MEDSURG II: Saunders GI

The nurse has provided dietary instructions to a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease. Which client statement indicates that education was effective? 1. "Baked foods such as chicken or fish are all right to eat." 2. "Citrus fruits and raw vegetables need to be included in my daily diet." 3. "I can drink beer as long as I consume only a moderate amount each day." 4. "I can drink coffee or tea as long as I limit the amount to 2 cups daily."

Answer: 1. "Baked foods such as chicken or fish are all right to eat." Rationale: Dietary modifications for the client with peptic ulcer disease include eliminating foods that can cause irritation to the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. Items that should be eliminated or avoided include highly spiced foods, alcohol, caffeine, chocolate, and citrus fruits. Other foods may be taken according to the client's level of tolerance for that food.

The nurse is reviewing the record of a client admitted to the nursing unit and notes that the client has a history of Laënnec's cirrhosis. Which question related to the client's history would be most important to ask? 1. "Do you abuse alcohol?" 2. "Do you have any known cardiac disease?" 3. "Does your type of employment cause you to have exposure to chemicals?" 4. "Have you ever been told that you have had obstruction to your biliary ducts?"

Answer: 1. "Do you abuse alcohol?" Rationale: Laënnec's cirrhosis results from long-term alcohol abuse; therefore, the question inquiring about alcohol abuse is most appropriate. Cardiac cirrhosis most commonly is caused by long-term right-sided heart failure. Exposure to hepatotoxins, chemicals, or infections or a metabolic disorder can cause postnecrotic cirrhosis. Biliary cirrhosis results from a decrease in bile flow and is most commonly caused by long-term obstruction of bile ducts.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with acute pancreatitis who was admitted to the hospital. Which assessment question would most specifically elicit information regarding the pain that is associated with acute pancreatitis? 1. "Does the pain in your stomach radiate to your back?" 2. "Does the pain in your lower abdomen radiate to your hip?" 3. "Does the pain in your lower abdomen radiate to your groin?" 4. "Does the pain in your stomach radiate to your lower middle abdomen?"

Answer: 1. "Does the pain in your stomach radiate to your back?" Rationale: The pain that is associated with acute pancreatitis is often severe, is located in the epigastric region, and radiates to the back. The remaining options are incorrect because they are not specific for the pain experienced by the client with pancreatitis.

A client experiencing chronic dumping syndrome makes the following comments to the nurse. Which one indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "I eat at least 3 large meals each day." 2. "I eat while lying in a semirecumbent position." 3. "I have eliminated taking liquids with my meals." 4. "I eat a high-protein, low- to moderate-carbohydrate diet."

Answer: 1. "I eat at least 3 large meals each day." Rationale: Dumping syndrome describes a group of symptoms that occur after eating. It is believed to result from rapid dumping of gastric contents into the small intestine, which causes fluid to shift into the intestine. Signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome include diarrhea, abdominal distention, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and syncope. To manage this syndrome, clients are encouraged to decrease the amount of food taken at each sitting, eat in a semirecumbent position, eliminate ingesting fluids with meals, and avoid consumption of high-carbohydrate meals.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with newly diagnosed Crohn's disease about dietary measures to implement during exacerbation episodes. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I should increase the fiber in my diet." 2. "I will need to avoid caffeinated beverages." 3. "I'm going to learn some stress reduction techniques." 4. "I can have exacerbations and remissions with Crohn's disease."

Answer: 1. "I should increase the fiber in my diet." Rationale: Crohn's disease is an inflammatory disease that can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract but most often affects the terminal ileum and leads to thickening and scarring, a narrowed lumen, fistulas, ulcerations, and abscesses. It is characterized by exacerbations and remissions. If stress increases the symptoms of the disease, the client is taught stress management techniques and may require additional counseling. The client is taught to avoid gastrointestinal stimulants containing caffeine and to follow a high-calorie and high-protein diet. A low-fiber diet may be prescribed, especially during periods of exacerbation.

The nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client with suspected esophageal cancer. Which statement made by the client indicates the presence of a risk factor for esophageal cancer? 1. "I've been smoking for 20 years now." 2. "I eat plenty of fresh fruits and vegetables." 3. "I'm 5 feet, 8 inches tall and weigh 160 pounds." 4. "My alcohol consumption is about 2 beers per month."

Answer: 1. "I've been smoking for 20 years now." Rationale: Primary risk factors associated with the development of esophageal cancer are smoking and obesity. The compounds in tobacco smoke may be responsible for the genetic mutations seen in many squamous cell carcinomas of the esophagus. Malnutrition, untreated gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and excessive alcohol intake are also associated with esophageal cancer. Diets that are chronically deficient in fresh fruits and vegetables have also been implicated in the development of squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus.

The nurse has provided home care instructions to a client who had a subtotal gastrectomy. The nurse instructs the client on the signs and symptoms associated with dumping syndrome. Which client statement indicates that teaching was effective? 1. "It will cause diaphoresis and diarrhea." 2. "I have to monitor for hiccups and diarrhea." 3. "It will be associated with constipation and fever." 4. "I have to monitor for fatigue and abdominal pain."

Answer: 1. "It will cause diaphoresis and diarrhea." Rationale: Dumping syndrome occurs after gastric surgery because food is not held for as long in the stomach and is dumped into the intestine as a hypertonic mass. This causes fluid to shift into the intestine, causing cardiovascular and gastrointestinal symptoms. Symptoms can typically include weakness, dizziness, diaphoresis, flushing, hypotension, abdominal pain and distention, hyperactive bowel sounds, and diarrhea. The remaining options are not signs of dumping syndrome.

A client has just had a hemorrhoidectomy. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Administer stool softeners as prescribed. 2. Instruct the client to limit fluid intake to avoid urinary retention. 3. Encourage a high-fiber diet to promote bowel movements without straining. 4. Apply cold packs to the anal-rectal area over the dressing until the packing is removed. 5. Help the client to a Fowler's position to place pressure on the rectal area and decrease bleeding.

Answer: 1. Administer stool softeners as prescribed. 3. Encourage a high-fiber diet to promote bowel movements without straining. 4. Apply cold packs to the anal-rectal area over the dressing until the packing is removed. Rationale: Nursing interventions after a hemorrhoidectomy are aimed at management of pain and avoidance of bleeding and incision rupture. Stool softeners and a high-fiber diet will help the client to avoid straining, thereby reducing the chances of rupturing the incision. An ice pack will increase comfort and decrease bleeding. Options 2 and 5 are incorrect interventions.

A client presents to the emergency department with upper gastrointestinal bleeding and is in moderate distress. In planning care, what is the priority nursing action for this client? 1. Assessment of vital signs 2. Completion of abdominal examination 3. Insertion of the prescribed nasogastric tube 4. Thorough investigation of precipitating events

Answer: 1. Assessment of vital signs Rationale: The priority nursing action is to assess the vital signs. This would provide information about the amount of blood loss that has occurred and provide a baseline by which to monitor the progress of treatment. {Pt with GI bleeding is at high risk of hypovolemic shock, that is why checking vital signs assessment is priority to determine of the pt is in shock (e.g. tachycardia, hypotension)}. The client may be unable to provide subjective data until the immediate physical needs are met. Although an abdominal examination and an assessment of the precipitating events may be necessary, these actions are not the priority. Insertion of a nasogastric tube is not the priority and will require a health care provider's prescription; in addition, the vital signs should be checked before performing this procedure.

A client with viral hepatitis states, "I am so yellow." What is the most appropriate nursing action? 1. Assist the client in expressing feelings. 2. Restrict visitors until the jaundice subsides. 3. Perform most of the activities of daily living for the client. 4. Provide information to the client only when he or she requests it.

Answer: 1. Assist the client in expressing feelings. Rationale: The client should be supported to explore feelings about the disease process and altered appearance so that appropriate interventions can be planned. Restricting visitors would reinforce the client's negative self-esteem. To assist the client in adapting to changes in appearance, it is important for the nurse to encourage participation in self-care to foster independence and self-esteem. The client should be encouraged to ask questions to clarify misconceptions, to learn ways to prevent the spread of hepatitis, to reduce fear, and to make appropriate decisions.

The nurse is caring for a client with a low thrombin level as a result of liver dysfunction. Based on this finding it is most important for the nurse to monitor the client for signs and symptoms of which potential complication? 1. Bleeding 2. Infection 3. Dehydration 4. Malnutrition

Answer: 1. Bleeding Rationale: Thrombin is produced by the liver and is necessary for normal clotting. The client who has an insufficient level of this substance is at risk for bleeding. Therefore, the client should be monitored for evidence of blood loss, such as visual cues and vital sign changes.

A Penrose drain is in place on the first postoperative day in a client who has undergone a cholecystectomy procedure. Serosanguineous drainage is noted on the dressing covering the drain. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? 1. Change the dressing. 2. Continue to monitor the drainage. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Use a pen to circle the amount of drainage on the dressing.

Answer: 1. Change the dressing. Rationale: Serosanguinous drainage with a small amount of bile is expected from the Penrose drain for the first 24 hours. Drainage then decreases, and the drain is usually removed within 48 hours. A sterile dressing covers the site and should be changed if wet to prevent infection and skin excoriation. Although the nurse would continue to monitor the drainage, the most appropriate intervention is to change the dressing. The HCP does not need to be notified.

The nurse is planning to teach a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about substances to avoid. Which items should the nurse include on this list? Select all that apply. 1. Coffee 2. Chocolate 3. Peppermint 4. Nonfat milk 5. Fried chicken 6. Scrambled eggs

Answer: 1. Coffee 2. Chocolate 3. Peppermint 5. Fried chicken Rationale: Foods that decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure and irritate the esophagus will increase reflux and exacerbate the symptoms of GERD and therefore should be avoided. Aggravating substances include coffee, chocolate, peppermint, fried or fatty foods, carbonated beverages, and alcohol. Options 4 and 6 do not promote this effect.

The nurse inspects the color of the drainage from a nasogastric tube on a postoperative client approximately 24 hours after gastric surgery. Which finding indicates the need to notify the health care provider (HCP)? 1. Dark red drainage 2. Dark brown drainage 3. Green-tinged drainage 4. Light yellowish-brown drainage

Answer: 1. Dark red drainage Rationale: For the first 12 hours after gastric surgery, the nasogastric tube drainage may be dark brown to dark red. Later, the drainage should change to a light yellowish-brown color. The presence of bile may cause a green tinge. The HCP should be notified if dark red drainage, a sign of hemorrhage, is noted 24 hours postoperatively.

The nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies for a client admitted for suspected hepatitis. Which laboratory finding is most associated with hepatitis, requiring the nurse to contact the health care provider? 1. Elevated serum bilirubin level 2. Below normal hemoglobin concentration 3. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 4. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Answer: 1. Elevated serum bilirubin level Rationale: Laboratory indicators of hepatitis include elevated liver enzymes, serum bilirubin level, and ESR. However, ESR is a nonspecific test that indicates the presence of inflammation somewhere in the body. The hemoglobin concentration is unrelated to this diagnosis. An elevated BUN level may indicate renal dysfunction.

The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an acute episode of cholecystitis. Which of these clinical manifestations support this diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1. Fever 2. Positive Cullen's sign 3. Complaints of indigestion 4. Palpable mass in the left upper quadrant 5. Pain in the upper right quadrant after a fatty meal 6. Vague lower right quadrant abdominal discomfort

Answer: 1. Fever 3. Complaints of indigestion 5. Pain in the upper right quadrant after a fatty meal Rationale: During an acute episode of cholecystitis, the client may complain of severe right upper quadrant pain that radiates to the right scapula or shoulder or experience epigastric pain after a fatty or high-volume meal. Fever and signs of dehydration would also be expected, as well as complaints of indigestion, belching, flatulence, nausea, and vomiting. Options 4 and 6 are incorrect because they are inconsistent with the anatomical location of the gallbladder. Option 2 (Cullen's sign) is associated with pancreatitis.

The nurse has been caring for a client who required a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube because other treatment measures for esophageal varices were unsuccessful. The health care provider (HCP) arrives on the nursing unit and deflates the esophageal balloon. Which assessment finding by the nurse is the most important and should be reported to the HCP immediately? 1. Hematemesis 2. Bloody diarrhea 3. Swelling of the abdomen 4. An elevated temperature and a rise in blood pressure

Answer: 1. Hematemesis Rationale: A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube may be inserted in a client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis with bleeding esophageal varices. It has both an esophageal and a gastric balloon. The esophageal balloon exerts pressure on the ruptured esophageal varices and stops the bleeding. The pressure of the esophageal balloon is released at intervals to decrease the risk of trauma to esophageal tissues, including esophageal rupture or necrosis. When the balloon is deflated, the client may begin to bleed again from the esophageal varices, manifested as vomiting of blood (hematemesis). The remaining options are unrelated to deflating the esophageal balloon.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis and is monitoring the client for paralytic ileus. Which piece of assessment data should alert the nurse to this occurrence? 1. Inability to pass flatus 2. Loss of anal sphincter control 3. Severe, constant pain with rapid onset 4. Firm, nontender mass palpable at the lower right costal margin

Answer: 1. Inability to pass flatus Rationale: An inflammatory reaction such as acute pancreatitis can cause paralytic ileus, the most common form of nonmechanical obstruction. Inability to pass flatus is a clinical manifestation of paralytic ileus. Loss of sphincter control is not a sign of paralytic ileus. Pain is associated with paralytic ileus, but the pain usually manifests as a more constant generalized discomfort. Option 4 is the description of the physical finding of liver enlargement. The liver may be enlarged in cases of cirrhosis or hepatitis. Although this client may have an enlarged liver, an enlarged liver is not a sign of paralytic ileus or intestinal obstruction.

The nurse is teaching the client with viral hepatitis about the stages of the disease. The nurse should explain to the client that the second stage of this disease is characterized by which specific assessment findings? Select all that apply. 1. Jaundice 2. Flu like symptoms 3. Clay-colored stools 4. Elevated bilirubin levels 5. Dark or tea-colored urine

Answer: 1. Jaundice 3. Clay-colored stools 4. Elevated bilirubin levels 5. Dark or tea-colored urine Rationale: There are 3 stages associated with viral hepatitis. The first (preicteric) stage includes flulike symptoms only. The second (icteric) stage includes the appearance of jaundice and associated symptoms such as elevated bilirubin levels, dark or tea-colored urine, and clay-colored stools. The third (posticteric) stage occurs when the jaundice decreases and the colors of the urine and stool return to normal.

The nurse is caring for an older client. The nurse should anticipate that medication dosages will be further adjusted if the client has dysfunction of which organ? 1. Liver 2. Stomach 3. Pancreas 4. Gallbladder

Answer: 1. Liver Rationale: An important function of the liver is to break down medications and other toxic substances. The older client with liver disease is at increased risk for toxic medication effects and should be monitored carefully for adverse effects. Diseases of the stomach, pancreas, and gallbladder are a lesser concern for prolonged medication effects.

The nurse is caring for a client with common bile duct obstruction. The nurse should anticipate that the health care provider (HCP) will prescribe which diet for this client? 1. Low fat 2. High protein 3. High carbohydrate 4. Low in water-soluble vitamins

Answer: 1. Low fat Rationale: Blockage of the common bile duct impedes the flow of bile from the gallbladder to the duodenum. Bile acids or bile salts are produced by the liver to emulsify or break down fats. The diets listed in the remaining options are incorrect.

The nurse is giving dietary instructions to a client who has a new colostomy. The nurse should encourage the client to eat foods representing which diet for the first 4 to 6 weeks postoperatively? 1. Low fiber 2. Low calorie 3. High protein 4. High carbohydrate

Answer: 1. Low fiber Rationale: For the first 4 to 6 weeks after colostomy formation, the client should consume a low-fiber diet. After this period, the client should eat a high-carbohydrate, high-protein diet. The client also is instructed to add new foods, including those with fiber, one at a time to determine tolerance to that food.

A client with hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals. The nurse should plan to teach the client to avoid which action because it is contraindicated with a hiatal hernia? 1. Lying recumbent following meals 2. Consuming small, frequent, bland meals 3. Taking H2-receptor antagonist medication 4. Raising the head of the bed on 6-inch (15 cm) blocks

Answer: 1. Lying recumbent following meals Rationale: Hiatal hernia is caused by a protrusion of a portion of the stomach above the diaphragm where the esophagus usually is positioned. The client usually experiences pain from reflux caused by ingestion of irritating foods, lying flat following meals or at night, and eating large or fatty meals. Relief is obtained with the intake of small, frequent, and bland meals; use of H2-receptor antagonists and antacids; and elevation of the thorax following meals and during sleep.

The nurse is reviewing the prescription for a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which interventions would the nurse expect to be prescribed for the client? Select all that apply. 1. Maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status. 2. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. 3. Give small, frequent high-calorie feedings. 4. Maintain the client in a supine and flat position. 5. Give hydromorphone intravenously as prescribed for pain. 6. Maintain intravenous fluids at 10 mL/hour to keep the vein open.

Answer: 1. Maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status. 2. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. 5. Give hydromorphone intravenously as prescribed for pain. Rationale: The client with acute pancreatitis normally is placed on NPO status to rest the pancreas and suppress gastrointestinal secretions, so adequate intravenous hydration is necessary. Because abdominal pain is a prominent symptom of pancreatitis, pain medications such as morphine or hydromorphone are prescribed. Meperidine is avoided, as it may cause seizures. Some clients experience lessened pain by assuming positions that flex the trunk, with the knees drawn up to the chest. A side-lying position with the head elevated 45 degrees decreases tension on the abdomen and may help to ease the pain. The client is susceptible to respiratory infections because the retroperitoneal fluid raises the diaphragm, which causes the client to take shallow, guarded abdominal breaths. Therefore, measures such as turning, coughing, and deep breathing are instituted.

A client has developed hepatitis A after eating contaminated oysters. The nurse assesses the client for which expected assessment finding? 1. Malaise 2. Dark stools 3. Weight gain 4. Left upper quadrant discomfort

Answer: 1. Malaise Rationale: Hepatitis causes gastrointestinal symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, right upper quadrant discomfort, and weight loss. Fatigue and malaise are common. Stools will be light- or clay-colored if conjugated bilirubin is unable to flow out of the liver because of inflammation or obstruction of the bile ducts.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with cirrhosis and ascites. Which nursing actions should be included in the care plan for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor daily weight. 2. Measure abdominal girth. 3. Monitor respiratory status. 4. Place the client in a supine position. 5. Assist the client with care as needed.

Answer: 1. Monitor daily weight. 2. Measure abdominal girth. 3. Monitor respiratory status. 5. Assist the client with care as needed. Rationale: Ascites is a problem because as more fluid is retained, it pushes up on the diaphragm, thereby impairing the client's breathing patterns. The client should be placed in a semi Fowler's position with the arms supported on a pillow to allow for free diaphragm movement. The correct options identify appropriate nursing interventions to be included in the plan of care for the client with ascites.

The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis who is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On assessment, the nurse notes that the abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention? 1. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 2. Administer the prescribed pain medication. 3. Call and ask the operating room team to perform surgery as soon as possible. 4. Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on the warm setting to the client's abdomen.

Answer: 1. Notify the health care provider (HCP). Rationale: On the basis of the signs and symptoms presented in the question, the nurse should suspect peritonitis and notify the HCP. Administering pain medication is not an appropriate intervention. Heat should never be applied to the abdomen of a client with suspected appendicitis because of the risk of rupture. Scheduling surgical time is not within the scope of nursing practice, although the HCP probably would perform the surgery earlier than the prescheduled time.

The nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. The nurse instructs the client to include which foods rich in vitamin B12 in the diet? Select all that apply. 1. Nuts 2. Corn 3. Liver 4. Apples 5. Lentils 6. Bananas

Answer: 1. Nuts 3. Liver 5. Lentils Rationale: Chronic gastritis causes deterioration and atrophy of the lining of the stomach, leading to the loss of function of the parietal cells. The source of intrinsic factor is lost, which results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12, leading to development of pernicious anemia. Clients must increase their intake of vitamin B12 by increasing consumption of foods rich in this vitamin, such as nuts, organ meats, dried beans, citrus fruits, green leafy vegetables, and yeast.

A client with cirrhosis has ascites and excess fluid volume. Which assessment findings does the nurse anticipate to note as a result of increased abdominal pressure? Select all that apply. 1. Orthopnea and dyspnea 2. Petechiae and ecchymosis 3. Inguinal or umbilical hernia 4. Poor body posture and balance 5. Abdominal distention and tenderness

Answer: 1. Orthopnea and dyspnea 2. Petechiae and ecchymosis 3. Inguinal or umbilical hernia 5. Abdominal distention and tenderness Rationale: Excess fluid volume, related to the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity and dependent areas of the body, can occur in the client with cirrhosis. Ascites can cause physical problems because of the overdistended abdomen and resultant pressure on internal organs and vessels. These problems include respiratory difficulty, petechiae and ecchymosis, development of hernias, and abdominal distention and tenderness. Poor body posture and balance are unrelated to increased abdominal pressure.

A client who has been advanced to a solid diet after undergoing a subtotal gastrectomy. What is the appropriate nursing intervention in preventing dumping syndrome? 1. Remove fluids from the meal tray. 2. Give the client 2 large meals per day. 3. Ask the client to sit up for 1 hour after eating. 4. Provide concentrated, high-carbohydrate foods.

Answer: 1. Remove fluids from the meal tray. Rationale: Factors to minimize dumping syndrome after gastric surgery include having the client lie down for at least 30 minutes after eating; giving small, frequent meals; having the client maintain a low Fowler's position while eating, if possible; avoiding liquids with meals; and avoiding high-carbohydrate food sources. Antispasmodic medications also are prescribed as needed to delay gastric emptying.

The nurse is monitoring a client for the early signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome. Which findings indicate this occurrence? 1. Sweating and pallor 2. Bradycardia and indigestion 3. Double vision and chest pain 4. Abdominal cramping and pain

Answer: 1. Sweating and pallor Rationale: Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 5 to 30 minutes after eating. Symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie down.

A client had a new colostomy created 2 days earlier and is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from the stoma. What is the correct interpretation by the nurse? 1. This is a normal, expected event. 2. The client is experiencing early signs of ischemic bowel. 3. The client should not have the nasogastric tube removed. 4. This indicates inadequate preoperative bowel preparation.

Answer: 1. This is a normal, expected event. Rationale: As peristalsis returns following creation of a colostomy, the client begins to pass malodorous flatus. This indicates returning bowel function and is an expected event. Within 72 hours of surgery, the client should begin passing stool via the colostomy. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect interpretations.

The nurse is preparing to teach a client with a new colostomy about how to perform a colostomy irrigation. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? 1. Use 500 to 1000 mL of warm tap water. 2. Suspend the irrigant 36 inches above the stoma. 3. Insert the irrigation cone ½ inch into the stoma. 4. If cramping occurs, open the irrigation clamp farther.

Answer: 1. Use 500 to 1000 mL of warm tap water. Rationale: The usual procedure for colostomy irrigation includes using 500 to 1000 mL of warm tap water. The solution is suspended 18 inches above the stoma. The cone is inserted 2 to 4 inches into the stoma but should never be forced. If cramping occurs, the client should decrease the flow rate of the irrigant as needed by closing the irrigation clamp.

A home care nurse is visiting a client with a diagnosis of pernicious anemia that developed as a result of gastric surgery. The nurse instructs the client that in this disorder because the stomach lining produces a decreased amount of a substance known as the intrinsic factor, the client will need which medication? 1. Vitamin B12 injections 2. Vitamin B6 injections 3. An antibiotic 4. An antacid

Answer: 1. Vitamin B12 injections Rationale: A lack of the intrinsic factor needed to absorb vitamin B12 is a feature of pernicious anemia. Vitamin B12 is needed for the maturation of red blood cells. Vitamin B6 is not specifically lacking in pernicious anemia and can be taken orally. An antibiotic and antacids may be prescribed for certain types of gastric ulcers.

The nurse is providing instructions to a client with a colostomy about measures to reduce the odor from the colostomy. Which client statement indicates that the educational session was effective? 1. "I should be sure to eat at least 1 cucumber every day." 2. "Beet greens, parsley, or yogurt will help to control the colostomy odor." 3. "I will need to increase my egg intake and try to eat ½ to 1 egg per day." 4. "Green vegetables such as spinach and broccoli will prevent odor, and I should eat these foods every day."

Answer: 2. "Beet greens, parsley, or yogurt will help to control the colostomy odor." Rationale: The client should be taught to include deodorizing foods in the diet, such as beet greens, parsley, buttermilk, and yogurt. Spinach also may reduce odor, but it is a gas-forming food and should be avoided. Cucumbers, eggs, and broccoli also are gas-forming foods and should be avoided or limited by the client.

The health care provider has determined that a client has contracted hepatitis A based on flulike symptoms and jaundice. Which statement made by the client supports this medical diagnosis? 1. "I have had unprotected sex with multiple partners." 2. "I ate shellfish about 2 weeks ago at a local restaurant." 3. "I was an intravenous drug abuser in the past and shared needles." 4. "I had a blood transfusion 30 years ago after major abdominal surgery."

Answer: 2. "I ate shellfish about 2 weeks ago at a local restaurant." Rationale: Hepatitis A is transmitted by the fecal-oral route via contaminated water or food (improperly cooked shellfish), or infected food handlers. Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted most commonly via infected blood or body fluids, such as in the cases of intravenous drug abuse, history of blood transfusion, or unprotected sex with multiple partners.

A sexually active young adult client has developed viral hepatitis. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "I should avoid drinking alcohol." 2. "I can go back to work right away." 3. "My partner should get the vaccine." 4. "A condom should be used for sexual intercourse."

Answer: 2. "I can go back to work right away." Rationale: To prevent transmission of hepatitis, vaccination of the partner is advised. In addition, a condom is advised during sexual intercourse. Alcohol should be avoided because it is detoxified in the liver and may interfere with recovery. Rest is especially important until laboratory studies show that liver function has returned to normal. The client's activity is increased gradually, and the client should not return to work right away.

The nurse is teaching an older client about measures to prevent constipation. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I walk 1 to 2 miles every day." 2. "I need to decrease fiber in my diet." 3. "I have a bowel movement every other day." 4. "I drink 6 to 8 glasses of water every day."

Answer: 2. "I need to decrease fiber in my diet." Rationale: An older client has an increased tendency to experience constipation because of decreased stomach-emptying time and a lowered basal metabolic rate. Adequate dietary fiber is an important factor in aiding bowel function. Dietary fiber increases fecal weight and water content and accelerates the transit of fecal mass through the gastrointestinal tract. The retention of water by the fiber has the ability to soften stools and promote regularity. Fluid intake and exercise also facilitate bowel elimination.

The nurse who is caring for a client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis is monitoring the client for signs of portal hypertension. Which finding should the nurse interpret as a sign or symptom of portal hypertension? 1. Flat neck veins 2. Abdominal distention 3. Hemoglobin of 14.2 g/dL (142 mmol/L) 4. Platelet count of 600,000 mm3 (600 × 109/L)

Answer: 2. Abdominal distention Rationale: With portal hypertension, proteins shift from the blood vessels via the larger pores of the sinusoids (capillaries) into the lymph space. When the lymphatic system is unable to carry off the excess proteins and water, they leak through the liver capsule into the peritoneal cavity. This is called ascites, and abdominal distention would be the consequence. Increased portal pressure can lead to findings associated with right-sided heart failure, such as distended jugular veins. Thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, and anemia are caused by the splenomegaly that results from backup of blood from the portal vein into the spleen (portal hypertension).

A client arrives at the hospital emergency department complaining of acute right lower quadrant abdominal pain, and appendicitis is suspected. Laboratory tests are performed, and the nurse notes that the client's white blood cell (WBC) count is elevated. On the basis of these findings, the nurse should question which health care provider (HCP) prescription documented in the client's medical record? 1. Apply a cold pack to the abdomen. 2. Administer 30 mL of milk of magnesia (MOM). 3. Maintain nothing by mouth (nil per os [NPO]) status. 4. Initiate an intravenous (IV) line for the administration of IV fluids.

Answer: 2. Administer 30 mL of milk of magnesia (MOM). Rationale: Appendicitis should be suspected in a client with an elevated WBC count complaining of acute right lower abdominal quadrant pain. Laxatives are never prescribed because if appendicitis is present, the effect of the laxative may cause a rupture with resultant peritonitis. Cold packs may be prescribed for comfort. The client would be NPO and given IV fluids in preparation for possible surgery.

A client is readmitted to the hospital with dehydration after surgery for creation of an ileostomy. The nurse assesses that the client has lost 3 lb of weight, has poor skin turgor, and has concentrated urine. The nurse interprets the client's clinical picture as correlating most closely with recent intake of which medication, which is contraindicated for the ileostomy client? 1. Folate 2. Bisacodyl 3. Ferrous sulfate 4. Cyanocobalamin

Answer: 2. Bisacodyl Rationale: The client with an ileostomy is prone to dehydration because of the location of the ostomy in the gastrointestinal tract and should not take laxatives. Laxatives will compound the potential risk for the client. These clients are at risk for deficiencies of folate, iron, and cyanocobalamin and should receive them as supplements if necessary.

The nurse is giving instructions to a client with cholecystitis about food to exclude from the diet. Which food item identified by the client indicates that the educational session was successful? 1. Fresh fruit 2. Brown gravy 3. Fresh vegetables 4. Poultry without skin

Answer: 2. Brown gravy Rationale: The client with cholecystitis should decrease overall intake of dietary fat. Foods that should be avoided include sausage, gravies, fatty meats, fried foods, products made with cream, and desserts. Appropriate food choices include fruits and vegetables, fish, and poultry without skin.

A client with appendicitis is scheduled for an appendectomy. The nurse providing preoperative teaching for the client describes the location of the appendix by stating that it is attached to which part of the gastrointestinal (GI) system? 1. Ileum 2. Cecum 3. Rectum 4. Jejunum

Answer: 2. Cecum Rationale: The appendix, sometimes referred to as the vermiform appendix, is attached to the apex of the cecum. The other locations listed are incorrect.

The nurse is caring for a client prescribed enteral feeding via a newly inserted nasogastric (NG) tube. Before initiating the enteral feeding, the nurse should perform which action first? 1. Warm the feeding to 103°F (39.4°C). 2. Confirm NG placement by x-ray study. 3. Make sure the continuous enteral feeding tubing is primed. 4. Position the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees or greater.

Answer: 2. Confirm NG placement by x-ray study. Rationale: Before initiating enteral feedings via a newly inserted NG tube, the placement of the tube is confirmed by x-ray. If the tube is not in the stomach, the client is at risk for aspiration. Formulas are administered at room temperature, not at 103°F. To prevent aspiration while administering a tube feeding, the nurse should place the client in an upright sitting position or elevate the head of the bed at least 30 degrees. Although an important action, it is not the priority. Priming the enteral feeding tube is important prior to initiating the feedings; however, it is not the priority action.

The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. The nurse determines that education was effective if the client states the need to avoid which food? 1. Rice 2. Corn 3. Broiled chicken 4. Cream of wheat

Answer: 2. Corn Rationale: The client with irritable bowel should take in a diet that consists of 30 to 40 g of fiber daily because dietary fiber will help produce bulky, soft stools and establish regular bowel habits. The client should also drink 8 to 10 glasses of fluid daily and chew food slowly to promote normal bowel function. Foods that are irritating to the intestines need to be avoided. Corn is high in fiber but can be very irritating to the intestines and should be avoided. The food items in the other options are acceptable to eat.

A client is diagnosed with viral hepatitis, complaining of "no appetite" and "losing my taste for food." What instruction should the nurse give the client to provide adequate nutrition? 1. Select foods high in fat. 2. Increase intake of fluids, including juices. 3. Eat a good supper when anorexia is not as severe. 4. Eat less often, preferably only 3 large meals daily.

Answer: 2. Increase intake of fluids, including juices. Rationale: Although no special diet is required to treat viral hepatitis, it is generally recommended that clients consume a low-fat diet, as fat may be tolerated poorly because of decreased bile production. Small, frequent meals are preferable and may even prevent nausea. Frequently, appetite is better in the morning, so it is easier to eat a good breakfast. An adequate fluid intake of 2500 to 3000 mL/day that includes nutritional juices is also important.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Which laboratory result should the nurse expect to note if the client does have appendicitis? 1. Leukopenia with a shift to the left 2. Leukocytosis with a shift to the left 3. Leukopenia with a shift to the right 4. Leukocytosis with a shift to the right

Answer: 2. Leukocytosis with a shift to the left Rationale: Laboratory findings do not establish the diagnosis of appendicitis, but there is often an elevation of the white blood cell count (leukocytosis) with a shift to the left (an increased number of immature white blood cells). Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they are not associated findings in acute appenditis.

The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed a nasogastric (NG) tube for the purpose of stomach decompression. The nurse should anticipate a health care provider prescription for which type of suction? 1. High and intermittent 2. Low and intermittent 3. High and continuous 4. Low and continuous

Answer: 2. Low and intermittent Rationale: Gastric mucosa can be traumatized and pulled into the tube if the suction pressure is placed on high or if the suction is continuous. The suction should be set on low pressure and intermittent suction control.

A client with viral hepatitis has no appetite, and food makes the client nauseated. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? 1. Encourage foods that are high in protein. 2. Monitor for fluid and electrolyte imbalance. 3. Explain that high-fat diets usually are better tolerated. 4. Explain that most daily calories need to be consumed in the evening hours.

Answer: 2. Monitor for fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Rationale: If nausea occurs and persists, the client will need to be assessed for fluid and electrolyte imbalance. It is important to explain to the client that most calories should be eaten in the morning hours because nausea is most common in the afternoon and evening. Clients should select a diet high in calories because energy is required for healing. Protein increases the workload on the liver. Changes in bilirubin interfere with fat absorption, so low-fat diets are better tolerated.

The nurse is assessing a client with liver disease for signs and symptoms of low albumin. Which sign or symptom should the nurse expect to note? 1. Weight loss 2. Peripheral edema 3. Capillary refill of 5 seconds 4. Bleeding from previous puncture sites

Answer: 2. Peripheral edema Rationale: Albumin is responsible for maintaining the osmolality of the blood. When the albumin level is low, osmotic pressure is decreased, which in turn can lead to peripheral edema. Weight loss is not a sign or symptom for hypoalbuminemia. Capillary refill of 5 seconds is a delayed filling time but is not associated with decreased albumin levels. Clotting factors produced by the liver (not albumin) are responsible for coagulation, and lack of clotting factors can result in bleeding from old puncture sites. The total protein level may decrease if the albumin level is low.

After undergoing Billroth I gastric surgery, the client experiences fatigue and complains of numbness and tingling in the feet and difficulties with balance. On the basis of these symptoms, the nurse suspects which postoperative complication? 1. Stroke 2. Pernicious anemia 3. Bacterial meningitis 4. Peripheral arterial disease

Answer: 2. Pernicious anemia Rationale: Billroth I surgery involves removing one half to two thirds of the stomach and reanastomosing the remaining segment of the stomach to the duodenum. With the loss of this much of the stomach, development of pernicious anemia is not uncommon. Pernicious anemia is a macrocytic anemia that most commonly is caused by the lack of intrinsic factor. During a Billroth I procedure, a large portion of the parietal cells, which are responsible for producing intrinsic factor (a necessary component for vitamin B12absorption), are removed. In this anemia, the red blood cell is larger than usual and hence does not last as long in the circulation as normal red blood cells do, causing the client to have anemia with resultant fatigue. Vitamin B12 also is necessary for normal nerve function. Because of the lack of the necessary intrinsic factor, persons with pernicious anemia also experience paresthesias, impaired gait, and impaired balance. Although the symptoms could possibly indicate the other options listed, pernicious anemia is the most logical based on the surgery the client underwent.

The nurse is assisting a health care provider (HCP) with the insertion of a Miller-Abbott tube. The nurse understands that the procedure places the client at risk for aspiration and should therefore implement which action to decrease this risk? 1. Insert the tube with the balloon inflated. 2. Place the client in a semi Fowler's to high Fowler's position. 3. Instruct the client to cough when the tube reaches the nasal pharynx. 4. Instruct the client to perform a Valsalva maneuver if the impulse to gag and vomit occurs.

Answer: 2. Place the client in a semi Fowler's to high Fowler's position. Rationale: The Miller-Abbott tube is a nasoenteric tube that is used to decompress the intestine, as in correcting a bowel obstruction. Initial insertion of the tube is an HCP responsibility. The tube is inserted with the balloon deflated in a manner similar to the proper procedure for inserting a nasogastric tube. The client is usually given water to drink to facilitate passage of the tube through the nasopharynx and esophagus. A semi Fowler's to high Fowler's position decreases the risk of aspiration if vomiting occurs. A Valsalva maneuver is not helpful and is not used if the impulse to gag occurs.

The nurse is monitoring a client with cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment finding would the nurse note as an early sign of hepatic encephalopathy? 1. Restlessness 2. Presence of asterixis 3. Complaints of fatigue 4. Decreased serum ammonia levels

Answer: 2. Presence of asterixis Rationale: Asterixis is a flapping tremor of the hand that is an early sign of hepatic encephalopathy. The exact cause of this disorder is not known, but abnormal ammonia metabolism may be implicated. Increased serum ammonia levels are thought to interfere with normal cerebral metabolism. Tremors and drowsiness also would be noted.

The nurse is providing care for a client with a recent transverse colostomy. Which observation requires immediate notification of the health care provider? 1. Stoma is beefy red and shiny 2. Purple discoloration of the stoma 3. Skin excoriation around the stoma 4. Semi-formed stool noted in the ostomy pouch

Answer: 2. Purple discoloration of the stoma Rationale: Ischemia of the stoma would be associated with a dusky or bluish or purple color. A beefy red and shiny stoma is normal and expected. Skin excoriation needs to be addressed and treated but does not require as immediate attention as purple discoloration of the stoma. Semi-formed stool is a normal finding.

Lactulose is prescribed for a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to this medication therapy as anticipated? 1. Vomiting occurs. 2. The fecal pH is acidic. 3. The client experiences diarrhea. 4. The client is able to tolerate a full diet.

Answer: 2. The fecal pH is acidic. Rationale: Lactulose is an osmotic laxative used to decrease ammonia levels, which are elevated in hepatic encephalopathy. The desired effect is 2 or 3 soft stools per day with an acid fecal pH. Lactulose creates an acid environment in the bowel, resulting in a fall of the colon's pH from 7 to 5. This causes ammonia to leave the circulatory system and move into the colon for excretion. Diarrhea may indicate excessive administration of the medication. Vomiting and ability to tolerate a full diet do not determine that a desired effect has occurred.

The nurse is obtaining a health history for a client with chronic pancreatitis. The health history is most likely to include which as a most common causative factor in this client's disorder? 1. Weight gain 2. Use of alcohol 3. Exposure to occupational chemicals 4. Abdominal pain relieved with food or antacids

Answer: 2. Use of alcohol Rationale: Chronic pancreatitis occurs most often in alcoholics. Abstinence from alcohol is important to prevent the client from developing chronic pancreatitis. Clients usually experience malabsorption with weight loss. Chemical exposure is associated with cancer of the pancreas. Pain will not be relieved with food or antacids.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a subtotal gastrectomy. The nurse should assess the client for which signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome? 1. Diarrhea, chills, and hiccups 2. Weakness, diaphoresis, and diarrhea 3. Fever, constipation, and rectal bleeding 4. Abdominal pain, elevated temperature, and weakness

Answer: 2. Weakness, diaphoresis, and diarrhea Rationale: Dumping syndrome occurs after gastric surgery because food is not held long enough in the stomach and is "dumped" into the small intestine as a hypertonic mass. This causes fluid to shift into the intestines, causing cardiovascular and gastrointestinal symptoms. Signs and symptoms typically include weakness, dizziness, diaphoresis, flushing, hypotension, abdominal pain and distention, hyperactive bowel sounds, and diarrhea.

The nurse has given instructions to a client with hepatitis about postdischarge management during convalescence. The nurse determines that further teaching is needed if the client makes which statement? 1. "I need to avoid alcohol and aspirin." 2. "I should eat a high-carbohydrate, low-fat diet." 3. "I can resume a full activity level within 1 week." 4. "I need to take the prescribed amounts of vitamin K."

Answer: 3. "I can resume a full activity level within 1 week." Rationale: The client with hepatitis is easily fatigued and may require several weeks to resume a full activity level. It is important for the client to get adequate rest so that the liver can heal. The client should avoid hepatotoxic substances such as aspirin and alcohol. The client should take in a high-carbohydrate and low-fat diet. Vitamin K may be prescribed for prolonged clotting times.

The nurse is caring for a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and provides client education on measures to decrease GERD. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I plan to eat 4 to 6 small meals a day." 2. "I should sleep in the right side-lying position." 3. "I plan to have a snack 1 hour before going to bed." 4. "I will stop having a glass of wine each evening with dinner."

Answer: 3. "I plan to have a snack 1 hour before going to bed." Rationale: The control of GERD involves lifestyle changes to promote health and control reflux. These include eating 4 to 6 small meals a day; avoiding alcohol and smoking; sleeping in the right side-lying position to promote oxygenation and frequent swallowing to clear the esophagus; and avoiding eating at least 3 hours before going to bed because reflux episodes are most damaging at night.

The nurse has taught the client about an upcoming endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) procedure. The nurse determines that the client needs further information if the client makes which statement? 1. "I know I must sign the consent form." 2. "I hope the throat spray keeps me from gagging." 3. "I'm glad I don't have to lie still for this procedure." 4. "I'm glad some intravenous medication will be given to relax me."

Answer: 3. "I'm glad I don't have to lie still for this procedure." Rationale: The client does have to lie still for ERCP, which takes about 1 hour to perform. The client also has to sign a consent form. Intravenous sedation is given to relax the client, and an anesthetic spray is used to help keep the client from gagging as the endoscope is passed.

A health care provider (HCP) prescribes a Salem sump tube for gastrointestinal intubation. Which item should the nurse obtain from the supply room? 1. A Dobbhoff weighted tube 2. A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube 3. A tube with a large lumen and an air vent 4. A tube with a single lumen that connects to suction

Answer: 3. A tube with a large lumen and an air vent Rationale: A tube with a large lumen and an air vent is a Salem sump tube. A Dobbhoff weighted tube is a type of feeding tube. A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used to control bleeding in the esophagus. A tube with a single lumen is called a Levin tube.

A client seen in the ambulatory care clinic has ascites and slight jaundice. The nurse should assess the client for a history of chronic use of which medication? 1. Ibuprofen 2. Ranitidine 3. Acetaminophen 4. Acetylsalicylic acid

Answer: 3. Acetaminophen Rationale: Acetaminophen is a potentially hepatotoxic medication. Use of this medication and other hepatotoxic agents should be investigated whenever a client presents with signs and symptoms compatible with liver disease (such as ascites and jaundice). Hepatotoxicity is not an adverse effect of the medications identified in the remaining options.

A client with gastritis asks the nurse at a screening clinic about analgesics that will not cause epigastric distress. The nurse should tell the client that which medication is unlikely to cause epigastric distress? 1. Ibuprofen 2. Indomethacin 3. Acetaminophen 4. Naproxen sodium

Answer: 3. Acetaminophen Rationale: Analgesics, such as acetaminophen, are unlikely to cause epigastric distress. Ibuprofen, indomethacin, and naproxen sodium are nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications (NSAIDs) and are irritating to the gastrointestinal tract, so they should be avoided in clients with gastritis.

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with viral hepatitis. The nurse should plan to include which information in the teaching session? 1. The diet should be low in calories. 2. Meals should be large to conserve energy. 3. Activity should be limited to prevent fatigue. 4. Alcohol intake should be limited to 2 ounces per day.

Answer: 3. Activity should be limited to prevent fatigue. Rationale: Rest is necessary for the client with hepatitis, and the client with viral hepatitis should limit activity to avoid fatigue. The diet should be optimal in calories, proteins, and carbohydrates. The client should take in several small meals per day. Alcohol is strictly forbidden.

A client arrives at the hospital emergency department complaining of acute right lower quadrant abdominal pain. Appendicitis is suspected, and appropriate laboratory tests are performed. The emergency department nurse reviews the test results and notes that the client's white blood cell (WBC) count is elevated. The nurse also reviews the prescriptions from the health care provider (HCP). The nurse should contact the HCP to question which prescription if noted in the client's record? 1. Maintain a semi Fowler's position. 2. Maintain on NPO (nothing by mouth) status. 3. Apply a heating pad to the lower abdomen for comfort. 4. Initiate an intravenous (IV) line with the administration of IV fluids.

Answer: 3. Apply a heating pad to the lower abdomen for comfort. Rationale: Appendicitis should be suspected in a client with an elevated WBC count who is complaining of acute right lower quadrant abdominal pain. A semi Fowler's position is maintained for comfort. The client would be on NPO status and given IV fluids in preparation for possible surgery. Heat should never be applied to the abdomen because this may increase circulation to the appendix, potentially leading to increased inflammation and perforation.

The nurse is reviewing the record of a client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis and notes that there is documentation of the presence of asterixis. How should the nurse assess for its presence? 1. Dorsiflex the client's foot. 2. Measure the abdominal girth. 3. Ask the client to extend the arms. 4. Instruct the client to lean forward.

Answer: 3. Ask the client to extend the arms. Rationale: Asterixis is irregular flapping movements of the fingers and wrists when the hands and arms are outstretched, with the palms down, wrists bent up, and fingers spread. Asterixis is the most common and reliable sign that hepatic encephalopathy is developing. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

A client who has undergone gastric surgery has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent suction that is not draining properly. Which action should the nurse take initially? 1. Call the surgeon to report the problem. 2. Reposition the NG tube to the proper location. 3. Check the suction device to make sure it is working. 4. Irrigate the NG tube with saline to remove the obstruction.

Answer: 3. Check the suction device to make sure it is working. Rationale: After gastric surgery, the client will have an NG tube in place until bowel function returns. It is important for the NG tube to drain properly to prevent abdominal distention and vomiting. The nurse must ensure that the NG tube is attached to suction at the level prescribed and that the suction device is working correctly. The tip of the NG tube may be placed near the suture line. Because of this possibility, the nurse should never reposition the NG tube or irrigate it. If the NG tube needs to be repositioned, the nurse should call the surgeon, who would do this repositioning under fluoroscopy.

The nurse checks the gastric residual of an unconscious client receiving nasogastric tube feedings continuously at 50 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the residual is 250 mL at 0800 and 300 mL at 0900. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which complication? 1. Air in the stomach 2. Too slow an infusion rate 3. Delayed gastric emptying 4. Early signs of peptic ulcer

Answer: 3. Delayed gastric emptying Rationale: If the gastric residual is greater than 200 mL for 2 consecutive hours, the client may be experiencing delayed gastric emptying. If this occurs, the feeding is stopped, and the health care provider should be notified. The nurse should assess whether abdominal girth is enlarged and should auscultate bowel sounds to rule out intestinal obstruction. Some clients benefit from administration of metoclopramide to stimulate gastric emptying. Air in the stomach would be accompanied by abdominal distention and increased abdominal girth. The infusion rate cannot be too slow if the client is not tolerating the rate. Early peptic ulcer could be detected by a Hematest-positive gastric aspirate. In addition, agency procedures should be followed regarding gastric residuals.

The nurse is assessing a client 24 hours following a cholecystectomy. The nurse notes that the T-tube has drained 750 mL of green-brown drainage since the surgery. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? 1. Clamp the T-tube. 2. Irrigate the T-tube. 3. Document the findings. 4. Notify the health care provider.

Answer: 3. Document the findings. Rationale: The nurse would document the output.

The nurse is caring for a client with pancreatitis. Which finding should the nurse expect to note when reviewing the client's laboratory results? 1. Elevated level of pepsin 2. Decreased level of lactase 3. Elevated level of amylase 4. Decreased level of enterokinase

Answer: 3. Elevated level of amylase Rationale: The serum level of amylase, an enzyme produced by the pancreas, increases with pancreatitis. Amylase normally is responsible for carbohydrate digestion. {Lipase serum level also elevates with pancreatitis}. Pepsin is produced by the stomach and is used in protein digestion. Lactase and enterokinase are enzymes produced by the small intestine; lactase splits lactose into galactose and fructose, and enterokinase activates trypsin.

The nurse has implemented a bowel maintenance program for an unconscious client. The nurse would evaluate the plan as best meeting the needs of the client if which method was successful in stimulating a bowel movement? 1. Fleet enema 2. Fecal disimpaction 3. Glycerin suppository 4. Soap solution enema (SSE)

Answer: 3. Glycerin suppository Rationale: The least amount of invasiveness needed to produce a bowel movement is best. Use of glycerin suppositories is the least invasive method and usually stimulates bowel evacuation within a half-hour. Enemas may be needed on an every-other-day basis, but they are used cautiously (even if not contraindicated) because the Valsalva maneuver can increase intracranial pressure. Fecal disimpaction is done only when the client's rectum has become impacted from constipation as a result of inattention or failure of other measures. Stool softeners may be prescribed on a regular schedule for some clients to avoid hard, dry stools, but oral medication is not administered to an unconscious client.

The nurse is assigned to care for a client with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube. Which laboratory result is most focused on evaluating the effectiveness of this tube? 1. Sodium 2. Creatinine 3. Hemoglobin 4. Ammonia

Answer: 3. Hemoglobin Rationale: A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube may be used in a client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis with ruptured esophageal varices if other treatment measures are unsuccessful. The tube has an esophageal and a gastric balloon. The esophageal balloon exerts pressure on the ruptured esophageal varices and stops the bleeding. The gastric balloon holds the tube in the correct position and prevents migration of the esophageal balloon, which could harm the client. Evaluation of the client's hemoglobin level trends will determine if the tube is effective. Sodium, creatinine, and ammonia levels are not related to monitoring for blood loss.

The nurse is caring for a client following a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II procedure). Which postoperative prescription should the nurse question and verify? 1. Leg exercises 2. Early ambulation 3. Irrigating the nasogastric tube 4. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises

Answer: 3. Irrigating the nasogastric tube Rationale: In a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II procedure), the proximal remnant of the stomach is anastomosed to the proximal jejunum. Patency of the nasogastric tube is critical for preventing the retention of gastric secretions. The nurse should never irrigate or reposition the gastric tube after gastric surgery, unless specifically prescribed by the health care provider. In this situation, the nurse should clarify the prescription. Options 1, 2, and 4 are appropriate postoperative interventions.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following gastrectomy and should instruct the client to take which measure to assist in preventing dumping syndrome? 1. Ambulate following a meal. 2. Eat high-carbohydrate foods. 3. Limit the fluids taken with meals. 4. Sit in a high Fowler's position during meals.

Answer: 3. Limit the fluids taken with meals. Rationale: Dumping syndrome is a term that refers to a constellation of vasomotor symptoms that occurs after eating, especially following a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II procedure). Early manifestations usually occur within 30 minutes of eating and include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie down. The nurse should instruct the client to decrease the amount of fluid taken at meals and to avoid high-carbohydrate foods, including fluids such as fruit nectars; to assume a low Fowler's position during meals; to lie down for 30 minutes after eating to delay gastric emptying; and to take antispasmodics as prescribed.

The nurse is assisting a client with Crohn's disease to ambulate to the bathroom. After the client has a bowel movement, the nurse should assess the stool for which characteristic that is expected with this disease? 1. Blood in the stool 2. Chalky gray stool 3. Loose, watery stool 4. Dry, hard, constipated stool

Answer: 3. Loose, watery stool Rationale: Crohn's disease is characterized by nonbloody diarrhea of usually not more than 4 or 5 stools daily. Over time, the episodes of diarrhea increase in frequency, duration, and severity. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not characteristics of the stool in Crohn's disease.

The nurse is providing instructions to a client regarding measures to minimize the risk of dumping syndrome. The nurse should make which suggestion to the client? 1. Maintain a high-carbohydrate diet. 2. Increase fluid intake, particularly at mealtime. 3. Maintain a low Fowler's position while eating. 4. Ambulate for at least 30 minutes following each meal.

Answer: 3. Maintain a low Fowler's position while eating. Rationale: The client at risk for dumping syndrome should be instructed to maintain a low Fowler's position while eating and lie down for at least 30 minutes after eating. The client also should be told that small, frequent meals are best and to avoid liquids with meals. Avoiding high-carbohydrate food sources also will assist in minimizing dumping syndrome.

The nurse is doing an admission assessment on a client with a history of duodenal ulcer. To determine whether the problem is currently active, the nurse should assess the client for which sign(s)/symptom(s) of duodenal ulcer? 1. Weight loss 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Pain relieved by food intake 4. Pain radiating down the right arm

Answer: 3. Pain relieved by food intake Rationale: A frequent symptom of duodenal ulcer is pain that is relieved by food intake. These clients generally describe the pain as a burning, heavy, sharp, or "hungry" pain that often localizes in the mid-epigastric area. The client with duodenal ulcer usually does not experience weight loss or nausea and vomiting. These symptoms are more typical in the client with a gastric ulcer.

The nurse is assessing a client with a duodenal ulcer. The nurse interprets that which sign or symptom is most consistent with the typical presentation of duodenal ulcer? 1. Weight loss 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Pain that is relieved by food intake 4. Pain that radiates down the right arm

Answer: 3. Pain that is relieved by food intake Rationale: The most typical finding with duodenal ulcer is pain that is relieved by food intake. The pain is often described as a burning, heavy, sharp, or "hunger pang" pain that often localizes in the midepigastric area. It does not radiate down the right arm. The client with duodenal ulcer does not usually experience weight loss or nausea and vomiting; these symptoms are more typical in the client with a gastric ulcer.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client with cirrhosis and notes that the ammonia level is 85 mcg/dL (51 mcmol/L). Which dietary selection does the nurse suggest to the client? 1. Roast pork 2. Cheese omelet 3. Pasta with sauce 4. Tuna fish sandwich

Answer: 3. Pasta with sauce Rationale: Cirrhosis is a chronic, progressive disease of the liver characterized by diffuse degeneration and destruction of hepatocytes. The serum ammonia level assesses the ability of the liver to deaminate protein byproducts. Normal reference interval is 10 to 80 mcg/dL (6 to 47 mcmol/L). Most of the ammonia in the body is found in the gastrointestinal tract. Protein provided by the diet is transported to the liver by the portal vein. The liver breaks down protein, which results in the formation of ammonia. Foods high in protein should be avoided since the client's ammonia level is elevated above the normal range; therefore, pasta with sauce would be the best selection.

The nurse is evaluating the plan of care for a client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) who is experiencing acute pain. The nurse determines that the expected outcomes have been met if the nursing assessment reveals which result? 1. The client reports some pain before meals. 2. The client frequently is awakened at 2 a.m. with heartburn. 3. The client has eliminated any irritating foods from the diet. 4. The client's pain is minimal with histamine H2-receptor antagonists.

Answer: 3. The client has eliminated any irritating foods from the diet. Rationale: Expected outcomes for the client with PUD who is experiencing pain include elimination of irritating foods from the diet, effectiveness of prescribed medications to eliminate pain, self-reporting of absence of pain with medication, and an ability to sleep through the night without pain. The client who continues to be awakened by pain requires further modification of medication therapy, which may include adjustment of timing of histamine H2-receptor antagonist administration or an additional dose of antacid before the time when pain usually awakens the client.

A client with gastric hypersecretion is scheduled for surgery. The nurse teaches the client that the procedure will lessen the stomach's production of acid by altering which structure? 1. Portal vein 2. Celiac artery 3. Vagus nerve 4. Pyloric valve

Answer: 3. Vagus nerve Rationale: Vagotomy is a procedure that can reduce innervation to the stomach, thereby reducing the production of gastric acid. The portal vein drains venous blood from the stomach. The celiac artery brings arterial blood to the stomach. The pyloric valve separates the stomach from the duodenum. The pyloric valve may undergo surgical repair if it becomes stenosed; this procedure is known as pyloroplasty.

The registered nurse is precepting a new nurse who is caring for a client with pernicious anemia as a result of gastrectomy. Which statement made by the new nurse indicates understanding of this diagnosis? 1. "It's due to insufficient production of vitamin B12 in the colon." 2. "Increased production of intrinsic factor in the stomach leads to this type of anemia." 3. "Overproduction of vitamin B12 in the large intestine can result in pernicious anemia." 4. "Decreased production of intrinsic factor by the stomach affects absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine."

Answer: 4. "Decreased production of intrinsic factor by the stomach affects absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine." Rationale: Intrinsic factor is produced in the stomach but is used to aid in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. This vitamin is not produced or absorbed in the large intestine.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with suspected acute pancreatitis. Which complaint made by the client supports the diagnosis? 1. "I have epigastric pain radiating to my neck." 2. "I have severe abdominal pain that is relieved after vomiting." 3. "My temperature has been running between 96°F (35.5°C) and 97°F (36.1°C)." 4. "I've been experiencing constant, severe abdominal pain that is unrelieved by vomiting."

Answer: 4. "I've been experiencing constant, severe abdominal pain that is unrelieved by vomiting." Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are common presenting manifestations of acute pancreatitis. A hallmark symptom is severe abdominal pain that is not relieved by vomiting. The vomitus characteristically consists of gastric and duodenal contents. Fever also is a common sign. Epigastric pain radiating to the neck area is not a characteristic symptom.

A client in a long-term care facility is being prepared to be discharged to home in 2 days. The client has been eating a regular diet for a week; however, he is still receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings and will need to receive these feedings at home. The client states concern that he will not be able to continue the tube feedings at home. Which nursing response is most appropriate at this time? 1. "Do you want to stay here in this facility for a few more days?" 2. "Have you discussed your feelings with your healthcare provider?" 3. "You need to talk to your health care provider about these concerns." 4. "Tell me more about your concerns with your diet after going home."

Answer: 4. "Tell me more about your concerns with your diet after going home." Rationale: A client often has fears about leaving the secure, cared-for environment of the health care facility. This client has a fear about not being able to care for himself at home and of not being able to handle the tube feedings at home. A therapeutic communication statement such as "Tell me more about . . ." often leads to valuable information about the client and his concerns. The statements in the remaining options are nontherapeutic.

The nurse teaches a preoperative client about the use of a nasogastric (NG) tube for the planned surgery. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client understands when the tube can be removed in the postoperative period? 1. "When I can tolerate food without vomiting." 2. "When my gastrointestinal system is healed enough." 3. "When my health care provider says the tube can come out." 4. "When my bowels begin to function again, and I begin to pass gas."

Answer: 4. "When my bowels begin to function again, and I begin to pass gas." Rationale: NG tubes are discontinued when normal function returns to the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. Food would not be administered unless bowel function returns. The tube will be removed before GI healing. Although the health care provider (HCP) determines when the NG tube will be removed, it does not determine effectiveness of teaching and the need for the NG tube.

The nurse is monitoring a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate perforation of the ulcer? 1. Bradycardia 2. Numbness in the legs 3. Nausea and vomiting 4. A rigid, boardlike abdomen

Answer: 4. A rigid, boardlike abdomen Rationale: Perforation of an ulcer is a surgical emergency and is characterized by sudden, sharp, intolerable severe pain beginning in the mid-epigastric area and spreading over the abdomen, which becomes rigid and boardlike. Nausea and vomiting may occur. Tachycardia may occur as hypovolemic shock develops. Numbness in the legs is not an associated finding.

A client has a large, deep duodenal ulcer diagnosed by endoscopy. Which sign or symptom indicative of a complication should the nurse look for during the client's postprocedure assessment? 1. Bradycardia 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Numbness in the legs 4. A rigid, boardlike abdomen

Answer: 4. A rigid, boardlike abdomen Rationale: The client with a large, deep duodenal ulcer is at risk for perforation of the ulcer. If this occurs, the client will experience sudden, sharp, intolerable severe pain beginning in the midepigastric area and spreading over the abdomen, which then becomes rigid and boardlike. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, may occur as hypovolemic shock develops. Nausea and vomiting may not occur if the pyloric sphincter is intact. Numbness in the legs is not an associated finding.

The nurse is caring for a client after abdominal surgery and creation of a colostomy. The nurse is assessing the client for a prolapsed stoma and should expect to note which observation if this is present? 1. A sunken and hidden stoma 2. A narrow and flattened stoma 3. A stoma that is dusky or bluish 4. A stoma that is elongated with a swollen appearance

Answer: 4. A stoma that is elongated with a swollen appearance Rationale: A prolapsed stoma is one in which the bowel protrudes, causing an elongated and swollen appearance of the stoma. A retracted stoma is characterized by sinking of the stoma. A stoma with a narrow opening is described as being stenosed. Ischemia of the stoma would be associated with a dusky or bluish color.

The nurse is caring for a client on a mechanical ventilator who has a nasogastric tube in place. The nurse is assessing the pH of the gastric aspirate and notes that the pH is 4.5. Based on this finding, the nurse should take which action? 1. Document the findings. 2. Reassess the pH in 4 hours. 3. Instill 30 mL of sterile water. 4. Administer a dose of a prescribed antacid.

Answer: 4. Administer a dose of a prescribed antacid. Rationale: The client on a mechanical ventilator who has a nasogastric tube in place should have the gastric pH monitored at the beginning of each shift or least every 12 hours. Because of the risk of stress ulcer formation, a pH lower than 5 (acidic) should be treated with prescribed antacids. If there is no prescription for the antacid, the health care provider should be notified. Documentation of the findings should be done after the administration of an antacid. Sterile water instillation is not an appropriate treatment.

A client with acute ulcerative colitis requests a snack. Which is the most appropriate snack for this client? 1. Carrots and ranch dip 2. Whole-grain cereal and milk 3. A cup of popcorn and a cola drink 4. Applesauce and a graham cracker

Answer: 4. Applesauce and a graham cracker Rationale: The diet for the client with ulcerative colitis should be low fiber (low residue). The nurse should avoid providing foods such as whole-wheat grains, nuts, and fresh fruits or vegetables. Typically, lactose-containing foods also are poorly tolerated. The client also should avoid caffeine, pepper, and alcohol.

A client has undergone esophagogastroduodenoscopy. The nurse should place highest priority on which item as part of the client's care plan? 1. Monitoring the temperature 2. Monitoring complaints of heartburn 3. Giving warm gargles for a sore throat 4. Assessing for the return of the gag reflex

Answer: 4. Assessing for the return of the gag reflex Rationale: The nurse places highest priority on assessing for return of the gag reflex. This assessment addresses the client's airway. The nurse also monitors the client's vital signs and for a sudden increase in temperature, which could indicate perforation of the gastrointestinal tract. This complication would be accompanied by other signs as well, such as pain. Monitoring for sore throat and heartburn are also important; however, the client's airway is the priority.

The nurse is caring for a client with ulcerative colitis. Which finding does the nurse determine is consistent with this diagnosis? 1. Hypercalcemia 2. Hypernatremia 3. Frothy, fatty stools 4. Decreased hemoglobin

Answer: 4. Decreased hemoglobin Rationale: Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory disease of the large colon. Findings associated with ulcerative colitis include diarrhea with up to 10 to 20 liquid bloody stools per day, weight loss, anorexia, fatigue, increased white blood cell count, increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate, dehydration, hyponatremia, and hypokalemia (not hypercalcemia). Because of the loss of blood, clients with ulcerative colitis commonly have decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. Clients with ulcerative colitis have bloody diarrhea, not steatorrhea (fatty, frothy, foul-smelling stools).

The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the operating room after the creation of a colostomy. The nurse is assessing the drainage in the pouch attached to the site where the colostomy was formed and notes serosanguineous drainage. Which nursing action is appropriate based on this assessment? 1. Apply ice to the stoma site. 2. Apply pressure to the stoma site. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Document the amount and characteristics of the drainage.

Answer: 4. Document the amount and characteristics of the drainage. Rationale: During the first 24 to 72 hours following surgery, mucus and serosanguineous drainage are expected from the stoma. Applying ice or pressure to the stoma site are inappropriate actions. Notifying the HCP is unnecessary because this is an expected finding.

A client has just had surgery to create an ileostomy. The nurse assesses the client in the immediate postoperative period for which most frequent complication of this type of surgery? 1. Folate deficiency 2. Malabsorption of fat 3. Intestinal obstruction 4. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

Answer: 4. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance Rationale: A frequent complication that occurs following ileostomy is fluid and electrolyte imbalance. The client requires constant monitoring of intake and output to prevent this from occurring. Losses require replacement by intravenous infusion until the client can tolerate a diet orally. Intestinal obstruction is a less frequent complication. Fat malabsorption and folate deficiency are complications that could occur later in the postoperative period.

A client with peptic ulcer disease states that stress frequently causes exacerbation of the disease. The nurse determines that which item mentioned by the client is most likely to be responsible for the exacerbation? 1. Sleeping 8 to 10 hours a night 2. Ability to work at home periodically 3. Eating 5 or 6 small meals per day 4. Frequent need to work overtime on short notice

Answer: 4. Frequent need to work overtime on short notice Rationale: Psychological or emotional stressors that exacerbate peptic ulcer disease may be found either at home or in the workplace. Of the items listed, the frequent need to work overtime on short notice is potentially the most stressful because it is the item over which the client has the least control. An ability to work at home periodically is not necessarily stressful because it allows increased client control over timing and location of work. Adequate rest and proper dietary pattern (options 1 and 3) should alleviate symptoms, not worsen them.

A client admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is being assessed by the nurse. Which assessment findings would be consistent with acute pancreatitis? Select all that apply. 1. Diarrhea 2. Black, tarry stools 3. Hyperactive bowel sounds 4. Gray-blue color at the flank 5. Abdominal guarding and tenderness 6. Left upper quadrant pain with radiation to the back

Answer: 4. Gray-blue color at the flank 5. Abdominal guarding and tenderness 6. Left upper quadrant pain with radiation to the back Rationale: Grayish-blue discoloration at the flank is known as Grey-Turner's sign and occurs as a result of pancreatic enzyme leakage to cutaneous tissue from the peritoneal cavity. The client may demonstrate abdominal guarding and may complain of tenderness with palpation. The pain associated with acute pancreatitis is often sudden in onset and is located in the epigastric region or left upper quadrant with radiation to the back. The other options are incorrect.

The nurse assists a health care provider in performing a liver biopsy. After the procedure, the nurse should place the client in which position? 1. Prone 2. Supine 3. Left side 4. Right side

Answer: 4. Right side Rationale: To splint and provide pressure at the puncture site, the client is kept on the right side for a minimum of 2 hours after a liver biopsy. Therefore, the remaining positions are incorrect.

The nurse obtains an admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which client factor documented by the nurse would increase the risk for PUD? 1. Recently retired from a job 2. Significant other has a gastric ulcer 3. Occasionally drinks 1 cup of coffee in the morning 4. Takes nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for osteoarthritis

Answer: 4. Takes nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for osteoarthritis Rationale: Risk factors for PUD include Helicobacter pylori infection, smoking (nicotine), chewing tobacco, corticosteroids, aspirin, NSAIDs, caffeine, alcohol, and stress. When an NSAID is taken as often as is typical for osteoarthritis, it will cause problems with the stomach. Certain medical conditions such as Crohn's disease, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, and hepatic and biliary disease also can increase the risk for PUD by changing the amount of gastric and biliary acids produced. Recent retirement should decrease stress levels rather than increase them. Ulcer disease in a first-degree relative also is associated with increased risk for an ulcer. A significant other is not a first-degree relative; therefore, no genetic connection is noted in this relationship. Although caffeinated drinks are a known risk factor for PUD, the option states that the client drinks 1 cup of coffee occasionally.

The nurse should anticipate that the health care provider (HCP) will prescribe which treatment for a client with pernicious anemia? 1. Oral iron tablets 2. Blood transfusions 3. Gastric tube feedings 4. Vitamin B12 injections

Answer: 4. Vitamin B12 injections Rationale: A lack of the intrinsic factor needed to absorb vitamin B12 occurs in pernicious anemia. Vitamin B12 is needed for the maturation of red blood cells. Iron is used for anemia that results from a lack of iron. Blood transfusions are not needed for pernicious anemia because a lack of red blood cells is not the problem. Gastric tube feedings will not replace vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 needs to be given by injection to ensure absorption.

The clinic nurse is performing an abdominal assessment on a client and preparing to auscultate bowel sounds. The nurse should place the stethoscope in which quadrant first? Click on the image to indicate your answer.

Answer: Right lower quadrant (RLQ) (From Ignatavicius, Workman [2016], p. 1089.) Rationale: To auscultate bowel sounds, the nurse should begin in the right lower quadrant, at the ileocecal valve area, because normally bowel sounds are always present there. The diaphragm endpiece is used because bowel sounds are relatively high pitched. The stethoscope is held lightly against the skin because pressing too hard can stimulate more bowel sounds.