Med Surg FINAL
A patient with chronic back pain has learned to control the pain with the use of imagery and hypnosis. The patient's spouse asks the nurse how these techniques work. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "The strategies work by affecting the perception of pain" b. "These techniques block the pain pathways of the nerves" c. "Both strategies prevent transmission of painful stimuli to the brain" d. "The therapies slow the release of chemicals in the spinal cord that cause pain"
*a. "The strategies work by affecting the perception of pain"* Cognitive therapies affect the perception of pain by the brain rather than affecting efferent or afferent pathways or influencing the release of chemical transmitters in the dorsal horn
Which method should the nurse use to gather the *most* complete assessment of an older patient? a. Use a geriatric assessment instrument to evaluate the patient b. Ask the patient to write down medical problems and medications. c. Interview both the patient and the primary caregiver for the patient. d. Review the patient's medical record for a history of medical problems.
*a. Use a geriatric assessment instrument to evaluate the patient* The most complete information about the patient will be obtained through the use of an assessment instrument specific to the geriatric population, which includes information about both medical diagnoses and treatments and about functional health patterns and abilities. A review of the medical record, interviews with the patient and caregiver, and written information by the patient are all included in a comprehensive geriatric assessment.
A patient has a 6-cm thoracic aortic aneurysm that was discovered during a routine chest x-ray. When obtaining an admission history from the patient, it will be most important for the nurse to ask about a. low back pain b. trouble swallowing c. abdominal tenderness d. changes in bowel habits
*b. trouble swallowing*
The nurse cares for an adolescent patient who is dying. The patient's parents are interested in organ donation and ask the nurse how the decision about brain death is made. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Brain death occurs if a person is flaccid and unresponsive." b. "If CPR is ineffective in restoring a heartbeat, the brain cannot function." c. "Brain death has occurred if there is no breathing and certain reflexes are absent." d. "If respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible, brain death is present."
*c. "Brain death has occurred if there is no breathing and certain reflexes are absent."* Diagnosis of brain death is based on irreversible loss of all brain functions, including brainstem functions that control respirations & brainstem reflexes. (the other descriptions describe clinical manifestations associated with death)
Several hours after an open surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm, the UAP reports to the nurse that urinary output for the past 2 hours has been 40 mL. The nurse notifies the health care provider and anticipates an order for a(n) a. hemoglobin count b. additional antibiotic c. decrease in IV infusion rate d. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
*d. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level*
Which information will the nurse include when teaching adults to decrease the risk for cancers of the tongue and buccal mucosa? a. Avoid use of cigarettes and smokeless tobacco. b. Use sunscreen when outside even on cloudy days. c. Complete antibiotic courses used to treat throat infections. d. Use antivirals to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections.
A. avoid use of cigarettes and smokeless tobacco.
The nurse assesses the chest of a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which finding would the nurse expect? a. Increased tactile fremitus b. Dry, nonproductive cough c. Hyperresonance to percussion d. A grating sound on auscultation
ANS: A
A patient who has vague symptoms of fatigue, headaches, and a positive test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies using an enzyme immunoassay (EIA) test. What instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. "The EIA test will need to be repeated to verify the results." b. "A viral culture will be done to determine the progression of the disease." c. "It will probably be 10 or more years before you develop acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)." d. "The Western blot test will be done to determine whether acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has developed."
ANS: A After an initial positive EIA test, the EIA is repeated before more specific testing such as the Western blot is done. Viral cultures are not usually part of HIV testing. It is not appropriate for the nurse to predict the time frame for AIDS development. The Western blot tests for HIV antibodies, not for AIDS
*A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of* a. iron. b. folic acid. c. cobalamin (vitamin B12). d. ascorbic acid (vitamin C).
ANS: B Methotrexate use can lead to folic acid deficiency. Supplementation with oral folic acid supplements is the usual treatment. The other nutrients would not correct folic acid deficiency, although they would be used to treat other types of anemia.
A new mother expresses concern about her baby developing allergies and asks what the health care provider meant by "passive immunity." Which example should the nurse use to explain this type of immunity? a. Early immunization b. Bone marrow donation c. Breastfeeding her infant d. Exposure to communicable diseases
ANS: C Colostrum provides passive immunity through antibodies from the mother. These antibodies protect the infant for a few months. However, memory cells are not retained, so the protection is not permanent. Active immunity is acquired by being immunized with vaccinations or having an infection. It requires that the infant has an immune response after exposure to an antigen. Cell-mediated immunity is acquired through T lymphocytes and is a form of active immunity
*Which action most effectively demonstrates that a new staff member understands the role of scrub nurse?* a. Documents all patient care accurately b. Labels all specimens to send to the lab c. Keeps both hands above the operating table level d. Takes the patient to the postanesthesia recovery area
ANS: C The scrub nurse role includes maintaining asepsis in the operating field. The other actions would be performed by the circulating nurse.
*Which action best describes how the scrub nurse maintains aseptic technique during surgery?* a. Uses waterproof shoe covers b. Wears personal protective equipment c. Insists that all operating room (OR) staff perform a surgical scrub d. Changes gloves after touching the upper arm of the surgeon's gown
ANS: D The sleeves of a sterile surgical gown are considered sterile only to 2 inches above the elbows, so touching the surgeon's upper arm would contaminate the nurse's gloves. Shoe covers are not sterile. Personal protective equipment is designed to protect caregivers, not the patient, and is not part of aseptic technique. Staff members such as the circulating nurse do not have to perform a surgical scrub before entering the OR
*A patient with pancytopenia has a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest. Which action would be important for the nurse to take after the procedure?* a. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. b. Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour. c. Apply a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site. d. Use a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound.
B To decrease the risk for bleeding, the patient should lie on the left side for 30 to 60 minutes. After a bone marrow biopsy, the wound is small and will not be packed with gauze. A pressure dressing is used to cover the aspiration site. There is no indication to elevate the patient's head.
Which item should the nurse offer to the patient who is to restart oral intake after being NPO due to nausea and vomiting? a. Glass of orange juice b. Dish of lemon gelatin c. Cup of coffee with cream d. Bowl of hot chicken broth
B. dish of lemon gelatin
*The nurse assesses a patient with pernicious anemia. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect?* a. Yellow-tinged sclerae b. Shiny, smooth tongue c. Numbness of the extremities d. Gum bleeding and tenderness
C Extremity numbness is associated with cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency or pernicious anemia. Loss of the papillae of the tongue occurs with chronic iron deficiency. Yellow-tinged sclera is associated with hemolytic anemia and the resulting jaundice. Gum bleeding and tenderness occur with thrombocytopenia or neutropenia.
The nurse is assessing a 22-yr-old patient experiencing the onset of symptoms of type 1 diabetes. To which question would the nurse anticipate a positive response? a. "Are you anorexic?" b. "Is your urine dark colored?" c. "Have you lost weight lately?" d. "Do you crave sugary drinks?"
C Weight loss occurs because the body is no longer able to absorb glucose and starts to break down protein and fat for energy. The patient is thirsty but does not necessarily crave sugar-containing fluids. Increased appetite is a classic symptom of type 1 diabetes. With the classic symptom of polyuria, urine will be very dilute.
The nurse has just auscultated coarse crackles bilaterally on a patient with a tracheostomy tube in place. If the patient is unsuccessful in coughing up secretions, what action should the nurse take? a. Encourage increased incentive spirometer use. b. Encourage the patient to increase oral fluid intake. c. Put on sterile gloves and use a sterile catheter to suction. d. Preoxygenate the patient for 3 minutes before suctioning.
C This patient needs suctioning now to secure a patent airway. Sterile gloves and a sterile catheter are used when suctioning a tracheostomy. Preoxygenation for 3 minutes is not necessary; 30 seconds is recommended. Incentive spirometer use opens alveoli and can induce coughing, which can mobilize secretions. However, the patient with a tracheostomy may not be able to use an incentive spirometer. Increasing oral fluid intake would not moisten and help mobilize secretions in a timely manner.
Which finding in the mouth of a patient who uses smokeless tobacco is suggestive of oral cancer? a. Bleeding during tooth brushing b. Painful blisters at the lip border c. Red, velvety patches on the buccal mucosa d. White, curdlike plaques on the posterior tongue
C. Red, velvety patches on the buccal mucosa
A 38-year old woman receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer develops a Candida albicans oral infection. The nurse will anticipate the need for a. hydrogen peroxide rinses. b. the use of antiviral agents. c. administration of nystatin (Mycostatin) tablets. d. referral to a dentist for professional tooth cleaning.
C. administration of nystatin (Mycostatin) tablets
*A nurse reviews the laboratory data for an older patient. The nurse would be most concerned about which finding?* a. Hematocrit of 35% b. Hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL c. Platelet count of 400,000/μL d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2800/μL
D Because the total WBC count is not usually affected by aging, the low WBC count in this patient would indicate that the patient's immune function may be compromised and the underlying cause of the problem needs to be investigated. The platelet count is normal. The slight decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit are not unusual for an older patient.
A patient with bacterial pneumonia has rhonchi and thick sputum. What is the nurse's MOST appropriate action to *promote airway clearance*? a. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing. b. Teach the patient about the need for fluid restrictions. c. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal oxygen cannula. d. Instruct the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique.
a. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing
A patient complains of gas pains and abdominal distention 2 days after a small bowel resection. Which nursing action should the nurse take? a. Encourage the patient to ambulate b. Instill a mineral oil retention enema. c. Administer the prescribed IV morphine sulfate. d. Offer the prescribed promethazine (Phenergan).
a. Encourage the patient to ambulate
*A patient in the outpatient clinic has a new diagnosis of peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which group of medications will the nurse plan to include when providing patient teaching about PAD management?* a. Statins b. Antibiotics c. Thrombolytics d. Anticoagulants
a. Statins
The nurse is coaching a community group for individuals who are overweight. Which participant behavior is an example of the best exercise plan for weight loss? a. Walking for 40 minutes 6 or 7 days/week. b. Lifting weights with friends 3 times/week. c. Playing soccer for an hour on the weekend. d. Running for 10 to 15 minutes 3 times/week.
a. Walking for 40 minutes 6 or 7 days/week
The home health nurse cares for an alert and oriented older adult patient with a history of dehydration. Which instructions should the nurse give this patient related to fluid intake? a. "Drink more fluids in the late evening." b. "Increase fluids if your mouth feels dry." c. "More fluids are needed if you feel thirsty." d. "If you feel confused, you need more to drink."
b. "Increase fluids if your mouth feels dry."
*A patient with multiple draining wounds is admitted for hypovolemia. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance?* a. Skin turgor b. Daily weight c. Urine output d. Edema presence
b. Daily weight
Which question asked by the nurse will give the most information about the patient's metastatic bone cancer pain? a. "How long have you had this pain?" b. "How would you describe your pain?" c. "How much medication do you take for the pain?" d. "How many times a day do you take medication for the pain?"
b. "How would you describe your pain?"
*The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who was hospitalized for pneumonia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a good understanding of the instructions?* a. "I will call the doctor if I still feel tired after a week." b. "I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home." c. "I will schedule two appointments for the pneumonia and influenza vaccines." d. "I'll cancel my chest x-ray appointment if I'm feeling better in a couple weeks."
b. "I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home."
A patient scheduled for an elective hysterectomy tells the nurse, "I am afraid that I will die in surgery like my mother did!" Which initial response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Surgical techniques have improved in recent years." b. "Tell me more about what happened to your mother." c. "You will receive medication to reduce your anxiety." d. "You should talk to the doctor again about the surgery."
b. "Tell me more about what happened to your mother."
After the nurse teaches a patient about the recommended amounts of foods from animal and plant sources, which menu selection indicate that the initial instructions about diet have been understood? a. 3 oz lean beef, 2 oz of low-fat cheese, and a tomato slice. b. 3 oz of roasted pork, a cup of corn, and a cup of carrot sticks. c. Cup of tossed salad and nonfat dressing topped with a chicken breast. d. Half cup of tuna mixed with nonfat mayonnaise and half a cup of celery.
b. 3 oz of roasted pork, a cup of corn, and a cup of carrot sticks
Which nursing action is appropriate when coaching obese adults enrolled in a behavior modification program? a. Having the adults write down the caloric intake of each meal. b. Asking the adults about situations that tend to induce appetite. c Suggesting that the adults plan rewards, such as sugarless candy, for achieving their goals. d. Encouraging the adults to eat small amounts frequently rather than having scheduled meals.
b. Asking the adults about situations that tend to induce appetite
The nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury and possible hypovolemia. Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Urine output is 30 mL/hr. b. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg. c. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL for the past 8 hours. d. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum.
b. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient? a. Fasting blood glucose b. Glycosylated hemoglobin c. Oral glucose tolerance d. Urine dipstick for glucose
b. Glycosylated hemoglobin
A 74-yr-old male patient tells the nurse that growing old causes constipation so he has been using a suppository for constipation every morning. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Encourage the patient to increase oral fluid intake. b. Question the patient about risk factors for constipation. c. Suggest that the patient increase intake of high-fiber foods. d. Teach the patient that a daily bowel movement is unnecessary.
b. Question the patient about risk factors for constipation
A 48-year-old patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which order for the patient will the nurse question? a. NPO for 6 hours before procedure. b. Ibuprofen (Advil) 400 mg PO PRN for pain. c. Dulcolax suppository 4 hours before procedure. d. Normal saline 500 mL IV infused before procedure.
b. Ibuprofen (Advil) 400 mg PO PRN for pain. -The contrast dye used in IVPs is potentially nephrotoxic, and concurrent use of other nephrotoxic medications such as the NSAIDs should be avoided. The suppository and NPO status are necessary to ensure adequate visualization during the IVP. IV fluids are used to ensure adequate hydration, which helps reduce the risk for contrast-induced renal failure.
*The nurse develops a plan of care to prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient. Which nursing action will be most effective?* a. Turn and reposition immobile patients at least every 2 hours. b. Place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions. c. Monitor for respiratory symptoms in patients who are immunosuppressed. d. Insert nasogastric tube for feedings for patients with swallowing problems.
b. Place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions.
Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient with a UTI about the use of phenazopyridine (Pyridium)? a. Pyridium may cause photosensitivity. b. Pyridium may change the urine color. c. Take the Pydridium for at least 7 days. d. Take the Pyridium before sexual intercourse.
b. Pyridium may change the urine color. -Patients should be taught that Pyridium will color the urine deep orange. Urinary analgesics should only be needed for a few days until the prescribed antibiotics decrease the bacterial count. Perineum does not cause photosensitivity. Taking Pyridium before intercourse will not be helpful in reducing the risk for UTI.
*A patient who has a small cell carcinoma of the lung develops syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should notify the health care provider about which assessment finding?* a. Serum hematocrit of 42% b. Serum sodium level of 120 mg/dL c. Reported weight gain of 2.2 lb (1 kg) d. Urinary output of 280 mL during past 8 hours
b. Serum sodium level of 120 mg/dL
The nurse is planning care for a patient with severe heart failure who has developed elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. The primary collaborative treatment goal in the plan will be a. augmenting fluid volume. b. maintaining cardiac output. c. diluting nephrotoxic substances. d. preventing systemic hypertension.
b. maintaining cardiac output. -The primary goal of treatment for acute kidney injury (AKI) is to eliminate the cause and provide supportive care while the kidneys recover. Because this patient's heart failure is causing AKI, the care will be directed toward treatment of the heart failure. For renal failure caused by hypertension, hypovolemia, or nephrotoxins, the other responses would be correct.
When a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30, the nurse will expect an assessment finding of a. persistent skin tenting. b. rapid, deep respirations. c. bounding peripheral pulses. d. hot, flushed face and neck.
b. rapid, deep respirations. -Patients with metabolic acidosis caused by AKI may have Kussmaul respirations as the lungs try to regulate carbon dioxide. Bounding pulses and vasodilation are not associated with metabolic acidosis. Because the patient is likely to have fluid retention, poor skin turgor would not be a finding in AKI.
A 26-yr-old woman is being evaluated for vomiting and abdominal pain. Which question from the nurse will be most useful in determining the cause of the patient's symptoms? a. "What type of foods do you eat?" b. "Is it possible that you are pregnant?" c. "Can you tell me more about the pain?" d. "What is your usual elimination pattern?"
c. "Can you tell me more about the pain?"
A few months after bariatric surgery, a 56-year-old man tells the nurse, "My skin is hanging in folds. I think I need cosmetic surgery." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "The important thing is that you are improving your health." b. "The skin folds will disappear once most of the weight is lost." c. "Cosmetic surgery is a possibility once your weight has stabilized." d. "Perhaps you would like to talk to a counselor about your body image."
c. "Cosmetic surgery is a possibility once your weight has stabilized"
The nurse determines that further instruction is needed for a patient with interstitial cystitis when the patient says which of the following? a. "I should stop having coffee and orange juice for breakfast." b. "I will buy calcium glycophosphate (Prelief) at the pharmacy." c. "I will start taking high potency multiple vitamins every morning." d. "I should call the doctor about increased bladder pain or odorous urine."
c. "I will start taking high potency multiple vitamins every morning." -High-potency multiple vitamins may irritate the bladder and increase symptoms. The other patient statements indicate good understanding of the teaching.
Which statement by the nurse is most likely to help a morbidly obese 22-year-old man in losing weight on a 1000-calorie diet? a. "It will be necessary to change lifestyle habits permanently to maintain weight loss." b. "You will decrease your risk for future health problems such as diabetes by losing weight now." c. "You are likely to notice changes in how you feel with just a few weeks of diet and exercise." d. "Most the the weight that you lose during the first few weeks of dieting is water weight rather than fat."
c. "You are likely to notice changes in how you feel with just a few weeks of diet and exercise."
A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV? a. Urine volume. b. Calcium level. c. Cardiac rhythm. d. Neurologic status.
c. Cardiac rhythm. -The calcium gluconate helps prevent dysrhythmias that might be caused by the hyperkalemia. The nurse will monitor the other data as well, but these will not be helpful in determining the effectiveness of the calcium gluconate.
Which statement by a nurse to a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes is correct? a. Insulin is not used to control blood glucose in patients with type 2 diabetes b. Complications of type 2 diabetes are less serious than those of type 1 diabetes c. Changes in diet and exercise may control blood glucose levels in type 2 diabetes d. Type 2 diabetes is usually diagnosed when the patient is admitted with a hyperglycemic coma
c. Changes in diet and exercise may control blood glucose levels in type 2 diabetes
A 46-year-old patient returns to the clinic with recurrent dysuria after being treated with trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 3 days. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Teach the patient to take the prescribed Bactrim for 3 more days. b. Remind the patient about the need to drink 1000 mL of fluids daily. c. Obtain a midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing. d. Suggest that the patient use acetaminophen (Tylenol) to treat the symptoms.
c. Obtain a midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing
Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who is being admitted with Clostridium difficile? a. Teach the patient about proper food storage. b. Order a diet without dairy products for the patient. c. Place the patient in a private room on contact isolation d. Teach the patient about why antibiotics will not be used.
c. Place the patient in a private room on contact isolation
After the insertion of an arteriovenous graft (AVG) in the right forearm, a 54-year-old patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach the patient about normal AVG function. b. Remind the patient to take a daily low-dose aspirin tablet. c. Report the patient's symptoms to the HCP. d. Elevate the patient's arms on pillows to above the heart level.
c. Report the patient's symptoms to the HCP
When caring for an older patient with hypertension who has been hospitalized after a transient ischemic (TIA), which topic is the most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching? a. Effect of atherosclerosis on blood vessels b. Mechanism of action of anticoagulant drug therapy c. Symptoms indicating that the patient should contact the health care provider d. Impact of the patient's family history on likelihood of developing a serious stroke
c. Symptoms indicating that the patient should contact the health care provider One of the tasks for patients with chronic illnesses is to prevent and manage a crisis. The patient needs instruction on recognition of symptoms of hypertension and TIA and appropriate actions to take if these symptoms occur. The other information also may be included in patient teaching but is not as essential in the patient's self-management of the illness.
The nurse educator facilitates student clinical experiences in the surgical suite. Which action, if performed by a student, would require the nurse educator to intervene? a. The student wears a mask at the sink area. b. The student wears street clothes in the unrestricted area. c. The student wears surgical scrubs in the semirestricted area. d. The student covers head and facial hair in the semirestricted area.
c. The student wears surgical scrubs in the semirestricted area.
*A patient is scheduled for pulmonary function testing. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for this procedure?* a. Give the rescue medication immediately before testing. b. Administer oral corticosteroids 2 hours before the procedure. c. Withhold bronchodilators for 6 to 12 hours before the examination. d. Ensure that the patient has been NPO for several hours before the test.
c. Withhold bronchodilators for 6 to 12 hours before the examination.
A patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. self-monitoring of blood glucose b. using low doses of regular insulin c. lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose d. effects of oral hypoglycemic medications
c. lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose
*A patient who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for treatment of hypertension complains of generalized weakness. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to take?* a. Assess for facial muscle spasms. b. Ask the patient about loose stools. c. Recommend the patient avoid drinking orange juice with meals. d. Suggest that the health care provider order a basic metabolic panel.
d. Suggest that the health care provider order a basic metabolic panel.
The nurse determines that instruction regarding prevention of future urinary tract infections has been effective for a 22-year-old female patient with cystitis when the patient states which of the following? a. "I can use vaginal antiseptic sprays to reduce bacteria." b. "I will drink a quart of water or other fluids every day." c. "I will wash with soap and water before sexual intercourse." d. "I will empty my bladder every 3 to 4 hours during the day."
d. "I will empty my bladder every 3 to 4 hours during the day." -Voiding every 3 to 4 hours is recommended to prevent UTIs. Use of vaginal sprays is discouraged. The bladder should be emptied before and after intercourse, but cleaning with soap and water is not necessary. A quart of fluids is insufficient to provide adequate urine output to decrease risk for UTI.
Which finding by the nurse will be most helpful in determining whether a 67-year-old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia has an upper UTI? a. Bladder distention. b. Foul-smelling urine. c. Suprapubic discomfort. d. Costovertebral tenderness.
d. Costovertebral tenderness. -Costovertebral tenderness is characteristic of pyelonephritis. Bladder distention, foul-smelling urine, and suprapubic discomfort are characteristic of lower UTI and are likely to be present if the patient also has an upper UTI.
A patient who has chronic constipation asks the nurse about the use of psyllium (Metamucil). Which information will the nurse include in the response? a. Absorption of fat-soluble vitamins may be reduced by fiber-containing laxatives. b. Dietary sources of fiber should be eliminated to prevent excessive gas formation. c. Use of this type of laxative to prevent constipation does not cause adverse effects. d. Large amounts of fluid should be taken to prevent impaction or bowel obstruction.
d. Large amounts of fluid should be taken to prevent impaction or bowel obstruction
*The nurse teaches a patient how to administer formoterol (Perforomist) through a nebulizer. Which action by the patient indicates good understanding of the teaching?* a. The patient attaches a spacer before using the inhaler. b. The patient coughs vigorously after using the inhaler. c. The patient activates the inhaler at the onset of expiration. d. The patient removes the facial mask when misting stops
d. The patient removes the facial mask when misting stops
When discussing risk factor modification for a 63-year-old patient who has a 5-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm, the nurse will focus discharge teaching on which patient risk factor? a. Male gender b. Turner syndrome c. Abdominal trauma history d. Uncontrolled hypertension
d. Uncontrolled hypertension
The nurse is caring for a patient who is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following a motor vehicle crash. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? a. Check often for swollen lymph nodes b. Watch for excess bleeding or bruising c. Take iron supplements to prevent anemia d. Wash hands and avoid persons who are ill
d. Wash hands and avoid persons who are ill Splenectomy increases the risk for infection, especially with gram-positive bacteria. The risks for lymphedema, bleeding, and anemia are not increased after a person has a splenectomy.
A 62-year old man with chronic anemia is experiencing increased fatigue and occasional palpitations at rest. The nurse would expect the patient's laboratory findings to include a. a hematocrit (Hct) of 38% b. an RBC count of 4,500,000/μL c. normal red blood cell (RBC) indices d. a hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.6 g/dL (86 g/L)
d. a hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.6 g/dL (86 g/L) The patient's clinical manifestations indicate moderate anemia, which is consistent with a Hgb of 6 to 10 g/dL. The other values are all within the range of normal.
A 73-year-old patient with chronic atrial fibrillation develops sudden severe pain, pulselessness, pallor, and coolness in the right leg. The nurse should notify the health care provider and immediately a. apply a compression stocking to the leg. b. elevate the leg above the level of the heart. c. assist the patient in gently exercising the leg. d. keep the patient in bed in the supine position.
d. keep the patient in bed in the supine position.
The spouse of a patient with terminal cancer visits daily and cheerfully talks with the patient about wedding anniversary plans for the next year. When the nurse asks about any concerns, the spouse says, "I'm busy at work, but otherwise things are fine." Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate? a. Ineffective coping related to lack of grieving b. Anxiety related to complicated grieving process c. Caregiver role strain related to feeling overwhelmed d. Hopelessness related to knowledge deficit about cancer
*a. Ineffective coping related to lack of grieving*
Which menu choice indicates that the patient understands the nurse's teaching about best dietary choices for iron-deficiency anemia? a. Omelet and whole wheat toast b. Cantaloupe and cottage cheese c. Strawberry and banana fruit plate d. Cornmeal muffin and orange juice
*a. Omelet and whole wheat toast* Eggs and whole grain breads are high in iron. The other choices are appropriate for other nutritional deficiencies but are not the best choice for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia.
An alert older patient who takes multiple medications for chronic cardiac and pulmonary diseases is alert and lives with a daughter who works during the day. During a clinic visit, the patient verbalizes to the nurse that she has a strained relationship with her daughter and does not enjoy being alone all day. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the *priority* for this patient? a. Risk for injury related to drug interactions b. Social isolation related to fatigue c. Compromised family coping related to the patient's many care needs d. Caregiver role strain related to need to adjust family employment schedule
*a. Risk for injury related to drug interactions* The patient's age and multiple medications indicate a risk for injury caused by interactions between the multiple drugs being taken and a decreased drug metabolism rate. Problems with social isolation, caregiver role strain, or compromised family coping are not physiologic priorities. Drug-drug interactions could cause the most harm to the patient and is therefore the priority.
^^Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of *ineffective airway clearance*. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis? a. Weak, nonproductive cough effort b. Large amounts of greenish sputum c. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute d. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%
*a. Weak, nonproductive cough effort* weak cough effort
A hospice patient is manifesting a decrease in all body system functions except for a heart rate of 124 and a respiratory rate of 28. Which statement, if made by the nurse to the patient's family member, is most appropriate? a. "These symptoms will continue to increase until death finally occurs." b. "These symptoms are a normal response before these functions decrease." c. "These symptoms indicate a reflex response to the slowing of other body systems." d. "These symptoms may be associated with an improvement in the patient's condition."
*b. "These symptoms are a normal response before these functions decrease."* An increase in heart & respiratory rate may occur before the slowing of these functions in the dying patient. HR & RR typically slow as the patient progresses further toward death (In a dying patient, high respiratory and pulse rates do not indicate improvement)
The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient? a. "Are you taking any oral contraceptives?" b. "Have you been prescribed antiseizure drugs?" c. "Do you take medication containing salicylates?" d. "How long have you taken antihypertensive drugs?"
*c. "Do you take medication containing salicylates?"* Salicylates interfere with platelet function and can lead to petechiae and ecchymoses. Antiseizure drugs may cause anemia but not clotting disorders or bleeding. Oral contraceptives increase a person's clotting risk. Antihypertensives do not usually cause problems with decreased clotting.
The nurse teaches a student nurse about the action of ibuprofen. Which statement, if made by the student, indicates that teaching was effective? a. "The drug decreases pain impulses in the spinal cord." b. "The drug decreases sensitivity of the brain to painful stimuli." c. "The drug decreases production of pain-sensitizing chemicals." d. "The drug decreases the modulating effect of descending nerves."
*c. "The drug decreases production of pain-sensitizing chemicals."* Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) provide analgesic effects by decreasing the production of pain-sensitizing chemicals such as prostaglandins at the site of injury.
A patient who has a positive test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies is admitted to the hospital with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) and a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mL. Based on diagnostic criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "The patient meets the criteria for a diagnosis of an acute HIV infection." b. "The patient will be diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic HIV infection." c. "The patient has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)." d. "The patient will develop symptomatic chronic HIV infection in less than a year."
*c. "The patient has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)."*
A patient who has been diagnosed with inoperable lung cancer and has a poor prognosis plans a trip across the country "to settle some issues with sisters and brothers." The nurse recognizes that the patient is manifesting which psychosocial response to death? a. Restlessness b. Yearning and protest c. Anxiety about unfinished business d. Fear of the meaninglessness of one's life
*c. Anxiety about unfinished business* The patient's statement indicates that there is some unfinished family business that the patient would like to address before dying.
*The nurse teaches a patient with chronic bronchitis about a new prescription for Advair Diskus (combined fluticasone and salmeterol). Which action by the patient would indicate to the nurse that teaching about medication administration has been successful?* a. The patient shakes the device before use. b. The patient attaches a spacer to the Diskus. c. The patient rapidly inhales the medication. d. The patient performs huff coughing after inhalation.
*c. The patient rapidly inhales the medication*
The nurse performs a comprehensive geriatric assessment of a patient who is being assessed for admission to an assisted living facility. Which question is the most important for the nurse to ask? a. "Have you had any recent infections?" b. "How frequently do you see a doctor?" c. "Do you have a history of heart disease?" d. "Are you able to prepare your own meals?"
*d. "Are you able to prepare your own meals?"* The patient's functional abilities, rather than the presence of an acute or chronic illness, are more useful in determining how well the patient might adapt to an assisted living situation. The other questions will also provide helpful information but are not as useful in providing a basis for determining patient needs or for developing interventions for the older patient.
A nurse assesses a patient with chronic cancer pain who is receiving imipramine (Tofranil) in addition to long-acting morphine. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates to the nurse that the patient is receiving adequate pain control? a. "I'm not anxious at all" b. "I sleep 8 hours every night" c. "I feel less depressed since I've been taking the Tofranil" d. "I can accomplish activities without much discomfort"
*d. "I can accomplish activities without much discomfort"* Imipramine is being used in this patient to manage chronic pain and improve functional ability. Although the medication is also prescribed for patients with depression, insomnia, and anxiety, the evaluation for this patient is based on improved pain control and activity level
A patient who uses a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch for chronic cancer pain suddenly complains of rapid onset pain at a level 9 (0 to 10 scale) and requests "something for pain that will work now." How will the nurse document the type of pain reported by this patient? a. Somatic pain b. Referred pain c. Neuropathic pain d. Breakthrough pain
*d. Breakthrough pain* pain that occurs beyond the chronic pain already being treated by appropriate analgesics
An older patient is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to provide optimal care for this patient? a. Use a standardized geriatric nursing care plan b. Minimize activity level during hospitalization c. Plan for transfer to a long-term care facility upon discharge d. Consider the preadmission functional abilities when setting patient goals
*d. Consider the preadmission functional abilities when setting patient goals* The plan of care for older adults should be individualized and based on the patient's current functional abilities. A standardized geriatric nursing care plan will not address individual patient needs and strengths. A patient's need for discharge to a long-term care facility is variable. Activity level should be designed to allow the patient to retain functional abilities while hospitalized and also to allow any additional rest needed for recovery from the acute process.
The nurse cares for a terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deep and rapid breathing. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate? a. Suction the patient b. Administer oxygen via face mask c. Place the patient in high Fowler's position d. Document the respirations as Cheyne-Stokes
*d. Document the respirations as Cheyne-Stokes* Cheyne-Stokes respirations - characterized by periods of apnea alternating with deep and rapid breaths; expected in the last days of life
Which statement, if made by a new circulating nurse, is appropriate? a. "I will assist in preparing the operating room for the patient." b. "I will remain gloved while performing activities in the sterile field." c. "I will assist with suturing of incisions and maintaining hemostasis as needed." d. "I must don full surgical attire and sterile gloves while obtaining items from the unsterile field."
ANS: A Preparing the operating room for the patient describes the role of a circulating nurse. All other answer options describe specific types of scrub nurses. The circulating nurse performs activities in the unsterile field and is not scrubbed, gowned, or gloved. The scrub nurse follows the designated scrub procedure, is gowned and gloved in sterile attire, and performs activities in the sterile field
A patient is being evaluated for possible atopic dermatitis. The nurse expects elevation of which laboratory value? a. IgE b. IgA c. Basophils d. Neutrophils
ANS: A Serum IgE is elevated in an allergic response (type 1 hypersensitivity disorders). The eosinophil level will be elevated rather than neutrophil or basophil counts. IgA is located in body secretions and would not be tested when evaluating a patient who has symptoms of atopic dermatitis
An older adult patient who is having an annual check-up tells the nurse, "I feel fine, and I don't want to pay for all these unnecessary cancer screening tests!" Which information should the nurse plan to teach this patient? a. Consequences of aging on cell-mediated immunity b. Decrease in antibody production associated with aging c. Impact of poor nutrition on immune function in older people d. Incidence of cancer-stimulating infections in older individuals
ANS: A The primary impact of aging on immune function is on T cells, which are important for immune surveillance and tumor immunity. Antibody function is not affected as much by aging. Poor nutrition can also contribute to decreased immunity, but there is no evidence that it is a contributing factor for this patient. Although some types of cancer are associated with specific infections, this patient does not have an active infection
5. A patient who is scheduled for a therapeutic abortion tells the nurse, "Having an abortion is wrong." Which functional health pattern should the nurse further assess? a. Value-belief b. Cognitive-perceptual c. Sexuality-reproductive d. Coping-stress tolerance
ANS: A The value-belief pattern includes information about conflicts between a patient's values and proposed medical care. In the cognitive-perceptual pattern, the nurse will ask questions about pain and sensory intactness. The sexuality-reproductive pattern includes data about the impact of the surgery on the patient's sexuality. The coping-stress tolerance pattern assessment will elicit information about how the patient feels about the surgery.
The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who has an immune deficiency involving the T lymphocytes. Which screening should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this patient? a. Screening for allergies b. Screening for malignancy c. Antibody deficiency screening d. Screening for autoimmune disorders
ANS: B Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for the recognition and destruction of cancer cells. Allergic reactions, autoimmune disorders, and antibody deficiencies are mediated primarily by B lymphocytes and humoral immunity
*Which action best describes the role of the certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA) on the surgical care team?* a. Performs the same responsibilities as the anesthesiologist. b. Releases or discharges patients from the postanesthesia care area. c. Administers intraoperative anesthetics ordered by the anesthesiologist. d. Manages a patient's airway under the direct supervision of the anesthesiologist.
ANS: B A nurse anesthetist is a registered nurse who has graduated from an accredited nurse anesthesia program (minimally a master's degree program) and successfully completed a national certification examination to become a CRNA. The CRNA scope of practice includes, but is not limited to, the following: 1. Performing and documenting a preanesthetic assessment and evaluation 2. Developing and implementing a plan for delivering anesthesia 3. Selecting and initiating the planned anesthetic technique 4. Selecting, obtaining, and administering the anesthesia, adjuvant drugs, and fluids 5. Selecting, applying, and inserting appropriate noninvasive and invasive monitoring devices 6. Managing a patient's airway and pulmonary status 7. Managing emergence and recovery from anesthesia 8. Releasing or discharging patients from a postanesthesia care area
*2. A patient arrives at the outpatient surgical center for a scheduled laparoscopy under general anesthesia. Which information requires the nurse's preoperative intervention to maintain patient safety?* a. The patient has never had general anesthesia. b. The patient is planning to drive home after surgery. c. The patient had a sip of water 4 hours before arriving. d. The patient's insurance does not cover outpatient surgery.
ANS: B After outpatient surgery, the patient should not drive that day and will need assistance with transportation and home care. Clear liquids only require a minimum preoperative fasting period of 2 hours. The patient's experience with anesthesia and the patient's insurance coverage are important to establish, but these are not safety issues.
*4. A patient who has not had any prior surgeries tells the nurse doing the preoperative assessment about allergies to avocados and bananas. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?* a. Notify the dietitian about the specific food allergies. b. Alert the surgery center about a possible latex allergy. c. Reassure the patient that all allergies are noted on the health record. d. Ask whether the patient uses antihistamines to reduce allergic reactions.
ANS: B Certain food allergies (e.g., eggs, avocados, bananas, chestnuts, potatoes, peaches) are related to latex allergies. When a patient is allergic to latex, special nonlatex materials are used during surgical procedures. The staff will need to know about the allergy in advance to obtain appropriate nonlatex materials and have them available during surgery. The other actions also may be appropriate, but prevention of allergic reaction during surgery is the most important action.
*An appropriate nursing intervention for a hospitalized patient with severe hemolytic anemia is to* a. provide a diet high in vitamin K. b. alternate periods of rest and activity. c. teach the patient how to avoid injury. d. place the patient on protective isolation.
ANS: B Nursing care for patients with anemia should alternate periods of rest and activity to encourage activity without causing undue fatigue. There is no indication that the patient has a bleeding disorder, so a diet high in vitamin K or teaching about how to avoid injury is not needed. Protective isolation might be used for a patient with aplastic anemia, but it is not indicated for hemolytic anemia.
A pregnant woman with a history of asymptomatic chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is seen at the clinic. The patient states, "I am very nervous about making my baby sick." Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient? a. The antiretroviral medications used to treat HIV infection are teratogenic. b. Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus. c. Because she is at an early stage of HIV infection, the infant will not contract HIV. d. It is likely that her newborn will become infected with HIV unless she uses antiretroviral therapy (ART).
ANS: B Only 25% of infants born to HIV-positive mothers develop HIV infection, even when the mother does not use ART during pregnancy. The percentage drops to 2% when ART is used. Perinatal transmission can occur at any stage of HIV infection (although it is less likely to occur when the viral load is lower). ART can safely be used in pregnancy, although some ART drugs should be avoided
5. *The emergency department nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of therapy for a patient who has received treatment during an asthma attack. Which assessment finding is the best indicator that the therapy has been effective?* a. No wheezes are audible. b. Oxygen saturation is >90%. c. Accessory muscle use has decreased. d. Respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute.
ANS: B The goal for treatment of an asthma attack is to keep the oxygen saturation >90%. The other patient data may occur when the patient is too fatigued to continue with the increased work of breathing required in an asthma attack. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 569 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
A patient with a positive rapid antibody test result for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is anxious and does not appear to hear what the nurse is saying. What action by the nurse is most important at this time? a. Teach the patient about the medications available for treatment. b. Inform the patient how to protect sexual and needle-sharing partners. c. Remind the patient about the need to return for retesting to verify the results. d. Ask the patient to notify individuals who have had risky contact with the patient.
ANS: C After an initial positive antibody test, the next step is retesting to confirm the results. A patient who is anxious is not likely to be able to take in new information or be willing to disclose information about HIV status of other individuals
*A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states, "I* a. need to start eating more red meat and liver." b. will stop having a glass of wine with dinner." c. could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12." d. will need to take a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole (Prilosec)."
ANS: C Because pernicious anemia prevents the absorption of vitamin B12, this patient requires injections or intranasal administration of cobalamin. Alcohol use does not cause cobalamin deficiency. Proton pump inhibitors decrease the absorption of vitamin B12. Eating more foods rich in vitamin B12 is not helpful because the lack of intrinsic factor prevents absorption of the vitamin.
A patient who collects honey to earn supplemental income has developed a hypersensitivity to bee stings. Which statement, if made by the patient, would indicate a need for additional teaching? a. "I need to find another way to earn extra money." b. "I will get a prescription for epinephrine and learn to self-inject it." c. "I will plan to take oral antihistamines daily before going to work." d. "I should wear a Medic-Alert bracelet indicating my allergy to bee stings."
ANS: C Because the patient is at risk for bee stings and the severity of allergic reactions tends to increase with added exposure to allergen, taking oral antihistamines will not adequately control the patient's hypersensitivity reaction. The other patient statements indicate a good understanding of management of the problem
*3. A 38-yr-old woman is admitted for an elective surgical procedure. Which information obtained by the nurse during the preoperative assessment is most important to communicate to the anesthesiologist and surgeon before surgery?* a. The patient's lack of knowledge about postoperative pain control b. The patient's history of an infection following a cholecystectomy c. The patient's report that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago d. The patient's concern about being able to resume lifting heavy items
ANS: C This statement suggests that the patient may be pregnant and pregnancy testing is needed before administration of anesthetic agents. Although the other data may also be communicated with the surgeon and anesthesiologist, they will affect postoperative care and do not indicate a need for further assessment before surgery.
A patient who is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) tells the nurse, "I feel obsessed with thoughts about dying. Do you think I am just being morbid?" Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS." b. "It is important to focus on the good things about your life now." c. "Do you think that taking an antidepressant might be helpful to you?" d. "Can you tell me more about the kind of thoughts that you are having?"
ANS: D More assessment of the patient's psychosocial status is needed before taking any other action. The statements, "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS" and "It is important to focus on the good things in life" discourage the patient from sharing any further information with the nurse and decrease the nurse's ability to develop a trusting relationship with the patient. Although antidepressants may be helpful, the initial action should be further assessment of the patient's feelings
4. Which information will the nurse include in the asthma teaching plan for a patient being discharged? a. Use the inhaled corticosteroid when shortness of breath occurs. b. Inhale slowly and deeply when using the dry powder inhaler (DPI). c. Hold your breath for 5 seconds after using the bronchodilator inhaler. d. Tremors are an expected side effect of rapidly acting bronchodilators.
ANS: D Tremors are a common side effect of short-acting β2-adrenergic (SABA) medications and not a reason to avoid using the SABA inhaler. Inhaled corticosteroids do not act rapidly to reduce dyspnea. Rapid inhalation is needed when using a DPI. The patient should hold the breath for 10 seconds after using inhalers. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 572 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
*The nurse plans to teach a patient how to manage allergic rhinitis. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan?* a. Using oral antihistamines for 2 weeks before the allergy season may prevent reactions. b. Identifying and avoiding environmental triggers are the best way to prevent symptoms. c. Frequent hand washing is the primary way to prevent spreading the condition to others. d. Corticosteroid nasal sprays will reduce inflammation, but systemic effects limit their use.
B The most important intervention is to assist the patient in identifying and avoiding potential allergens. Intranasal corticosteroids (not oral antihistamines) should be started several weeks before the allergy season. Corticosteroid nasal sprays have minimal systemic absorption. Acute viral rhinitis (common cold) can be prevented by washing hands, but allergic rhinitis cannot.
*The nurse discusses management of upper respiratory infections (URIs) with a patient who has acute sinusitis. Which statement by the patient indicates that additional teaching is needed?* a. "I will drink lots of juices and other fluids to stay well hydrated." b. "I can use nasal decongestant spray until the congestion is gone." c. "I can take acetaminophen (Tylenol) to treat my sinus discomfort." d. "I will watch for changes in nasal secretions or the sputum that I cough up."
B The nurse should clarify that nasal decongestant sprays should be used for no more than 3 days to prevent rebound vasodilation and congestion. The other responses indicate that the teaching has been effective.
*A patient with a tracheostomy has a new order for a fenestrated tracheostomy tube. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care in collaboration with the speech therapist?* a. Leave the tracheostomy inner cannula inserted at all times. b. Place the decannulation cap in the tube before cuff deflation. c. Assess the ability to swallow before using the fenestrated tube. d. Inflate the tracheostomy cuff during use of the fenestrated tube.
C Because the cuff is deflated when using a fenestrated tube, the patient's risk for aspiration should be assessed before changing to a fenestrated tracheostomy tube. The decannulation cap is never inserted before cuff deflation because to do so would obstruct the patient's airway. The cuff is deflated and the inner cannula removed to allow air to flow across the patient's vocal cords when using a fenestrated tube.
A 53-year-old male patient with deep partial-thickness burns from a chemical spill in the workplace experiences severe pain followed by nausea during dressing changes. Which action will be most useful in decreasing the patient's nausea? a. Keep the patient NPO for 2 hours before and after dressing changes. b. Avoid performing dressing changes close to the patient's mealtimes. c. Administer the prescribed morphine sulfate before dressing changes. d. Give the ordered prochlorperazine (Compazine) before dressing changes.
C. Administer the prescribed morphine sulfate before dressing changes
A 28-yr-old male patient with type 1 diabetes reports how he manages his exercise and glucose control. Which behavior indicates that the nurse should implement additional teaching? a. The patient always carries hard candies when engaging in exercise. b. The patient goes for a vigorous walk when his glucose is 200 mg/dL. c. The patient has a peanut butter sandwich before going for a bicycle ride. d. The patient increases daily exercise when ketones are present in the urine.
D When the patient is ketotic, exercise may result in an increase in blood glucose level. Patients with type 1 diabetes should be taught to avoid exercise when ketosis is present. The other statements are correct.
*The nurse teaches a patient about discharge instructions after a rhinoplasty. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that the teaching was successful?* a. "My nose will look normal after 24 to 48 hours." b. "I can take 800 mg ibuprofen every 6 hours for pain." c. "I will remove and reapply the nasal packing every day." d. "I will elevate my head for 48 hours to minimize swelling."
D Maintaining the head in an elevated position will decrease the amount of nasal swelling. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, such as ibuprofen, increase the risk for postoperative bleeding and should not be used postoperatively. The patient would not remove or reapply nasal packing, which is usually removed by the surgeon on the day after surgery. Although return to a preinjury appearance is the goal of the surgery, it is not always possible to achieve this result, especially in the first few weeks after surgery.