Med/Surg Exam #5 ch28-34
A nurse is writing the care plan of a patient who has been diagnosed with myelofibrosis. What nursing diagnoses should the nurse address? Select all that apply. A) Disturbed Body Image B) Impaired Mobility C) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements D) Acute Confusion E) Risk for Infection
A) Disturbed Body Image B) Impaired Mobility C) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements E) Risk for Infection Ans: A, B, C, E Feedback: The profound splenomegaly that accompanies myelofibrosis can impact the patients body image and mobility. As well, nutritional deficits are common and the patient is at risk for infection. Cognitive effects are less common.
A patient has been diagnosed with a lymphoid stem cell defect. This patient has the potential for a problem involving which of the following? A) Plasma cells B) Neutrophils C) Red blood cells D) Platelets
A) Plasma cells Ans: A Feedback: A defect in a myeloid stem cell can cause problems with erythrocyte, leukocyte, and platelet production. In contrast, a defect in the lymphoid stem cell can cause problems with T or B lymphocytes, plasma cells (a more differentiated form of B lymphocyte), or natural killer (NK) cells.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with pernicious anemia. The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications? A) Folic acid B) Vitamin B12 C) Lactulose D) Magnesium sulfate
B) Vitamin B12 Ans: B Feedback: Pernicious anemia is characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency. Magnesium sulfate, lactulose, and folic acid do not address the pathology of this type of anemia.
During a mumps outbreak at a local school, a patient, who is a school teacher, is exposed. She has previously been immunized for mumps. What type of immunity does she possess? A) Acquired immunity B) Natural immunity C) Phagocytic immunity D) Humoral immunity
A) Acquired immunity Ans: A Feedback: Acquired immunity usually develops as a result of prior exposure to an antigen, often through immunization. When the body is attacked by bacteria, viruses, or other pathogens, it has three means of defense. The first line of defense, the phagocytic immune response, involves the WBCs that have the ability to ingest foreign particles. A second protective response is the humoral immune response, which begins when the B lymphocytes transform themselves into plasma cells that manufacture antibodies. The natural immune response system is rapid, nonspecific immunity present at birth.
The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of platelets to an adult patient. When administering this blood product, which of the following actions should the nurse perform? A) Administer the platelets as rapidly as the patient can tolerate. B) Establish IV access as soon as the platelets arrive from the blood bank. C) Ensure that the patient has a patent central venous catheter. D) Aspirate 10 to 15 mL of blood from the patients IV immediately following the transfusion.
A) Administer the platelets as rapidly as the patient can tolerate. Ans: A Feedback: The nurse should infuse each unit of platelets as fast as patient can tolerate to diminish platelet clumping during administration. IV access should be established prior to obtaining the platelets from the blood bank. A central line is appropriate for administration, but peripheral IV access (22-gauge or larger) is sufficient. There is no need to aspirate after the transfusion.
An infection control nurse is presenting an inservice reviewing the immune response. The nurse describes the clumping effect that occurs when an antibody acts like a cross-link between two antigens. What process is the nurse explaining? A) Agglutination B) Cellular immune response C) Humoral response D) Phagocytic immune response
A) Agglutination Ans: A Feedback: Agglutination refers to the clumping effect occurring when an antibody acts as a cross-link between two antigens. This takes place within the context of the humoral immune response, but is not synonymous with it. Cellular immune response, the immune systems third line of defense, involves the attack of pathogens by T-cells. The phagocytic immune response, or immune response, is the systems first line of defense, involving white blood cells that have the ability to ingest foreign particles.
A patient with leukemia has developed stomatitis and is experiencing a nutritional deficit. An oral anesthetic has consequently been prescribed. What health education should the nurse provide to the patient? A) Chew with care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue. B) Use the oral anesthetic 1 hour prior to meal time. C) Brush teeth before and after eating. D) Swallow slowly and deliberately.
A) Chew with care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue. Ans: A Feedback: If oral anesthetics are used, the patient must be warned to chew with extreme care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue or buccal mucosa. An oral anesthetic would be metabolized by the time the patient eats if it is used 1 hour prior to meals. There is no specific need to warn the patient about brushing teeth or swallowing slowly because an oral anesthetic has been used.
A nurse is caring for a patient with Hodgkin lymphoma at the oncology clinic. The nurse should be aware of what main goal of care? A) Cure of the disease B) Enhancing quality of life C) Controlling symptoms D) Palliation
A) Cure of the disease Ans: A Feedback: The goal in the treatment of Hodgkin lymphoma is cure. Palliation is thus not normally necessary. Quality of life and symptom control are vital, but the overarching goal is the cure the disease.
An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patients most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance? A) Hypercalcemia B) Hyperproteinemia C) Elevated serum viscosity D) Elevated RBC count
A) Hypercalcemia Ans: A Feedback: Hypercalcemia may result when bone destruction occurs due to the disease process. Elevated serum viscosity occurs because plasma cells excrete excess immunoglobulin. RBC count will be decreased. Hyperproteinemia would not be present.
A patient with a history of dermatitis takes corticosteroids on a regular basis. The nurse should assess the patient for which of the following complications of therapy? A) Immunosuppression B) Agranulocytosis C) Anemia D) Thrombocytopenia
A) Immunosuppression Ans: A Feedback: Corticosteroids such as prednisone can cause immunosuppression. Corticosteroids do not typically cause agranulocytosis, anemia, or low platelet counts.
Through the process of hematopoiesis, stem cells differentiate into either myeloid or lymphoid stem cells. Into what do myeloid stem cells further differentiate? Select all that apply. A) Leukocytes B) Natural killer cells C) Cytokines D) Platelets E) Erythrocytes
A) Leukocytes D) Platelets E) Erythrocytes Ans: A, D, E Feedback:Myeloid stem cells differentiate into three broad cell types: erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. Natural killer cells and cytokines do not originate as myeloid stem cells.
A woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is being treated aggressively with a chemotherapeutic regimen. As a result of this regimen, she has an inability to fight infection due to the fact that her bone marrow is unable to produce a sufficient amount of what? A) Lymphocytes B) Cytoblasts C) Antibodies D) Capillaries
A) Lymphocytes Ans: A Feedback: The white blood cells involved in immunity (including lymphocytes) are produced in the bone marrow. Cytoblasts are the protoplasm of the cell outside the nucleus. Antibodies are produced by lymphocytes, but not in the bone marrow. Capillaries are small blood vessels.
A patients absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is 440/mm3. But the nurses assessment reveals no apparent signs or symptoms of infection. What action should the nurse prioritize when providing care for this patient? A) Meticulous hand hygiene B) Timely administration of antibiotics C) Provision of a nutrient-dense diet D) Maintaining a sterile care environment
A) Meticulous hand hygiene Ans: A Feedback: Providing care for a patient with neutropenia requires that the nurse adhere closely to standard precautions and infection control procedures. Hand hygiene is central to such efforts. Prophylactic antibiotics are rarely used and it is not possible to provide a sterile environment for care. Nutrition is highly beneficial, but hand hygiene is the central aspect of care.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute leukemia. What assessment most directly addresses the most common cause of death among patients with leukemia? A) Monitoring for infection B) Monitoring nutritional status C) Monitor electrolyte levels D) Monitoring liver function
A) Monitoring for infection Ans: A Feedback: In patients with acute leukemia, death typically occurs from infection or bleeding. Compromised nutrition, electrolyte imbalances, and impaired liver function are all plausible, but none is among the most common causes of death in this patient population.
An oncology nurse recognizes a patients risk for fluid imbalance while the patient is undergoing treatment for leukemia. What relevant assessments should the nurse include in the patients plan of care? Select all that apply. A) Monitoring the patients electrolyte levels B) Monitoring the patients hepatic function C) Measuring the patients weight on a daily basis D) Measuring and recording the patients intake and output E) Auscultating the patients lungs frequently
A) Monitoring the patients electrolyte levels C) Measuring the patients weight on a daily basis D) Measuring and recording the patients intake and output E) Auscultating the patients lungs frequently Ans: A, C, D, E Feedback: Assessments that relate to fluid balance include monitoring the patients electrolytes, auscultating the patients chest for adventitious sounds, weighing the patient daily, and closely monitoring intake and output. Liver function is not directly relevant to the patients fluid status in most cases.
A nurse is caring for a patient with severe anemia. The patient is tachycardic and complains of dizziness and exertional dyspnea. The nurse knows that in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue, the workload on the heart is increased. What signs and symptoms might develop if this patient goes into heart failure? A) Peripheral edema B) Nausea and vomiting C) Migraine D) Fever
A) Peripheral edema Ans: A Feedback: Cardiac status should be carefully assessed in patients with anemia. When the hemoglobin level is low, the heart attempts to compensate by pumping faster and harder in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue. This increased cardiac workload can result in such symptoms as tachycardia, palpitations, dyspnea, dizziness, orthopnea, and exertional dyspnea. Heart failure may eventually develop, as evidenced by an enlarged heart (cardiomegaly) and liver (hepatomegaly), and by peripheral edema. Nausea, migraine, and fever are not associated with heart failure.
A patient with a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is being treated with induction therapy on the oncology unit. What nursing action should be prioritized in the patients care plan? A) Protective isolation and vigilant use of standard precautions B) Provision of a high-calorie, low-texture diet and appropriate oral hygiene C) Including the family in planning the patients activities of daily living D) Monitoring and treating the patients pain
A) Protective isolation and vigilant use of standard precautions Ans: A Feedback: Induction therapy causes neutropenia and a severe risk of infection. This risk must be addressed directly in order to ensure the patients survival. For this reason, infection control would be prioritized over nutritional interventions, family care, and pain, even though each of these are important aspects of nursing care.
An oncology nurse is providing health education for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with leukemia. What should the nurse explain about commonalities between all of the different subtypes of leukemia? A) The different leukemias all involve unregulated proliferation of white blood cells. B) The different leukemias all have unregulated proliferation of red blood cells and decreased bone marrow function. C) The different leukemias all result in a decrease in the production of white blood cells. D) The different leukemias all involve the development of cancer in the lymphatic system.
A) The different leukemias all involve unregulated proliferation of white blood cells. Ans: A Feedback: Leukemia commonly involves unregulated proliferation of white blood cells. Decreased production of red blood cells is associated with anemias. Decreased production of white blood cells is associated with leukopenia. The leukemias are not characterized by their involvement with the lymphatic system.
A patient with renal failure has decreased erythropoietin production. Upon analysis of the patients complete blood count, the nurse will expect which of the following results? A) An increased hemoglobin and decreased hematocrit B) A decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit C) A decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and red cell distribution width (RDW) D) An increased MCV and RDW
B) A decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit Ans: B Feedback: The decreased production of erythropoietin will result in a decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit. The patient will have normal MCV and RDW because the erythrocytes are normal in appearance.
A nurse has administered a childs scheduled vaccination for rubella. This vaccination will cause the child to develop which of the following? A) Natural immunity B) Active acquired immunity C) Cellular immunity D) Mild hypersensitivity
B) Active acquired immunity Ans: B Feedback: Active acquired immunity usually develops as a result of vaccination or contracting a disease. Natural immunity is present at birth and provides a nonspecific response to any foreign invader. Immunizations do not activate the process of cellular immunity. Hypersensitivity is not an expected outcome of immunization.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurses most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoses on the patients sacral area and petechiae in her forearms. In addition to informing the patients primary care provider, the nurse should perform what action? A) Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE). B) Check the patients most recent platelet level. C) Place the patient on protective isolation. D) Ambulate the patient to promote circulatory function.
B) Check the patients most recent platelet level. Ans: B Feedback: The patients signs are suggestive of thrombocytopenia, thus the nurse should check the patients most recent platelet level. VTE is not a risk and this does not constitute a need for isolation. Ambulation and activity may be contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding.
A patient has a diagnosis of multiple myeloma and the nurse is preparing health education in preparation for discharge from the hospital. What action should the nurse promote? A) Daily performance of weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy B) Close monitoring of urine output and kidney function C) Daily administration of warfarin (Coumadin) as ordered D) Safe use of supplementary oxygen in the home setting
B) Close monitoring of urine output and kidney function Ans: B Feedback: Renal function must be monitored closely in the patient with multiple myeloma. Excessive weightbearing can cause pathologic fractures. There is no direct indication for anticoagulation or supplementary oxygen.
A patient is undergoing testing to determine the overall function of her immune system. What test can be performed to evaluate the functioning of the patients cellular immune system? A) Immunoglobulin testing B) Delayed hypersensitivity skin test C) Specific antibody response D) Total serum globulin assessment
B) Delayed hypersensitivity skin test Ans: B Feedback: Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity tests include the delayed hypersensitivity skin test, since this immune response is specifically dependent on the cellular immune response. Each of the other listed tests assesses functioning of the humoral immune system.
A patient on the medical unit is receiving a unit of PRBCs. Difficult IV access has necessitated a slow infusion rate and the nurse notes that the infusion began 4 hours ago. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Apply an icepack to the blood that remains to be infused. B) Discontinue the remainder of the PRBC transfusion and inform the physician. C) Disconnect the bag of PRBCs, cool for 30 minutes and then administer. D) Administer the remaining PRBCs by the IV direct (IV push) route
B) Discontinue the remainder of the PRBC transfusion and inform the physician. Ans: B Feedback: Because of the risk of infection, a PRBC transfusion should not exceed 4 hours. Remaining blood should not be transfused, even if it is cooled. Blood is not administered by the IV direct route.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has sickle cell anemia and the nurses assessment reveals the possibility of substance abuse. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Encourage the patient to rely on complementary and alternative therapies. B) Encourage the patient to seek care from a single provider for pain relief. C) Teach the patient to accept chronic pain as an inevitable aspect of the disease. D) Limit the reporting of emergency department visits to the primary health care provider.
B) Encourage the patient to seek care from a single provider for pain relief. Ans: B Feedback: The patient should be encouraged to use a single primary health care provider to address health care concerns. Emergency department visits should be reported to the primary health care provider to achieve optimal management of the disease. It would inappropriate to teach the patient to simply accept his or her pain.
A patient with poorly controlled diabetes has developed end-stage renal failure and consequent anemia. When reviewing this patients treatment plan, the nurse should anticipate the use of what drug? A) Magnesium sulfate B) Epoetin alfa C) Low-molecular weight heparin D) Vitamin K
B) Epoetin alfa Ans: B Feedback: The availability of recombinant erythropoietin (epoetin alfa [Epogen, Procrit], darbepoetin alfa [Aranesp]) has dramatically altered the management of anemia in end-stage renal disease. Heparin, vitamin K, and magnesium are not indicated in the treatment of renal failure or the consequent anemia.
An older adult patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). What assessment finding is certain to be present if the patient has CLL? A) Increased numbers of blast cells B) Increased lymphocyte levels C) Intractable bone pain D) Thrombocytopenia with no evidence of bleeding
B) Increased lymphocyte levels Ans: B Feedback: An increased lymphocyte count (lymphocytosis) is always present in patients with CLL. Each of the other listed symptoms may or may not be present, and none is definitive for CLL.
A patients blood work reveals a platelet level of 17,000/mm3. When inspecting the patients integumentary system, what finding would be most consistent with this platelet level? A) Dermatitis B) Petechiae C) Urticaria D) Alopecia
B) Petechiae Ans: B Feedback: When the platelet count drops to less than 20,000/mm3, petechiae can appear. Low platelet levels do not normally result in dermatitis, urticaria (hives), or alopecia (hair loss).
A patient is admitted with cellulitis and experiences a consequent increase in white blood cell count. The nurse is aware that during the immune response, pathogens are engulfed by white blood cells that ingest foreign particles. What is this process known as? A) Apoptosis B) Phagocytosis C) Antibody response D) Cellular immune response
B) Phagocytosis Ans: B Feedback: During the first mechanism of defense, white blood cells, which have the ability to ingest foreign particles, move to the point of attack, where they engulf and destroy the invading agents. This is known as phagocytosis. The action described is not apoptosis (programmed cell death) or an antibody response. Phagocytosis occurs in the context of the cellular immune response, but it does not constitute the entire cellular response.
An individual has accidentally cut his hand, immediately initiating the process of hemostasis. Following vasoconstriction, what event in the process of hemostasis will take place? A) Fibrin will be activated at the bleeding site. B) Platelets will aggregate at the injury site. C) Thromboplastin will form a clot. D) Prothrombin will be converted to thrombin.
B) Platelets will aggregate at the injury site. Ans: B Feedback: Following vasoconstriction, circulating platelets aggregate at the site and adhere to the vessel and to one another, forming an unstable hemostatic plug. Events involved in the clotting cascade take place subsequent to this initial platelet action.
A patient undergoing a hip replacement has autologous blood on standby if a transfusion is needed. What is the primary advantage of autologous transfusions? A) Safe transfusion for patients with a history of transfusion reactions B) Prevention of viral infections from another persons blood C) Avoidance of complications in patients with alloantibodies D) Prevention of alloimmunization
B) Prevention of viral infections from another persons blood Ans: B Feedback: The primary advantage of autologous transfusions is the prevention of viral infections from another persons blood. Other secondary advantages include safe transfusion for patients with a history of transfusion reactions, prevention of alloimmunization, and avoidance of complications in patients with alloantibodies.
An adult patients abnormal complete blood count (CBC) and physical assessment have prompted the primary care provider to order a diagnostic workup for Hodgkin lymphoma. The presence of what assessment finding is considered diagnostic of the disease? A) Schwann cells B) Reed-Sternberg cells C) Lewy bodies D) Loops of Henle
B) Reed-Sternberg cells Ans: B Feedback: The malignant cell of Hodgkin lymphoma is the Reed-Sternberg cell, a gigantic tumor cell that is morphologically unique and thought to be of immature lymphoid origin. It is the pathologic hallmark and essential diagnostic criterion. Schwann cells exist in the peripheral nervous system and Lewy bodies are markers of Parkinson disease. Loops of Henle exist in nephrons.
A nursing student is caring for a patient with acute myeloid leukemia who is preparing to undergo induction therapy. In preparing a plan of care for this patient, the student should assign the highest priority to which nursing diagnoses? A) Activity Intolerance B) Risk for Infection C) Acute Confusion D) Risk for Spiritual Distress
B) Risk for Infection Ans: B Feedback: Induction therapy places the patient at risk for infection, thus this is the priority nursing diagnosis. During the time of induction therapy, the patient is very ill, with bacterial, fungal, and occasional viral infections; bleeding and severe mucositis, which causes diarrhea; and marked decline in the ability to maintain adequate nutrition. Supportive care consists of administering blood products and promptly treating infections. Immobility, confusion, and spiritual distress are possible, but infection is the patients most acute physiologic threat.
The nurse caring for a patient receiving a transfusion notes that 15 minutes after the infusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) has begun, the patient is having difficulty breathing and complains of severe chest tightness. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take? A) Notify the patients physician. B) Stop the transfusion immediately. C) Remove the patients IV access. D) Assess the patients chest sounds and vital signs.
B) Stop the transfusion immediately. Ans: B Feedback: Vascular collapse, bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, shock, fever, chills, and jugular vein distension are severe reactions. The nurse should discontinue the transfusion immediately, monitor the patients vital signs, and notify the physician. The blood container and tubing should be sent to the blood bank. A blood and urine specimen may be needed if a transfusion reaction or a bacterial infection is suspected. The patients IV access should not be removed.
A patient is being treated in the ICU after a medical error resulted in an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. What was the etiology of this patients adverse reaction? A) Antibodies to donor leukocytes remained in the blood. B) The donor blood was incompatible with that of the patient. C) The patient had a sensitivity reaction to a plasma protein in the blood. D) The blood was infused too quickly and overwhelmed the patients circulatory system.
B) The donor blood was incompatible with that of the patient. Ans: B Feedback: An acute hemolytic reaction occurs when the donor blood is incompatible with that of the recipient. In the case of a febrile nonhemolytic reaction, antibodies to donor leukocytes remain in the unit of blood or blood component. An allergic reaction is a sensitivity reaction to a plasma protein within the blood component. Hypervolemia does not cause an acute hemolytic reaction.
A patient newly diagnosed with thrombocytopenia is admitted to the medical unit. After the admission assessment, the patient asks the nurse to explain the disease. What should the nurse explain to this patient? A) There could be an attack on the platelets by antibodies. B) There could be decreased production of platelets. C) There could be impaired communication between platelets. D) There could be an autoimmune process causing platelet malfunction.
B) There could be decreased production of platelets. Ans: B Feedback: Thrombocytopenia can result from a decreased platelet production, increased platelet destruction, or increased consumption of platelets. Impaired platelet communication, antibodies, and autoimmune processes are not typical pathologies.
A nurse is reviewing a patients medication administration record in an effort to identify drugs that may contribute to the patients recent immunosuppression. What drug is most likely to have this effect? A) An antibiotic B) A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) C) An antineoplastic D) An antiretroviral
C) An antineoplastic Ans: C Feedback: Chemotherapy affects bone marrow function, destroying cells that contribute to an effective immune response and resulting in immunosuppression. Antibiotics in large doses cause bone marrow suppression, but antineoplastic drugs have the most pronounced immunosuppressive effect. NSAIDs and antiretrovirals do not normally have this effect.
A patients low hemoglobin level has necessitated transfusion of PRBCs. Prior to administration, what action should the nurse perform? A) Have the patient identify his or her blood type in writing. B) Ensure that the patient has granted verbal consent for transfusion. C) Assess the patients vital signs to establish baselines. D) Facilitate insertion of a central venous catheter.
C) Assess the patients vital signs to establish baselines. Ans: C Feedback: Prior to a transfusion, the nurse must take the patients temperature, pulse, respiration, and BP to establish a baseline. Written consent is required and the patients blood type is determined by type and cross match, not by the patients self-declaration. Peripheral venous access is sufficient for blood transfusion.
The clinical nurse educator is presenting health promotion education to a patient who will be treated for non-Hodgkin lymphoma on an outpatient basis. The nurse should recommend which of the following actions? A) Avoiding direct sun exposure in excess of 15 minutes daily B) Avoiding grapefruit juice and fresh grapefruit C) Avoiding highly crowded public places D) Using an electric shaver rather than a razor
C) Avoiding highly crowded public places Ans: C Feedback: The risk of infection is significant for these patients, not only from treatment-related myelosuppression but also from the defective immune response that results from the disease itself. Limiting infection exposure is thus necessary. The need to avoid grapefruit is dependent on the patients medication regimen. Sun exposure and the use of razors are not necessarily contraindicated.
A patient with cystic fibrosis has received a double lung transplant and is now experiencing signs of rejection. What is the immune response that predominates in this situation? A) Humoral B) Nonspecific C) Cellular D) Mitigated
C) Cellular Ans: C Feedback: Most immune responses to antigens involve both humoral and cellular responses, although only one predominates. During transplantation rejection, the cellular response predominates over the humoral response. Neither a mitigated nor nonspecific cell response is noted in this situation.
A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patients care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk? A) Labyrinthitis B) Left ventricular hypertrophy C) Decreased bone density D) Hypercoagulation
C) Decreased bone density Ans: C Feedback: Clients with multiple myeloma are at risk for pathologic bone fractures secondary to diffuse osteoporosis and osteolytic lesions. Labyrinthitis is uncharacteristic, and patients do not normally experience hypercoagulation or cardiac hypertrophy.
A 77-year-old male is admitted to a unit with a suspected diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). When planning this patients care, the nurse should be aware of what epidemiologic fact? A) Early diagnosis is associated with good outcomes. B) Five-year survival for older adults is approximately 50%. C) Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%. D) Survival rates are wholly dependent on the patients pre-illness level of health.
C) Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%. Ans: C Feedback: The 5-year survival rate for patients with AML who are 50 years of age or younger is 43%; it drops to 19% for those between 50 and 64 years, and drops to 1.6% for those older than 75 years. Early diagnosis is beneficial, but is nonetheless not associated with good outcomes or high survival rates. Pre-illness health is significant, but not the most important variable.
A patient with a hematologic disorder asks the nurse how the body forms blood cells. The nurse should describe a process that takes place where? A) In the spleen B) In the kidneys C) In the bone marrow D) In the liver
C) In the bone marrow Ans: C Feedback: Bone marrow is the primary site for hematopoiesis. The liver and spleen may be involved during embryonic development or when marrow is destroyed. The kidneys release erythropoietin, which stimulates the marrow to increase production of red blood cells (RBCs). However, blood cells are not primarily formed in the spleen, kidneys, or liver.
The nurse is assessing a new patient with complaints of overwhelming fatigue and a sore tongue that is visibly smooth and beefy red. This patient is demonstrating signs and symptoms associated with what form of what hematologic disorder? A) Sickle cell anemia B) Hemophilia C) Megaloblastic anemia D) Thrombocytopenia
C) Megaloblastic anemia Ans: C Feedback: A red, smooth, sore tongue is a symptom associated with megaloblastic anemia. Sickle cell disease, hemophilia, and thrombocytopenia do not have symptoms involving the tongue.
An emergency department nurse is triaging a 77-year-old man who presents with uncharacteristic fatigue as well as back and rib pain. The patient denies any recent injuries. The nurse should recognize the need for this patient to be assessed for what health problem? A) Hodgkin disease B) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma C) Multiple myeloma D) Acute thrombocythemia
C) Multiple myeloma Ans: C Feedback: Back pain, which is often a presenting symptom in multiple myeloma, should be closely investigated in older patients. The lymphomas and bleeding disorders do not typically present with the primary symptom of back pain or rib pain.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, the nurse should implement what intervention? A) Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). B) Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. C) Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day. D) Assign responsibility for the patients nutrition to the patients friends and family.
C) Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day. Ans: C Feedback: For patients experiencing difficulties with oral intake, the provision of small, easily chewed meals may be beneficial. This option would be trialed before resorting to tube feeding or TPN. The family should be encouraged to participate in care, but should not be assigned full responsibility.
Fresh-frozen plasma (FFP) has been ordered for a hospital patient. Prior to administration of this blood product, the nurse should prioritize what patient education? A) Infection risks associated with FFP administration B) Physiologic functions of plasma C) Signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction D) Strategies for managing transfusion-associated anxiety
C) Signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction Ans: C Feedback: Patients should be educated about signs and symptoms of transfusion reactions prior to administration of any blood product. In most cases, this is priority over education relating to infection. Anxiety may be an issue for some patients, but transfusion reactions are a possibility for all patients. Teaching about the functions of plasma is not likely a high priority.
A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider? A) The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache. B) The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence. C) The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F). D) The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.
C) The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F). Ans: C Feedback: Because the patient with MDS is at a high risk for infection, any early signs of infection must be reported promptly. The nurse should address each of the listed assessment findings, but none is as direct a threat to the patients immediate health as an infection.
A nurse is planning the assessment of a patient who is exhibiting signs and symptoms of an autoimmune disorder. The nurse should be aware that the incidence and prevalence of autoimmune diseases is known to be higher among what group? A) Young adults B) Native Americans C) Women D) Hispanics
C) Women Ans: C Feedback: Many autoimmune diseases have a higher incidence in females than in males, a phenomenon believed to be correlated with sex hormones.
A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what? A) AML B) CML C) MDS D) ALL
D) ALL Ans: D Feedback: In acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL), manifestations of leukemic cell infiltration into other organs are more common than with other forms of leukemia, and include pain from an enlarged liver or spleen, as well as bone pain. The central nervous system is frequently a site for leukemic cells; thus, patients may exhibit headache and vomiting because of meningeal involvement. Other extranodal sites include the testes and breasts. This particular presentation is not closely associated with acute myeloid leukemia (AML), chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), or myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS).
The nurse is planning the care of a patient with a nutritional deficit and a diagnosis of megaloblastic anemia. The nurse should recognize that this patients health problem is due to what? A) Production of inadequate quantities of RBCs B) Premature release of immature RBCs C) Injury to the RBCs in circulation D) Abnormalities in the structure and function RBCs
D) Abnormalities in the structure and function RBCs Ans: D Feedback: Vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiencies are characterized by the production of abnormally large erythrocytes called megaloblasts. Because these cells are abnormal, many are sequestered (trapped) while still in the bone marrow, and their rate of release is decreased. Some of these cells actually die in the marrow before they can be released into the circulation. This results in megaloblastic anemia. This pathologic process does not involve inadequate production, premature release, or injury to existing RBCs.
Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following? A) Daily treatment with targeted therapy medications B) Radiation therapy on a daily basis C) Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation D) An aggressive course of chemotherapy
D) An aggressive course of chemotherapy Ans: D Feedback: Attempts are made to achieve remission of AML by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy, called induction therapy, which usually requires hospitalization for several weeks. Induction therapy is not synonymous with radiation, stem cell transplantation, or targeted therapies.
A nurse is reviewing the immune system before planning an immunocompromised patients care. How should the nurse characterize the humoral immune response? A) Specialized cells recognize and ingest cells that are recognized as foreign. B) T lymphocytes are assisted by cytokines to fight infection. C) Lymphocytesare stimulated to become cells that attack microbes directly. D) Antibodies are made by B lymphocytes in response to a specific antigen.
D) Antibodies are made by B lymphocytes in response to a specific antigen. Ans: D Feedback: The humoral response is characterized by the production of antibodies by B lymphocytes in response to a specific antigen. Phagocytosis and direct attack on microbes occur in the context of the cellular immune response.
A nurse is educating a patient about the role of B lymphocytes. The nurses description will include which of the following physiologic processes? A) Stem cell differentiation B) Cytokine production C) Phagocytosis D) Antibody production
D) Antibody production Ans: D Feedback: B lymphocytes are capable of differentiating into plasma cells. Plasma cells, in turn, produce antibodies. Cytokines are produced by NK cells. Stem cell differentiation greatly precedes B lymphocyte production.
A patient has been living with a diagnosis of anemia for several years and has experienced recent declines in her hemoglobin levels despite active treatment. What assessment finding would signal complications of anemia? A) Venous ulcers and visual disturbances B) Fever and signs of hyperkalemia C) Epistaxis and gastroesophageal reflux D) Ascites and peripheral edema
D) Ascites and peripheral edema Ans: D Feedback: A significant complication of anemia is heart failure from chronic diminished blood volume and the hearts compensatory effort to increase cardiac output. Patients with anemia should be assessed for signs and symptoms of heart failure, including ascites and peripheral edema. None of the other listed signs and symptoms is characteristic of heart failure.
An adult patient has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. What nursing diagnosis is most likely to apply to this patients health status? A) Risk for deficient fluid volume related to impaired erythropoiesis B) Risk for infection related to tissue hypoxia C) Acute pain related to uncontrolled hemolysis D) Fatigue related to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
D) Fatigue related to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity Ans: D Feedback: Fatigue is the major assessment finding common to all forms of anemia. Anemia does not normally result in acute pain or fluid deficit. The patient may have an increased risk of infection due to impaired immune function, but fatigue is more likely.
A home health nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize when addressing the patients severe bone pain? A) Implementing distraction techniques B) Educating the patient about the effective use of hot and cold packs C) Teaching the patient to use NSAIDs effectively D) Helping the patient manage the opioid analgesic regimen
D) Helping the patient manage the opioid analgesic regimen Ans: D Feedback: For severe pain resulting from multiple myeloma, opioids are likely necessary. NSAIDs would likely be ineffective and are associated with significant adverse effects. Hot and cold packs as well as distraction would be insufficient for severe pain.
The nurse educating a patient with anemia is describing the process of RBC production. When the patients kidneys sense a low level of oxygen in circulating blood, what physiologic response is initiated? A) Increased stem cell synthesis B) Decreased respiratory rate C) Arterial vasoconstriction D) Increased production of erythropoietin
D) Increased production of erythropoietin Ans: D Feedback: If the kidney detects low levels of oxygen, as occurs when fewer red cells are available to bind oxygen (i.e., anemia), erythropoietin levels increase. The body does not compensate with vasoconstriction, decreased respiration, or increased stem cell activity.
A patient with non-Hodgkins lymphoma is receiving information from the oncology nurse. The patient asks the nurse why she should stop drinking and smoking and stay out of the sun. What would be the nurses best response? A) Everyone should do these things because theyre health promotion activities that apply to everyone. B) You dont want to develop a second cancer, do you? C) You need to do this just to be on the safe side. D) Its important to reduce other factors that increase the risk of second cancers.
D) Its important to reduce other factors that increase the risk of second cancers. Ans: D Feedback: The nurse should encourage patients to reduce other factors that increase the risk of developing second cancers, such as use of tobacco and alcohol and exposure to environmental carcinogens and excessive sunlight. The other options do not answer the patients question, and also make light of the patients question.
A patients injury has initiated an immune response that involves inflammation. What are the first cells to arrive at a site of inflammation? A) Eosinophils B) Red blood cells C) Lymphocytes D) Neutrophils
D) Neutrophils Ans: D Feedback: Neutrophils are the first cells to arrive at the site where inflammation occurs. Eosinophils increase in number during allergic reactions and stress responses, but are not always present during inflammation. RBCs do not migrate during an immune response. Lymphocytes become active but do not migrate to the site of inflammation
A patients diagnosis of atrial fibrillation has prompted the primary care provider to prescribe warfarin (Coumadin), an anticoagulant. When assessing the therapeutic response to this medication, what is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Assess for signs of myelosuppression. B) Review the patients platelet level. C) Assess the patients capillary refill time. D) Review the patients international normalized ratio (INR).
D) Review the patients international normalized ratio (INR). Ans: D Feedback: The INR and aPTT serve as useful screening tools for evaluating a patients clotting ability and to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant medications. The patients platelet level is not normally used as a short-term indicator of anticoagulation effectiveness. Assessing the patient for signs of myelosuppression and capillary refill time does not address the effectiveness of anticoagulants.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing preliminary testing for a hematologic disorder. What sign or symptom most likely suggests a potential hematologic disorder? A) Sudden change in level of consciousness (LOC) B) Recurrent infections C) Anaphylaxis D) Severe fatigue
D) Severe fatigue Ans: D Feedback: The most common indicator of hematologic disease is extreme fatigue. This is more common than changes in LOC, infections, or anaphylaxis.
