Med Surg success book Chapter 2 Neurological

SATA: The nurse is admitting the client for rule-out encephalitis. Which interventions should the nurse assess to support the diagnosis of encephalitis? 1. Determine if the client has recently received any immunizations. 2. Ask the client if he or she has had a cold in the last week. 3. Check to see if the client has active herpes simplex 1. 4. Find out if the client has traveled to the Great Lakes region. 5. Assess for exposure to soil with fungal spores.

1. A complication of immunizations for measles, mumps, and rubella can be encephalitis. 2. Upper respiratory tract illnesses can be a precursor to encephalitis. 3. The herpes simplex virus, specifically type 1, can lead to encephalitis.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with meningitis. Which collaborative intervention should be included in the plan of care? 1. Administer antibiotics. 2. Obtain a sputum culture. 3. Monitor the pulse oximeter. 4. Assess intake and output.

1. A nurse administering antibiotics is a collaborative intervention because the HCP must write an order for the intervention; nurses cannot prescribe medications unless they have additional education and licensure and are nurse practitioners with prescriptive authority.

The significant other of a client diagnosed with a brain tumor asks the nurse for help identifying resources. Which would be the most appropriate referral for the nurse to make? 1. Social worker. 2. Chaplain. 3. Health-care provider. 4. Occupational therapist.

1. A social worker is qualified to assist the client with referrals to any agency or personnel that is needed.

Which client would the nurse identify as being most at risk for experiencing a CVA? 1. A 55-year-old African American male. 2. An 84-year-old Japanese female. 3. A 67-year-old Caucasian male. 4. A 39-year-old pregnant female.

1. African Americans have twice the rate of CVAs as Caucasians and men have a higher incidence than women; African Americans suffer more extensive damage from a CVA than do people of other cultural groups.

The nurse asks the male client with epilepsy if he has auras with his seizures. The client says, "I don't know what you mean. What are auras?" Which statement by the nurse would be the best response? 1. "Some people have a warning that the seizure is about to start." 2. "Auras occur when you are physically and psychologically exhausted." 3. "You're concerned that you do not have auras before your seizures?" 4. "Auras usually cause you to be sleepy after you have a seizure."

1. An aura is a visual, auditory, or olfactory occurrence that takes place prior to a seizure and warns the client a seizure is about to occur. The aura often allows time for the client to lie down on the floor or find a safe place to have the seizure.

The client diagnosed with a mild concussion is being discharged from the emergency department. Which discharge instruction should the nurse teach the client's significant other? 1. Awaken the client every two (2) hours. 2. Monitor for increased intracranial pressure. 3. Observe frequently for hypervigilance. 4. Offer the client food every three (3) to four (4) hours.

1. Awakening the client every two (2) hours allows the identification of headache, dizziness, lethargy, irritability, and anxiety—all signs of postconcussion syndrome—that would warrant the significant other's taking the client back to the emergency department.

The client is in the terminal stage of ALS. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Perform passive ROM every two (2) hours. 2. Maintain a negative nitrogen balance. 3. Encourage a low-protein, soft-mechanical diet. 4. Turn the client and have him cough and deep breathe every shift.

1. Contractures can develop within a week because extensor muscles are weaker than flexor muscles. If the client cannot perform ROM exercises, then the nurse must do it for him—passive ROM.

The client is diagnosed with ALS. Which client problem would be most appropriate for this client? 1. Disuse syndrome. 2. Altered body image. 3. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance. 4. Alteration in pain.

1. Disuse syndrome is associated with complications of bedrest. Clients with ALS cannot move and reposition themselves, and they frequently have altered nutritional and hydration status.

The occupational health nurse is concerned about preventing occupation-related acquired seizures. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Ensure that helmets are worn in appropriate areas. 2. Implement daily exercise programs for the staff. 3. Provide healthy foods in the cafeteria. 4. Encourage employees to wear safety glasses.

1. Head injury is one of the main reasons for epilepsy that can be prevented through occupational safety precautions and highway safety programs.

The nurse is assessing the client diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. Which assessment data would warrant notifying the HCP? 1. Purpuric lesions on the face. 2. Complaints of light hurting the eyes. 3. Dull, aching, frontal headache. 4. Not remembering the day of the week.

1. In clients with meningococcal meningitis, purpuric lesions over the face and extremity are the signs of a fulminating infection that can lead to death within a few hours.

SATA: The client has been newly diagnosed with epilepsy. Which discharge instructions should be taught to the client? 1. Keep a record of seizure activity. 2. Take tub baths only; do not take showers. 3. Avoid over-the-counter medications. 4. Have anticonvulsant medication serum levels checked regularly. 5. Do not drive alone; have someone in the car.

1. Keeping a seizure and medication chart will be helpful when keeping follow-up appointments with the health-care provider and in identifying activities that may trigger a seizure. 3. Over-the-counter medications may contain ingredients that will interact with antiseizure medications or, in some cases, as with use of stimulants, possibly cause a seizure. 4. Most of the anticonvulsant medications have therapeutic serum levels that should be maintained, and regular checks of the serum levels help to ensure the correct level.

The chief executive officer (CEO) of a large manufacturing plant presents to the occupational health clinic with chronic rhinitis and requesting medication. On inspection, the nurse notices holes in the septum that separates the nasal passages. The nurse also notes dilated pupils and tachycardia. The facility has a "No Drug" policy. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Prepare to complete a drug screen urine test. 2. Discuss the client's use of illegal drugs. 3. Notify the client's supervisor about the situation. 4. Give the client an antihistamine and say nothing.

1. No employee of a facility is above certain rules. In a company with a "No Drugs" policy, this includes the CEO. This client is exhibiting symptoms of cocaine abuse.

SATA: The client diagnosed with a right-sided cerebrovascular accident is admitted to the rehabilitation unit. Which interventions should be included in the nursing care plan? 1. Position the client to prevent shoulder adduction. 2. Turn and reposition the client every shift. 3. Encourage the client to move the affected side. 4. Perform quadriceps exercises three (3) times a day. 5. Instruct the client to hold the fingers in a fist.

1. Placing a small pillow under the shoulder will prevent the shoulder from adducting toward the chest and developing a contracture. 3. The client should not ignore the paralyzed side, and the nurse must encourage the client to move it as much as possible; a written schedule may assist the client in exercising.

The client diagnosed with a gunshot wound to the head assumes decorticate posturing when the nurse applies painful stimuli. Which assessment data obtained three (3) hours later would indicate the client is improving? 1. Purposeless movement in response to painful stimuli. 2. Flaccid paralysis in all four extremities. 3. Decerebrate posturing when painful stimuli are applied. 4. Pupils that are 6 mm in size and nonreactive on painful stimuli.

1. Purposeless movement indicates that the client's cerebral edema is decreasing. The best motor response is purposeful movement, but purposeless movement indicates an improvement over decorticate movement, which, in turn, is an improvement over decerebrate movement or flaccidity.

In assessing a client with a T12 SCI, which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find to support the diagnosis of spinal shock? 1. No reflex activity below the waist. 2. Inability to move upper extremities. 3. Complaints of a pounding headache. 4. Hypotension and bradycardia.

1. Spinal shock associated with SCI represents a sudden depression of reflex activity below the level of the injury. T12 is just above the waist; therefore, no reflex activity below the waist would be expected.

The client diagnosed with delirium tremens when trying to quit drinking cold turkey is admitted to the medical unit. Which meds would the nurse anticipate administering? 1. Thiamine (vitamin B6) and librium, a benzodiazepine. 2. Dilantin, an anticonvulsant, and Feosol, an iron preparation. 3. Methadone, a synthetic narcotic, and Depakote, a mood stabilizer. 4. Mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, and Ritalin, a stimulant.

1. Thiamine is given in high doses to decrease the rebound effect on the nervous system as it adjusts to the absence of alcohol, and a benzodiazepine is given in high doses and titrated down over several days for the tranquilizing effect to prevent delirium tremens.

The nurse on the rehabilitation unit is caring for the following clients. Which client should the nurse assess first after receiving the change-of-shift report? 1. The client with a C6 SCI who is complaining of dyspnea and has crackles in the lungs. 2. The client with an L4 SCI who is crying and very upset about being discharged home. 3. The client with an L2 SCI who is complaining of a headache and feeling very hot. 4. The client with a T4 SCI who is unable to move the lower extremities.

1. This client has signs/symptoms of a respiratory complication and should be assessed first.

The client is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin), an anticonvulsant, for a seizure disorder. Which statement indicates the client understands the discharge teaching concerning this medication? 1. "I will brush my teeth after every meal." 2. "I will check my Dilantin level daily." 3. "My urine will turn orange while on Dilantin." 4. "I won't have any seizures while on this medication."

1. Thorough oral hygiene after each meal, gum massage, daily flossing, and regular dental care are essential to prevent or control gingival hyperplasia, which is a common occurrence in clients taking Dilantin.

The nurse enters the room as the client is beginning to have a tonic-clonic seizure. What action should the nurse implement first? 1. Note the first thing the client does in the seizure. 2. Assess the size of the client's pupils. 3. Determine if the client is incontinent of urine or stool. 4. Provide the client with privacy during the seizure.

1.Noticing the first thing the client does during a seizure provides information and clues as to the location of the seizure in the brain. It is important to document whether the beginning of the seizure was observed.

The 29-year-old client who was employed as a forklift operator sustains a traumatic brain injury secondary to a motor-vehicle accident. The client is being discharged from the rehabilitation unit after three (3) months and has cognitive deficits. Which goal would be most realistic for this client? 1. The client will return to work within six (6) months. 2. The client is able to focus and stay on task for 10 minutes. 3. The client will be able to dress self without assistance. 4. The client will regain bowel and bladder control.

2. "Cognitive" pertains to mental processes of comprehension, judgment, memory, and reasoning. Therefore, an appropriate goal would be for the client to stay on task for 10 minutes.

The client diagnosed with ALS asks the nurse, "I know this disease is going to kill me. What will happen to me in the end?" Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate? 1. "You are afraid of how you will die?" 2. "Most people with ALS die of respiratory failure." 3. "Don't talk like that. You have to stay positive." 4. "ALS is not a killer. You can live a long life."

2. About 50% of clients die within two(2) to five (5) years from respiratory failure, aspiration pneumonia, or another infectious process.

Which diagnostic test is used to confirm the diagnosis of ALS? 1. Electromyogram (EMG). 2. Muscle biopsy. 3. Serum creatine kinase (CK). 4. Pulmonary function test.

2. Biopsy confirms changes consistent with atrophy and loss of muscle fiber, both characteristic of ALS.

The client is diagnosed with expressive aphasia. Which psychosocial client problem would the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. Potential for injury. 2. Powerlessness. 3. Disturbed thought processes. 4. Sexual dysfunction.

2. Expressive aphasia means that the client cannot communicate thoughts but understands what is being communicated; this leads to frustration, anger, depression, and the inability to verbalize needs, which, in turn, causes the client to have a lack of control and feel powerless.

Which statement best describes the scientific rationale for alternating a nonnarcotic antipyretic and a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) every two (2) hours to a female client diagnosed with bacterial meningitis? 1. This regimen helps to decrease the purulent exudate surrounding the meninges. 2. These meds will decrease intracranial pressure and brain metabolism. 3. These meds will increase the client's memory and orientation. 4. This will help prevent a yeast infection secondary to antibiotic therapy.

2. Fever increases cerebral metabolism and intracranial pressure. Therefore, measures are taken to reduce body temp as soon as possible, and alternating Tylenol and Motrin would be appropriate.

A 20-year-old female client who tried lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) as a teen tells the nurse that she has bad dreams that make her want to kill herself. Which is the explanation for this occurrence? 1. These occurrences are referred to as "holdover reactions" to the drug. 2. These are flashbacks to a time when the client had a "bad trip." 3. The drug is still in the client's body and causing these reactions. 4. The client is suicidal and should be on one-to-one precautions.

2. Flashback reactions occur after the use of hallucinogens in which the client relives a bad episode that occurred while using the drug.

The public health nurse is giving a lecture on potential outbreaks of infectious meningitis. Which population is most at risk for an outbreak? 1. Clients recently discharged from the hospital. 2. Residents of a college dormitory. 3. Individuals who visit a third world country. 4. Employees in a high-rise office building.

2. Outbreaks of infectious meningitis are most likely to occur in dense community groups such as college campuses, jails, and military installations.

The client with ALS is admitted to the medical unit with shortness of breath, dyspnea, and respiratory complications. Which intervention should the nurse implement ,first? 1. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees. 2. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. 3. Assess the client's lung sounds. 4. Obtain a pulse oximeter reading.

2. Oxygen should be given immediately to help alleviate the difficulty breathing. Remember that oxygenation is priority

The client with a cervical fracture is being discharged in a halo device. Which teaching instruction should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Discuss how to correctly remove the insertion pins. 2. Instruct the client to report reddened or irritated skin areas. 3. Inform the client that the vest liner cannot be changed. 4. Encourage the client to remain in the recliner as much as possible.

2. Reddened areas, especially under the ,brace, must be reported to the HCP because pressure ulcers can occur when wearing this appliance for an extended period.

SATA: The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with an epidural hematoma. Which nursing interventions should the nurse implement? 1. Maintain the head of the bed at 60 degrees of elevation. 2. Administer stool softeners daily. 3. Ensure that pulse oximeter reading is higher than 93%. 4. Perform deep nasal suction every two (2) hours. 5. Administer mild sedatives.

2. Stool softeners are initiated to prevent the Valsalva maneuver, which increases intracranial pressure. 3. Oxygen saturation higher than 93% ensures oxygenation of the brain tissues; decreasing oxygen levels increase cerebral edema. 5. Mild sedatives will reduce the client's agitation; strong narcotics would not be administered because they decrease the client's level of consciousness.

The client diagnosed with substance abuse is being discharged from a drug and alcohol rehabilitation facility. Which information should the nurse teach the client? 1. "Do not go anyplace where you can be tempted to use again." 2. "It is important that you attend a 12-step meeting regularly." 3. "Now that you are clean, your family will be willing to see you again." 4. "You should explain to all your coworkers what has happened."

2. The client will require a follow-up program such as 12-step meetings if the client is not to relapse.

The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is attempting to put an oral airway in the mouth of a client having a tonic-clonic seizure. Which action should the primary nurse take? 1. Help the UAP to insert the oral airway in the mouth. 2. Tell the UAP to stop trying to insert anything in the mouth. 3. Take no action because the UAP is handling the situation. 4. Notify the charge nurse of the situation immediately.

2. The nurse should tell the UAP to stop trying to insert anything in the mouth of the client experiencing a seizure. Broken teeth and injury to the lips and tongue may result from trying to place anything in the clenched jaws of a client having a tonic-clonic seizure.

The resident in a long-term care facility fell during the previous shift and has a laceration in the occipital area that has been closed with Steri-Strips. Which signs/ symptoms would warrant transferring the resident to the emergency department? 1. A 4-cm area of bright red drainage on the dressing. 2. A weak pulse, shallow respirations, and cool pale skin. 3. Pupils that are equal, react to light, and accommodate. 4. Complaints of a headache that resolves with medication.

2. These signs/symptoms—weak pulse, shallow respirations, cool pale skin—indicate increased intracranial pressure from cerebral edema secondary to the fall, and they require immediate attention.

The client is to receive a 100-mL intravenous antibiotic over 30 minutes via an intravenous pump. At what rate should the nurse set the IV pump?

200 mL/hr - This is a basic math question. The IV pump is calculated in mL/hr, so the nurse must double the rate to infuse the IV solution in 30 minutes.

The nurse educator is presenting an in-service on seizures. Which disease process is the leading cause of seizures in the elderly? 1. Alzheimer's disease. 2. Parkinson's disease. 3. Cerebral vascular accident (stroke). 4. Brain atrophy due to aging.

3. A CVA (stroke) is the leading cause of seizures in the elderly; increased intracranial pressure associated with the stroke can lead to seizures.

Which nursing task would be most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel? 1. Teach Credé's maneuver to the client needing to void. 2. Administer the tube feeding to the client who is quadriplegic. 3. Assist with bowel training by placing the client on the bedside commode. 4. Observe the client demonstrating self-catheterization technique.

3. The assistant can place the client on the bedside commode as part of bowel training; the nurse is responsible for the training but can delegate this task.

The client with a C6 SCI is admitted to the emergency department complaining of a severe pounding headache and has a BP of 180/110. Which intervention should the emergency department nurse implement? 1. Keep the client flat in bed. 2. Dim the lights in the room. 3. Assess for bladder distention. 4. Administer a narcotic analgesic.

3. This is an acute emergency caused by exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli and only occurs after spinal shock has resolved in the client with a spinal cord injury above T6. The most common cause is a full bladder.

The client is being evaluated to rule out ALS. Which signs/symptoms would the nurse note to confirm the diagnosis? 1. Muscle atrophy and flaccidity. 2. Fatigue and malnutrition. 3. Slurred speech and dysphagia. 4. Weakness and paralysis.

4. ALS results from the degeneration and demyelination of motor neurons in the spinal cord, which results in paralysis and weakness of the muscles.

The friend of an 18-year-old male client brings the client to the ED. The client is unconscious and his breathing is slow and shallow. Which action should the nurse implement first? 1. Ask the friend what drugs the client has been taking. 2. Initiate an IV infusion at a keep-open rate. 3. Call for a ventilator to be brought to the ED. 4. Apply oxygen at 100% via nasal cannula.

4. Applying oxygen would be the priority action for this client. The client's breathing is slow and shallow. The greater amount of inhaled oxygen, the better the client's prognosis.

The client is diagnosed with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome as a result of chronic alcoholism. For which symptoms would the nurse assess? 1. Insomnia and anxiety. 2. Visual or auditory hallucinations. 3. Extreme tremors and agitation. 4. Ataxia and confabulation.

4. Ataxia, or lack of coordination, and confabulation, making up elaborate stories to explain lapses in memory, are both symptoms of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

Which type of precautions should the nurse implement for the client diagnosed with septic meningitis? 1. Standard Precautions. 2. Airborne Precautions. 3. Contact Precautions. 4. Droplet Precautions.

4. Droplet Precautions are respiratory precautions used for organisms that have a limited span of transmission. Precautions include staying at least four (4) feet away from the client or wearing a standard isolation mask and gloves when coming in close contact with the client. Clients are in isolation for 24 to 48 hours after initiation of antibiotics.

The nurse researcher is working with clients diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which is an example of an experimental therapy? 1. Sterotactic pallidotomy/thalamotomy. 2. Dopamine receptor agonist medication. 3. Physical therapy for muscle strengthening. 4. Fetal tissue transplantation.

4. Fetal tissue transplantation has shown some success in PD, but it is an experimental and highly controversial procedure.

The client has been diagnosed with a brain tumor. Which presenting signs and symptoms help to localize the tumor position? 1. Widening pulse pressure and bounding pulse. 2. Diplopia and decreased visual acuity. 3. Bradykinesia and scanning speech. 4. Hemiparesis and personality changes.

4. Hemiparesis would localize a tumor to a motor area of the brain, and personality changes localize a tumor to the frontal lobe.

The nurse is admitting a client with the diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. Which assessment data support this diagnosis? 1. Crackles in the upper lung fields and jugular vein distention. 2. Muscle weakness in the upper extremities and ptosis. 3. Exaggerated arm swinging and scanning speech. 4. Masklike facies and a shuffling gait.

4. Masklike facies and a shuffling gait are two clinical manifestations of PD.

The 29-year-old client is admitted to the medical floor diagnosed with meningitis. Which assessment by the nurse has priority? 1. Assess lung sounds. 2. Assess the six cardinal fields of gaze. 3. Assess apical pulse. 4. Assess level of consciousness.

4. Meningitis directly affects the client's brain. Therefore, assessing the neurological status would have priority for this client.

The client has been diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident (stroke). The client's wife is concerned about her husband's generalized weakness. Which home modification should the nurse suggest to the wife prior to discharge? 1. Obtain a rubber mat to place under the dinner plate. 2. Purchase a long-handled bath sponge for showering. 3. Purchase clothes with Velcro closure devices. 4. Obtain a raised toilet seat for the client's bathroom.

4. Raising the toilet seat is modifying the home and addresses the client's weakness in being able to sit down and get up without straining muscles or requiring lifting assistance from the wife.

The nurse is assessing the client admitted with encephalitis. Which data require immediate nursing intervention? The client: 1. Has bilateral facial palsies. 2. Has a recurrent temperature of 100.6°F. 3. Has a decreased complaint of headache. 4. Comments that the meal has no taste.

4. The absence of smell and taste indicates that the cranial nerves may be involved. The client's condition is becoming more serious.

The male client is sitting in the chair and his entire body is rigid with his arms and legs contracting and relaxing. The client is not aware of what is going on and is making guttural sounds. Which action should the nurse implement first? 1. Push aside any furniture. 2. Place the client on his side. 3. Assess the client's vital signs. 4. Ease the client to the floor.

4. The client should not remain in the chair during a seizure. He should be brought safely to the floor so that he will have room to move the extremities.

The client with end-stage ALS requires a gastrostomy tube feeding. Which finding would require the nurse to hold a bolus tube feeding? 1. A residual of 125 mL. 2. The abdomen is soft. 3. Three episodes of diarrhea. 4. The potassium level is 3.4 mEq/L.

A residual (aspirated gastric contents) of greater than 50 to 100 mL indicates that the tube feeding is not being digested and that the feeding should be held.

SATA: The nurse is preparing a client diagnosed with rule-out meningitis for a lumbar puncture. Which interventions should the nurse implement? 1. Obtain an informed consent from the client or significant other. 2. Have the client empty the bladder prior to the procedure. 3. Place the client in a side-lying position with the back arched. 4. Instruct the client to breathe rapidly and deeply during the procedure. 5. Explain to the client what to expect during the procedure.

1. A lumbar puncture is an invasive procedure; therefore, an informed consent is required. 2. This could be offered for client comfort during the procedure. 3. This position increases the space between the vertebrae, which allows the HCP easier entry into the spinal column. 5. The nurse should always explain to the client what is happening prior to and during a procedure.

The charge nurse is making assignments. Which client should be assigned to the new graduate nurse? 1. The client diagnosed with aseptic meningitis who is complaining of a headache and the light bothering his eyes. 2. The client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease who fell during the night and is complaining of difficulty walking. 3. The client diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident whose vitals signs are P 60, R 14, and BP 198/68. 4. The client diagnosed with a brain tumor who has a new complaint of seeing spots before the eyes.

1. Headache and photophobia are expected clinical manifestations of meningitis. The new graduate could care for this client.

SATA: The nurse in the neurointensive care unit is caring for a client with a new C6 SCI who is breathing independently. Which nursing interventions should be implemented? 1. Monitor the pulse oximetry reading. 2. Provide pureed foods six (6) times a day. 3. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. 4. Assess for autonomic dysreflexia. 5. Administer intravenous corticosteroids.

1. Oxygen is administered initially to prevent hypoxemia, which can worsen the spinal cord injury; therefore, the nurse should determine how much oxygen is reaching the periphery. 3. Breathing exercises are supervised by the nurse to increase the strength and endurance of inspiratory muscles, especially those of the diaphragm. 5. Corticosteroids are administered to decrease inflammation, which will decrease edema, and help prevent edema from ascending up the spinal cord, causing breathing difficulties.

The rehabilitation nurse caring for the client with an L1 SCI is developing the nursing care plan. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Keep oxygen via nasal cannula on at all times. 2. Administer low-dose subcutaneous anticoagulants. 3. Perform active lower extremity ROM exercises. 4. Refer to a speech therapist for ventilator-assisted speech.

1. Spinal shock associated with SCI represents a sudden depression of reflex activity below the level of the injury. T12 is just above the waist; therefore, no reflex activity below the waist would be expected.

The nurse caring for a client who has been abusing amphetamines writes a problem of "cardiovascular compromise." Which nursing interventions should be implemented? 1. Monitor the telemetry and vital signs every four (4) hours. 2. Encourage the client to verbalize the reason for using drugs. 3. Provide a quiet, calm atmosphere for the client to rest. 4. Place the client on bedrest and a low-sodium diet.

1. Telemetry and vital signs would be done to monitor cardiovascular compromise. Amphetamine use causes tachycardia, vasoconstriction, hypertension, and arrhythmias.

The nurse is working with clients in a substance abuse clinic. Client A tells the nurse that another client, Client B, has "started using again." Which action should the nurse implement? 1. Tell Client A the nurse cannot discuss Client B with him. 2. Find out how Client A got this information. 3. Inform the HCP that Client B is using again. 4. Get in touch with Client B and have the client come to the clinic.

1. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires that a health-care professional not divulge information about one person to an unauthorized person.

The client diagnosed with septic meningitis is admitted to the medical floor at noon. Which health-care provider's order would have the highest priority? 1. Administer an intravenous antibiotic. 2. Obtain the client's lunch tray. 3. Provide a quiet, calm, and dark room. 4. Weigh the client in hospital attire.

1. The antibiotic has the highest priority because failure to treat a bacterial infection can result in shock, systemic sepsis, and death.

SATA: The client is being discharged following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Which discharge instructions should the nurse teach the client? 1. Sleep with the head of the bed elevated. 2. Keep a humidifier in the room. 3. Use caution when performing oral care. 4. Stay on a full liquid diet until seen by the HCP. 5. Notify the HCP if developing a cold or fever.

1. The blood-brain barrier is the body's defense mechanism for protecting the brain from chemical effects; in this case, it prevents the chemotherapy from being able to work on the tumor in the brain. 2. Humidified air will prevent drying of the nasal passages. 3. Because the incision for this surgery is just above the gumline, the client should not brush the front teeth. Oral care should be performed using a sponge until the incision has healed. 5. The HCP should be notified if the client develops an infection of any kind. A cold with sinus involvement and sneezing places the client at risk for opening the incision and developing a brain infection.

A client diagnosed with a subarachnoid hemorrhage has undergone a craniotomy for repair of a ruptured aneurysm. Which intervention will the intensive care nurse implement? 1. Administer a stool softener b.i.d. 2. Encourage the client to cough hourly. 3. Monitor neurological status every shift. 4. Maintain the dopamine drip to keep BP at 160/90.

1. The client is at risk for increased intracranial pressure whenever performing the Valsalva maneuver, which will occur when straining during defecation. Therefore, stool softeners would be appropriate.

The client is diagnosed with a closed head injury and is in a coma. The nurse writes the client problem as "high risk for immobility complications." Which intervention would be included in the plan of care? 1. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated at intervals. 2. Perform active range-of-motion exercises every four (4) hours. 3. Turn the client every shift and massage bony prominences. 4. Explain all procedures to the client before performing them.

1. The head of the client's bed should be elevated to help the lungs expand and prevent stasis of secretions that could lead to pneumonia, a complication of immobility.

The nurse and UAP are caring for clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which task should not be assigned to the UAP? 1. Feed the 69-year-old client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease who is having difficulty swallowing. 2. Turn and position the 89-year-old client diagnosed with a pressure ulcer secondary to Parkinson's disease. 3. Assist the 54-year-old client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease with toilet-training activities. 4. Obtain vital signs on a 72-year-old client diagnosed with pneumonia secondary to Parkinson's disease.

1. The nurse should not delegate feeding a client who is at risk for complications during feeding. This requires judgment that the UAP is not expected to possess.

The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which medication would the nurse anticipate being ordered for the client on discharge? 1. An oral anticoagulant medication. 2. A beta blocker medication. 3. An anti-hyperuricemic medication. 4. A thrombolytic medication.

1. The nurse would anticipate an oral anticoagulant, warfarin (Coumadin), to be prescribed to help prevent thrombi formation in the atria secondary to atrial fibrillation. The thrombi can become embolic and may cause a TIA or CVA (stroke).

The home health nurse is caring for a 28-year-old client with a T10 SCI who says, "I can't do anything. Why am I so worthless?" Which statement by the nurse would be the most therapeutic? 1. "This must be very hard for you. You're feeling worthless?" 2. "You shouldn't feel worthless—you are still alive." 3. "Why do you feel worthless? You still have the use of your arms." 4. "If you attended a work rehab program you wouldn't feel worthless."

1. Therapeutic communication addresses the client's feelings and attempts to allow the client to verbalize feelings; the nurse should be a therapeutic listener.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client diagnosed with aseptic meningitis secondary to a brain tumor. Which nursing goal would be most appropriate for the client problem "altered cerebral tissue perfusion"? 1. The client will be able to complete activities of daily living. 2. The client will be protected from injury if seizure activity occurs. 3. The client will be afebrile for 48 hours prior to discharge. 4. The client will have elastic tissue turgor with ready recoil.

2. A client with a problem of altered cerebral tissue perfusion is at risk for seizure activity secondary to focal areas of cortical irritability; therefore, the client should be on seizure precautions.

The client diagnosed with a closed head injury is admitted to the rehabilitation department. Which medication order would the nurse question? 1. A subcutaneous anticoagulant. 2. An intravenous osmotic diuretic. 3. An oral anticonvulsant. 4. An oral proton pump inhibitor.

2. An osmotic diuretic would be ordered in the acute phase to help decrease cerebral edema, but this medication would not be expected to be ordered in a rehabilitation unit. TEST-TAKING HINT: The client is in the rehabilitation unit and therefore must be stable. The use of any intravenous medication should be questioned under those circumstances, even if the test taker is not sure why the medication may be considered.

The client has undergone a craniotomy for a brain tumor. Which data indicate a complication of this surgery? 1. The client complains of a headache at "3" to "4" on a 1-to-10 scale. 2. The client has an intake of 1,000 mL and an output of 3,500 mL. 3. The client complains of a raspy sore throat. 4. The client experiences dizziness when trying to get up too quickly.

2. An output much larger than the intake could indicate the development of diabetes insipidus. Pressure on the pituitary gland can result in decreased production of vasopressin, the antidiuretic hormone.

The client is diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. Which preventive measure would the nurse expect the health-care provider to order for the significant others in the home? 1. The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine. 2. Antimicrobial chemoprophylaxis. 3. A 10-day dose pack of corticosteroids. 4. A gamma globulin injection.

2. Chemoprophylaxis includes administering medication that will prevent infection or eradicate the bacteria and the development of symptoms in people who have been in close proximity to the client. Medications include rifampin (Rifadin), ciprofloxacin (Cipro), andceftriaxone (Rocephin).

The client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease (PD) is being admitted with a fever and patchy infiltrates in the lung fields on the chest x-ray. Which clinical manifestations of PD would explain these assessment data? 1. Masklike facies and shuffling gait. 2. Difficulty swallowing and immobility. 3. Pill rolling of fingers and flat affect. 4. Lack of arm swing and bradykinesia.

2. Difficulty swallowing places the client at risk for aspiration. Immobility predisposes the client to pneumonia. Both clinical manifestations place the client at risk for pulmonary complications.

The client is diagnosed with a metastatic brain tumor, and radiation therapy is scheduled. The client asks the nurse, "Why not try chemotherapy first? It has helped my other tumors." The nurse's response is based on which scientific rationale? 1. Chemotherapy is only used as a last resort in caring for clients with brain tumors. 2. The blood-brain barrier prevents medications from reaching the brain. 3. Radiation therapy will have fewer side effects than chemotherapy. 4. Metastatic tumors become resistant to chemotherapy and it becomes useless.

2. The blood-brain barrier is the body's defense mechanism for protecting the brain from chemical effects; in this case, it prevents the chemotherapy from being able to work on the tumor in the brain.

The client is being admitted to rule out a brain tumor. Which classic triad of symptoms supports a diagnosis of brain tumor? 1. Nervousness, metastasis to the lungs, and seizures. 2. Headache, vomiting, and papilledema. 3. Hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea. 4. Abrupt loss of motor function, diarrhea, and changes in taste.

2. The classic triad of symptoms suggesting a brain tumor includes a headache that is dull, unrelenting, and worse in the morning; vomiting unrelated to food intake; and edema of the optic nerve (papilledema), which occurs in 70% to 75% of clients diagnosed with brain tumors. Papilledema causes visual disturbances such as decreased visual acuity and diplopia.

The nurse is assessing a client experiencing motor loss as a result of a left-sided cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which clinical manifestations would the nurse document? 1. Hemiparesis of the client's left arm and apraxia. 2. Paralysis of the right side of the body and ataxia. 3. Homonymous hemianopsia and diplopia. 4. Impulsive behavior and hostility toward family.

2. The most common motor dysfunction of a CVA is paralysis of one side of the body, hemiplegia; in this case with a left-sided CVA, the paralysis would affect the right side. Ataxia is an impaired ability to coordinate movement.

The 34-year-old male client with an SCI is sharing with the nurse that he is worried about finding employment after being discharged from the rehabilitation unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Refer the client to the American Spinal Cord Injury Association (ASIA). 2. Refer the client to the state rehabilitation commission. 3. Ask the social worker about applying for disability. 4. Suggest that the client talk with his significant other about this concern.

2. The rehabilitation commission of each state will help evaluate and determine if the client can receive training or education for another occupation after injury.

The nurse is conducting a support group for clients diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and their significant others. Which information regarding psychosocial needs should be included in the discussion? 1. The client should discuss feelings about being placed on a ventilator. 2. The client may have rapid mood swings and become easily upset. 3. Pill-rolling tremors will become worse when the medication is wearing off. 4. The client may automatically start to repeat what another person says.

2. These are psychosocial manifestations of PD. These should be discussed in the support meeting.

The male client diagnosed with a brain tumor is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan in the morning. The client tells the nurse that he is scared. Which response by the nurse indicates an appropriate therapeutic response? 1. "MRIs are loud but there will not be any invasive procedure done." 2. "You're scared. Tell me about what is scaring you." 3. "This is the least thing to be scared about—there will be worse." 4. "I can call the MRI tech to come and talk to you about the scan."

2. This is restating and offering self. Both are therapeutic responses."

The client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease is being discharged. Which statement made by the significant other indicates an understanding of the discharge instructions? 1. "All of my spouse's emotions will slow down now just like his body movements." 2. "My spouse may experience hallucinations until the med starts working." 3. "I will schedule appointments late in the morning after his morning bath." 4. "It is fine if we don't follow a strict med schedule on weekends."

3. "Scheduling appointments late in the morning gives the client a chance to complete ADLs without pressure and allows the medications time to give the best benefits.

A 78-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department with numbness and weakness of the left arm and slurred speech. Which nursing intervention is priority? 1. Prepare to administer recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rt-PA). 2. Discuss the precipitating factors that caused the symptoms. 3. Schedule for a STAT computed tomography (CT) scan of the head. 4. Notify the speech pathologist for an emergency consult.

3. A CT scan will determine if the client is having a stroke or has a brain tumor or another neurological disorder. If a CVA is diagnosed, the CT scan can determine if it is a hemorrhagic or ischemic accident and guide treatment.

The client is diagnosed with ALS. As the disease progresses, which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Discuss the need to be placed in a long-term care facility. 2. Explain how to care for a sigmoid colostomy. 3. Assist the client to prepare an advance directive. 4. Teach the client how to use a motorized wheelchair.

3. A client with ALS usually dies within five (5) years. Therefore, the nurse should offer the client the opportunity to determine how he/she wants to die.

The nurse is assessing the client diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Which clinical manifestations would support the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis? 1. Positive Babinski's sign and peripheral paresthesia. 2. Negative Chvostek's sign and facial tingling. 3. Positive Kernig's sign and nuchal rigidity. 4. Negative Trousseau's sign and nystagmus.

3. A positive Kernig's sign (client unable to extend leg when lying flat) and nuchal rigidity (stiff neck) are signs of bacterial meningitis, occurring because the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal column are irritated.

The nurse is caring for the following clients on a medical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first? 1. The client with ALS who is refusing to turn every two (2) hours. 2. The client with abdominal pain who is complaining of nausea. 3. The client with pneumonia who has a pulse ox reading of 90%. 4. The client who is complaining about not receiving any pain medication.

3. A pulse oximeter reading of less than ,93% indicates that the client is experiencing hypoxemia, which is a life-threatening emergency. This client should be assessed first.

The client is admitted to the intensive care department (ICD) experiencing status epilepticus. Which collaborative intervention should the nurse anticipate? 1. Assess the client's neurological status every hour. 2. Monitor the client's heart rhythm via telemetry. 3. Administer an anticonvulsant medication by intravenous push. 4. Prepare to administer a glucocorticosteroid orally.

3. Administering an anticonvulsant medication by intravenous push requires the nurse to have an order or confer with another member of the health-care team.

The client is diagnosed with a pituitary tumor and is scheduled for a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Which preoperative instruction is important for the nurse to teach? 1. There will be a large turban dressing around the skull after surgery. 2. The client will not be able to eat for four (4) or five (5) days postop. 3. The client should not blow the nose for two (2) weeks after surgery. 4. The client will have to lie flat for 24 hours following the surgery.

3. Blowing the nose creates increased intracranial pressure and could result in a cerebrospinal fluid leak.

The nurse is caring for clients on a medical-surgical floor. Which client should be assessed first? 1. The 65-year-old client diagnosed with seizures who is complaining of a headache that is a "2" on a 1-to-10 scale. 2. The 24-year-old client diagnosed with a T10 spinal cord injury who cannot move his toes. 3. The 58-year-old client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease who is crying and worried about her facial appearance. 4. The 62-year-old client diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident who has a resolving left hemiparesis.

3. Body image is a concern for clients diagnosed with PD. This client is the one client who is not experiencing expected sequelae of the disease.

The client diagnosed with PD is being discharged on carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet), an antiparkinsonian drug. Which statement is the scientific rationale for combining these meds? 1. There will be fewer side effects with this combination than with carbidopa alone. 2. Dopamine D requires presence of both of these meds to work. 3. Carbidopa makes more levodopa available to the brain. 4. Carbidopa crosses the blood-brain barrier to treat Parkinson's disease.

3. Carbidopa enhances the effects of levodopa by inhibiting decarboxylase in the periphery, thereby making more levodopa available to the central nervous system. Sinemet is the most effective treatment for PD.

The client who just had a three (3)-minute seizure has no apparent injuries and is oriented to name, place, and time but is very lethargic and just wants to sleep. Which intervention should nurse implement? 1. Perform a complete neurological assessment. 2. Awaken the client every 30 minutes. 3. Turn the client to the side and allow the client to sleep. 4. Interview the client to find out what caused the seizure.

3. During the postictal (after-seizure) phase, the client is very tired and should be allowed to rest quietly; placing the client on the side will help prevent aspiration and maintain a patent airway.

Which is a common cognitive problem associated with Parkinson's disease? 1. Emotional lability. 2. Depression. 3. Memory deficits. 4. Paranoia.

3. Memory deficits are cognitive impairments. The client may also develop a dementia.

The nurse is working with clients and their families regarding substance abuse. Which statement is the scientific rationale for teaching the children new coping mechanisms? 1. The child needs to realize that the parent will be changing behaviors. 2. The child will need to point out to the parent when the parent is not coping. 3. Children tend to mimic behaviors of parents when faced with similar situations. 4. Children need to feel like they are a part of the parent's recovery.

3. Most coping behaviors are learned from parents and guardians. Children of substance abusers tend to cope with life situations by becoming substance abusers unless taught healthy coping mechanisms.

The nurse has written a care plan for a client diagnosed with a brain tumor. Which is an important goal regarding self-care deficit? 1. The client will maintain body weight within two (2) pounds. 2. The client will execute an advance directive. 3. The client will be able to perform three (3) ADLs with assistance. 4. The client will verbalize feeling of loss by the end of the shift.

3. Performing activities of daily living is a goal for self-care deficit.

The wife of the client diagnosed with septic meningitis asks the nurse, "I am so scared. What is meningitis?" Which statement would be the most appropriate response by the nurse? 1. "There is bleeding into his brain causing irritation of the meninges." 2. "A virus has infected the brain and meninges, causing inflammation." 3. "This is a bacterial infection of the tissues that cover the brain and spinal cord." 4. "This is an inflammation of the brain parenchyma caused by a mosquito bite."

3. Septic meningitis refers to meningitis caused by bacteria; the most common form of bacterial meningitis is caused by the Neisseria meningitides bacteria

Which statement by the female client indicates that the client understands factors that may precipitate seizure activity? 1. "It is all right for me to drink coffee for breakfast." 2. "My menstrual cycle will not affect my seizure disorder." 3. "I am going to take a class in stress management." 4. "I should wear dark glasses when I am out in the sun."

3. Tension states, such as anxiety and frustration, induce seizures in some clients, so stress management may be helpful in preventing seizures.

The nurse is caring for the following clients. Which client would the nurse assess first after receiving the shift report? 1. The 22-year-old male client diagnosed with a concussion who is complaining someone is waking him up every two (2) hours. 2. The 36-year-old female client admitted with complaints of left-sided weakness who is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. 3. The 45-year-old client admitted with blunt trauma to the head after a motorcycle accident who has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 6. 4. The 62-year-old client diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) who has expressive aphasia.

3. The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to determine a client's response to stimuli (eye-opening response, best verbal response, and best motor response) secondary to a neurological problem; scores range from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (intact neurological function). A client with a score of 6 should be assessed first by the nurse.

The client diagnosed with breast cancer has developed metastasis to the brain. Which prophylactic measure should the nurse implement? 1. Institute aspiration precautions. 2. Refer the client to Reach to Recovery. 3. Initiate seizure precautions. 4. Teach the client about mastectomy care.

3. The client diagnosed with metastatic lesions to the brain is at high risk for seizures.

SATA: The client is withdrawing from a heroin addiction. Which interventions should the nurse implement? 1. Initiate seizure precautions. 2. Check vital signs every eight (8) hours. 3. Place the client in a quiet, calm atmosphere. 4. Have a consent form signed for HIV testing. 5. Provide the client with sterile needles.

3. The client should be in an atmosphere where there is little stimulation. The client will be irritable and fearful. 4. Heroin is administered intravenously. Heroin addicts are at high risk for HIV as a result of shared needles and thus should be tested for HIV.

The client has sustained a severe closed head injury and the neurosurgeon is determining if the client is "brain dead." Which data support that the client is brain dead? 1. When the client's head is turned to the right, the eyes turn to the right. 2. The electroencephalogram (EEG) has identifiable waveforms. 3. There is no eye activity when the cold caloric test is performed. 4. The client assumes decorticate posturing when painful stimuli are applied.

3. The cold caloric test, also called the oculovestibular test, is a test used to determine if the brain is intact or dead. No eye activity indicates brain death. If the client's eyes moved, that would indicate that the brainstem is intact.

The nurse observes a coworker acting erratically. The clients assigned to this coworker don't seem to get relief when pain medications are administered. Which, action should the nurse take? 1. Try to help the coworker by confronting the coworker with the nurse's suspicions. 2. Tell the coworker that the nurse will give all narcotic medications from now on. 3. Report the nurse's suspicions to the nurse's supervisor or the facility's peer review. 4. Do nothing until the nurse can prove the coworker has been using drugs.

3. The coworker's supervisor or peer review committee should be aware of the nurse's suspicions so that the suspicions can be investigated. This is a client safety and care concern.

The client is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) to help diagnose a seizure disorder. Which preprocedure teaching should the nurse implement? 1. Tell the client to take any routine antiseizure medication prior to the EEG. 2. Tell the client not to eat anything for eight (8) hours prior to the procedure. 3. Instruct the client to stay awake for 24 hours prior to the EEG. 4. Explain to the client that there will be some discomfort during the procedure.

3. The goal is for the client to have a seizure during the EEG. Sleep deprivation, hyperventilating, or flashing lights may induce a seizure.

The nurse arrives at the site of a one-car motor-vehicle accident and stops to render aid. The driver of the car is unconscious. After stabilizing the client's cervical spine, which action should the nurse take next? 1. Carefully remove the driver from the car. 2. Assess the client's pupils for reaction. 3. Assess the client's airway. 4. Attempt to wake the client up by shaking him.

3. The nurse must maintain a patent airway. Airway is the first step in resuscitation.

The client with a closed head injury has clear fluid draining from the nose. Which action should the nurse implement first? 1. Notify the health-care provider immediately. 2. Prepare to administer an antihistamine. 3. Test the drainage for presence of glucose. 4. Place 2 × 2 gauze under the nose to collect drainage.

3. The presence of glucose in drainage from the nose or ears indicates cerebrospinal fluid, and the HCP should be notified immediately once this is determined.

The son of a client diagnosed with ALS asks the nurse, "Is there any chance that I could get this disease?" Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate? 1. "It must be scary to think you might get this disease." 2. "No, this disease is not genetic or contagious." 3. "ALS does have a genetic factor and runs in families." 4. "If you are exposed to the same virus, you may get the disease."

3. There is a genetic factor with ALS that is linked to a chromosome 21 defect.

The nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for a client with right-sided paralysis. Which action by the UAP requires the nurse to intervene? 1. The assistant places a gait belt around the client's waist prior to ambulating. 2. The assistant places the client on the back with the client's head to the side. 3. The assistant places a hand under the client's right axilla to move up in bed. 4. The assistant praises the client for attempting to perform ADLs independently.

3. This action is inappropriate and would require intervention by the nurse because pulling on a flaccid shoulder joint could cause shoulder dislocation; the client should be pulled up by placing the arm underneath the back or using a lift sheet.

Which assessment data would indicate to the nurse that the client would be at risk for a hemorrhagic stroke? 1. A blood glucose level of 480 mg/dL. 2. A right-sided carotid bruit. 3. A blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg. 4. The presence of bronchogenic carcinoma.

3. Uncontrolled hypertension is a risk factor for hemorrhagic stroke, which is a ruptured blood vessel inside the cranium.

The client is diagnosed with an SCI and is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask prior to taking the client to the diagnostic test? 1. "Do you have trouble hearing?" 2. "Are you allergic to any type of dairy products?" 3. "Have you eaten anything in the last eight (8) hours?" 4. "Are you uncomfortable in closed spaces?"

4. "MRI scans are often done in a very confined space; many people who have claustrophobia must be medicated or even rescheduled for the procedure in an open MRI machine, which may be available if needed.

The nurse is planning care for a client experiencing agnosia secondary to a cerebrovascular accident. Which collaborative intervention will be included in the plan of care? 1. Observe the client swallowing for possible aspiration. 2. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position when sleeping. 3. Place a suction setup at the client's bedside during meals. 4. Refer the client to an occupational therapist for evaluation.

4. A collaborative intervention is an intervention in which another health-care discipline—in this case, occupational therapy—is used in the care of the client.

The intensive care nurse is caring for a client with a T1 SCI. When the nurse elevates the head of the bed 30 degrees, the client complains of lightheadedness and dizziness. The client's vital signs are T 99.2°F, P 98, R 24, and BP 84/40. Which action should the nurse implement? 1. Notify the health-care provider ASAP. 2. Calm the client down by talking therapeutically. 3. Increase the IV rate by 50 mL/hour. 4. Lower the head of the bed immediately.

4. For the first two (2) weeks after an SCI above T7, the blood pressure tends to be unstable and low; slight elevations of the head of the bed can cause profound hypotension; therefore, the nurse should lower the head of the bed immediately.

The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease writes a problem of "impaired nutrition." Which nursing intervention would be included in the plan of care? 1. Consult OT for adaptive appliances for eating. 2. Request a low-fat, low-sodium diet from the dietary department. 3. Provide three (3) meals per day that include nuts and whole-grain breads. 4. Offer six (6) meals per day with a soft consistency.

4. The client's energy levels will not sustain eating for long periods. Offering frequent and easy-to-chew (soft) meals of small proportions is the preferred dietary plan.

The nurse is planning the care for a client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which would be a therapeutic goal of treatment for the disease process? 1. The client will experience periods of akinesia throughout the day. 2. The client will take the prescribed medications correctly. 3. The client will be able to enjoy a family outing with the spouse. 4. The client will be able to carry out activities of daily living.

4. The major goal of treating PD is to maintain the ability to function. Clients diagnosed with PD experience slow, jerky movements and have difficulty performing routine daily tasks.

The client diagnosed with ALS is prescribed an antiglutamate, riluzole (Rilutek). Which instruction should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Take the med with food. 2. Do not eat green, leafy vegetables. 3. Use SPF 30 when going out in the sun. 4. Report any febrile illness.

4. The medication can cause blood dyscrasias. Therefore, the client is monitored for liver function, blood count, blood chemistries, and alkaline phosphatase. The client should report any febrile illness. This is the first medication developed to treat ALS.

The client is admitted to the medical floor with a diagnosis of closed head injury. Which nursing intervention has priority? 1. Assess neurological status. 2. Monitor pulse, respiration, and blood pressure. 3. Initiate an intravenous access. 4. Maintain an adequate airway.

4. The most important nursing goal in the management of a client with a head injury is to establish and maintain an adequate airway.

The client diagnosed with a brain tumor was admitted to the intensive care unit with decorticate posturing. Which indicates that the client's condition is becoming worse? 1. The client has purposeful movement with painful stimuli. 2. The client has assumed adduction of the upper extremities. 3. The client is aimlessly thrashing in the bed. 4. The client has become flaccid and does not respond to stimuli.

4. The most severe neurological impairment result is flaccidity and no response to stimuli. This indicates that the client's condition has worsened.

The 85-year-old client diagnosed with a stroke is complaining of a severe headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Administer a nonnarcotic analgesic. 2. Prepare for STAT magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). 3. Start an intravenous infusion with D5W at 100 mL/hr. 4. Complete a neurological assessment.

4. The nurse must complete a neurological assessment to help determine the cause of the headache before taking any further action.

The nurse is enjoying a day at the lake and witnesses a water skier hit the boat ramp. The water skier is in the water not responding to verbal stimuli. The nurse is the first health-care provider to respond to the accident. Which intervention should be implemented first? 1. Assess the client's level of consciousness. 2. Organize onlookers to remove the client from the lake. 3. Perform a head-to-toe assessment to determine injuries. 4. Stabilize the client's cervical spine.

4. The nurse should always assume that a client with traumatic head injury may have sustained spinal cord injury. Moving the client could further injure the spinal cord and cause paralysis; therefore, the nurse should stabilize the cervical spinal cord as best as possible prior to removing the client from the water.

The wife of the client diagnosed with chronic alcoholism tells the nurse, "I have to call his work just about every Monday to let them know he is ill or he will lose his job." Which would be the nurse's best response? 1. "I am sure that this must be hard for you. Tell me about your concerns." 2. "You are afraid he will lose his source of income." 3. "Why would you call in for your husband? Can't he do this?" 4. "Are you aware that when you do this you are enabling him?"

4. The spouse's behavior is enabling the client to continue to drink until he cannot function.

The client diagnosed with a brain tumor has a diminished gag response. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Make the client NPO until seen by the health-care provider. 2. Position the client in low Fowler's position for all meals. 3. Place the client on a mechanically ground diet. 4. Teach the client to direct food and fluid toward the unaffected side.

4. To decrease the risk of aspiration, the client should direct food to the unaffected side of the throat; this helps the client to be able to use the side of the throat that is functioning.