Medical Terminology - Midterm - Chapters (1-7)

Chapter 7

Function The organs of the respiratory system are responsible for bringing fresh air into the lungs, exchanging oxygen for carbon dioxide between the air sacs of the lungs and the bloodstream, and exhaling the stale air. Organs Primary structures comprising respiratory system: nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial tubes, and lungs. aer/o air alveol/o alveolus anthrac/o coal atel/o incomplete bronch/o, bronchi/o bronchus bronchiol/o bronchiole coni/o dust cyan/o blue cyst/o sac diaphragmat/o diaphragm epiglott/o epiglottis hal/o tobreathe laryng/o larynx lob/o lobe muc/o mucus nas/o nose ox/o, ox/i oxygen pharyng/o pharynx pleur/o pleura pneum/o lung, air pneumon/o lung, air pulmon/o lung rhin/o nose sept/o wall sinus/o sinus somn/o sleep spir/o breathing trache/o trachea tuss/o cough -capnia carbon dioxide -osmia smell -phonia voice -pnea breathing -ptysis spitting -thorax chest bi/o life carcin/o cancer cardi/o heart cortic/o outer layer cyt/o cell embol/o plug fibr/o fibers hem/o blood hist/o tissue myc/o fungus orth/o straight ot/o ear py/o pus thorac/o chest -centesis puncture to withdraw fluid -dynia pain -ectasis dilation -genic produced by -emia blood condition -graphy process of recording -oma tumor -osis abnormal condition -plegia paralysis -rrhagia abnormal flow condition -rrhea discharge -stenosis narrowing -thorax chest -spasm involuntary muscle contraction dys- difficult, abnormal endo- within eu- normal hypo- insufficient para- beside epistaxis nosebleed rhinorrhea runny nose Mantoux test TB test Breathing -pnea Cough tuss/o Smell -osmia Normal breathing eupnea Inflammation of the nose rhinitis Voice box laryng/o Incision into the chest thoracotomy No oxygen anoxia Dust coni/o Runny nose rhinorrhea Breathing spir/o Spitting -ptysis Nosebleed epistaxis Voice -phonia Coal anthrac/o Wall sept/o Upright orth/o (straight) Kills bacteria antibiotic Chest tube thoracostomy Mantoux test TB test Which of the following substances needs to be removed from the body by the respiratory system? carbon dioxide _____ may lead to the development to pneumonia. Aspiration What flap of tissue protects the airway from food and liquid? epiglottis What is the term for the narrowest branches of the airway? bronchioles Which of the following is a test for cystic fibrosis? sweat test Which of the following refers to fluid in the pleural space? pleural effusion Which of the following means that the patient is more comfortable breathing in an upright position? orthopnea Which term means that the alveoli in a portion of the lung have collapsed? atelectasis Which term means difficult breathing dyspnea Which term specifically means that the body is not receiving enough oxygen? hypoxia The suffix -plegia indicates which of the following conditions? paralysis A child with pertussis has: a cough Which suffix means spitting? -ptysis Which prefix indicates a normal condition? eu- The opposite of tachy- is: brady- An otorhinolaryngologist treats conditions of the: ear The ______ equalize(s) air pressure between the middle ear and the outside atmosphere eustachian tube The combining form in the term atelectasis means: incomplete The suffix in the term tracheostenosis means: narrowing The prefix in the term tachypnea means: fast Inhalation is the flow of air into the lungs. True Exhalation is the flow of air into the lungs. False The main reason for breathing is so that oxygen can be supplied to every cell in the body. True Our body forms a waste product called carbon monoxide. False The vocal cords are part of the larynx. True Bronchiectasis means dilated bronchi. True The diaphragm is a muscle that separates the heart from the lungs. False Bronchitis is inflammation of a bronchus. True A normal respiratory rate for an adult is 60. False Bronchospasm involves the smooth muscle in the diaphragm. False The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, delivers ______ to the cells of the body. oxygen The nasal cavity is divided down the middle by the: nasal septum The upper section of the pharynx is called: nasopharynx Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? bronchioles - air sacs Which of the following pairs is mismatched? hilum - area where trachea enters the lungs The _____ is the roof of the mouth and the floor of the nasal cavity. palate Which of the following terms is also called suffocation? asphyxia Which of the following terms means a high-pitched breathing sound? stridor Mucus coughed up from the respirator tract is called: sputum Which term means open or unblocked? patent Which of the following conditions causes constriction of the bronchial airways by bronchospasms? asthma Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis? sweat test Which diagnostic procedure measures the oxygen level in the blood? oximetry Which of the following is a machine that breathes for a patient who is unable to breathe on his or her own? ventilator Which therapeutic procedure uses gravity to encourage the removal of secretions from the bronchi? postural drainage Which kind of medication is suspended in a mist in order to be inhaled? aerosol therapy Which of the following medications treats an allergy attack? antihistamine Which of the following medications relieves the urge to cough? antitussive Which of the following medications improves the ability to cough up mucus? expectorant Which abbreviation stands for a diagnostic laboratory test? ABGs Which abbreviation stands for a diagnostic test? PFT Which term means abnormal condition of blue? cyanosis Which term means nose discharge? rhinorrhea Which of the following terms means excessive (deep) breathing? hyperpnea Which of the following terms means air in the chest? pneumothorax Quiz Chapter 7 Question 1 1 / 1 point The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, delivers ________ to the cells of the body. Question options: oxygen nutrients carbon dioxide sodium Hide Feedback The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, delivers oxygen to the cells of the body. The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, removes carbon dioxide from the cells of the body. The cardiovascular system is responsible for delivering nutrients and sodium to the cells of the body. Question 2 1 / 1 point The nasal cavity is divided down the middle by the: Question options: palate sinuses nasal septum nares Hide Feedback The nasal septum divides the nasal cavity down the middle. The palate is the roof of the mouth. The sinuses are in the skull. The nares are the nostrils. Question 3 1 / 1 point The upper section of the pharynx is called: Question options: oropharynx nasopharynx laryngopharynx hypopharynx Hide Feedback The upper section of the pharynx is called the nasopharynx, the middle is the oropharynx, and the lower is the laryngopharynx. Hypopharynx is not part of the pharyngeal anatomy. Question 4 1 / 1 point Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? Question options: trachea-windpipe larynx-voice box pharynx-throat bronchioles-air sacs Hide Feedback Alveoli are the air sacs, not bronchioles. The other pairs of terms are correct. Question 5 1 / 1 point Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Question options: apex-tip of lung base-bottom section of lung hilum-area where trachea enters the lungs pleura-sac around lungs Hide Feedback The hilum is where the bronchi, pulmonary blood vessels, and nerves enter into each lung, not the trachea. The other pairs are correct. Question 6 1 / 1 point The ________ is the roof of the mouth and the floor of the nasal cavity. Question options: septum nares palate sinuses Hide Feedback The palate is the roof of the mouth and the floor of the nasal cavity. The septum separates the nasal cavity. The nares are the two external openings into the nasal cavity. The sinuses are found in the facial bones. Question 7 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms is also called suffocation? Question options: asphyxia Cheyne-Stokes respiration aspiration hypoventilation Hide Feedback Suffocation and asphyxia are interchangeable terms. Question 8 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means a high-pitched breathing sound? Question options: rhonchi epistaxis stridor rales Hide Feedback Stridor is a harsh, high-pitched breathing sound made when there is an obstruction of the bronchus or larynx. Rhonchi is a musical sound. Epistaxis is a nosebleed. Rales makes a crackling sound. Question 9 1 / 1 point Mucus coughed up from the respiratory tract is called: Question options: phlegm stridor hemoptysis sputum Hide Feedback Mucus coughed up is sputum. Phlegm is mucus in the respiratory tract. Stridor is a harsh, high-pitched sound. Hemoptysis is blood-tinged sputum. Question 10 1 / 1 point Which term means open or unblocked? Question options: patent percussion asphyxia stridor Hide Feedback Patent means open or unblocked. Percussion is using the fingertips to tap on a surface to determine the condition beneath the surface. Asphyxia is a lack of oxygen. Stridor is a harsh, high-pitched sound. Question 11 1 / 1 point Which of the following conditions causes constriction of the bronchial airways by bronchospasms? Question options: bronchiectasis asthma anthracosis adult respiratory distress syndrome Hide Feedback Asthma causes constriction of the bronchial airways by bronchospasms. Bronchiectasis is enlargement of the bronchi. Anthracosis is known as black lung. Adult respiratory distress syndrome is acute respiratory failure in adults. Question 12 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis? Question options: sweat test spirometry pulmonary angiography sputum cytology Hide Feedback A sweat test is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis. Spirometry is used to measure lung capacity, commonly used to test lung function. Pulmonary angiography is used to examine pulmonary arteries and veins. Sputum cytology is looking for malignant cells. Question 13 1 / 1 point Which diagnostic procedure measures the oxygen level in the blood? Question options: ventilation-perfusion scan oximetry bronchography polysomnography Hide Feedback Oximetry measures the oxygen level in the blood. Ventilation-perfusion scan is a nuclear medicine test useful in identifying pulmonary emboli. Bronchography is an X-ray of the lung. Polysomnography is done to detect sleep apnea. Question 14 1 / 1 point Which of the following is a machine that breathes for a patient who is unable to breathe on his or her own? Question options: postural drainage endotracheal intubation aerosol therapy ventilator Hide Feedback A ventilator is a lung machine that breathes for a patient who cannot breathe on his or her own. Postural drainage places the patient in a position so that gravity can help facilitate drainage of fluids. Endotracheal intubation is the placing of a tube through the mouth, through the glottis, and into the trachea to create a patent airway. Aerosol therapy is medication suspended in a mist that is intended to be inhaled into the lungs. Question 15 1 / 1 point Which therapeutic procedure uses gravity to encourage the removal of secretions from the bronchi? Question options: postural drainage intermittent positive pressure breathing thoracentesis Heimlich maneuver Hide Feedback Postural drainage uses gravity to encourage drainage of secretions from the bronchi. Intermittent positive pressure breathing is a method for assisting patients in breathing using a mask that is connected to a machine that produces increased positive thoracic pressure. Thoracentesis is a puncture in the chest wall to remove fluids. The Heimlich maneuver is performed when a patient has an obstruction in his or her trachea or pharynx. Question 16 1 / 1 point Which kind of medication is suspended in a mist in order to be inhaled? Question options: endotracheal medications aerosol therapy pulmonary medications postural drainage Hide Feedback Medications suspended in mist in order to be inhaled are called aerosol therapy. Endotracheal medications and pulmonary medications are not necessarily aerosol. Postural drainage is a therapeutic procedure. Question 17 1 / 1 point Which of the following medications treats an allergy attack? Question options: expectorant bronchodilator antitussive antihistamine Hide Feedback An antihistamine blocks the histamines released during an allergy attack. An expectorant is used to improve the ability to cough up mucus from the respiratory tract. A bronchodilator is used to relax bronchospasms. An antitussive is used to relieve the urge to cough. Question 18 1 / 1 point Which of the following medications relieves the urge to cough? Question options: expectorant bronchodilator antitussive antihistamine Hide Feedback An antitussive is used to relieve the urge to cough. An expectorant is used to improve the ability to cough up mucus from the respiratory tract. A bronchodilator is used to relax bronchospasms. An antihistamine blocks the histamines released during an allergy attack. Question 19 1 / 1 point Which of the following medications improves the ability to cough up mucus? Question options: expectorant bronchodilator antitussive antihistamine Hide Feedback An expectorant is used to improve the ability to cough up mucus from the respiratory tract. A bronchodilator is used to relax bronchospasms. An antitussive is used to relieve the urge to cough. An antihistamine blocks the histamines released during an allergy attack. Question 20 1 / 1 point Which abbreviation stands for a diagnostic laboratory test? Question options: CPR ENT ARDS ABGs Hide Feedback ABGs stands for arterial blood gases, which is a diagnostic laboratory test. CPR stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation, which is a therapeutic procedure. ENT stands for ear, nose, and throat. ARDS stands for adult respiratory distress syndrome, which is a respiratory system pathology. Question 21 1 / 1 point Which abbreviation stands for a diagnostic test? Question options: TB PFT SOB URI Hide Feedback PFT stands for pulmonary function test, a diagnostic test. TB stands for tuberculosis, a bacterial disease. SOB stands for shortness of breath, a symptom. URI stands for upper respiratory infection. Question 22 1 / 1 point Which term means abnormal condition of blue? Question options: cyanotic cyanitis cyaniosis cyanosis Hide Feedback Cyan/o means blue and -osis means abnormal condition, so cyanosis means abnormal condition of blue. Cyanotic means pertaining to abnormal condition of blue. -itis means inflammation, so cyanitis would be inflammation of blue, not a medical term. Cyaniosis is misspelled. Question 23 1 / 1 point Which term means nose discharge? Question options: rhinorrhea rhinoplasty rhinorrhagia rhinitis Hide Feedback Rhin/o means nose and -rrhea means discharge; thus, rhinorrhea means nose discharge. -plasty means surgical repair, so rhinoplasty means surgical repair of the nose. -rrhagia means rapid flow, so rhinorrhagia would mean rapid flow from nose. -itis means inflammation, so rhinitis would mean inflammation of the nose. Question 24 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means excessive (deep) breathing? Question options: hypopnea tachypnea hyperpnea orthopnea Hide Feedback Hyper- means excessive and -pnea means breathing; therefore, hyperpnea means excessive breathing. Hypo- means insufficient, so hypopnea would be insufficient breathing. Tachy- means fast or rapid; hence, tachypnea would be rapid breathing. Orth/o means straight, so orthopnea means the person cannot lie flat and breathe well. Question 25 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means air in the chest? Question options: pneumothorax hemothorax pyothorax pulmothorax Hide Feedback Pneum/o means air and -thorax means chest; therefore, pneumothorax means air in the chest. Hem/o means blood; thus, hemothorax means blood in the chest. Py/o means pus; hence, pyothorax means pus in the chest. Pulm/o is not a combining form, so pulmothorax is not a medical term.

Chapter 6

Function Blood transports gases, nutrients, and wastes to all areas of the body either attached to red blood cells are dissolved in the plasma. White blood cells fight infection and disease, and platelets initiate blood clotting process. Organs Primary components that comprise blood: erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets. aggultin/o clumping bas/o base chrom/o color coagul/o clotting eosin/o rosy red fibrin/o fibers fus/o pouring granul/o granules hem/o blood hemat/o blood morph/o shape neutr/o neutral phag/o eat, swallow sanguin/o blood septic/o infection -apheresis removal, carry away -crit separation of -cytic pertaining to cells -cytosis more than the normal number of cells -emia blood condition -globin protein -penia abnormal decrease, too few -phil attracted to -philia condition of being attracted to -philic pertaining to being attracted to -plastic pertaining to formation -plastin formation -poiesis formation -rrhagic pertaining to abnormal flow -stasis standing still cyt/o cell erythr/o red leuk/o white lip/o fat lymph/o lymph phleb/o vein thromb/o clot -ia condition -ic pertaining to -ion action -logy study of adenoid/o adenoids axill/o axilla (underarm) immun/o immunity, protection inguin/o groin region lymph/o lymph lymphaden lymph node lymphangi/o lymph vessel nucle/o nucleus splen/o spleen thym/o thymus gland tonsill/o tonsils -ede,a swelling -globulin protein -phage to eat -toxic pertaining to poison cortic/o outer layer path/o disease pneumon/o lung sarc/o flesh -megaly enlarged -oma tumor -osis abnormal condition -pathy disease -therapy treatment -lytic destruction -oma mass -otomy cutting into -plastic pertaining to formation -rrhage abnormal flow -rragic pertaining to abnormal flow mono- one pan- all trans- across Formation -poiesis Clumping aggultin/o Attracted to -phil Blood condition -emia Eat, swallow phag/o Rapid flow of blood hemorrhage Color chrom/o Surgical removal -ectomy Abnormal condition -osis Treatment -therapy Severe itching urticaria Pertaining to the underarms axillary Protein -globulin One mono- Carry away -apheresis Flesh sarc/o Same homo- Infection septic/o Outer layer cortic/o Fibers fibrin/o Which is the term for the liquid portion of the blood? plasma What is the job of hemoglobin? transport oxygen What is the term for something that can invade our body and make us sick? pathogen A severe, potentially life-threatening, allergic reaction to an antigen is called: Anaphylaxis If the body becomes swollen due to obstruction of the flow of lymph, this is called: lymphedema What organ is part of the immune system and is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? spleen Where is the thymus located? upper mediastinum Which of these is NOT a cancer? sarcoidosis A test to measure the amount of time is takes for blood to coagulate is: prothrombin time A hematocrit test measures which of the following? red blood cells What are antigens? foreign proteins The Standard Precautions to avoid spreading infections are prepared by: OSHA The branch of medicine that diagnoses and treats infectious diseases is: immunology A hematoma is commonly referred to as a: bruise The average adult has about _____ liters of blood. five White blood cells are divided into granulocytes and: agranulocytes The end result of hemostasis is: a blood clot Which type of anemia is associated with insufficient vitamin B12? pernicious The mediastinal lymph nodes drain the: chest cavity The appearance of wheals as part of an allergic reaction is known as: hives Platelets are also called thrombocytes. True The main job of platelets is to kill bacteria. False The four blood types are A, B, C, and D. False A person with the Rh factor on his or her red blood cells is Rh negative. False Iron is necessary for the body to manufacture hemoglobin. True The molecule inside the red blood cells that carries oxygen to the tissues is called hemoglobin. True Anemia is too few white blood cells. False Leukemia is a cancer of the white blood cell-forming bone marrow. True A neutrophil is one type of erythrocyte. False Sickle cell anemia is due to a poor diet. False Which term means clotting cell? thrombocyte The watery part of blood is called: plasma Which term means lymph gland inflammation? lymphadenitis Which term means too few red (cells)? erythropenia Which of the following medications is required to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ? immunosuppressant Which of the following is a life-threatening allergic reaction? anaphylactic shock Which of the following abbreviations is a machine for performing blood tests? SMAC (Sequential Multiple Analyzer Computer) Which term means disease producing? pathogenic Which of the following blood tests measures how long it takes for a clot to form? pro-time Which of the following is a general term meaning a blood disease? dyscrasia Which of the following pairs is mismatched? nosocomial infection-acquired outside the hospital Which of the following medications helps to block an allergic reaction? antihistamine The mixture of plasma and blood cells is called: whole blood Which term means too many white cells? leukocytosis Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Monospot-test for Hodgkin's disease Which term means blood destruction? hemolytic A(n) _____ transfusion consists of blood stored from the patient's own body. autologous Which of the following conditions is a blood infection? septicemia Which of the following conditions is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow? lymphedema Which of the following medications dissolves an existing clot? thrombolytic Which blood type is called the universal donor? Type O Which of the following abbreviations is a test for HIV-AIDS? ELISA Which of the following medications does NOT prolong bleeding time? hematinic Which term means too few white blood cells? leukopenia Which of the following medications prevents blood clot formation? anticoagulant Quiz Chapter 6 Question 1 1 / 1 point Which of the following is a general term meaning a blood disease? Question options: hematoma hematology dyscrasia hemostasis Hide Feedback Dyscrasia is a general term meaning a blood disease. Hematoma means a bruise. Hematology is the study of blood. Hemostasis means blood stopping. Question 2 1 / 1 point Which of the following abbreviations is a test for HIV-AIDS? Question options: GVHD KS ELISA PCP Hide Feedback ELISA stands for enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, a test for HIV. GVHD stands for graft versus host disease, a serious complication of a bone marrow transplant. KS is Kaposi's sarcoma, a form of skin cancer seen in AIDS patients. PCP stands for Pneumocystis pneumonia, an opportunistic infection seen in AIDS patients. Question 3 1 / 1 point Which term means lymph gland inflammation? Question options: lymphangiitis lymphadenopathy lymphadenitis lympangiogram Hide Feedback Lymphaden/o means lymph gland and -itis means inflammation; therefore, lymphadenitis means lymph gland inflammation. Lymphangi/o means lymph vessel, so lymphangiitis means lymph vessel inflammation. -pathy means disease; thus, lymphadenopathy means lymph gland disease. Lympangiogram is misspelled. Question 4 1 / 1 point The mixture of plasma and blood cells is called: Question options: packed blood serum transfusion whole blood Hide Feedback Whole blood is the mixture of plasma and blood cells. Packed blood is blood without the plasma. Serum is plasma with the fibrinogen inactivated or removed. A transfusion is the artificial transfer of blood into the bloodstream. Question 5 1 / 1 point Which of the following medications dissolves an existing clot? Question options: hematinic anticoagulant antiplatelet thrombolytic Hide Feedback A thrombolytic dissolves an existing clot. A hematinic increases the number of erythrocytes or hemoglobin in the blood. An anticoagulant prevents blood clot formation. An antiplatelet interferes with the action of platelets. Question 6 1 / 1 point Which of the following medications is required to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ? Question options: antihistamine corticosteroid protease inhibitor immunosuppressant Hide Feedback An immunosuppressant is used to prevent transplant rejection. An antihistamine is used to block histamine released during an allergic reaction. A corticosteroid is used in autoimmune diseases. A protease inhibitor is used to treat HIV. Question 7 1 / 1 point The watery part of blood is called: Question options: red cells plasma white cells platelets Hide Feedback Plasma is the watery part of the blood. Red cells, white cells, and platelets are the formed elements of the blood. Question 8 1 / 1 point Which of the following blood tests measures how long it takes for a clot to form? Question options: erythrocyte sedimentation rate culture and sensitivity hematocrit pro-time Hide Feedback A pro-time measures how long it takes for a clot to form. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate determines the rate at which mature red blood cells settle out of the blood after the addition of an anticoagulant. A culture and sensitivity checks for bacteria and, if present, what antibiotics will work on it. A hematocrit measures the volume of red blood cells within the total volume of blood. Question 9 1 / 1 point Which term means blood destruction? Question options: hemolytic hematolytic homolytic both hemolytic and homolytic Hide Feedback Hemolytic and hemolysis both mean blood destruction. Question 10 1 / 1 point Which of the following abbreviations is a machine for performing blood tests? Question options: RBC SMAC PA HGB Hide Feedback SMAC stands for sequential multiple analyzer computer, a machine for performing blood tests. RBC stands for red blood cell count, a blood test. PA stands for pernicious anemia, a blood disorder. HGB stands for hemoglobin, a blood test. Question 11 1 / 1 point Which of the following medications prevents blood clot formation? Question options: hematinic anticoagulant antihemorrhagic thrombolytic Hide Feedback An anticoagulant prevents blood clot formation. A hematinic increases erythrocytes or hemoglobin in the blood. An antihemorrhagic prevents or stops hemorrhaging. A thrombolytic dissolves an existing clot. Question 12 1 / 1 point Which of the following conditions is a blood infection? Question options: thalassemia septicemia leukemia hemophilia Hide Feedback Septicemia is a blood infection. Thalassemia is a type of anemia. Leukemia is a cancer of the white blood cell-forming red bone marrow. Hemophilia is a clotting disorder. Question 13 1 / 1 point Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Question options: nosocomial infection-acquired outside the hospital reinfection-repeat infection by the same pathogen cross-infection-infection acquired directly from another person self-inoculation-infection spreads from one part of a person's body to a different area Hide Feedback A nosocomial infection is acquired in the hospital. The other pairs are correctly matched. Question 14 1 / 1 point Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Question options: Monospot-test for Hodgkin's disease scratch test-allergy test lymphangiography-X-ray showing the lymph vessels Western blot-tests for the presence of antibodies against the HIV virus Hide Feedback Monospot tests for mononucleosis. The other pairs are matched correctly. Question 15 1 / 1 point Which term means too many white cells? Question options: pancytopenia leukocytosis hematocytosis leukocytopenia Hide Feedback Leuk/o means white and -cytosis means too many cells; therefore, leukocytosis means too many white cells. Pan- means all, cyt/o means cell, and -penia means too few; thus, pancytopenia means too few of all cells. Hematocytosis is not a medical term, but would mean too many blood cells. Leukocytopenia means too few white cells. Question 16 1 / 1 point Which term means too few red (cells)? Question options: leukocytosis erythrocytosis hematocytosis erythropenia Hide Feedback Erythr/o means red and -penia means too few; therefore, erythropenia means too few red (cells). Leuk/o means white and -cytosis means too many cells; thus, leukocytosis means too many white cells. Erythrocytosis means too many red cells. Hematocytosis is not a medical term, but would mean too many blood cells. Question 17 1 / 1 point Which blood type is called the universal donor? Question options: Type A Type B Type O Type AB Hide Feedback Type O blood does not have any markers, so it will not react with anti-A or anti-B antibodies. Question 18 1 / 1 point Which term means disease producing? Question options: pathological diseasopathy pathogenic pathology Hide Feedback Path/o means disease and -genic means producing; thus, pathogenic means disease producing. Pathological means pertaining to the study of disease. Diseasopathy is not a medical term. -logy means study of, so pathology means study of disease. Question 19 1 / 1 point Which of the following medications helps to block an allergic reaction? Question options: antihistamine corticosteroid protease inhibitor immunosuppressant Hide Feedback An antihistamine is used in an allergic reaction. A corticosteroid is used in autoimmune diseases. A protease inhibitor is used in HIV. An immunosuppressant is used to prevent transplant rejection. Question 20 1 / 1 point Which term means clotting cell? Question options: erythrocyte leukocyte granulocyte thrombocyte Hide Feedback Thromb/o means clotting and -cyte means cell, so thrombocyte means clotting cell. Erythr/o means red; therefore, erythrocyte means red cell. Leuk/o means white; hence, leukocyte means white cell. Granul/o means granules; thus, granulocyte means granular cell. Question 21 1 / 1 point Which of the following medications does NOT prolong bleeding time? Question options: hematinic anticoagulant antiplatelet thrombolytic Hide Feedback A hematinic increases erythrocytes or hemoglobin in the blood. An anticoagulant, antiplatelet, and thrombolytic all prolong bleeding time. Question 22 1 / 1 point Which of the following is a life-threatening allergic reaction? Question options: elephantiasis sarcoidosis anaphylactic shock AIDS-related complex Hide Feedback Anaphylactic shock is a life-threatening allergic reaction. Elephantiasis is an inflammation, obstruction, and destruction of the lymph vessels resulting in enlarged tissues due to edema. Sarcoidosis is a disease of unknown cause that forms fibrous lesions. AIDS-related complex is an early stage of AIDS. Question 23 1 / 1 point Which term means too few white blood cells? Question options: leukopenia hematopoiesis erythropenia thrombopoiesis Hide Feedback Leuk/o means white and -penia means too few, so leukopenia means too few white blood cells. Hemat/o means blood, -poiesis means production; thus hematopoiesis means blood production. Erythr/o means red, so erythropenia means too few red blood cells. Thromb/o means clotting; therefore, thrombopoiesis means clotting cell production. Question 24 1 / 1 point A(n) ________ transfusion consists of blood stored from the patient's own body. Question options: analogous autologous self homologous Hide Feedback An autologous transfusion consists of blood stored from the patient's own body. A homologous transfusion is replacement of blood with blood received from another person. There is not a self or analogous transfusion. Question 25 1 / 1 point Which of the following conditions is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow? Question options: lymphedema lymphangioma lymphadenitis lymphangiography Hide Feedback Lymphedema is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow. Lymphangioma is a lymph vessel tumor. Lymphadenitis is lymph gland inflammation. Lymphangiography is an X-ray of the lymph vessels.

Chapter 3

Integumentary System Organs Skin, hair, nails, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands are known as the integumentary system, with integument and cutaneous membrane being alternate terms for skin. Skin is largest organ of the body and can weigh more than 20 pounds in an adult. Skin serves many purposes for the body: protecting (primary), housing nerve receptors, secreting fluids, and regulating temperature. albin/o white cauter/o to burn cry/o cold cutane/o skin derm/o skin dermat/o skin diaphor/o profuse sweating electr/o electricity erythr/o red hidr/o sweat ichthy/o scaly, dry kerat/o hard, horny leuk/o white lip/o fat melan/o black myc/o fungus necr/o death onych/o nail pedicul/o lice phot/o light py/o pus rhytid/o wrinkle sarc/o flesh scler/o hard seb/o oil system/o system trich/o hair ungu/o nail vesic/o sac, bladder xer/o dry -derma skin condition allo- other, different from usual xeno- foreign Functions of Skin Primary function of skin is protection. It forms a two-way barrier capable of keeping pathogens (disease-causing organisms) and harmful chemicals from entering the body. It also stops critical body fluids from escaping the body and prevents injury to the internal organs lying underneath the skin. Sensory receptors Detect temperature, pain, touch, and pressure, and are located in the skin. Sensations are conveyed to the spinal cord and brain from the nerve endings in the middle layer of the skin. Fluids Produced in two types of skin glands: sweat and sebaceous. Sweat glands assist the body in maintaining its internal temperature by creating a cooling effect as sweat evaporates. The sebaceous glands, or oil glands, produce an oily substance that lubricates the skin surface. Structure of skin aids in regulation of body temperature through a variety of means. Evaporation of sweat cools the body, the body also lowers internal temperature by dilating superficial blood vessels in the skin (this brings more blood to surface of skin, which allows release of heat). Fat that makes up subcutaneous layer of skin acts as insulation. The Skin Composed of two layers, the superficial epidermis, and the deeper dermis. Underlying the dermis is another layer called the hypodermis, or subcutaneous layer. The hypodermis is not truly one of the layers of the skin, but because it assists in the functions of the skin, it is studied along with the skin. Epidermis Composed of stratified squamous epithelium. This type of epithelial tissue consists of flat scale-like cells arranged in overlapping layers or strata. There is no blood supply or any connective tissue, so it is dependent for nourishment on the deeper layers of skin. Deepest layer within epidermis is called the basal layer. Cells in this layer continually grow and multiply. New cells that are forming push the old cells toward the outer layer of the epidermis. During this process the cells shrink, die, and become filled with a hard protein called keratin. These dead, overlapping, keratinized cells allow the skin to act as an effective barrier to infection and also make it waterproof. The basal layer also contains special cells called melanocytes, which produce the black pigment melanin. Not only is this pigment responsible for the color of the skin, but it also protects against damage from the ultraviolet (UV) rays of the sun. This damage may be in the form of leather-like skin and wrinkles, which are not hazardous, or it may be one of several forms of skin cancer. Dark-skinned people have more melanin and are generally less likely to get wrinkles or skin cancer. Dermis Aka corium, is the middle lyaer of skin, between epidermis and subcutaneous layer. "True skin." Living tissue with a very good blood supply. Composed of connective tissue and collagen fibers (made from a strong, fibrous protein present in connective tissue, forming a flexible "glue" that gives connective tissue its strength). The dermis houses hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, blood vessels, lymph vessels, sensory receptors, nerve fibers, and muscle fibers. Subcutaneous Layer Or hypodermis, is a continuous layer of fat that separates the dermis from deeper tissues. Composed of fat cells called lipocytes. Its functions include protecting deeper tissues of the body from tauma, acting as insulation from heat and cold, and serving as a source of energy in a starvation situation. Accessory Organs Located within dermis, including hair, nails, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands Hair Fibers that make up hair are composed of the protein keratin, the same hard protein material that fills the cells of the epidermis. The deeper cells in the hair root force older keratinized cells to move upward, forming the hair shaft, which grows toward the skin surface within the hair follicle. Melanin gives hair its color. Sebaceous glands release oil directly into the hair follicle. Each hair has a small slip of smooth muscle attached to it called the arrector pili muscle. When this muscle contracts the hair shaft stands up, resulting in goose bumps. Nails Nails are flat plate of kertin called the nail body that covers the ends of finders and toes. The anil body is connected to the tissue underneath by the nail bed. Grow longer from nail root, which is found at the base of the nail and is covered and protected by the soft tissue cuticle. The free edge is the exposed edge that is trimmed when nails become too long. The light-colored half moon area at the base of the nail is the lunula. Sebaceous Glands Found in the dermis, secrete the oil sebum, which lubricates the hair and skin, thereby helping to prevent drying and cracking. These glands secrete sebum directly into hair follicles, rather than a duct. Secretion from the sebaceous glands increases during adolescence, playing a role in the development of acne. Sebum secretion begins to diminish as age increases. A loss of sebum in old age, along with sun exposure, can account for wrinkles and dry skin. Sweat Glands About 2 million sweat glands, also called sudoriferous glands, are found throughout the body. Highly coiled glands are located in the dermis. Sweat travels to the surface of the skin in a sweat duct. The surface opening of a sweat duct is called a sweat pore. Sweat glands function to cool the body as sweat evaporates. Sweat or perspiration contains a small amount of waste product but is normally colorless or odorless. Sweat glands called apocrine glands are in the public and underarm areas that secrete thicker sweat, which can produce an odor when it comes into contact with bacteria on the skin (body odor). Word Parts Used to Build Integumentary System Terms albin/o - white angi/o - vessel baso/o - base bi/o - life carcin/o - cancer cauter/o - to burn chem/o - chemical cis/o - to cut cortic/o - outer layer cry/o - cold cutane/o - skin cyt/o - cell derm/o - skin dermat/o - skin diaphor/o - profuse sweating electr/o - electricity erythr/o - red esthesi/o - feeling hem/o - blood hidr/o - sweat ichthy/o - scaly, dry kerat/o - hard, horny leuk/o - white lip/o - fat melan/o - black myc/o - fungus necr/o - death onych/o - nail pedicul/o - lice phot/o - light py/o - pus rhytid/o - wrinkle sarc/o - flesh scler/o - hard seb/o - oil septic/o - infection system/o - system trich/o - hair ungu/o - nail vesic/o - sac xer/o - dry -al - pertaining to -derma - skin condition -ectomy - surgical removal -emia - blood condition -ia - state, condition -iasis - abnormal condition -ic - pertaining to -ism - state of -itis - inflammation -logy - study of -malacia - abnormal softening -oma - mass, tumor -opsy - view of -osis - abnormal condition -ous - pertaining to -phagia - eat, swallow -plasty - surgical repair -rrhea - discharge -tic - pertaining to -tome - instrument to cut -ule - small allo- - other an- - without anti- - against auto- - self de- - without epi- - above hyper- - excessive hypo- - below intra- - within para- - beside sub- - under xeno- - foreign dermatology Branch of medicine involving diagnosis and treatment of conditions and diseases of the integumentary system. Physician is a dermatologist. plastic surgery Surgical specialty involved in repair, reconstruction, or improvement of body structures such as the skin that are damaged, missing, or misshapen. Physician is a plastic surgeon. abrasion A scraping-away of the skin surface by friction. anhidrosis Abnormal condition of no sweat. comedo Collection of hardened sebum in hair follicle. Also called a blackhead. contusion Injury caused by a blow to the body; causes swelling, pain, and bruising. The skin is not broken. cyst Fluid-filled sac under the skin (worse than a pimple). depigmentation Loss of normal skin color or pigment. diaphoresis Profuse sweating. ecchymosis Skin discoloration caused by blood collecting under the skin following blunt trauma to the skin. A bruise. erythema Redness or flushing of the skin. erythroderma The condition of having reddened or flushed skin eschar A thic layer of dead tissue and tissue fluid that develops over a deep burn area. fissure Crack-like lesion or groove on the skin. hirsutism Excessive hair growth over the body. hyperemia Redness of the skin due to increased blood flow. hyperhidrosis Abnormal condition of excessive sweat. hyperpigmentation Abnormal amount of pigmentation in the skin. ichthyoderma The condition of having scaly and dry skin. lesion A general term for a wound, injury, or abnormality. leukoderma Having skin that appears white because the normal skin pigment is absent. May be all of the skin or just in some areas. lipoma Fatty mass. macule Flat, discolored area that is flush with the skin surface. An example would be a freckle or a birthmark. necrosis Abnormal condition of death. nevus Pigmented skin blemish, birthmark, or mole. Usually benign but may become cancerous. nodule Firm, solid mass of cells in the skin larger than 0.5 cm in diameter. onychomalacia Softening of the nails. pallor Abnormal paleness of the skin. papule Small, solid, circular raised spot on the surface of the skin less than 0.5 cm in diameter. petechiae Pinpoint purple or red spots from minute hemorrhages under the skin. photosensitivity Condition in which the skin reacts abnormally when exposed to light, such as the ultraviolet (UV) rays of the sun. pruritus Severe itching. purpura Hemorrhages into the skin due to fragile blood vessels that appear dark brown/purplish. Commonly seen in older adults. purulent Containing pus or an infection that is producing pus. Pus consists of dead bacteria, white blood cells, and tissue debris. pustule Raised spot on the skin containing pus. pyoderma The presence of pus on or in the layers of skin. A sign of a bacterial infection. scleroderma A condition in which the skin has lost its elasticity and become hardened. seborrhea Oily discharge. suppurative Containing or producing pus. ulcer Open sore or lesion in skin or mucous membrane. urticaria Also called hives; a skin eruption of pale reddish wheals with severe itching. Usually associated with food allergy, stress, or drug reactions. vesicle A blister; small, fluid-filled raised spot on the skin. wheal Small, round, swollen area on the skin; typically seen in allergic skin reactions such as hives and usually accompanied by urticaria. xeroderma Condition in which the skin is abnormally dry. abscess A collection of pus in the skin acne Inflammatory disease of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles resulting in papules and pupstules. acne rosacea Chronic form of acne seen in adults involving redness, tiny pimples, and broken blood vessels, primarily on the nose and cheeks acne vulgaris Common form of acne seen in teenagers. Characterized by comedos, papules, and pustules. albinism A genetic condition in which the body is unable to make melanin. Characterized by white hair and skin and red pupils due to the lack of pigment. The person with albinism is called an albino. basal cell carcinoma Cancerous tumor of the basal cell layer of the epidermis. A frequent type of skin cancer that rarely metastasizes or spreads. These cancers can arise on sun-exposed skin. burn Damage to the skin that can result from exposure to open fire, electricity, UV light from the sun, or caustic chemicals. First degree, Second degree, and third degree varies from extent of the burn. cellulitis A diffuse, acute infection and inflammation of the connective tissue found in the skin. cicatrix A scar. decubitus ulcer Open sore caused by pressure over bony prominences cutting off the blood flow to the overlying skin. These can appear in bedridden patients who lie in one position too long and can be difficult to heal. Also called bedsore or pressure sore. dermatitis Inflammation of the skin dermatosis A general term indicating the presence of an abnormal skin condition. dry gangrene Late stages of gangrene characterized by the affected area becoming dried, blackened, and shriveled; referred to as mummified. eczema Superficial dermatitis of unknown cause accompanied by redness, vesicles, itching, and crusting. gangrene Tissue necrosis usually due to deficient blood supply. ichthyosis Condition in which the skin becomes dry, scaly, and keratinized. impetigo A highly infectious bacterial infection of the skin with pustules that rupture and become crusted over. Kaposi's sarcoma Form of skin cancer frequently seen in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) patients. Consists of brownish-purple papules that spread from the skin and metastasize to internal organs. keloid Formation of a raised and thickened hypertrophic scar after an injury or surgery. keratosis Term for any skin condition involving an overgrowth and thickening of the epidermis layer. laceration A torn or jagged wound; incorrectly used to describe a cut. malignant melanoma Dangerous form of skin cancer caused by an uncontrolled growth of melanocytes. May quickly metastasize or spread to internal organs. pediculosis Infestation with lice. The eggs laid by the lice are called nits and cling tightly to hair. psoriasis Chronic inflammatory condition consisting of papules forming "silvery scale" patches with circular borders. rubella Contagious viral skin infection. Commonly called German measles. scabies Contagious skin disease caused by an egg-laying mite that burrows through the skin and causes redness and intense itching; often seen in children. sebaceous cyst Sac under the skin filled with sebum or oil from a sebaceous gland. This can grow to a large size and may need to be excised. squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) Cancer of the epidermis layer of skin that may invade deeper tissue and metastasize. Often begins as a sore that does not heal. strawberry hemangioma Congenital collection of dilated blood vessels causing a red birthmark that fades a few months after birth. systemic lupus erythematosus Chronic disease of the connective tissue that injures the skin, joints, kidneys, nervous system, and mucous membranes. This is an autoimmune condition meaning that the body's own immune system attacks normal tissue of the body. May produce a characteristic red, scaly butterfly rash across the cheeks and nose. tinea Fungal skin disease resulting in itching scaling lesions. tinea capitis Fungal infection of the scalp. Commonly called ringworm. tinea pedis Fungal infection of the foot. Commonly called athlete's foot. varicella Contagious viral skin infection. Commonly called chickenpox. verruca Commonly called warts; a benign growth caused by a virus. Has a rough surface that is removed by chemicals and/or laser therapy. vitiligo Disappearance of pigment from the skin in patches, causing a milk-white appearance. Also called leukoderma. wet gangrene An area of gangrene that becomes secondarily infected by pus-producing bacteria. alopecia Absence or loss of hair, especially of the head. Commonly called baldness. carbuncle Furuncle involving several hair follicles. furuncle Bacterial infection of a hair follicle. Characterized by redness, pain, and swelling. Also called a boil. trichomycosis Abnormal condition of hair fungus. onychia Infected nail bed. onychomycosis Abnormal condition of nail fungus onychophagia Nail eating (nail biting) paronychia Infection of the skin fold around a nail. culture and sensitivity (C&S) Laboratory test that grows a colony of bacteria removes from an infected area in order to identify the specific infecting bacteria and then determine its sensitivity to a variety of antibiotics. biopsy (BX, bx) Piece of tissue removed by syrine and needle, knife, punch, or brush to examine under a microscope. Used to aid in diagnosis. exfoliative cytology Scarping cells from tissue and then examining them under a microscope. frozen section (FS) Thin piece of tissue cut from a frozen specimen for rapid examination under a microscope. fungal scrapings Scrapings, taken with a curette or scraper, of tissue from lesions are placed on a growth medium and examined under a microscope to identify fungal growth. allograft Skin graft from one person to another; donor is usually a cadaver. Also called homograft (homo=same) autograft Skin graft from a person's own body. dermatome Instrument for cutting the skin or thin transplants of skin. dermatoplasty Skin grafting; transplantation of skin. skin graft (SG) Transfer of skin from a normal area to cover another site. Used to treat burn victims and after some surgical procedures. Also called dermatoplasty. xenograft Skin graft from an animal of another species (usually a pig) to a human. Also called heterograft (hetero-=other). cauterization Destruction of tissue by using caustic chemicals, electric currents, or by heating or freezing. cryosurgery Use of extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue. curettage Removal of superficial skin lesions with a curette (surgical instrument shaped like a spoon) or scraper. debridement Removal of foreign material and dead or damaged tissue from a wound. electrocautery To destroy tissue with an electric current. incision and drainage (I&D) Making an incision to create an opening for the drainage of material such as pus. onychectomy Removal of a nail. chemabrasion Abrasion using chemicals. Also called a chemical peel. dermabrasion Abrasion or rubbing using wire brushes or sandpaper. Performed to remove acne scars, tattoos, and scar tissue. laser therapy Removal of skin lesions and birthmarks using a laser beam that emits intense heat and power at a close range. The laser converts frequencies of light into one small, powerful beam. liposuction Removal of fat beneath the skin by means of suction. rhytidectomy Surgical removal of excess skin to eliminate wrinkles. Commonly referred to as a face lift. anesthetic Deadens pain when applied to the skin (lidocaine, Sylocaine; procaine, Novacain) antibiotic Kills bacteria causing skin infections (bacitracin/neomycin/polymixinB, Neosporin ointment) antifungal Kills fungi infecting the skin (miconazole, Monistat; clotrimazole, Lotrimin) antiparasitic Kills mites or lice (lindane, Kwell; permethrin, Nix) antipruritic Reduces severe itching (diphenhydramine, Benadryl; camphor/pramoxine/zinc, Caladryl) antiseptic Kills bacteria in skin cuts and wounds or at a surgical site (isopropyl alcohol; hydrogen peroxide) corticosteroid cream A cream containing a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that has very strong anti-flammatory properties (hydrocortisone, Cortaid; triamcinolone, Kenalog) BCC basal cell carcinoma BX, bx biospy C&S culture and sensitivity decub decubitus ulcer Derm, derm dermatology FS frozen section I&D incision and drainage ID intradermal MM malignant melanoma SCC squamous cell carcinoma SG skin graft SLE systemic lupus erythematosus STSG split-thickness skin graft Subc, Subq subcutaneous UV ultraviolet debridement removal of foreign material and dead or damaged tissue from a wound True the outermost layer of the epidermis is dead skin. cyanosis bluish tint of skin (abnormal condition of blue skin) Quiz Chapter 3 Question 1 1 / 1 point Which is the most superficial layer of skin? Question options: subcutaneous layer epidermis dermis corium Hide Feedback The epidermis is the most superficial layer. The dermis, or corium, is the middle layer. The subcutaneous layer is the deepest layer. Question 2 1 / 1 point Which of the following structures is NOT housed in the dermis? Question options: nails hair follicles sebaceous glands nerve fibers Hide Feedback Nails cover the ends of the fingers and toes. Hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and nerve fibers are all found in the dermis. Question 3 1 / 1 point Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly? Question options: hair-composed of keratin nails-grow longer from the root sweat glands-secrete sebum to cool the skin sebaceous glands-secrete into hair follicle Hide Feedback Sweat glands secrete sweat to cool the skin. Sebaceous glands secrete sebum to keep the skin moisturized. All other pairs are correct. Question 4 1 / 1 point Which term means pertaining to within the skin? Question options: epidermal hypodermal intradermal interdermal Hide Feedback Intra- means within, derm/o is skin, and -al is pertaining to; hence, intradermal means pertaining to within the skin. Epi- means upon, derm/o means skin, -al means pertaining to; thus, epidermal means pertaining to upon the skin. Hypo- means under, derm/o means skin, and -al means pertaining to; therefore, hypodermal means pertaining to under the skin. Inter- means between, derm/o means skin, and -al means pertaining to, so interdermal means pertaining to between the skin. Question 5 1 / 1 point Which term specifically means abnormal condition of the skin? Question options: dermatopathy dermatosis dermatoplasty dermatitis Hide Feedback Dermat/o means skin and -osis means abnormal condition; therefore, dermatosis means abnormal condition of the skin. Dermat/o means skin and -pathy means disease; thus, dermatopathy means skin disease. Dermat/o means skin and -plasty means surgical repair; hence, dermatoplasty means surgical repair of the skin. Dermat/o means skin and -itis means inflammation, so dermatitis means skin inflammation. Question 6 1 / 1 point Which term means abnormal condition of excessive sweat? Question options: hyperhidrosis ahidrosis anhidrosis hypohidrosis Hide Feedback Hyper- means excessive, hidr/o means sweat, and -osis means abnormal condition; therefore, hyperhidrosis means abnormal condition of excessive sweat. Ahidrosis is spelled incorrectly. An- means no or without, hidr/o means sweat, and -osis means abnormal condition; thus, anhidrosis means abnormal condition of no sweat. Hypo- means insufficient, hidr/o means sweat, and -osis means abnormal condition; hence, hypohidrosis means abnormal condition of insufficient sweat. Question 7 1 / 1 point Which term means fatty growth? Question options: lipectomy adiposis adipopathy lipoma Hide Feedback Lip/o means fat and -oma means growth; hence, lipoma means fatty growth. Lip/o means fat and -ectomy means surgical removal; therefore, lipectomy means surgical removal of fat. Adip/o means fat and -osis means abnormal condition; thus, adiposis means abnormal condition of fat. Adip/o means fat and -pathy means disease, so adipopathy means fat disease. Question 8 1 / 1 point Which term is misspelled? Question options: onychomycosis rhytidoplasty hyperhydrosis subcutaneous Hide Feedback Hyperhydrosis should be spelled hyperhidrosis. All other terms are correctly spelled. Question 9 1 / 1 point Which term is misspelled? Question options: dermatologist melenocyte lipectomy ungual Hide Feedback Melenocyte should be spelled melanocyte. All other terms are spelled correctly. Question 10 1 / 1 point Which term is misspelled? Question options: luekoderma erythroderma scleroderma xeroderma Hide Feedback Luekoderma should be spelled leukoderma. All other terms are spelled correctly. Question 11 1 / 1 point Which term means hard skin condition? Question options: erythroderma xeroderma ichthyoderma scleroderma Hide Feedback Scleroderma means hard skin condition. Question 12 1 / 1 point Which term means a scraping away of the skin surface by friction? Question options: cicatrix contusion abrasion keratosis Hide Feedback Abrasion is a scraping away of the skin surface by friction. A cicatrix is a scar. A contusion is a collection of blood under the skin with pain and swelling. Keratosis is an abnormal condition of hard (skin). Question 13 1 / 1 point The term for profuse sweating is: Question options: anhidrosis contusion diaphoresis keratosis Hide Feedback The term for profuse sweating is diaphoresis. Anhidrosis is an abnormal condition of no sweat. A contusion is a collection of blood under the skin with pain and swelling. Keratosis is an abnormal condition of hard (skin). Question 14 1 / 1 point The term for excessive hair growth over the body is: Question options: hyperemia nevus hyperhidrosis hirsutism Hide Feedback Hirsutism is excessive hair growth over the body. Hyperemia is a flushing of the skin. Hyperhidrosis is an abnormal condition of excessive sweat. A nevus is a birthmark. Question 15 1 / 1 point Which term does NOT refer to an abnormal skin color? Question options: cyanosis erythema pallor keratosis Hide Feedback Keratosis is an abnormal condition of hard (skin). Cyanosis, erythema, and pallor all refer to an abnormal skin color. Question 16 1 / 1 point Which term refers to the bruise caused by blunt trauma to the skin? Question options: ecchymosis petechiae vitiligo purpura Hide Feedback Ecchymosis is a bruise caused by blunt trauma to the skin. Petechiae are pinpoint hemorrhages. Vitiligo refers to whitening of the skin. Purpura are hemorrhages in the skin due to fragile blood vessels. Question 17 1 / 1 point A pigmented skin blemish, birthmark, or mole is called a: Question options: keloid nevus ecchymosis eschar Hide Feedback A nevus is a pigmented skin blemish, birthmark, or mole. A keloid is a hypertrophic scar. An ecchymosis is a collection of blood under the skin. Eschar is a thick layer of dead tissue and tissue fluid. Question 18 1 / 1 point Which condition is also called hives? Question options: purulent pruritus urticaria verruca Hide Feedback Urticaria is also called hives. Purulent refers to pus drainage. Pruritus is severe itching. Verruca is commonly called warts. Question 19 1 / 1 point Which surface lesion is a torn or jagged wound? Question options: laceration macule fissure ulcer Hide Feedback A laceration is a torn or jagged wound. A macule is a flat, discolored lesion. A fissure is a crack-like lesion. An ulcer is an open lesion or wound. Question 20 1 / 1 point Which surface lesion is a flat, discolored area that is flush with the skin surface? Question options: papule wheal macule vesicle Hide Feedback A macule is a flat, discolored area flush with the skin surface. A papule is a small, circular, raised spot on the skin. A wheal is a small, round, swollen area. A vesicle is a raised, fluid-filled sac on the skin. Question 21 1 / 1 point Which surface lesion is a blister? Question options: pustule vesicle papule wheal Hide Feedback A vesicle is also known as a blister. A pustule is a raised spot on the skin containing pus. A papule is a small, solid, circular, raised spot. A wheal is a small, round, swollen area. Question 22 1 / 1 point This condition is frequently called a bedsore or pressure sore. Question options: decubitus ulcer cellulitis ichthyosis gangrene Hide Feedback A decubitus ulcer is commonly called a bedsore or pressure sore. Cellulitis is a diffuse, acute infection and inflammation of the connective tissue of the skin. Ichthyosis is a condition in which the skin becomes dry, scaly, and keratinized. Gangrene is tissue necrosis usually due to deficient blood supply. Question 23 1 / 1 point Which of the following conditions is a lice infestation? Question options: scabies ichthyosis pediculosis varicella Hide Feedback Pediculosis is a lice infestation. Scabies is a mite infestation. Ichthyosis is a condition in which the skin becomes dry, scaly, and keratinized. Varicella is commonly known as chickenpox. Question 24 1 / 1 point This infection is commonly called chickenpox. Question options: varicella rubella vitiligo tinea Hide Feedback Varicella is commonly called chickenpox. Rubella is commonly called measles. Vitiligo is a condition in which pigment disappears in patches. Tinea is a fungal infection. Question 25 1 / 1 point Which term means baldness? Question options: onychia impetigo alopecia vitiligo Hide Feedback Alopecia means baldness. Onychia is an infected nail bed. Impetigo is a highly contagious bacterial infection. Vitiligo is a condition in which pigment disappears in patches. Question 26 1 / 1 point Which of the following conditions is caused by a mite infestation? Question options: pediculosis wheal impetigo scabies Hide Feedback Scabies is caused by a mite infestation. Pediculosis is a lice infestation. A wheal is a small, round, swollen area on the skin. Impetigo is a highly contagious bacterial infection. Question 27 1 / 1 point An infection of the skin fold around the nail is called: Question options: paronychia onychia onychophagia perionychitis Hide Feedback Paronychia is an infection of the skin fold around the nail. Onychia is an infection of the nail bed. Onychophagia is commonly known as nail-biting. Perionychitis is not a properly built medical term. Question 28 0 / 1 point Which diagnostic procedure examines a piece of tissue under a microscope? Question options: cytology curettage biopsy* debridement Question 29 1 / 1 point A culture and sensitivity will detect: Question options: cancer a bacterial infection a viral infection a lice infection Hide Feedback A culture and sensitivity will detect a bacterial infection. Other diagnostic procedures are used to detect cancer, viral infections, and lice infestations. Question 30 1 / 1 point In exfoliative cytology the cells for examination are obtained by: Question options: incision syringe needle scraping Hide Feedback In exfoliative cytology, the cells are obtained by scraping the skin. A biopsy is obtained by incision, needle, or syringe. Question 31 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures gives a rapid examination of a tissue sample? Question options: frozen section cryosurgery fungal scraping exfoliative cytology Hide Feedback A frozen section allows for rapid examination of a tissue sample. Cryosurgery is removal of a lesion using cold. A fungal scraping is scrapings taken from a lesion. Exfoliative cytology is the scraping of the skin. Question 32 1 / 1 point Which skin graft procedure uses skin from another species? Question options: allograft homograft xenograft autograft Hide Feedback A xenograft, also known as a heterograft, is a skin graft using skin from another species. An allograft is skin from another person or cadaver. An autograft is skin from a person's own body. Question 33 1 / 1 point Which surgical procedure is the removal of dead or damaged tissue from a wound? Question options: debridement electrocautery cauterization cryosurgery Hide Feedback Debridement is the surgical procedure that removes dead or damaged tissue from a wound. Electrocautery is a surgical procedure that removes tissue with an electric current. Cauterization is the destruction of tissue by using caustic chemicals, electric currents, heat, or by freezing. Cryosurgery is the use of extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue. Question 34 1 / 1 point Which surgical procedure removes superficial skin lesions with scraping? Question options: curettage cryosurgery debridement cauterization Hide Feedback Curettage is a surgical procedure that removes superficial skin lesions with scraping. Cryosurgery is the use of extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue. Debridement is the removal of foreign material and dead or damaged tissue from a wound. Cauterization is the destruction of tissue by using caustic chemicals, electric currents, heat, or by freezing. Question 35 1 / 1 point Which procedure removes fat from under the skin? Question options: dermabrasion laser therapy cryosurgery liposuction Hide Feedback Liposuction is the removal of fat beneath the skin by means of suction. Laser therapy is the removal of skin lesions and birthmarks using a laser beam that emits intense heat and power at a close range. Cryosurgery is the use of extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue. Debridement is the removal of foreign material and dead or damaged tissue from a wound. Question 36 1 / 1 point Which medication is used to deaden pain? Question options: anesthetic antipruritic corticosteroid antiseptic Hide Feedback An anesthetic is a medication used to deaden pain. An antipruritic is used to reduce severe itching. A corticosteroid is an anti-inflammatory. An antiseptic is used to kill bacteria. Question 37 1 / 1 point Which medication is used to kill mites or lice? Question options: antibiotic antifungal antiparasitic antipruritic Hide Feedback An antiparasitic is used to kill mites or lice. An antibiotic is used to kill bacteria. An antifungal is used to kill fungi. An antipruritic is used to reduce severe itching. Question 38 1 / 1 point Which abbreviation is a surgical procedure? Question options: I&D ID MM SLE Hide Feedback I&D is the abbreviation for incision and drainage, which is a surgical procedure. ID is the abbreviation for intradermal. MM is the abbreviation for malignant melanoma, a cancer. SLE is the abbreviation for systemic lupus erythematosus, which is an autoimmune disease. Question 39 1 / 1 point Which abbreviation is NOT a diagnostic test? Question options: Bx FS C&S SG Hide Feedback SG is the abbreviation for skin graft, a surgical procedure. Bx is the abbreviation for biopsy. FS is the abbreviation for frozen section. C&S is the abbreviation for culture and sensitivity. Question 40 1 / 1 point Which surgical procedure uses cold? Question options: cryosurgery curettage debridement electrocautery Hide Feedback Cryosurgery uses extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue. Curettage is the removal of superficial skin lesions by scraping. Debridement is the removal of foreign material and dead or damaged tissue from a wound. Electrocautery is the use of electric current to destroy tissue.

Chapter 1

Word Root Foundation of the word Prefix At the beginning of the word Suffix At the end of the word Combining vowel Vowel, usually o, linking word root to another word root or a suffix Oste bone Arthr the joint Cis to cut (as in incision) Combining form Word root and its combining vowel bi/o life (biology: study of life) carcin/o cancer (carcinoma: cancerous tumor) cardi/o heart (cardiac: pertaining to the heart) chem/o chemical (chemotherapy: treatment with chemicals) cis/o to cut (incision: process of cutting into) dermat/o skin (dermatology: study of the skin) enter/o small intestine (enteric: pertaining to the small intestine) gastr/o stomach (gastric: pertaining to the stomach) gynec/o female (gynecology: study of females) hemat/o blood (hematic: pertaining to the blood) immun/o immunity (immunology: study of immunity) laryng/o larynx (laryngeal: pertaining to the voice box) nephr/o kidney (nephromegaly: enlarged kidney) neur/o nerve (neural: pertaining to a nerve) ophthalm/o eye (ophthalmic: pertaining to the eye) ot/o ear (otic: pertaining to the ear) path/o disease (pathology: study of disease) pulmon/o lung (pulmonary: pertaining to the lungs) rhin/o nose (rhinoplasty: surgical repair of the nose) a- without (aphasia: without speech) an- without (anoxia: without oxygen) anti- against (antibiotic: against life) auto- self (autograft: a graft from one's own body) brady- slow (bradycardia: slow heartbeat) de- without (depigmentation: without pigment) dys- painful; difficult; abnormal (dysuria: painful urination; dyspnea: difficulty breathing; dystrophy: abnormal development) endo- within; inner (endoscope: instrument to view within; endocardium: inner lining of heart) epi- above (epigastric: above the stomach) eu- normal (eupnea: normal breathing) ex- outward (exostosis: condition of outward, or projecting, bone) extra- outside of (extracorporeal: outside of the body) hetero- different (heterograft: graft [like skin graft] from another species) homo- same (homograft: graft [like a skin graft] from the same species) hyper- excessive (hypertrophy: excessive development) hypo- below; insufficient (hypodermic: below the skin; hypoglycemia: insufficient blood sugar) in- not; inward (infertility: not fertile; inhalation: to breathe in) inter- between (intervertebral: between the vertebrae) intra- within (intravenous: within a vein) macro- large (macrotia: having large ears) micro- small (microtia: having small ears) neo- new (neonatology: study of the newborn) para- beside; abnormal; two like parts of a pair (paranasal: beside the nose; paresthesia: abnormal sensation; paraplegia: paralysis of two like parts of a pair [the legs]) per- through (percutaneous: through the skin) peri- around (pericardial: around the heart) post- after (postpartum: after birth) pre- before (preoperative: before a surgical operation) pro- before (prolactin: before milk) pseudo- false (pseudocyesis: false pregnancy) re- against (reinfection: to infect again) retro- backward; behind (retrograde: to move backward; retroperationeal: behind the peritoneum) sub- under (subcutaneous: under the skin) tachy- fast (tachycardia: fast heartbeat) trans- across (transurethral: across the urethra) ultra- beyond (ultrasound: beyond sound [high-frequency sound waves]) un- not (unconscious: not conscious) bi- two (bilateral: two sides) hemi- half (hemiplegia: paralysis of one side/half of the body) mono- one (monoplegia: paralysis of one extremity) multi- many (multigravida: woman pregnant more than once) nulli- none (nulligravia: woman with no pregnancies) pan- all (pansinusitis: inflammation of all the sinuses) poly- many (polymyositis: inflammation of many muscles) quadri- four (quadriplegia: paralysis of all four limbs) semi- partial (semiconscious: partially conscious) tetra- four (tetraplegia: paralysis of all four limbs) tri- three (triceps: muscles with three heads) -algia pain (gastralgia: stomach pain) -cele protrusion (cystocele: protrusion of the bladder) -cyte cell (erythrocyte: red cell) -dynia pain (cardiadynia: heart pain) -ectasis dilation (bronchiectasis: dilated bronchi) -gen that which produces (pathogen: that which produces disease) -genic producing (carcinogenic: cancer producing) -ia state, condition (bradycardia: condition of slow heart) -iasis abnormal condition (lithiasis: abnormal condition of stones) -ism state of (hypothyroidism: state of low thyroid) -itis inflammation (dermatitis: inflammation of skin) -logist one who studies (cardiologist: one who studies the heart) -logy study of (cardiology: study of the heart) -lytic destruction (thrombolytic: clot destruction) -malacia abnormal softening (chondromalacia: abnormal cartilage softening) -megaly enlarged (cardiomegaly: enlarged heart) -oma tumor, mass (carcinoma: cancerous tumor) -opsy view of (biopsy: view of life) -osis abnormal condition (cyanosis: abnormal condition of being blue) -pathy disease (myopathy: muscle disease) -plasm formation (neoplasm: new formation) -plegia paralysis (laryngoplegia: paralysis of larynx) -ptosis drooping (blepharoptosis: drooping eyelid) -rrhage excessive, abnormal flow (hemorrhage: excessive bleeding) -rrhagia abnormal flow condition (cystorrhagia: abnormal flow from the bladder) -rrhea discharge (rhinorrhea: discharge from the nose) -rrhexis rupture (hysterorrhexis: ruptured uterus) -sclerosis hardening (arteriosclerosis: hardening of the artery) -stenosis narrowing (angiostenosis: narrowing of a vessel) -therapy treatment (chemotherapy: treatment with chemicals) -trophy development (hypertrophy: excessive development) -ac, -al, -an, -ar, -ary, -atic, -eal, -iac, -ic, -ile, -ine, -ior, -nic, -ory, -ose, -ous, -tic pertaining to -centesis puncture to withdraw fluid (arthrocentesis: puncture to withdraw fluid from a joint) -ectomy surgical removal (gastrectomy: surgically remove the stomach) -ostomy surgically create an opening (colostomy: surgically create an opening for the colon [through the abdominal wall]) -otomy cutting into (thoracotomy: cutting into the chest) -pexy surgical fixation (nephropexy: surgical fixation of a kidney) -plasty surgical repair (dermatoplasty: surgical repair of the skin) -rrhaphy to suture [to stitch/stitches] (myorrhaphy: suture together muscle) -tome instrument to cut (dermatome: instrument to cut skin) -gram record or picture (electrocardiogram: record of heart's electricity) -graphy process of recording (electrocardiography: process of recording the heart's electrical activity) -meter instrument for measuring (audiometer: instrument to measure hearing) -metry process of measuring (audiometry: process of measuring hearing) -scope instrument for viewing (gastroscope: instrument to view stomach) -scopic pertaining to visually examining (endoscopic: pertaining to visually examining within) -scopy process of visually examining (gastroscopy: process of visually examining the stomach) -a vertebra, pl. vertebrae -ax thorax, pl. thoraces -ex or -ix appendix, pl. appendices -is metastasis, pl metastases -ma sarcoma, pl. sarcomata -nx phalanx, pl. phalanges -on ganglion, pl. ganglia -us nucleus, pl. nuclei -um ovum, pl. ova -y biopsy, pl. biopsies -plasia development of growth combining form of hydr/o water Arteriosclerosis there are two root words Quiz Chapter 1 and 2 Question 1 1 / 1 point Which is NOT one of the word parts in a medical term? Question options: combining vowel word root combining form suffix Hide Feedback The combining form is not part of a medical term; it is used to write a word root by itself. Combining vowel, word root, and suffix are all parts of a medical term. Question 2 1 / 1 point Which medical terminology word part provides the general meaning of the word? Question options: combining vowel word root suffix prefix Hide Feedback The word root provides the general meaning of the word. The combining vowel makes it possible to pronounce long medical terms and to combine parts. The suffix is added to the end of a term to add meaning, such as a condition, disease, or procedure. The prefix is added to the beginning of the term and gives us information such as the location of an organ, the number of parts, or the time (frequency). Question 3 1 / 1 point Which of the following is the type of information provided by a suffix? Question options: procedure location of an organ number of parts time Hide Feedback A suffix provides information such as a procedure. Information such as the location of an organ, number of parts, and time are provided by a prefix. Question 4 1 / 1 point Which of the following healthcare specialists do NOT report information regarding a patient in an Ancillary Report? Question options: rehabilitation social services respiratory therapy nurses Hide Feedback Nurses report information regarding a patient in the Nurse's Notes. Rehabilitation, social services, and respiratory therapy all use an Ancillary Report. Question 5 1 / 1 point A surgeon reports the details of a surgery in a(n): Question options: Operative Report Anesthesiologist's Report Informed Consent Physician's Orders Hide Feedback The Operative Report is written by the surgeon giving the details of the surgery. The Anesthesiologist's Report is written by the anesthesiologist and details substances given to the patient, the patient's response to anesthesia, and vital signs during the surgery. The Informed Consent is a document voluntarily signed by the patient or a responsible party that clearly describes the purpose, methods, procedures, benefits, and risks of a diagnostic or treatment procedure. The Physician's Orders are a complete list of care, medications, tests, and treatments for the patient. Question 6 1 / 1 point The ________ is a comprehensive outline of the patient's entire hospital stay. Question options: Nurse's Notes Discharge Summary Consultation Report History and Physical Hide Feedback The Discharge Summary is a comprehensive outline of the patient's entire hospital stay. The Nurse's Notes are a record of the patient's care throughout the day. The Consultation Report is a report given by a specialist who has been asked by the physician to evaluate the patient. The History and Physical is written by the admitting physician and details the patient's history, results of the physician's examination, initial diagnoses, and physician's plan of treatment. Question 7 1 / 1 point Which healthcare setting provides supportive treatment for terminally ill patients? Question options: hospice rehabilitation center health maintenance organization specialty care hospital Hide Feedback Hospice provides supportive treatment for terminally ill patients. A rehabilitation center provides intensive physical and occupational therapy. A health maintenance organization provides a wide range of services by a group of primary-care physicians, specialists, and other healthcare professionals in a prepaid system. A specialty care hospital provides care for a very specific disease. Question 8 1 / 1 point Which healthcare setting provides services in a prepaid system? Question options: physician's office health maintenance organization specialty care hospital home health care Hide Feedback A health maintenance organization provides services in a prepaid system. A physician's office provides services in a private office setting. A specialty care hospital provides care for a very specific disease. Home health care provides nursing, therapy, personal care, or housekeeping services in a patient's home. Question 9 1 / 1 point Which combining form means heart? Question options: cardi/o carcin/o gastr/o cis/o Hide Feedback The combining form cardi/o means heart. Carcin/o means cancer. Gastr/o means stomach, and cis/o means to cut. Question 10 1 / 1 point Which combining form is spelled incorrectly? Question options: gastr/o carcen/o immun/o nephr/o Hide Feedback The correct spelling of the combining form meaning cancer is carcin/o. The other combining forms are spelled correctly. Question 11 1 / 1 point Which combining form is spelled incorrectly? Question options: nuer/o aden/o rhin/o path/o Hide Feedback The correct spelling of the combining form meaning nerve is neur/o. The other combining forms are spelled correctly. Question 12 1 / 1 point Which combining form is spelled incorrectly? Question options: gynic/o carcin/o laryng/o nephr/o Hide Feedback The correct spelling of the combining form meaning female is gynec/o. The other combining forms are spelled correctly. Question 13 1 / 1 point Which combining form means skin? Question options: dermat/o gynec/o immun/o rhin/o Hide Feedback The combining form meaning skin is dermat/o. Gynec/o means female, immun/o means immune, and rhin/o means nose. Question 14 1 / 1 point Which combining form means to cut? Question options: enter/o path/o hydr/o cis/o Hide Feedback The combining form cis/o means to cut. Enter/o means small intestine, path/o means disease, and hydr/o means water. Question 15 1 / 1 point Which combining form means stomach? Question options: cardi/o gastr/o enter/o nephr/o Hide Feedback The combining form meaning stomach is gastr/o. Cardi/o means heart, enter/o means small intestine, and nephr/o means kidney. Question 16 1 / 1 point Which prefix does NOT mean before? Question options: ante- pre- pro- in- Hide Feedback The prefix in- means not or inward. The prefixes ante-, pre-, and pro- mean before. Question 17 1 / 1 point Which prefix does NOT mean above? Question options: hyper- super- para- supra- Hide Feedback The prefix para- means beside, beyond, or near. The prefixes hyper-, super-, and supra- mean above. Question 18 1 / 1 point Which prefix does NOT stand for a number? Question options: bi- per- quadri- tri- Hide Feedback The prefix per- means through. The prefix bi- means two, quadri- means four, and tri- means three. Question 19 1 / 1 point Which prefix means half? Question options: mono- poly- peri- hemi- Hide Feedback The prefix hemi- means half. The prefix mono- means one, poly- means many, and peri- means around. Question 20 1 / 1 point Which prefix means within or inside? Question options: intra- extra- inter- retro- Hide Feedback The prefix intra- means within or inside. The prefix extra- means outside of, inter- means between, and retro- means backward or behind. Question 21 1 / 1 point Which prefix means normal or good? Question options: eu- neo- an- dys- Hide Feedback The prefix eu- means normal or good. The prefix neo- means new, an- means without, and dys- means difficult or painful. Question 22 1 / 1 point Which prefix means many? Question options: nulli- un- poly- supra- Hide Feedback The prefix poly- means many. The prefix nulli- means none, un- means not, and supra- means above. Question 23 1 / 1 point Which prefix means fast? Question options: pseudo- brady- endo- tachy- Hide Feedback The prefix tachy- means fast. The prefix pseudo- means false, brady- means slow, and endo- means within or inner. Question 24 1 / 1 point Which prefix means small? Question options: pan- micro- ultra- macro- Hide Feedback The prefix micro- means small. The prefix pan- means all, ultra- means beyond or excess, and macro- means large. Question 25 1 / 1 point Which prefix means none? Question options: nulli- neo- mono- sub- Hide Feedback The prefix nulli- means none. The prefix neo- means new, mono- means one, and sub- means below or under. Question 26 1 / 1 point Which suffix means pain? Question options: -cele -algia -ectasis -oma Hide Feedback The suffix -algia means pain. The suffix -cele means hernia or protrusion, -ectasis means dilation, and -oma means tumor or mass. Question 27 1 / 1 point Which suffix does NOT mean development? Question options: -trophy -plasia -plasm -ptosis Hide Feedback The suffix -ptosis means drooping. The suffixes -trophy, -plasia, and -plasm mean development. Question 28 1 / 1 point Which suffix means tumor or mass? Question options: -itis -iasis -oma -osis Hide Feedback The suffix -oma means tumor or mass. The suffix -itis means inflammation, -iasis means abnormal condition, and -osis means abnormal condition. Question 29 1 / 1 point Which suffix means excessive, abnormal flow? Question options: -rrhea -rrhage -rrhexis -rrhaphy Hide Feedback The suffix -rrhage means excessive, abnormal flow. The suffix -rrhea means discharge or flow, -rrhexis means rupture, and -rrhaphy means suture. Question 30 1 / 1 point Which of the following suffixes is NOT an adjective suffix? Question options: -iac -ia -ory -tic Hide Feedback The suffix -ia means state or condition. The suffixes -iac, -ory, and -tic are adjective suffixes. Question 31 1 / 1 point Which of the following suffixes does NOT refer to an instrument? Question options: -gram -meter -graph -scope Question 32 1 / 1 point Which suffix means the process of measuring? Question options: -graphy -scopy -metry -otomy Hide Feedback The suffix -metry means the process of measuring. The suffix -graphy means process of recording, -scopy means the process of viewing, and -otomy means cutting into. Question 33 1 / 1 point Which of the following suffixes does NOT refer to a surgical procedure? Question options: -megaly -ectomy -plasty -ostomy Hide Feedback The suffix -megaly means enlarged. The suffixes -ectomy, -plasty, and -ostomy all refer to a surgical procedure. Question 34 1 / 1 point Which suffix means enlarged? Question options: -malacia -ectasis -megaly -algia Hide Feedback The suffix -megaly means enlarged. The suffix -malacia means abnormal softening, -ectasis means dilation, and -algia means pain. Question 35 1 / 1 point Which suffix means puncture to withdraw fluid? Question options: -centesis -ostomy -otomy -plasty Hide Feedback The suffix -centesis means puncture to withdraw fluid. The suffix -ostomy means to surgically create an opening, -otomy means cutting into, and -plasty means to surgically repair. Question 36 1 / 1 point Which suffix means a hernia or protrusion? Question options: -cise -cele -cyte -gen Hide Feedback The suffix -cele means hernia or protrusion. The suffix -cise means to cut, -cyte means cell, and -gen means that which produces. Question 37 1 / 1 point Which suffix means inflammation? Question options: -ia -iasis -ism -itis Hide Feedback The suffix -itis means inflammation. The suffix -ia means state or condition, -iasis means abnormal condition, and -ism means state of. Question 38 1 / 1 point Which suffix means narrowing? Question options: -sclerosis -rrhexis -stenosis -ptosis Hide Feedback The suffix -stenosis means narrowing. The suffix -sclerosis means hardening, -rrhexis means rupture, and -ptosis means drooping. Question 39 1 / 1 point Which suffix means drooping? Question options: -ptosis -plasm -pathy -plasia Hide Feedback The suffix -ptosis means drooping. The suffix -plasm means formation or development, -pathy means disease, and -plasia means development or growth. Question 40 1 / 1 point Which suffix means destruction? Question options: -rrhea -lysis -cyte -megaly Hide Feedback The suffix -lysis means destruction. The suffix -rrhea means flow or discharge, -cyte means cell, and -megaly means enlarged. Question 41 1 / 1 point Organs come together to form ________. Question options: systems cells tissue whole body Hide Feedback Organs come together to form systems. Cells come together to make tissue. Tissue comes together to make organs. The whole body is formed by systems. Question 42 1 / 1 point Which of the following is NOT one of the basic types of tissue found in the body? Question options: muscular connective histogenic epithelial Hide Feedback Muscular, connective, epithelial, and nervous tissues are the four basic types of tissue found in the body. Histogenic is a medical term meaning tissue producing. Question 43 1 / 1 point Which is NOT an organ found in the digestive system? Question options: spleen stomach liver colon Hide Feedback The spleen is found in the immune system. The stomach, liver, and colon are found in the digestive system. Question 44 1 / 1 point Which branch of medicine treats conditions of the eye? Question options: obstetrics endocrinology otorhinolaryngology ophthalmology Hide Feedback Ophthalmology is the branch of medicine that treats conditions of the eye. Obstetrics is the branch of medicine dealing with pregnancy and childbirth. Endocrinology treats the endocrine system. Otorhinolaryngology involves treating the ears, nose, and throat. Question 45 1 / 1 point Which of the following is NOT part of the anatomical position? Question options: standing erect palms facing backward feet together fingers extended Hide Feedback Palms facing forward is part of the anatomical position, not palms facing backward. Standing erect, feet together, and fingers extended are all part of the anatomical position. Question 46 1 / 1 point Which plane divides the body into left and right portions? Question options: sagittal frontal coronal transverse Hide Feedback The sagittal plan divides the body into left and right portions. The frontal or coronal plane divides the body into front and back portions. The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower portions. Question 47 1 / 1 point The neck is the ________ region of the body. Question options: dorsal cervical cephalic pubic Hide Feedback The neck is the cervical region of the body. The back is the dorsal region of the body. The head is the cephalic region of the body. The genitals are the pubic region of the body. Question 48 1 / 1 point The cephalic region of the body is the: Question options: neck back head buttocks Hide Feedback The head is the cephalic region of the body. The neck is the cervical region of the body. The back is the dorsal region of the body. The buttocks are the gluteal region of the body. Question 49 1 / 1 point The cranial cavity contains the: Question options: spinal cord heart brain stomach Hide Feedback The cranial cavity contains the brain. The spinal cavity contains the spinal cord. The pericardial cavity contains the heart. The abdominal cavity contains the stomach. Question 50 1 / 1 point What organ is located inside the pleural cavity? Question options: heart stomach urinary bladder lungs Hide Feedback The lungs are found in the pleural cavity. The heart is found in the pericardial cavity. The stomach is found in the abdominal cavity. The urinary bladder is found in the pelvic cavity. Question 51 1 / 1 point Which cavity contains the heart? Question options: cranial pleural pericardial pelvic Hide Feedback The pericardial cavity contains the heart. The cranial cavity contains the brain. The pleural cavity contains the lungs. The pelvic cavity contains the urinary bladder, urethra, ureters, the reproductive organs, and portions of the small intestine and colon. Question 52 1 / 1 point In the anatomical divisions of the abdomen, the center square of the middle row is the ________ region. Question options: umbilical lumbar hypogastric iliac Hide Feedback The center square of the middle row is the umbilical region. The lumbar regions are the left and right squares of the middle row. The hypogastric region is the center square of the bottom row. The iliac regions are the left and right squares of the bottom row. Question 53 1 / 1 point The gallbladder and majority of the liver are located in the ________ quadrant. Question options: right upper left upper right lower left lower Hide Feedback The right upper quadrant contains the gallbladder and the majority of the liver. Question 54 1 / 1 point Which body system forms a protective two-way barrier for the body? Question options: musculoskeletal endocrine integumentary digestive Hide Feedback The integumentary system keeps pathogens out and fluids in. Question 55 1 / 1 point Which directional term means more toward the head or above another structure? Question options: superior medial ventral caudal Hide Feedback Superior means more toward the head or above another structure. Medial means more toward the midline. Ventral means more toward the front of the body. Caudal means more toward the feet or tail or below another structure. Question 56 1 / 1 point Which direction term refers to the tip or summit of an organ? Question options: medial lateral base apex Hide Feedback Apex refers to the tip or summit of an organ. Medial refers to the middle or near the middle of the body. Lateral refers more to the side. Base refers to the bottom or lower part of the organ. Question 57 1 / 1 point Which direction term means more to the back side of the body? Question options: posterior ventral distal deep Hide Feedback Posterior means more to the back side of the body. Ventral means more toward the front side. Distal means farther away from the point of attachment to the body. Deep means farther away from the surface of the body. Question 58 1 / 1 point Which direction term means farther away from the point of attachment to the body? Question options: superficial distal supine proximal Hide Feedback Distal means farther away from the point of attachment to the body. Superficial means more toward the surface of the body. Supine means lying face upward. Proximal means closer to the point of attachment to the body. Question 59 1 / 1 point Which direction term is the opposite of distal? Question options: dorsal apex superficial proximal Hide Feedback Proximal is opposite of distal. Dorsal is opposite of ventral. Apex is opposite of base. Superficial is opposite of deep. Question 60 1 / 1 point Which direction term means lying face down? Question options: prone proximal supine ventral Hide Feedback Prone means lying face down. Proximal means closer to the point of attachment to the body. Supine means lying face up. Ventral means more toward the front of the body. Question 61 1 / 1 point Which direction term specifically refers to the belly-side of the body? Question options: dorsal caudal cephalic ventral Hide Feedback Ventral means belly-side of the body. Dorsal means back-side of the body. Caudal means more toward the tail. Cephalic means more toward the head. Question 62 1 / 1 point Which medical term is misspelled? Question options: bracheal cranial gluteal inferior Hide Feedback The correct spelling is brachial. The other terms are spelled correctly. Question 63 1 / 1 point Which medical term is misspelled? Question options: caudal crainial epithelial lymphatic Hide Feedback The correct spelling is cranial. The other terms are spelled correctly. Question 64 1 / 1 point Which abbreviation stands for the body system containing the heart? Question options: GI CV AP ENT Hide Feedback CV is the abbreviation of cardiovascular, which contains the heart. GI is the abbreviation for the gastrointestinal system. AP is the abbreviation for anteroposterior. ENT is the abbreviation for ears, nose, and throat. Question 65 1 / 1 point Which abbreviation stands for the body system containing the stomach? Question options: MS GI UE PA Hide Feedback GI is the abbreviation for the gastrointestinal system, which contains the stomach. MS is the abbreviation for the musculoskeletal system. UE is the abbreviation for upper extremity. PA is the abbreviation for posteroanterior. Question 66 1 / 1 point Which term means pertaining to internal organs? Question options: cardiac peritoneal visceral caudal Hide Feedback Visceral means pertaining to internal organs. Cardiac means pertaining to the heart. Peritoneal means pertaining to the peritoneum. Caudal means pertaining to the tail. Question 67 1 / 1 point Another name for the torso is the ________ region of the body. Question options: vertebral dorsum trunk crural Hide Feedback The torso is the trunk region of the body. The vertebral region refers to the spinal cord area of the body. The dorsum region refers to the back. The crural regions of the body contain the legs. Question 68 1 / 1 point A term meaning pertaining to the chest is: Question options: visceral crural lumbar thoracic Hide Feedback Thoracic means pertaining to the chest. Visceral means pertaining to the internal organs. Crural means pertaining to the legs. Lumbar means pertaining to the lumbar region. Question 69 1 / 1 point In which quadrant would you find the colon? Question options: left lower quadrant right lower quadrant it is a midline structure all of these Hide Feedback The colon is found in all four quadrants. Question 70 1 / 1 point A person having repeated bladder infections would see a specialist in: Question options: gastroenterology urology otorhinolaryngology gynecology Hide Feedback A person having repeated bladder infections would see a specialist in urology because the bladder is part of the urinary system. Gastroenterology treats disorders of the stomach and small intestines. Otorhinolaryngology treats disorders of the ear, nose, and throat. Gynecology treats disorders of the female reproductive system.

Chapter 2

abdomin/o abdomen adip/o fat anter/o front brachi/o arm cardi/o heart caud/o tail cephal/o head cervic/o neck chondr/o cartilage crani/o skull crin/o to secrete crur/o leg cyt/o cell dermat/o skin dist/o away from dors/o back enter/o small intestine epitheli/o epithelium gastr/o stomach glute/o buttock gynec/o woman hemat/o blood hist/o tissue immun/o protection infer/o below inguin/o groin laryng/o larynx later/o side lumb/o loin (low back) lymph/o lymph medi/o middle (opposite of lateral) muscul/o muscle nephr/o kidney neur/o nerve ophthalm/o eye orth/o straight, upright ot/o ear pariet/o cavity wall ped/o foot pelv/o pelvis peritone/o peritoneum pleur/o pleura poster/o back proct/o rectum and anus proxim/o near to pub/o genital region pulmon/o lung rhin/o nose spin/o spine super/o above thorac/o chest ur/o urine urin/o urine vascul/o blood vessel ventr/o belly vertebr/o vertebra viscer/o internal organ Levels of Body Organization Cells, tissues, organs, and systems make up the human body Cells All cells have a nucleus, cytoplasm, and a cell membrane; cytology (study of cells and functions) Tissues Connective tissue, epithelial tissue, muscular tissue, and nervous tissue; histology (the study of tissue) Muscular Tissue (movement in body through contraction, or shortening of length) Muscle tissue composed of individual muscle cells called muscle fibers. Cardiac muscle (in heart), smooth muscle (found in internal organs such as intestine, uterus, and blood vessels), and skeletal muscle (bone). Epithelial Tissue (close-packed cells form covering for and lining of body structures) aka epithelium. Both the top layer of skin and the lining of the stomach are epithelial tissue. In addition to forming a protective barrier, epithelial tissue may be specialized to absorb substances (such as nutrients from the intestine), secret substances (such as sweat glands), or excrete wastes (such as kidney tubules) Connective Tissue (supports and protects tissue in body structures) Bone (structual support), Cartilage (shock absorber in joints), Tendons (tightly connect skelectal muscles to bone), and Adipose (provides protective padding around body structures) Nervous Tissue (composed of cells called neurons) Brain, spinal cord, and a network of nerves thru entire body (info to rest of body) Musculoskeletal System (bones, joints, muscles) Skeleton supports and protects the body, forms blood cells, and stores minerals. Muscles produce movement. orthopedics orthopedic surgery Cardiovascular System (heart, arteries, veins) Pumps blood throughout the entire body to transport nutrients, oxygen, and wastes. cardiology Blood [Hematic System] (plasma, erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets) Transports oxygen, protects against pathogens, and controls bleeding. hematology Lymphatic System (lymph nodes and vessels, spleen, thymus gland, tonsils) Protects the body from disease and invasion from pathogens) immunology Respiratory System (nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial tubes, lungs) Obtains oxygen and removes carbon dioxide from the body. otorhinolaryngology pulmonology thoracic surgery Digestive or Gastrointestinal System (oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, salivary glands) Ingests, digests, and absorbs nutrients for the body. gastroenterology proctology prone lying face down supine lying face up base bottom or lower part of an organ superficial more toward the surface of the body deep further away from the surface of the body Sagittal plane Vertical plane, dividing body or any of its parts into right and left portions. If safittal plane passes thru middle of body, it is called a midsagittal or median plane. A cut along the safittal plane yields a sagittal section view of the inside of the body. Frontal plane Coronal plane divides body into front and back portions; a vertical lengthwise plane running from side to side. Cut along this plane yields a frontal or coronal section view of the inside of the body. Transverse plane Horizontal plane is a crosswise plane that runs parallel to the ground. Imaginary cut would divide the body or its parts into upper and lower portions. Cut along this plane yields a transverse section view of the inside of the body. Body is not solid It has many open spaces or cavities Dorsal cavities include cranial cavity, containing brain, and the spinal cavity, containing spinal cord Ventral cavities include thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity. Thoracic cavity contains the two lungs and a central region between them called the mediastinum (the heart, aorta, esophagus, trachea, thymus gland, etc). There is an actual physical wall between the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavity called the diaphragm that is a muscle used for breathing. Abdominopelvic Cavity Generally subdivided into a superior abdominal cavity and an inferior pelvic cavity. Orangs of digestive, exretory, and reproductive systems are located in these cavities. Organs within ventral cavities are referred to as a group as the interal organs or viscera. Ventral Cavities All ventral cavities are lined by, and the viscera are encased in, a two-layer membrane called the pleura in the thoracic cavity and the peritoneum in the abdominopelvic cavity. The outer layer that lines the vacities is called the parietal layer (parietal pleura and parietal peritoneum), and the inner layer that encases the viscera is called the visceral layer (visceral pleura and visceral peritoneum). Thoracic Cavity Pleura is subdivided, forming the pleural cavity, containing the lungs, and the pericardial cavity, containing the heart. Mediastinum spelled correctly epi- above the hand is ______ to the elbow distal What cavity contains the lungs pleural The plane divides the body into equal halves midsagittal plane What system protects the body from disease and invasion from pathogens lymphatic system Urinary System (kidneys ureters, urinary bladder, urethra) Filters waste products out of the blood and removes them from the body. nephrology urology Female Reproductive System (ovary, fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, vulva, breasts) Produces eggs for reproduction and provides place for growing baby. gynecology obstetrics Male Reproductive System (testes, epididymis, vas deferens, penis, seminal vesicles, prostate gland, bulbourethral gland) Produces sperm for reproduction urology Endocrine System (pituitary gland, pineal gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, thymus gland, adrenal glands, pancreas, ovaries, testes) Regulates metabolic activities of the body. endocrinology Nervous System (brain, spinal cord, nerves) Receives sensory information and coordinates the body's response. neurology neurosurgery Special Senses (eye and ear) Ophthalmology - study of the eye (eye - vision) Otorhinolaryngology - Study of the nose, larynx, and ear (ear - hearing and balance) infer/o ... used as inferior Integumentary System (skin, hair, nails, sweat glands, sebaceous glands) Forms protective two-way barrier and aids in temperature regulation. dermatology Cavity Dorsal cavities -Cranial cavity -Spinal cavity Ventral cavities -Thoracic cavity Abdominopelvic cavities -Abdominal cavity -Pelvic cavity Major Organs Brain Spinal Cord Pleural cavity: lungs Pericardial cavity: heart Mediastinum: heart, esophagus, trachea, thymus gland, aorta Stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and portions of the small intestine and colon Urinary bladder, ureters, urethra, and portions of the small intestine and colon Female: uterus, ovaries, fallopian tubes, vagina Male: prostate gland, seminal vesicles, portion of vas deferens Mathods of Subdividing the Abdominopelvic Cavity Right hypochondriac, Epigastric, Left hypochondriac Right lumbar, Umbilical, Left Lumbar Right inguinal, Hypogastric, Left inguinal (Same Body Formation, but in Quadrants) RU: Liver (majority), R Kidney, Colon, Pancreas (small), Gallbladder, Small Intestine LU: Liver (small), Spleen, L Kidney, Stomach, Colon, Pancreas (majority), Small Intestine RL: Colon, Small Intestine, Right ureter, Appendix, Right ovary (female), Right fallopian tube (female) LL: Colon, Small Intestine, Left Ureter, Left ovary (female), Left fallopian tube (female)

Chapter 5

angi/o vessel aort/o aorta arteri/o artery ather/o fatty substance atri/o atrium cardi/o heart coron/o heart corpor/o body embol/o plug isch/o to hold back myocardi/o heart muscle phleb/o vein sept/o wall son/o sound sphygm/o pulse steth/o chest thromb/o clot valv/o valve valvul/o valve varic/o dilated vein vascul/o blood vessel vas/o vessel ven/o vein ventricul/o ventricle -cardia heart condition -manometer instrument to measure pressure -ole small -spasm involuntary muscle contraction -tension pressure -tonic pertaining to tone -ule small di- two Heart coron/o Small -ole Blood pressure cuff sphygmomanometer Abnormal heart sound murmur Fatty substance ather/o Vessel angi/o Fast tachy- To bring duct/o Heart muscle myocardi/o Pressure -tension Excessive hyper- Body corpor/o A wall sept/o Across trans- Vein phleb/o Hardening -stenosis Clot thromb/o Enlarged -megaly Dilated vein varic/o To hold back isch/o The pulmonary artery goes from the right ventricle to what organ of the body? lungs Which valve controls the opening between the right atrium and right ventricle? tricuspid valve What is cardiac arrest? complete stopping of heart activity What is the term for a weakness in the wall of an artery that results in localized widening of the artery? aneurysm Which medical term means the blood pressure is too low? hypotension Which diagnostic procedure involves passing a thin tube through a blood vessel into the heart? cardiac catheterization What is the procedure called that uses a balloon catheter to dilate (open) localized coronary artery narrowing? angioplasty What do anticoagulants do? prevent blood clot formation This is a method for evaluating cardiovascular fitness. stress test What is the medical term for heart attack? myocardial infarction Which description best fits the word arteriole? a small artery Which is the outermost layer of the heart? epicardium Which combining form means artery? arteri/o How many gallons of blood does the heart pump each day? 4000 What is another name for the bicuspid valve? mitral valve Where do the electrical impulses of the heart begin? sinoatrial node What is another name for the sinoatrial node? pacemaker Which of these terms is NOT a type of blood vessel? lumen; veins, arteries, and capillaries are A hole, present at birth, in the septum between two heart chambers is called: congenital septal defect Inflammation of the muscle layer of the heart wall is: myocarditis The pulmonary circulation occurs between the heart and lungs True The systemic circulation carries oxygenated blood to the body True The myocardium is the thick muscular middle layer of the heart True The coronary arteries deliver oxygenated blood to the heart muscle. True The largest artery in the body is the superior vena cava. False The atria are the receiving chambers of the heart. True The highest number of the blood pressure is called the diastolic. False Bradycardia means a fast heart rate. False Heart pain caused by deficiency of oxygen to the heart muscle is called angina pectoris. True An arrhythmia is a type of chest pain. False The aorta carries: oxygenated blood to the body The lining of the heart is called the: endocardium The mitral valve is also called the ______ valve. bicuspid Which of the following is also known as the pacemaker of the heart? sinoatrial node The narrowest blood vessels are called: capillaries The heart receives its blood supply from the: coronary arteries Which combining form means chest? steth/o Which term means pertaining to between the atria? interatrial Which term means enlarged heart? cardiomegaly A heart specialist would be called a: cardiologist Which term means high pressure? hypertension Which term means process of recording a vessel? angiography Which term means listening to the sounds within the body? auscultation Which of the following terms means pounding, racing heartbeat? palpitations Which term means a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery? plaque Which of the following terms means to flow backward? regurgitation Which term is misspelled? angiplasty Which term is misspelled? phleboitis Which term is misspelled? fribillation Which abbreviation is an arrhythmia? Vfib Which abbreviation stands for high blood pressure? HTN Which term means fast heartbeat? tachycardia What is the name of the steel tube placed within a blood vessel? stent The complete stopping of heart activity is called: cardiac arrest In which condition is the heart muscle too weak to pump efficiently? congestive heart failure Fibrillation means that: the heartbeat is dangerously irregular In which of the following conditions is a heart valve too loose? valve prolapse The most common form of arteriosclerosis is: atherosclerosis A weakened and ballooned artery is called a(n): aneurysm Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a blood test? cardiac enzymes Which of the following diagnostic procedures measures cardiac fitness? stress test Which of the following diagnostic procedures is able to visualize internal cardiac structures? echocardiography What surgical procedure uses a blood vessel obtained from another part of the body? coronary artery bypass graft Which therapeutic device is used to treat ventricular fibrillation? implantable cardioverter-defibrillator Which surgical procedure is used to treat varicose veins? ligation and stripping Which medication increases the force of cardiac muscle contractions? cardiotonic Which of the following medications does NOT treat hypertension? vascoconstrictors Which of the following abbreviations stands for heart attack? MI Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure? CABG Which layer of the heart is responsible for contracting in order to pump blood? myocardium Quiz Chapter 5 Question 1 1 / 1 point The aorta carries: Question options: oxygenated blood to the body oxygenated blood to the lungs deoxygenated blood to the heart deoxygenated blood to the lungs Hide Feedback The aorta carries oxygenated blood to the body. The pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs. The vena cavae carry deoxygenated blood to the heart. Question 2 1 / 1 point The lining of the heart is called the: Question options: endocardium epicardium pericardium myocardium Hide Feedback The lining of the heart is the endocardium. The epicardium is the outer layer of the heart. The pericardium is the sac in which the heart is enclosed. The myocardium is the muscle layer of the heart. Question 3 1 / 1 point The mitral valve is also called the ________ valve. Question options: bicuspid aortic pulmonary tricuspid Hide Feedback The mitral valve is also called the bicuspid valve because it has two cusps. The other choices are incorrect. Question 4 1 / 1 point Which of the following is also known as the pacemaker of the heart? Question options: atrioventricular node Purkinje fibers atrioventricular bundle sinoatrial node Hide Feedback The sinoatrial node is known as the pacemaker of the heart. It is the beginning of the heart's electrical conduction system. The impulse travels down the intermodal pathway to the atrioventricular node, to the atrioventricular bundle, to the bundle branches, and into the Purkinje fibers. Question 5 1 / 1 point The narrowest blood vessels are called: Question options: arterioles veins capillaries venules Hide Feedback The narrowest blood vessels are capillaries. Venules are the smallest veins. Arterioles are the smallest arteries. Question 6 1 / 1 point The heart receives its blood supply from the: Question options: coronary arteries coronary sinus aorta ventricles Hide Feedback The heart receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries. The aorta carries blood from the heart to the body. The ventricles are the pumping chambers of the heart. Coronary sinus is incorrect. Question 7 1 / 1 point Which combining form means chest? Question options: angi/o steth/o phleb/o sphygm/o Hide Feedback Steth/o means chest. Angi/o means vessel. Phleb/o means vein. Sphygm/o means pulse. Question 8 1 / 1 point Which term means pertaining to between the atria? Question options: intraatrial interarterial interatrial transatrial Hide Feedback Inter- means between, atri/o means atrium, and -al means pertaining to; thus, interatrial means pertaining to between the atria. Intra- means within; therefore, intraatrial means pertaining to within the atria. Arteri/o means artery; hence, interarterial means pertaining to between the arteries. Trans- means across; therefore, transatrial means across the atria. Question 9 1 / 1 point Which term means enlarged heart? Question options: cardiorrhexis cardiostenosis cardiosclerosis cardiomegaly Hide Feedback Cardi/o means heart and -megaly means enlarged; thus, cardiomegaly means enlarged heart. -stenosis means narrowed, so cardiostenosis means narrowed heart. -sclerosis means hardened; therefore, cardiosclerosis means hardened heart. Question 10 1 / 1 point A heart specialist would be called a: Question options: cardiologist phlebotomist coronologist hemangiologist Hide Feedback A cardiologist is a heart specialist. A phlebotomist is someone who draws blood. Coronologist and hemangiologist are not any type of specialists. Question 11 1 / 1 point Which term means high pressure? Question options: hypermanometer hypotension hypertension supratension Hide Feedback Hyper- means excessive and -tension means pressure, so hypertension means high pressure. -manometer means instrument to measure pressure; hypermanometer is not a medical term. Hypo- means insufficient, so hypotension means low pressure. Supra- means above; supratension is not a medical term. Question 12 1 / 1 point Which term means process of recording a vessel? Question options: angiogram arteriography hemangiography angiography Hide Feedback Angi/o means vessel and -graphy means process of recording; thus, angiography means process of recording a vessel. Arteri/o means artery, so arteriography means process of recording an artery. Hemangi/o means blood vessel; therefore, hemangiography means process of recording a blood vessel. Question 13 1 / 1 point Which term means listening to the sounds within the body? Question options: stethoscope auscultation palpitations murmur Hide Feedback Auscultation means listening to the sounds within the body. You listen using a stethoscope. Palpitations are racing heartbeats. A murmur is a sound arising from blood flowing through the heart. Question 14 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means pounding, racing heartbeat? Question options: palpitations angiospasm murmur plaque Hide Feedback Palpitations are pounding, racing heartbeats. Angiospasm is an involuntary muscle contraction of a vessel. A murmur is a heart sound. Plaque is a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery. Question 15 1 / 1 point Which term means a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery? Question options: arterioma ischemia plaque stent Hide Feedback A plaque is a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery. An arterioma would be an artery growth. Ischemia is a temporary deficiency of blood supply. A stent is a stainless steel tube placed within a blood vessel of a duct to widen the lumen. Question 16 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms means to flow backward? Question options: infarct regurgitation stent palpitation Hide Feedback Regurgitation means to flow backward. An infarct is an area of tissue within an organ or part that undergoes necrosis following the loss of its blood supply. A stent is a stainless steel tube placed within a blood vessel or duct to widen the lumen. A palpitation is a pounding, racing heartbeat. Question 17 1 / 1 point Which term is misspelled? Question options: angiplasty arteriorrhexis bradycardia valvulitis Hide Feedback Angiplasty should be spelled angioplasty. The other terms are spelled correctly. Question 18 1 / 1 point Which term is misspelled? Question options: atherosclerosis myocardial phleboitis interventricular Hide Feedback Phleboitis should be spelled phlebitis. The other terms are spelled correctly. Question 19 1 / 1 point Which term is misspelled? Question options: infarction fribillation coarctation hemorrhoid Hide Feedback Fribillation should be spelled fibrillation. The other terms are spelled correctly. Question 20 1 / 1 point Which abbreviation is an arrhythmia? Question options: MR ECC Vfib MI Hide Feedback Vfib stands for ventricular fibrillation, an arrhythmia. MR stands for mitral regurgitation, a pathology. MI stands for myocardial infarction, a heart attack. ECC stands for extracorporeal circulation, a therapeutic procedure. Question 21 1 / 1 point Which abbreviation stands for high blood pressure? Question options: CSD bpm BP HTN Hide Feedback HTN stands for hypertension, which is high blood pressure. CSD stands for congenital septal defect; bpm stands for beats per minute; BP stands for blood pressure. Question 22 1 / 1 point Which term means fast heartbeat? Question options: fibrillation tachycardia hypercardia bradycardia Hide Feedback Tachycardia is fast heartbeat. Fibrillation is an extremely serious arrhythmia. Hypercardia is not a medical term. Bradycardia is slow heartbeat. Question 23 1 / 1 point What is the name of the steel tube placed within a blood vessel? Question options: Holter monitor stent plaque cardioverter Hide Feedback A stent is a steel tube placed within a blood vessel to widen the lumen. A Holter monitor is a portable device worn to assess the heart. A plaque is a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery. A cardioverter is used to shock the heart into rhythm. Question 24 1 / 1 point The complete stopping of heart activity is called: Question options: cardiac arrest fibrillation bundle branch block angina pectoris Hide Feedback Cardiac arrest is the complete stopping of heart activity. Fibrillation is an extremely serious arrhythmia. A bundle branch block is where the electrical impulse is blocked from traveling down the atrioventricular bundle or bundle branches, causing the ventricles to beat at a different rate from the atria. Angina pectoris is chest pain. Question 25 1 / 1 point In which condition is the heart muscle too weak to pump efficiently? Question options: heart valve prolapse congestive heart failure myocarditis endocarditis Hide Feedback Congestive heart failure is a condition in which the heart muscle is too weak to pump efficiently. Heart valve prolapse occurs when the cusps or flaps are too stiff. Myocarditis is inflammation of the muscle layer of the heart. Endocarditis is inflammation of the inner layer of the heart. Question 26 1 / 1 point Fibrillation means that: Question options: the heartbeat is dangerously irregular the heart is beating too fast the heart has stopped beating the heart has suffered a heart attack Hide Feedback Fibrillation is a dangerously irregular heartbeat. Tachycardia is the heart beating too fast. Cardiac arrest means that the heart has stopped beating. If someone has had a myocardial infarction, they have suffered a heart attack. Question 27 1 / 1 point In which of the following conditions is a heart valve too loose? Question options: valvorrhexis valve prolapse valvulitis valve stenosis Hide Feedback Valve prolapse means a valve is too loose. Valvorrhexis means a ruptured valve. Valvulitis means an inflamed valve. Valve stenosis means valve narrowing. Question 28 1 / 1 point The most common form of arteriosclerosis is: Question options: polyarteritis pericarditis atherosclerosis atheroma Hide Feedback The most common form of arteriosclerosis is atherosclerosis. Polyarteritis is an inflammation of multiple arteries. Pericarditis is inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart. Atheroma is a fatty substance growth. Question 29 1 / 1 point A weakened and ballooned artery is called a(n): Question options: arteriosclerosis aneurysm phlebitis atherosclerosis Hide Feedback An aneurysm is a weakened and ballooned artery. Arteriosclerosis is a hardened artery. Phlebitis is an inflamed vein. Atherosclerosis is a deposit of fatty yellow lipids in an artery. Question 30 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a blood test? Question options: Holter monitor cardiac enzymes cardiac scan Doppler ultrasound Hide Feedback Cardiac enzymes is a blood test. Holter monitor, cardiac scan, and Doppler ultrasound all use electronic equipment. Question 31 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures measures cardiac fitness? Question options: cardiac enzymes serum lipoprotein test stress test angiography Hide Feedback A stress test measures cardiac fitness. Cardiac enzymes are a blood test to check for a heart attack. A serum lipoprotein test is a blood test for lipids. Angiography is an X-ray of blood vessels after injecting dye. Question 32 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures is able to visualize internal cardiac structures? Question options: cardiac scan angiography electrocardiography echocardiography Hide Feedback Echocardiography uses ultrasound to visualize internal cardiac structures. Cardiac scan uses nuclear medicine to scan the heart. Angiography is visualization of the vessels after injection of an opaque dye. Electrocardiography is the process of recording the heart's electrical activity. Question 33 1 / 1 point Which surgical procedure uses a blood vessel obtained from another part of the body? Question options: coronary artery bypass graft arterial anastomosis aneurysmectomy intracoronary artery stent Hide Feedback A coronary artery bypass graft uses a blood vessel from another part of the body to bypass a blocked coronary artery. Arterial anastomosis is reconnecting two ends of an artery. Aneurysmectomy is the surgical removal of an aneurysm. Intracoronary artery stent is a stainless steel tube placed within a coronary artery. Question 34 1 / 1 point Which therapeutic device is used to treat ventricular fibrillation? Question options: pericardiocentesis implantable cardioverter-defibrillator extracorporeal circulation pacemaker Hide Feedback An implantable cardioverter-defibrillator is used to treat ventricular fibrillation. Pericardiocentesis is used to remove fluid from around the heart. Extracorporeal circulation is a heart-lung machine. A pacemaker is used to set the heart rate when the sinoatrial node is not functioning properly. Question 35 1 / 1 point Which surgical procedure is used to treat varicose veins? Question options: stent placement embolectomy ligation and stripping aneurysmectomy Hide Feedback Ligation and stripping is used to treat varicose veins. A stent placement is used to treat coronary artery disease. Embolectomy is the surgical removal of an embolus. An aneurysmectomy is the surgical removal of an aneurysm. Question 36 1 / 1 point Which medication increases the force of cardiac muscle contractions? Question options: diuretics antiarrhythmics beta-blocker drugs cardiotonic Hide Feedback A cardiotonic is used to increase the force of cardiac muscle contractions. Diuretics are used to increase urine production. Antiarrhythmics reduce or prevent cardiac arrhythmias. Beta-blocker drugs treat hypertension and angina pectoris by lowering the heart rate. Question 37 1 / 1 point Which of the following medications does NOT treat hypertension? Question options: ACE inhibitors calcium channel blockers vasoconstrictors beta-blockers Hide Feedback Vasoconstrictors raise blood pressure, not lower it. ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, and beta-blockers all treat hypertension. Question 38 1 / 1 point Which of the following abbreviations stands for a heart attack? Question options: HTN MI CAD MR Hide Feedback MI stands for myocardial infarction, a heart attack. HTN stands for hypertension, high blood pressure. CAD stands for coronary artery disease. MR stands for mitral regurgitation, a mitral valve problem. Question 39 1 / 1 point Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure? Question options: CABG MI CHF HTN Hide Feedback CABG stands for coronary artery bypass graft, a surgical procedure. MI stands for myocardial infarction, a pathological condition. CHF stands for congestive heart failure, a pathological condition. HTN stands for hypertension, a pathological condition. Question 40 1 / 1 point Which layer of the heart is responsible for contracting in order to pump blood? Question options: endocardium epicardium pericardium myocardium Hide Feedback The myocardium is the muscle layer of the heart and is responsible for contracting in order to pump blood. The endocardium is the inner layer of the heart. The pericardium is the sac in which the heart is enclosed.

Chapter 4

ankyl/o stiff joint arthr/o joint articul/o joint burs/o sac carp/o carpus cervic/o neck chondr/o cartilage clavicul/o clavicle coccyg/o coccyx cortic/o outer layer cost/o rib crani/o skull femor/o femur fibul/o fibula humer/o humerus ili/o ilium ischi/o ischium kyph/o hump lamin/o lamina (part of vertebra) lord/o bent backward lumb/o loin (low back between ribs and pelvis) mandibul/o mandible maxill/o maxilla medull/o inner region metacarp/o metacarpus metatars/o metatarsus myel/o bone marrow, spinal cord orth/o straight oste/o bone patell/o patella pector/o chest ped/o child; foot pelv/o pelvis phalang/o phalanges pod/o foot prosthet/o addition pub/o pubis radi/o radius; ray (X-ray) sacr/o sacrum scapul/o scapula scoli/o crooked spin/o spine spondyl/o vertebrae stern/o sternum synovi/o synovial membrane synov/o synovial membrane tars/o tarsus thorac/o chest tibi/o tibia uln/o ulna vertebr/o vertebra -blast immature -clasia to surgically break -desis to fuse -listhesis slipping -logic pertaining to study of -porosis porous dis- apart non- not -centesis puncture to withdraw fluid -ectomy surgical removal -genic producing -gram record -graphy process of recording -iatry medical treatment -listhesis slipping -pathy disease -plasty surgical repair -scope instrument for viewing -scopic pertaining to visually examining -scopy process of visually examining -stenosis narrowing -tome instrument to cut anti- against ex- outward inter- between intra- within per- through sub- under Bone and Skeleton Each bone is unique: carries its own blood supply, nerves, and lymphatic vessels. When bones are connected to each other, it forms skeleton. Skeleton protects vital organs and stores minerals. Bone marrow is the site of blood cell production. A joint is the place where two bones meet and are held together by ligaments. This gives flexibility to the skeleton. The skeleton, joints, and muscles work together to produce movement. Bones Called osseous tissue, are one of the hardesst materials in the body. Bones are formed from a gradual process before birth called ossification. The first model of the skeleton, made of cartilage, is formed in the fetus. Osteoblasts, immature bone cells, gradually replace the cartilage with bone. In a fully adult bone, the osteoblasts have matured into osteocytes that work to maintain the bone. The formation of strong bones is greatly dependent on an adequate supply of minerals such as calcium and phosphorus. Types of Bones Long bones, short bones, flat bones, and irregular bones. Long bones are longer than they are wide (femur and humerus). Short bones are roughly as long as they are wide (carpals and tarsals). Irregular bones receives their name because the shape of the bones are very irregular (the vertebrae are irregular bones). Flat bones are usually plate-shaped bones such as the sternum, scapulae, and pelvis. Majority is long bones who have similar structure with a central shaft or diaphysis that widens at each end, which is called an epiphysis. Each epiphysis is covered by a layer of cartilage called articular cartilage to prevent bone from rubbing directly on bone. The remaining surface of each bone is covered with a thin connective tissue membrane called the periosteum, which contains numerous blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels. The dense and hard exterior surface bone is called cortical or compact bone. Cancellous or spongy bone is found inside the bone. As its name indicates, spongy bone has spaces in it, giving it a spongelike appearance. These spaces contain red bone marrow, which manufactures most of the blood cells and is found in some parts of all bones. The center of the diaphysis contains an open canal called the medullary cavity. Early in life, this cavity also contains red bone marrow, but as we age, the red bone marrow of the medullary cavity gradually converts to yellow bone marrow, which consists primarily of fat cells. Bone Projections and Depressions Some are rounded and smooth in order to articulate with another bone in a joint. Others are rough to provide muscles with attachment points. The general term for any bony projection is a process. Then there are specific terms to describe the different shapes and locations of carious processes. Some of the common bony process include the following: The head is a large, smooth, ball-shaped end on a long bone. It may be separated from the body or shaft of the bone by a narrow area called the neck. A condyle refers to a smooth, rounded portion at the end of a bone. The epicondyle is a projection located above or on a condyle. The trochanter refers to a large rough process for the attachment of a muscle. A tubercle is a small, rough process the provides the attachment for the tendons and muscles. The tuberosity is a large, rough process that provides the attachment of tendons and muscles. Sinus: a hallow cavity within a bone. Foramen: a smooth, round opening for nerves and blood vessels. Fossa: consists of a shallow cavity or depression on the surface of a bone. Fissue: a slit-type opening. Skeleton Two divisions: the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton. Axial Skeleton includes the bones of the head, neck, spine, chest, and trunk of the body. These bones form the central axis for the whole body and protect many of the internal organs such as the brain, lungs, and heart. The head or skull is divided into two parts consisting of the cranium and facial bones. These bones surround and protect the brain, eyes, ears, nasal cavity, and oral cavity from injury. The muscles for chewing and moving the head are attached to the cranial bones. The cranium encases the brain and consists of the frontal, parietal, temporal, ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital bones. The facial bones surround the mouth, nose, and eyes, and include the mandible, maxilla, zygomatic, vomer, palatine, nasal, and lacrimal bones. The hyoid bone is a single U-shaped bone suspended in the neck between the mandible and larynx. It is a point of attachment for swallowing and speech muscles. The trunk of the body consists of the vertebral column, sternum, and rib cage. The vertebral or spinal column is divided into five sections: cervical vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, sacrum, and coccyx. Located between each pair of vertebrae, from the cervical through the lumbar regions, is an intervertebral disk. Each disk is composed of fibrocartilage to provide a cushion between the vertebrae. The rib cage has 12 pairs of ribs attached at the back to the vertebral column. Ten of the pairs are also attached to the sternum in the front. The lowest two pairs are called floating ribs and are attached only to the vertebral column. The rib cage serves to provide support for organs, such as the heart and lungs. Appendicular Skeleton Consists of the pectoral girdle, upper extremities, pelvic girdle, and lower extremities. These are the bones for our appendages or limbs and along with the muscles attached to them, they are responsible for body movement. The pectoral girdle consists of the clavicle and scapula bones. It functions to attach the upper extremity, or arm, to the axial skeleton by articulating with the sternum anteriorly and the vertebral column posteriorly. The bones of the upper extremity include the humerus, ulna, radius, carpus, metacarpus, and phalanges. The pelvic girdle is called the os coxae or the innominate bone or hipbone. It contains the ilium, ischium, and pubis. It articulates with the sacrum posteriorly to attach the lower extremity, or leg, to the axial skeleton. The lower extremity bones include the femur, patella, tibia, fibula, tarsus, metatarsus, and phalanges. Joints Joints are formed when two or more bones meet. This is also referred to as an articulation. There are three types of joints based on the amount of movement allowed between the bones: synovial joints, cartilaginous joints, and fibrous joints. Most joints are freely moving synovial joints, which are enclosed by an elastic joint capsule. The joint capsule is lined with synovial membrane, which secretes synovial fluid to lubricate the joint. As noted earlier, the ends of bones in a synovial joint are covered by a layer of articular cartilage. Cartilage is very tough, but still flexible. It withstands high levels of stress to act as a shock absorber for the joint and prevents bone from rubbing against bone. Cartilage is found in several other areas of the body, such as the nasal septum, external ear, eustachian tube, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and intervertebral disks. Example of synovial joint is the ball-and-socket joint found at the shoulder and hip. The ball rotating in the socket allows for a wide range of motion. Bands of strong connective tissue called ligaments bind bones together at the joint. Some synovial joints contain a bursa, which is a saclike structure composed of connective tissue and lined with synovial membrane. Most commonly found between bones and ligaments or tendons, bursas function to reduce friction. Some common bursa locations are the elbow, knee, and shoulder joints. Not all joints are freely moving. Fibrous joints allow almost no movement since the ends of the bones are jointed by thick fibrous tissue, which may even fuse into solid bone. The sutures of the skull are an example of a fibrous joint. Cartilaginous joints allow for slight movement but hold bones firmly in place by a solid piece of cartilage. An example of this type of joint is the public symphysis, the point at which the left and right public bones meet in the front of the lower abdomen. chiropractic healthcare profession, spine and musculoskeletal system with intention of affection nervous system and improving health orthopedics branch of medicine, musculoskeletal system, aka orthopedic surgery, physician is an orthopedist or orthopedic surgeon. orthotics healthcare profession, orthopedic appliances such as braces and splints, orthotist podiatry healthcare profession, disorders of feet and lower legs, podiatrist prosthetics healthcare profession, artificial body parts, prosthetist arthralgia joint pain bursitis inflammation of a bursa callus the mass of bone tissue that forms at a fracture site during its healing condromalacia softening of the cartilage crepitation noise produced by bones or cartilage rubbing together in conditions such as arthritis. Also called crepitus ostealgia bone pain synovitis inflammation of synovial membrane closed fracture fracture in which there is no open skin wound; simple fracture Colles' fracture a common type of wrist fracture comminuted fracture fracture in which bone is shattered, splintered, or crushed into many small pieces or fragments compound fracture fracture in which bone has broken through the skin (open fracture) compression fracture fracture involving loss of height of a vertebral body. may result from trauma, but in older people, esp women, it may be caused by conditions like osteoporosis fracture a broken bone greenstick fracture fracture in which there is an incomplete break; one side of bone is broken and the other side is bent. this type of fracture is commonly found in children due to their softer and more pliable bone structure impacted fracture fracture in which bone fragments are pushed into each other oblique fracture fracture at an angle to the bone pathologic fracture fracture caused by diseased or weakened bone spiral fracture fracture in which the fracture line spirals around the shaft of the bone. can be caused by a twisting injury and is often slower to heal than other types of fractures stress fracture a slight fracture caused by repetitive low-impact forces, like running, rather than a single forceful impact. transverse fracture complete fracture is straight across bone at right angles to long axis of bone chondroma tumor, usually benign, that forms in cartilage Ewing's sarcoma malignant growth found in shaft of long bones that spreads through periosteum. removal is treatment of choice because this tumor will metastasize or spread to other organs exostosis bony, outward projection from the surface of a bone; also called bone spur myeloma tumor that forms in bone marrow tissue osteochondroma tumor, usually benign, that consists of both bone and cartilage tissue osteogenic sarcoma most common type of bone cancer. usually begins in osteocytes found at ends of long bones osteomalacia softening of bones caused by deficiency of calcium. it is thought to be caused by insufficient sunlight and vitamin D in children osteopathy general term for bone disease osteoporosis decrease in bone mass producing a thinning and weakening of the bone with resulting fractures. the bone becomes more porous, especially in the spine and pelvis Paget's disease a fairly common metabolic disease of the bone from unknown causes. it usually attacks middle=aged and older adults and is characterized by bone destruction and deformity. named for sir james paget, a british surgeon rickets deficiency in calcium and vitamin D found in early childhood that results in bone deformities, esp bowed legs ankylosing spondylitis inflammatory spinal condition resembling rheumatoid arthritis and results in gradual stiffening and fusion of the vertebrae. more common in men than in women herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP) herniation of protrusion of an intervertebral disk; also called herniated disk or ruptured disk. may require surgery kyphosis abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine. also known as hunchback or humpback. QUIZ Question 1 1 / 1 point The fibrous connective tissue that wraps muscle is called: Question options: ligaments adipose fascia tendons Hide Feedback Fascia is the fibrous connective tissue that wraps muscle. Ligaments are connected to bones in the joint. Adipose is fat tissue. Tendons attach muscle to bone. Question 2 1 / 1 point Skeletal muscles are attached to bones by: Question options: tendons ligaments bursa both tendons and ligaments Hide Feedback Skeletal muscles are attached to bones by tendons. Ligaments attach bone to bone in the joints. Bursa are found in some synovial joints. Question 3 1 / 1 point Skeletal muscles may be named for all of the following except: Question options: location size depth action Hide Feedback Skeletal muscles are named for their location, size, action, origin and insertion, fiber direction, and number of attachment points. Question 4 1 / 1 point When a skeletal muscle is attached to two bones, the more movable of the bones is considered to be where the muscle ends and is called its: Question options: insertion action origin tendon Hide Feedback The insertion is where the muscle ends. The origin is where the muscle begins. The action is the type of movement the muscle produces. The tendon attaches muscle to bone. Question 5 1 / 1 point Movement away from the midline of the body is called: Question options: adduction flexion abduction circumduction Hide Feedback Movement away from the midline of the body is called abduction. Movement toward the midline of the body is called adduction. Flexion is the act of bending or being bent. Circumduction is movement in a circular direction from a central point. Question 6 1 / 1 point The opposite action from flexion is: Question options: plantar flexion extension inversion elevation Hide Feedback The opposite action from flexion is extension. The opposite action from plantar flexion is dorsiflexion. The opposite action from inversion is eversion. The opposite action from elevation is depression. Question 7 1 / 1 point Pointing the toes downward is called: Question options: plantar flexion extension depression dorsiflexion Hide Feedback Pointing toes downward is plantar flexion. Extension is movement that brings a limb into or toward a straight condition. Depression is a downward movement. Dorsiflexion is backward bending of the hand or foot. Question 8 1 / 1 point Turning the palm upward is called: Question options: pronation supination rotation circumduction Hide Feedback Turning the palm upward is called supination. Turning the palm downward is called pronation. Rotation is movement around a central axis. Circumduction is movement in a circular direction from a central point. Question 9 1 / 1 point Two bones are held together in a joint by: Question options: cartilage tendons ligaments muscles Hide Feedback Ligaments hold two bones together in a joint. Tendons attach muscle to bone. Cartilage is a flexible tissue. Question 10 1 / 1 point The shaft of a long bone is called the: Question options: periosteum epiphysis epiphyseal plate diaphysis Hide Feedback The shaft of the long bones is the diaphysis. The epiphysis is the end. The epiphyseal plate is known as the growth line. The periosteum is the outer covering of the bone. Question 11 1 / 1 point The end of a long bone is covered by: Question options: articular cartilage spongy bone periosteum red bone marrow Hide Feedback The ends of a long bone are covered by articular cartilage. The inside of the bone is spongy bone. The periosteum is the outer covering of the bone. Red bone marrow is found in spongy bone. Question 12 1 / 1 point A hollow cavity within a bone is called a: Question options: fissure fossa foramen sinus Hide Feedback A sinus is a hollow cavity within a bone. A fissure is a slit-type opening. A fossa is a shallow cavity or depression on the surface of a bone. A foramen is a smooth, round opening for nerves and blood vessels. Question 13 1 / 1 point Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? Question options: patella ischium clavicle vertebrae Hide Feedback The vertebrae are part of the axial skeleton. The patella, ischium, and clavicle are part of the appendicular skeleton. Question 14 1 / 1 point The tibia is commonly referred to as the: Question options: shin bone ankle bone hip bone knee cap Hide Feedback The tibia is commonly called the shin bone. The tarsals are the ankle bones. The hip bones are the os coxae. The knee cap is known as the patella. Question 15 1 / 1 point The clavicle is commonly referred to as the: Question options: shoulder blade breast bone collar bone wrist Hide Feedback The collar bone is the clavicle. The shoulder blade is the scapula. The breast bone is the sternum. The bones of the wrist are the carpals. Question 16 1 / 1 point The anatomical name of the knee cap is the: Question options: fibula patella phalanges tarsals Hide Feedback The common name for the patella is the knee cap. Question 17 1 / 1 point Which of the following is the name for freely moving joints? Question options: osseous cartilaginous synovial fibrous Hide Feedback Synovial joints are freely moving joints. Osseus describes bone. Cartilaginous joints allow for slight movement. Fibrous joints allow almost no movement. Question 18 1 / 1 point Braces or splints used to prevent or correct deformities are called: Question options: prosthetics orthotics orthopedics podiatrics Hide Feedback Orthotics are braces or splints used to correct deformities. Prosthetics is the healthcare profession specializing in making artificial body parts. Orthopedics is a branch of medicine specializing in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions of the musculoskeletal system. Podiatry, not podiatrics, is the healthcare profession specializing in diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the feet and lower legs. Question 19 1 / 1 point The medical term for humpback is: Question options: exostosis scoliosis kyphosis lordosis Hide Feedback Kyphosis is the medical term for humpback. Lordosis is the medical term for swayback. Exostosis is the medical term for a bone spur. Scoliosis is the abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. Question 20 1 / 1 point Which term means that the fracture is protruding through an open skin wound? Question options: simple fracture compression fracture pathologic fracture compound fracture Hide Feedback A compound fracture means the skin is open. A simple fracture means the skin is closed. A compression fracture involves a loss of height of a vertebral body. A pathologic fracture is a fracture caused by diseased or weakened bone. Question 21 1 / 1 point Which type of fracture occurs because the bone is diseased or weakened? Question options: stress fracture pathologic fracture spiral fracture oblique fracture Hide Feedback A pathologic fracture occurs when the bone is diseased or weakened. A stress fracture is caused by repetitive low-impact forces. A spiral fracture is caused by a twisting injury. An oblique fracture is at an angle. Question 22 1 / 1 point In which type of fracture is the bone shattered? Question options: greenstick fracture Colles' fracture comminuted fracture pathologic fracture Hide Feedback A comminuted fracture is a fracture in which the bone is shattered, splintered, or crushed into many small pieces or fragments. A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which there is an incomplete break. A Colles' fracture is a common type of wrist fracture. A pathologic fracture occurs from diseased or weakened bone. Question 23 1 / 1 point ________ is a decrease in bone mass that results in thinning and weakening of the bone. Question options: Osteomalacia Exostosis Osteoporosis Paget's disease Hide Feedback Osteoporosis is a decrease in bone mass that results in thinning and weakening of the bone. Osteomalacia is bone softening. Exostosis is a bone spur. Paget's disease is a metabolic disease. Question 24 1 / 1 point An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called: Question options: lordosis exostosis scoliosis kyphosis Hide Feedback Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. Lordosis is an abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine. Exostosis is a bone spur. Kyphosis is an abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine. Question 25 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures is useful in identifying a herniated nucleus pulposus? Question options: dual-energy absorptiometry myelography bone scan arthrography Hide Feedback Myelography is the study of the spinal column after injecting opaque contrast material; it is particularly useful in identifying a herniated nucleus pulposus disk pinching a spinal nerve. A dual-energy absorptiometry is a measurement of bone density using a low-dose X-ray for the purpose of detecting osteoporosis. A bone scan is a nuclear medicine procedure especially useful in identifying stress fractures, observing progress of treatment for osteomyelitis, and locating cancer metastases in the bone. An arthrography is a visualization of a joint by radiographic study after injection of a contrast medium into the joint space. Question 26 1 / 1 point Which procedure examines the inside of a joint? Question options: arthroplasty arthrotomy arthrocentesis arthroscopy Hide Feedback Arthroscopy examines the inside of a joint. Arthroplasty is the surgical repair of a joint. Arthrotomy is an incision into a joint. Arthrocentesis is a puncture to withdraw fluid from a joint. Question 27 1 / 1 point Surgery performed to realign bone fragments is called a(n): Question options: open reduction external fixation traction internal fixation Hide Feedback An open reduction is a surgery to realign bone fragments. External fixation includes casts, splints, and pins inserted through the skin. Traction is applying a force on a fracture or dislocated limb or the vertebral column in order to restore normal alignment. Internal fixation includes pins, plates, rods, screws, and wires applied during an open reduction. Question 28 1 / 1 point Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure? Question options: TKA LE RA FX Hide Feedback TKA stands for total knee arthroplasty, which is a surgical procedure. LE stands for lower extremity, the leg. RA stands for rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disease. FX stands for a fracture. Question 29 1 / 1 point Intermittent claudication is: Question options: severe neck spasms wasting muscles severe leg pain when walking very short distances a type of muscular dystrophy Hide Feedback Intermittent claudication is severe leg pain when walking very short distances. Torticollis is severe neck spasms. Atrophy is wasting muscles. Pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy is a type of muscular dystrophy. Question 30 1 / 1 point Which of the following conditions is caused by overuse or overstretching? Question options: strain muscular dystrophy ganglion cyst fibromyalgia Hide Feedback A strain is caused by overuse or overstretching. Muscular dystrophy is an inherited disease. A ganglion cyst is a cyst that forms on a tendon sheath. Fibromyalgia is a condition with widespread aching and pain in the muscles and soft tissue. Question 31 1 / 1 point Which of the following bones are the fingers? Question options: tarsals scapulae metacarpals phalanges Hide Feedback The phalanges are bones of the fingers. The tarsals are bones of the ankles. The scapulae are the shoulder blades. Metacarpals are the bones of the hands. Question 32 1 / 1 point Which of the following bones is the shoulder blade? Question options: scapula carpal clavicle fibula Hide Feedback The scapula is the shoulder blade. A carpal is a wrist bone. The clavicle is the collar bone. The fibula is a leg bone. Question 33 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms is misspelled? Question options: mandibuler humeral femoral clavicular Hide Feedback Mandibuler should be spelled mandibular. The other terms are spelled correctly. Question 34 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms is misspelled? Question options: maxillary coccygeal metacarpel thoracic Hide Feedback Metacarpel should be spelled metacarpal. The other terms are spelled correctly. Question 35 1 / 1 point Which of the following involves obtaining fluid from a joint in order to examine it to make a diagnosis? Question options: arthroscopy arthroclasia arthrotomy arthrocentesis Hide Feedback An arthrocentesis is withdrawing fluid from a joint. An arthroscopy is visually examining the inside of a joint. Arthroclasia is surgically breaking a joint. An arthrotomy is an incision into a joint. Question 36 1 / 1 point Widespread aching and pain in the muscles and soft tissue is called: Question options: carpal tunnel syndrome fibromyalgia repetitive motion disorder polymyositis Hide Feedback Fibromyalgia is widespread aching and pain in the muscles and soft tissue. Carpal tunnel syndrome is pain in the wrist and hand. Repetitive motion disorder is a disorder of the tendon, muscle, and joint. Polymyositis is an inflammation of multiple muscles. Question 37 1 / 1 point Which of the following abbreviations is a record of the strength and quality of muscle contractions? Question options: ORIF DTR EEG EMG Hide Feedback EMG stands for electromyogram, which is a record of the strength and quality of muscle contractions. ORIF stands for open reduction and internal fixation, a surgical procedure to realign bone fragments. DTR stands for deep tendon reflexes. EEG stands for electroencephalography, recording electrical activity of the brain. Question 38 1 / 1 point Which of the following type of muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs? Question options: skeletal voluntary visceral cardiac Hide Feedback Visceral muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs. Skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle and is attached to bones. Cardiac muscle is found in the heart. Question 39 1 / 1 point Applying a pulling force on a fracture in order to restore normal alignment is called: Question options: traction fixation fusion arthroplasty Hide Feedback Traction is applying a pulling force on a fracture. Fixation is a procedure to stabilize a fractured bone while it heals. A fusion is immobilizing adjacent bones. An arthroplasty is a surgical repair of a joint. Question 40 1 / 1 point Which diagnostic imaging procedure uses a radioactive dye to produce an image? Question options: myelography bone scan arthroscopy absorptiometry Hide Feedback A bone scan uses a radioactive dye to produce an image. A myelography is the study of the spinal column after injecting an opaque contrast material. An arthroscopy is the visualization of the inside of a joint. An (dual-energy) absorptiometry is a measurement of bone density using a low-dose X-ray. duct/o to bring extens/o to stretch out fasci/o fibrous band fibr/o fibers flex/o to bend kinesi/o movement muscul/o muscle my/o muscle myos/o muscle plant/o sole of foot rotat/o to revolve ten/o tendon tend/o tendon tendin/o tendon vers/o to turn -asthenia weakness -ion action -kinesia movement -tonia tone -trophic pertaining to development ab- away from ad- toward circum- around e- outward epi- above hyper- excessive hypo- insufficient poly- many pseudo- false Quiz Chapter 4 Question 1 1 / 1 point The fibrous connective tissue that wraps muscle is called: Question options: ligaments adipose fascia tendons Hide Feedback Fascia is the fibrous connective tissue that wraps muscle. Ligaments are connected to bones in the joint. Adipose is fat tissue. Tendons attach muscle to bone. Question 2 1 / 1 point Skeletal muscles are attached to bones by: Question options: tendons ligaments bursa both tendons and ligaments Hide Feedback Skeletal muscles are attached to bones by tendons. Ligaments attach bone to bone in the joints. Bursa are found in some synovial joints. Question 3 1 / 1 point Skeletal muscles may be named for all of the following except: Question options: location size depth action Hide Feedback Skeletal muscles are named for their location, size, action, origin and insertion, fiber direction, and number of attachment points. Question 4 1 / 1 point When a skeletal muscle is attached to two bones, the more movable of the bones is considered to be where the muscle ends and is called its: Question options: insertion action origin tendon Hide Feedback The insertion is where the muscle ends. The origin is where the muscle begins. The action is the type of movement the muscle produces. The tendon attaches muscle to bone. Question 5 1 / 1 point Movement away from the midline of the body is called: Question options: adduction flexion abduction circumduction Hide Feedback Movement away from the midline of the body is called abduction. Movement toward the midline of the body is called adduction. Flexion is the act of bending or being bent. Circumduction is movement in a circular direction from a central point. Question 6 1 / 1 point The opposite action from flexion is: Question options: plantar flexion extension inversion elevation Hide Feedback The opposite action from flexion is extension. The opposite action from plantar flexion is dorsiflexion. The opposite action from inversion is eversion. The opposite action from elevation is depression. Question 7 1 / 1 point Pointing the toes downward is called: Question options: plantar flexion extension depression dorsiflexion Hide Feedback Pointing toes downward is plantar flexion. Extension is movement that brings a limb into or toward a straight condition. Depression is a downward movement. Dorsiflexion is backward bending of the hand or foot. Question 8 1 / 1 point Turning the palm upward is called: Question options: pronation supination rotation circumduction Hide Feedback Turning the palm upward is called supination. Turning the palm downward is called pronation. Rotation is movement around a central axis. Circumduction is movement in a circular direction from a central point. Question 9 1 / 1 point Two bones are held together in a joint by: Question options: cartilage tendons ligaments muscles Hide Feedback Ligaments hold two bones together in a joint. Tendons attach muscle to bone. Cartilage is a flexible tissue. Question 10 1 / 1 point The shaft of a long bone is called the: Question options: periosteum epiphysis epiphyseal plate diaphysis Hide Feedback The shaft of the long bones is the diaphysis. The epiphysis is the end. The epiphyseal plate is known as the growth line. The periosteum is the outer covering of the bone. Question 11 1 / 1 point The end of a long bone is covered by: Question options: articular cartilage spongy bone periosteum red bone marrow Hide Feedback The ends of a long bone are covered by articular cartilage. The inside of the bone is spongy bone. The periosteum is the outer covering of the bone. Red bone marrow is found in spongy bone. Question 12 1 / 1 point A hollow cavity within a bone is called a: Question options: fissure fossa foramen sinus Hide Feedback A sinus is a hollow cavity within a bone. A fissure is a slit-type opening. A fossa is a shallow cavity or depression on the surface of a bone. A foramen is a smooth, round opening for nerves and blood vessels. Question 13 1 / 1 point Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? Question options: patella ischium clavicle vertebrae Hide Feedback The vertebrae are part of the axial skeleton. The patella, ischium, and clavicle are part of the appendicular skeleton. Question 14 1 / 1 point The tibia is commonly referred to as the: Question options: shin bone ankle bone hip bone knee cap Hide Feedback The tibia is commonly called the shin bone. The tarsals are the ankle bones. The hip bones are the os coxae. The knee cap is known as the patella. Question 15 1 / 1 point The clavicle is commonly referred to as the: Question options: shoulder blade breast bone collar bone wrist Hide Feedback The collar bone is the clavicle. The shoulder blade is the scapula. The breast bone is the sternum. The bones of the wrist are the carpals. Question 16 1 / 1 point The anatomical name of the knee cap is the: Question options: fibula patella phalanges tarsals Hide Feedback The common name for the patella is the knee cap. Question 17 1 / 1 point Which of the following is the name for freely moving joints? Question options: osseous cartilaginous synovial fibrous Hide Feedback Synovial joints are freely moving joints. Osseus describes bone. Cartilaginous joints allow for slight movement. Fibrous joints allow almost no movement. Question 18 1 / 1 point Braces or splints used to prevent or correct deformities are called: Question options: prosthetics orthotics orthopedics podiatrics Hide Feedback Orthotics are braces or splints used to correct deformities. Prosthetics is the healthcare profession specializing in making artificial body parts. Orthopedics is a branch of medicine specializing in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions of the musculoskeletal system. Podiatry, not podiatrics, is the healthcare profession specializing in diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the feet and lower legs. Question 19 1 / 1 point The medical term for humpback is: Question options: exostosis scoliosis kyphosis lordosis Hide Feedback Kyphosis is the medical term for humpback. Lordosis is the medical term for swayback. Exostosis is the medical term for a bone spur. Scoliosis is the abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. Question 20 1 / 1 point Which term means that the fracture is protruding through an open skin wound? Question options: simple fracture compression fracture pathologic fracture compound fracture Hide Feedback A compound fracture means the skin is open. A simple fracture means the skin is closed. A compression fracture involves a loss of height of a vertebral body. A pathologic fracture is a fracture caused by diseased or weakened bone. Question 21 1 / 1 point Which type of fracture occurs because the bone is diseased or weakened? Question options: stress fracture pathologic fracture spiral fracture oblique fracture Hide Feedback A pathologic fracture occurs when the bone is diseased or weakened. A stress fracture is caused by repetitive low-impact forces. A spiral fracture is caused by a twisting injury. An oblique fracture is at an angle. Question 22 1 / 1 point In which type of fracture is the bone shattered? Question options: greenstick fracture Colles' fracture comminuted fracture pathologic fracture Hide Feedback A comminuted fracture is a fracture in which the bone is shattered, splintered, or crushed into many small pieces or fragments. A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which there is an incomplete break. A Colles' fracture is a common type of wrist fracture. A pathologic fracture occurs from diseased or weakened bone. Question 23 1 / 1 point ________ is a decrease in bone mass that results in thinning and weakening of the bone. Question options: Osteomalacia Exostosis Osteoporosis Paget's disease Hide Feedback Osteoporosis is a decrease in bone mass that results in thinning and weakening of the bone. Osteomalacia is bone softening. Exostosis is a bone spur. Paget's disease is a metabolic disease. Question 24 1 / 1 point An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called: Question options: lordosis exostosis scoliosis kyphosis Hide Feedback Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. Lordosis is an abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine. Exostosis is a bone spur. Kyphosis is an abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine. Question 25 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic procedures is useful in identifying a herniated nucleus pulposus? Question options: dual-energy absorptiometry myelography bone scan arthrography Hide Feedback Myelography is the study of the spinal column after injecting opaque contrast material; it is particularly useful in identifying a herniated nucleus pulposus disk pinching a spinal nerve. A dual-energy absorptiometry is a measurement of bone density using a low-dose X-ray for the purpose of detecting osteoporosis. A bone scan is a nuclear medicine procedure especially useful in identifying stress fractures, observing progress of treatment for osteomyelitis, and locating cancer metastases in the bone. An arthrography is a visualization of a joint by radiographic study after injection of a contrast medium into the joint space. Question 26 1 / 1 point Which procedure examines the inside of a joint? Question options: arthroplasty arthrotomy arthrocentesis arthroscopy Hide Feedback Arthroscopy examines the inside of a joint. Arthroplasty is the surgical repair of a joint. Arthrotomy is an incision into a joint. Arthrocentesis is a puncture to withdraw fluid from a joint. Question 27 1 / 1 point Surgery performed to realign bone fragments is called a(n): Question options: open reduction external fixation traction internal fixation Hide Feedback An open reduction is a surgery to realign bone fragments. External fixation includes casts, splints, and pins inserted through the skin. Traction is applying a force on a fracture or dislocated limb or the vertebral column in order to restore normal alignment. Internal fixation includes pins, plates, rods, screws, and wires applied during an open reduction. Question 28 1 / 1 point Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure? Question options: TKA LE RA FX Hide Feedback TKA stands for total knee arthroplasty, which is a surgical procedure. LE stands for lower extremity, the leg. RA stands for rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disease. FX stands for a fracture. Question 29 1 / 1 point Intermittent claudication is: Question options: severe neck spasms wasting muscles severe leg pain when walking very short distances a type of muscular dystrophy Hide Feedback Intermittent claudication is severe leg pain when walking very short distances. Torticollis is severe neck spasms. Atrophy is wasting muscles. Pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy is a type of muscular dystrophy. Question 30 1 / 1 point Which of the following conditions is caused by overuse or overstretching? Question options: strain muscular dystrophy ganglion cyst fibromyalgia Hide Feedback A strain is caused by overuse or overstretching. Muscular dystrophy is an inherited disease. A ganglion cyst is a cyst that forms on a tendon sheath. Fibromyalgia is a condition with widespread aching and pain in the muscles and soft tissue. Question 31 1 / 1 point Which of the following bones are the fingers? Question options: tarsals scapulae metacarpals phalanges Hide Feedback The phalanges are bones of the fingers. The tarsals are bones of the ankles. The scapulae are the shoulder blades. Metacarpals are the bones of the hands. Question 32 1 / 1 point Which of the following bones is the shoulder blade? Question options: scapula carpal clavicle fibula Hide Feedback The scapula is the shoulder blade. A carpal is a wrist bone. The clavicle is the collar bone. The fibula is a leg bone. Question 33 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms is misspelled? Question options: mandibuler humeral femoral clavicular Hide Feedback Mandibuler should be spelled mandibular. The other terms are spelled correctly. Question 34 1 / 1 point Which of the following terms is misspelled? Question options: maxillary coccygeal metacarpel thoracic Hide Feedback Metacarpel should be spelled metacarpal. The other terms are spelled correctly. Question 35 1 / 1 point Which of the following involves obtaining fluid from a joint in order to examine it to make a diagnosis? Question options: arthroscopy arthroclasia arthrotomy arthrocentesis Hide Feedback An arthrocentesis is withdrawing fluid from a joint. An arthroscopy is visually examining the inside of a joint. Arthroclasia is surgically breaking a joint. An arthrotomy is an incision into a joint. Question 36 1 / 1 point Widespread aching and pain in the muscles and soft tissue is called: Question options: carpal tunnel syndrome fibromyalgia repetitive motion disorder polymyositis Hide Feedback Fibromyalgia is widespread aching and pain in the muscles and soft tissue. Carpal tunnel syndrome is pain in the wrist and hand. Repetitive motion disorder is a disorder of the tendon, muscle, and joint. Polymyositis is an inflammation of multiple muscles. Question 37 1 / 1 point Which of the following abbreviations is a record of the strength and quality of muscle contractions? Question options: ORIF DTR EEG EMG Hide Feedback EMG stands for electromyogram, which is a record of the strength and quality of muscle contractions. ORIF stands for open reduction and internal fixation, a surgical procedure to realign bone fragments. DTR stands for deep tendon reflexes. EEG stands for electroencephalography, recording electrical activity of the brain. Question 38 1 / 1 point Which of the following type of muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs? Question options: skeletal voluntary visceral cardiac Hide Feedback Visceral muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs. Skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle and is attached to bones. Cardiac muscle is found in the heart. Question 39 1 / 1 point Applying a pulling force on a fracture in order to restore normal alignment is called: Question options: traction fixation fusion arthroplasty Hide Feedback Traction is applying a pulling force on a fracture. Fixation is a procedure to stabilize a fractured bone while it heals. A fusion is immobilizing adjacent bones. An arthroplasty is a surgical repair of a joint. Question 40 1 / 1 point Which diagnostic imaging procedure uses a radioactive dye to produce an image? Question options: myelography bone scan arthroscopy absorptiometry Hide Feedback A bone scan uses a radioactive dye to produce an image. A myelography is the study of the spinal column after injecting an opaque contrast material. An arthroscopy is the visualization of the inside of a joint. An (dual-energy) absorptiometry is a measurement of bone density using a low-dose X-ray.