 3000 cGy C: 3000 to 4000 cGy D: 4000 to 5000 cGy
D: 4000 to 5000 cGy
What is the TD5/5 for the rectum? A: 2300 cGy B: 4500 cGy C: 5000 cGy D: 6000 cGy E: 3000 cGy
D: 6000 cGy
The radiograph is taken using 75 kVp at 20 mAs. Which change in technique would increase contrast but maintain the same density? A: 85 kVp at 10 mAs B: 85 kVp at 40 mAs C: 65 kVp at 20 mAs D: 65 kVp at 40 mAs
D: 65 kVp at 40 mAs Less kVp less penetrability, decrease kVp by 15% and double mAs mAs is quantity (how many)-density kVp is contrast
Which technique would give the highest patient dose? A: 90 kVp/300 mA at 0.1 seconds B: 87 kVp/200 mA at 0.02 seconds C: 74 kVp/400 mA at 0.04 seconds D: 65 kVp/300 mA at 0.1 seconds
D: 65 kVp/300 mA at 0.1 seconds
A patient separation is 25 cm, if the posterior SSD is 89 cm what will the anterior SSD measurement be? A: 87.5 B: 89 cm C: 88.25 cm D: 86 cm
D: 86 cm
A diabetic patient who has taken his insulin and has been fasting for a small bowel examination may begin to experience which of the following symptoms? A: Shaking, nervousness B:: Cold, clammy skin C: Warm, flushed, dry skin D: A and B E: A and C
D: A and B Shaking, nervousness, cold and clammy skin
In which gland is cortisol produced? A: Parathyroid B: Pituitary C: Thyroid D: Adrenal
D: Adrenal
Which of these statements is not true about positrons? A: They annihilate when combined with electrons B: They result from a pair production interaction C: Their properties are identical to electrons except for their charge D: After annihilation two 510 keV E: None of the above
D: After annihilation two 510 keV
Alpha particles are: A: Composed of two protons and two neutrons B: Are equivalent to a helium nuclei C: Have a high linear energy transfer D: All of the above
D: All of the above
Aqueous Iodinated contrast may be used in which of the following examinations? A: Barium enema B: Intravenous pyelogram C: Shoulder arthrogram D: All of the above
D: All of the above
Hyperalimentation can be considered: 1: When patient's intestines cannot absorb food 2: When a patient is unable to consume adequate amounts of protein and calories 3: For periods of malnutrition during therapy 4: When the upper GI tract is obstructed A: One of the above B: Two of the above C: Three of the above D: All of the above
D: All of the above
Patients can be monitored during treatment by the use of: A: Lead glass window B: Television systems C: Intercom system D: All of the above
D: All of the above
The HIV virus can be transmitted in which of the following body fluids? A: Blood B: Semen C: Infected wound drainage D: All of the above
D: All of the above
Which of the following conditions is potentially life-threatening? A: Hypovolemia B: Anaphylaxis C: Cyanosis D: All of the above
D: All of the above
Which of the following hazards are associated with creating custom blocking with Cerrobend or Lipowitz metal? 1: Particulate inhalation or ingestion from filling blocks 2: Inhalation of cadium and or lead oxide fumes 3: Particular inhalation from cleaning the block room with a broom 4: Inhalation of methyl chlorine and styrene from the hotwiring cutting process of Styrofoam A: 1,3 B: 2,4 C: 1,2,3 D: All of the above
D: All of the above
Which of the following patients should be handled using standard precaution guidelines? A: ER patient with a head injury B: IVP patient C: Outpatient for a barium enema D: All of the above
D: All of the above
Which of the following signs may indicate infiltration following venipuncture? A: Edema B: No backflow of blood C: Pain D: All of the above
D: All of the above
In radiation protection, the term controlled area refers to any: A: Shielded area B: Area that is occupied by radiation workers C: Area that has a radiation detector D: Area that is under the supervision of a radiation safety supervisor
D: Area that is under the supervision of a radiation safety supervisor
Of the following list of contrast agents, which is not water soluble and therefore should not be used in the gastrointestinal tract if there is an increased risk of perforation? A: High osmolality contrast B: Low osmolality contrast C: Gastrografin D: Barium sulfate
D: Barium sulfate
The most important piece of identification for inpatients is: A: The patient's family member which is checked before moving a patient into the treatment room B: The patient's verbal authorization which is checked before moving the patient into the treatment room C: The patient's chart/record which is checked before moving the patient into the treatment room D: The wrist bracelet which is checked before moving the patient into the treatment room and/or ID scan card
D: The wrist bracelet which is checked before moving the patient into the treatment room and/or ID scan card
The lymphatic vessels that returns lymph to the left subclavian vein is the? A: Right lymphatic duct B: Cisterna chyli C: Left cistern D: Thoracic duct
D: Thoracic duct
The legal term assault means: A: Striking the patient B: Touching the patient without his or her consent C: Performing an examination without the patient's consent D: Threatening the patient or causing them to fear that you will harm them
D: Threatening the patient or causing them to fear that you will harm them
What is the purpose of the ASRT code of ethics? A: To dictate precisely how technologists should act B: To inform technologists of possible situations of malpractice C: To protect the patient D: To assist technologists in maintaining a high level of ethical conduct
D: To assist technologists in maintaining a high level of ethical conduct
Which is not true about pair production? A: The threshold energy is 1.02 MeV B: An electron and positron are created C: An example of energy mass conversion D: Two photons are created E: None of the above
D: Two photons are created
HIPAA provides guidelines and regulations for: A: Computerizing medical records B: Patients rights and responsibilities C: Standards of care D: Use and disclosure of patient information
D: Use and disclosure of patient information
During a patients treatment you lose all power to the facility you work at. The machine goes down and you... A: remove the patient by having them jump off the table and record the dose you last noticed. B: Remove the patient using the emergency pendant and record the dose you programmed. C: you remove the patient using the emergency pendant and record the dose from the timer. D: You remove the patient using the emergency pendant and record the dose from the back up counter.
D: You remove the patient using the emergency pendant and record the dose from the back up counter