MGMT Final
An example of organizational change is?
-the switch to a new production method -the decision to offer a new product line -the introduction of a new pay for performance system.
D.
. People need to understand how their individual actions can contribute to achieving an organizational strategy. This can be accomplished by delegating authority, creating teams, and defining roles. These actions are part of which tool for putting strategy into action? a.Visible leadership b.Candid communication c.Human resources d.Clear roles and accountability e.Bargaining power of employees
a.
. Which of the following refers to the planning and decision making that lead to the establishment of the organization's goals and of a specific strategic plan? a.Strategy formulation b.Strategy implementation c.Strategy coordination d.Strategy control e.SWOT
A quality circle is a group of _____ volunteer employees.
6 to 12
Of the companies on Fortune magazine's first list of America's 500 largest corporations published in 1955, how many survived the next half century?
71
The recommended management style from the leadership grid is _____.
9,9
Which variation of new venture teams is described as a small separate, informal, highly autonomous, and often selective group that focuses on breakthrough ideas for the business?
A Skunkwork
A.
A corporate-level strategy is concerned with the question: a.what business are we in? b. how do we compete? c.how do we support our chosen strategy? d.where do we market our products? e.should we promote from within
Jackie, a new employee of yours, strikes you as curious, open-minded person. Keep your eye on jackie, for she she may very well be?
A creative individual
Which of the following refers to a formal team composed of employees from about the same hierarchical level but from different areas of expertise? A. A special-purpose team B. A cross-functional team C. A self-managed team D. A vertical team E. A diagonal team
A cross-functional team
44. Theresa works in an organization where coordination across organizational units is poor and the units perceived themselves to be in competition with one another for organizational resources. These characteristics are consistent with which of the following structures?
A divisional structure
97. Which of the following structures works best in an uncertain organizational environment?
A horizontal structure
99. Which of the following is an incorrect fit in a stable organizational environment?
A horizontal structure
After every quarterly board meeting, Bernice's Bracelets, Inc. announces big changes. They usually do not follow through on these changes. What is causing this lack of enthusiasm?
A lack of trust
Recently, a high level manager at Trophy Trinkets noted a rise in customer satisfaction complaints. This rise is inconsistent with Trophy's goals in this area. This manager has identified
A need for change
Which of the following is a component of a team? A. People in a team do not have to have regular interaction. B. Four or more people are required to form a team. C. A performance goal is shared between team members. D. Teams tend to be small groups, usually with less than 10 people. E. Each member tends to set his/her own goals for the team.
A performance goal is shared between team members.
_____ is a role in which the individual provides support for team members' emotional needs. A. A task specialist role B. A dual role C. A nonparticipator role D. A socioemotional role E. None of these
A socioemotional role
Vivian, as a vice-president of marketing, is far removed from the research and development department. However, she keeps a close eye on what is happening in R & D and tries to support good ideas whenever she can by removing unnecessary organizational obstacles. Vivian is a good example of?
A sponsor
Which of the following refers to a unit of two or more people who interact and coordinate their work to accomplish a specific objective? A. An organization B. A team C. A committee D. A council E. Leadership
A team
_____ is the final step in the MBO process. A. Appraise overall performance B. Develop an action plan C. Review progress D. Set goals E. Conduct periodic checkups
A. Appraise overall performance
According to MANAGER'S SHOPTALK in Chapter 11, the eight-step plan for implementing change in an organization includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Establish a sense of urgency B. Form a powerful coalition of mangers C. Communicate the vision D. Empower others to act on the vision E. All of these are steps to the plan!
_____ specify future ends and _____ specify today's means. A. Goals; plans B . Plans; goals C . Planning; organizing D . Ideas; behaviors E . Mission; vision
A. Goals; Plans
Which of these is(are) primarily concerned with tactical goals/plans? A. Middle management B. Board of directors C. Consultants D. Senior management E. Lower management
A. Middle Management
_____ refers to a broadly stated definition of the organization's basic business scope and operations that distinguishes it from similar types of organizations. A. Mission statement B. Goal statement C. Management by objective D. Goal setting E . Corporate competitive-value statement
A. Mission statement
Which of the following refer to specific results expected from individuals? A. Operational goals B. Tactical goals C. Strategic goals D. Operational plans E. Mission statements
A. Operational goals
_____ involves looking at trends and discontinuities and imagining possible alternative future to build a framework within which unexpected future events can be managed. A. Scenario building B. Crisis planning C. Contingency planning D. Trend management E. Caution planning
A. Scenario building
_____ is the first step in the MBO process. A. Setting goals B. Developing action plans C. Appraising overall performance D. Reviewing progress E . None of thes
A. Setting goals
Which of these is lacking in the goal "profits should be increased in the coming year?" A. Specific and measurable B. Challenging but realistic C. Covers key result areas D. Defined time period E. None of these
A. Specific and measurable
Which of these is true about single-use plans? A. They are developed to achieve a set of goals that are unlikely to be repeat ed in the future. B. They are used to provide guidance for tasks performed repeatedly within the organization. C. They define plans that define company responses to specific situations, such as emergencies or setbacks. D. They are most important in the organizations. E. None of these
A. They are developed to achieve a set of goals that are unlikely to be repeat ed in the future.
The planning process starts with: A. a formal mission that defines the organization's purpose. B. tactical planning. C. strategic planning. D. operational planning. E . controlling performance.
A. a formal mission that defines the organization's purpose
Jerrica, a finance manager at LRV industries, is asked by her boss to develop a plan in the event that company sales drop by 20 percent or more. This type of plan is known as _____. A. contingency planning B. financial planning C. crisis planning D. consumer protection E. environmental planning
A. contingency planning
At Save-tech, Sophia, director of marketing, is a member of a cross-functional group of managers and employees. The purpose of the group is to gain a deep understanding company's competitive environment and periodically present these findings to top management. Sophia is involved in what type of team? A. Intelligence team B. Functional team C. Task force D. Project team E. Espionage team
A. intelligence team
"We respect our employees and value their diversity" is an example of a statement you are most likely to find in the organization's _____. A. mission B. strategic goals C. tactical goals D. strategic plans E. tactical plans
A. mission
The official goals of the organization are best represented by the _____. A. strategic goals B. tactical goals C. operational goals D. competitive goals E. none of these
A. strategic goals
12. The growth of quantitative decision techniques that use computers has reduced the use of the classical approach. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
14. Normative decision theory recognizes that managers have only limited time and cognitive ability and therefore their decisions are characterized by bounded rationality. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
15. The classical model of decision-making works best in organizations that are made up of groups with diverse interests, goals, and values. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
16. According to the classical model of decision making, managers' searches for alternatives are limited because of human, information, and resource constraints. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
20. According to both research and managerial experience, intuitive decisions are best and always work out. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
22. The political model consists of vague problems and goals, limited information about alternatives and their outcomes, and a satisficing choice for resolving problems using intuition. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
26. Nonprogrammed decisions require six steps, however, programmed decisions being structured and well understood require only one step. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
28. For a non-programmed decision, feasible alternatives are hard to identify and in fact are already available within the organization's rules and procedures. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
30. The formulation stage involves the use of managerial, administrative, and persuasive abilities to ensure that the chosen alternative is carried out. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
32. In the implementation stage, decision makers gather information that tells them how well the decision was implemented and whether it was effective in achieving its goals. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
36. The behavioral style is often adopted by managers who like to consider complex solutions based on as much data as they can gather. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
38. The most effective managers are consistent in using their own decision style rather than shifting among styles. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
4. Two employees in Stacey's department quit which is normal for her department. She is faced with the decision to fill these positions. This would be considered a nonprogrammed decision. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
41. Managers will frequently look for new information that contradicts thier instincts or original point of view.. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
42. Most people underestimate their ability to predict uncertain outcomes. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
44. Brainwriting refers to the tendency of people in groups to suppress contrary opinions. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
8. Uncertainty means that a decision has clear-cut goals, and that good information is available, but the future outcomes associated with each alternative are subject to chance. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
Devil's advocate technique is similar to brainstorming in that both techniques prevent individuals from challenging other group member's assumptions. a. True b. False
ANSWER: False
10. The classical decision making model assumes that the decision-maker is rational, and makes the optimal decision each time. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
11. The approach that managers use to make decisions usually falls into one of three types - the classical model, the administrative model, and the political model. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
13. The administrative model of decision making describes how managers actually make decisions in difficult situations. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
17. According to the administrative model of decision making, managers' searches for alternatives are limited because of human, information, and resource constraints. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
18. Satisficing behavior occurs when we choose the first solution alternative that satisfies minimal decision criteria regardless of whether better solutions are expected to exist. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
19. Intuition is a quick apprehension of a decision situation based on past experience but without conscious thought. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
21. The process of forming alliances among managers is called coalition building. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
23. Good intuitive decision making is based on an ability to recognize patterns at lightning speed. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
24. Administrative and political decision making procedures and intuition have been associated with high performance in unstable environments in which decisions must be made rapidly and under more difficult conditions. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
25. Managers confront a decision requirement in the form of either a problem or an opportunity. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
27. Step one in the managerial decision-making process is recognition of decision requirement. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
29. The best alternative is the one in which the solution best fits the overall goals and values of the organization and achieves the desired results using the fewest resources. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
3. Programmed decisions are decisions that are made for situations that have occurred often in the past and allow decision rules to be developed to guide future decisions. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
31. Risk propensity refers to the willingness to undertake risk with the opportunity of gaining an increased payoff. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
33. Feedback is the part of monitoring that assesses whether a new decision needs to made. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
34. People who prefer simple, clear-cut solutions to problems use the directive style. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
35. Managers with an analytical decision style like to consider complex solutions based on as much data as they can gather. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
37. Individuals with a conceptual decision-making style are more socially oriented than those with an analytical style. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
39. Most bad decisions are errors in judgment that originate in the human mind's limited capacity and in the natural biases of the manager. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
40. Justifying past decisions is a common bias of managers. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
43. Brainstorming uses a face-to-face interactive group to spontaneously suggest a wide range of alternatives for decision making. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
45. Groupthink refers to the tendency of people in groups to suppress contrary opinions. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
47. Point-counterpoint is a decision-making technique in which people are assigned to express competing points of view. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
5. Gerald's Groceries and Marty's Market decided to merge their operations, something neither company has tried before. This would be considered a nonprogrammed decision. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
6. In the real world, few decisions are certain. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
7. The main difference between risk and uncertainty is that with risk you know the probabilities of the outcomes. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
9. .A situation where the goals to be achieved or the problem to be solved is unclear, alternatives are difficult to define, and information about outcomes is unavailable refers to ambiguity. a. True b. False
ANSWER: True
E.
According to the BCG Matrix, which of the following exists in a mature, slow-growth industry, but is a dominant business in the industry, with a large market share? a.Question mark b.Asterisk c.Dog d.Star e.Cash cow
________ concerns the creation of new user accounts, the modification of existing account permissions, and the removal of unneeded accounts.
Account management
_____ is a control system that identifies the various activities needed to produce a product and determines the cost of those activities.
Activity-based costing
Which of the following is a characteristic of the large-group intervention model?
Addresses the entire system
_____ is the stage of team development in which members prepare for the team's disbandment.
Adjorning
D.
After Sunshine Systems merged with RTD Enterprises, company executives noticed that due to increased employee collaboration between the two units, costs were down and revenues increased within both areas. This isan example ofwhat business phenomenon? a.Strategy execution b. Portfolio strategy c.Core competency d.Synergy e.Delivering value
______ is the degree to which a person is able to get along with others by being good-natured, cooperative, forgiving, understanding, and trusting.
Agreeableness
68. The frustration-regression principle is most closely related with _____. a. Maslow b. Herzberg c. McClelland d. Alderfer e. Adam
Alderfer
136. Donovan understands that perceived inequity creates tensions within individuals that motivate them to bring equity back into balance, and one of his production supervisors feels that she is underpaid. Which of the following is not a common method for reducing perceived inequity? a. Change in his inputs to the organization b. Change his outcomes from the organization c. Distort his perception d. Leave the job for a new one e. All are common methods
All are common methods
A.
All of the following are Porter's competitive forces except: a.differentiation. b.bargaining power of buyers. c.bargaining power of suppliers. d.threat of substitute products. e.potential new entrants
122. _____ influences the critical psychological state of experienced meaningfulness of work. a. Skill variety b. Task significance c. Task identity d. All of these e. Task significance and task identity only
All of these
59. In a family where both parents work, which of the following may be helpful to accommodate the parents' needs?
All of these
83. Kara and Simon are both middle managers at Gotcha International. Kara is dissatisfied because she knows that Simon makes more in salary even though, in Kara's opinion, she works longer hours than he does. If Kara wishes to reduce this perceived inequity, what should she do? a. She could reduce the number of hours she works. b. She could increase her level of absenteeism. c. She could ask for a raise. d. All of these. e. Only she could reduce the number of hours she works and she could ask for a raise.
All of these
91. _____ is(are) categories of sexual harassment.
All of these
Which of these is consistent with the role of the socioemotional role? A. Encourage B. Follow C. Compromise D. All of these E. Both encourage and follow
All of these
_____ increases team cohesiveness. A. External competition B. Shared goals C. Team success D. All of these E. Shared goals and team success
All of these
Your department has absenteeism standards, a way to measure absenteeism, and, based on your investigation, you have concluded that your department has an excessive absenteeism rate. What should your next step be?
All of these would be good examples of taking corrective action.
Successful change requires that organizations be capable of both creating and implementing ideas, which means the organization must learn to be?
Ambidextrous
Ashley has average technical skills but her real strengths lay in visualizing the benefits of other's ideas and in finding financial and political support for these ideas. Ashley is an excellent example of?
An Idea champion
Which of the following describes a person who is passionately committed to a new product of idea despite rejection by others?
An Idea champion
John has tremendous technical skills and frequently comes up with valuable ideas. However, he has little idea how to promote it within the organization. John is a good example of?
An Inventor
Which of the following is a ratio that measures the firm's internal performance with respect to key activities defined by management?
An activity ratio
Which of the following is a person who sees the need for and fights for productive change in an organization?
An idea champion
Which of the following provides a safe harbor where ideas from employees throughout the company can be developed without interference's from company bureaucracy or polotics?
An idea incubator
What is the key to successful benchmarking?
Analysis
According to business week, who was ranked as the worlds most innovative company?
Apple
Creative organizations..
Are loosely structured
______ are judgments about what caused a person's behavior-something about the person or something about the situation.
Attributions
_____ leaders know and understand themselves, act consistently with high order ethical values, and empower and inspire others.
Authentic
According to the Leadership Grid, which of the following occurs when efficiency in operations is the dominant orientation?
Authority-Compliance
100. Which of these is sometimes called negative reinforcement? a. Avoidance learning b. Punishment c. Positive reinforcement d. Extinction e. Neutral learning
Avoidance learning
104. Jeff and Rob have a difficult time getting along at work. Most days, Jeff spends a lot of time cracking jokes and goofing off, while Rob constantly nags him and tells him to act like a grownup. On days when Jeff is more reserved, Rob does not nag him, hoping that this will result in improved behavior down the road. This is an example of which form of behavior modification? a. Empowerment b. Extinction c. Punishment d. Avoidance learning e. Positive reinforcement
Avoidance learning
One of the most important things that a manager can do for the organization, according to the text, is to: a.talk to their employees. b.create a climate of trust and openness. c.listen to their employees. d.ensure that production remains high. e.none of these.
B
In developing a strategy map for her interior design business, Carla has decided to promote employee development by providing online training tools. This involves goals in which strategy map category? A. Financial performance goals B. Learning and growth goals C. Internal business process goals D. Customer service goals E. Supply chain goals
B. Learning and growth roles
Which of these is a method of management whereby managers and employees define goals for every department, project, and person and use them to monitor subsequent performance? A. Organizational planning B. Management by objectives C. Goal setting D. Mission development E. Vision development
B. Management by objectives
Which of the following is NOT a tool for executing a plan? A. Management by objectives B. Operations map C. Performance dashboards D. Single use plans E . Decentralized responsibility
B. Operations map
_____ define boundaries within which to make a decision. A. Programs B. Policies C. Rules D. Procedures E . Projects
B. Policies
_____ are reasonable yet highly ambitious goals that are so clear, compelling, and imaginative that they fire up employees and engender excellence. A. Operational goals B. Stretch goals C. Strategic goals D. Tactical goals E. Bottom-up goals
B. Stretch goals
Standing plans: A. are develop ed to achieve a set of goals that are unlikely to be repeated in the future. B. are used to provide guidance for tasks performed repeatedly within the organization. C. define company responses to specific situations, such as emergencies or setbacks. D. are the most important in the organizations. E. are none of these
B. are used to provide guidance for tasks performed repeatedly within the organization.
Traditionally, if Stephanie, CEO of Butterfly Pillows, needed to conduct corporate planning, it would be performed by all of the following except: A. central planning departments. B. decentralized planning groups. C. top executives. D. consulting groups. E. the president of the company
B. decentralized planning groups
Alabama Airlines has three planning specialists who help division managers develop their own division plans. Serving as consultants to the divisions, the planning specialists give advice about strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. Alabama Airlines is utilizing what approach to the planning function? A. Centralized planning department B. Decentralized planning staff C. Planning task force Centralized planning committee E. TQM
B. decentralized planning staff
One major limitation of goals and plans is: A. goals and plans guide resource allocation. B. goals and plans may cause rigidity in a turbulent environment. C. goals and plans decrease employee motivation. D. goals and plans decrease employee commitment. E. none of the above.
B. goals and plans may cause rigidity in a turbulent environment.
All of the following are characteristics of effective goal setting except: A. goals should be challenging but not unreasonably difficult. B. goals should be set for every aspect of employee behavior. C. specific and measurable. D. cover key results area. E. linked to rewards.
B. goals should be set for every aspect of employee behavior.
The traditional approach to corporate planning was to: A. have a decentralized planning staff. B. have a centralized planning department. C. set up a planning task force. D. set up planning committees. E. use TQM approach.
B. have a centralized planning department
Kate is a salesperson at a large retail chain. She was assigned a goal of $265,000 in sales for the current quarter. She is unhappy because she knows that the most any salesperson has sold in one quarter in the past is $150,000. Her goal of $265,000 is probably: A. not specific and measurable. B. not realistic. C. irrelevant. D. lacking a specific time period. E. does not cover key result area.
B. not realistic
Managers use _____ to direct employees and resources toward achieving specific outcomes that enable the organization to perform efficiently and effectively. A. strategic goals B. operational goals C. growth goals D. financial results E. internal business process goals
B. operational goals
A blueprint specifying the resource allocations schedules, and other actions necessary for attaining goals is referred to as a(n) _____. A. goal B. plan C. mission D. vision E. objective
B. plan
"No food and/or drinks in the classroom" is an example of a _____. A. procedure B. rule C. policy D. single-use plan E. project
B. rule
Cheyenne Creamery requires that all absent employees bring a note from their doctor when returning to work. This is an example of a: A. single plan use. B. standing plan. C. program. D. procedure. E. project
B. standing plan
Sarah is a middle manager at Stylin' Sneakers Corporation. She is most likely responsible for the achievement of _____ goals. A. operational B. tactical C. strategic D. lower level E. top level
B. tactical
Goals that define the outcomes that major divisions and departments must achieve in order for the organization to reach its overall goals is called: A. strategic goals. B. tactical goals. C. operational goals. D. a mission. E. a plan
B. tactical goals
Frostburg Fireplaces has used MBO for the past year. Top management just finished evaluating overall performance. The next step in the MBO process should be: A. to develop new action plans. B. to develop new objectives based on the review of last year's performance. C. to begin a new MBO "cycle", using the same objectives as last year. D. to wait several months to allow information to be digested. E. none of these.
B. to develop new objectives based on the review of last year's performance
Stella, a systems manager for a large technology company, would like to get an understanding of her company's financial position with respect to assets and liabilities at the end of the fiscal year. Which financial statement should she refer to?
Balance sheet
Which of the following is a comprehensive management control system that balances traditional financial measures with operational measures relating to a company's critical success factors?
Balanced scorecard
64. Which need describes the desire to be accepted by one's peer, have friendships, be part of a group, and be loved? a. Self-actualization needs b. Physiological needs c. Esteem needs d. Belongingness needs e. Safety needs
Belongingness needs
Which of the following is the process of measuring your organizational process against the best in the industry?
Benchmarking
_____ and _____ proposed a two dimensional leadership theory called the Managerial Grid.
Blake; Mouton
83. Boars' Nest Distributors is continually hampered by an inability to adapt to an unstable environment. Which of the following is a plausible explanation as to why?
Boars' Nest uses a vertical structure.
_____ control is the process of setting targets for an organizations expenditures.
Budgetary
_____ indicators focus on production and operating statistics.
Business process
Listening is ____ of effective communication. a. 25 percent b. 40 percent c. 75 percent d. 10 percent e. 50 percent
C
Darren set goals for each of his employees. Each employee ended up with at least twenty-five goals. This process violates which of the following criteria for effective goals? A. Specific and measurable B. Challenging but realistic C. Covers key result areas D. Defined time period E. Linked to rewards
C. Covers key result areas
Which of the following represent plans developed at the organization's lower levels that specify action steps toward achieving operational goals and that support tactical planning activities? A. Tactical plans B. Strategic plans C. Operational plans D. Supervisory plans E. Organizational plans
C. Operational plans
_____ is the act of determining the organization's goals and the means for achieving them. A. Brainstorming B. Organizing C. Planning D. Developing a mission E . A blueprint
C. Planning
Contingency plans are also referred to as: A. standing plans. B. rules. C. scenarios. D. procedures. E. operationally tactical plans
C. Scenarios
_____ are the broad statements of where the organization wants to be in the future. A. Operational goals B. Tactical goals C. Strategic goals D. Operational goals E. Tactical plans
C. Strategic goals
Which of the following is a visual representation of the key drivers of an organization's success, showing the cause-and-effect relationships among goals and plans? A. Operational plan B. Gantt chart C. Strategy map D. SWOT analysis E. Strategic plan
C. Strategy map
Which type of plan helps managers implement the overall strategic plan? A. Operational B. Contingency C. Tactical D. Crisis E. Corporate level
C. Tactical
Which of these are true about contingency plans? A. They are developed to achieve a set of goals that are unlikely to be repeated in the future. B. They are used to provide guidance for tasks performed repeatedly within the organization. C. They define company responses to specific situations, such as emergencies or setbacks. D. They are most important in the organizations. E. None of these
C. They define company responses to specific situations, such as emergencies or setbacks.
Which of the following is NOT involved in the stages of crisis planning? A. Setting up effective communication systems B. Creating detailed crisis management plans C. Investigating all stakeholders D. Designating a crisis management team and spokesperson E. Building relationships
C. investigating all stakeholders
"We seek to become the premier business school in the west" is an example of a statement you are most likely to find in the organization's _____. A. tactical goals B. operational goals C. mission D. tactical plans E. operational plans
C. mission
Sam is in charge of strategy control at Lanser's, a large clothing retailer. He regularly tracks sales in relation to targets, number of products on back order, and percentage of customer service calls resolved within specified time periods. These metrics are known as: A. financial indicators. B. tactical goals. C. performance dashboards. D. balanced scoreboards. E. operational standards.
C. performance dashboards
An example of a _____ is a statement supporting the organization's efforts in the area of sexual harassment. A. procedure B. rule C. policy D. single use plan E . program
C. policy
The two stages of crisis planning include: A. prevention and control. B. planning and leading. C. prevention and preparation. D. preparation and control. E. leading and organizing
C. prevention and preparation
A long-term time frame is most closely associated with: A. operational plans. B. tactical plans. C. strategic plans. D. mission plans. E. tactical goals.
C. strategic plans
In using MBO, objectives should be set by the: A. supervisor. B. employee. C. supervisor and the employee jointly. D. accounting department. E. top management.
C. supervisor and the employee jointly
Which of the following brings norms into the team from outside? A. Critical events B. Primacy C. Carryover behaviors D. Explicit statements E. Recency
Carryover behaviors
Which of these is a financial budget that estimates cash flows on a daily basis or weekly basis to ensure that the company can meet its obligations?
Cash budget
All of the following are examples of creative organizations EXCEPT?
Centralization
34. _____ means that decision authority is located near the _____ of the organization.
Centralization; top
The adoption of a new idea or behavior by an organization is known as organization.
Change
The adoption of a new idea or behavior by an organization is known as organizational.
Change
84. Which of the following is NOT a common method for reducing a perceived inequity? a. Change inputs b. Change outcomes c. Distorts perception d. Leave the job e. Change equity
Change equity
Communication and education tactic to change implementation should be used when
Change is technical
Which of the following is the intervention stage of organization development in which individuals experiment with new workplace behavior?
Changing
86. Samuel, a sales associate at an electronics store, learns that his base pay is higher than any other sales associate in the store. He justifies his higher salary to the idea that he must be a top sales associate, generating more revenue than anyone else. This example demonstrates which method for reducing perceived inequity? a. Working harder, not smarter b. Changing outcomes c. Changing work effort d. Changing perceptions e. Leaving the job
Changing perceptions
87. Yolanda recently learned that Sue, who works in the same position as she and has been with the company for the same amount of time, earns about ten percent more than she does. As a result, Yolanda feels that she should not work as hard, so she starts coming in late and taking more days off. This is an example of which method for reducing perceived equity? a. Working harder, not smarter b. Changing outcomes c. Changing work effort d. Changing perceptions e. Leaving the job
Changing work effort
"A fire that ignites followers" is used to describe which leadership characteristic?
Charisma
Which of the following types of leader is one who has the ability to motivate subordinates to transcend their expected performance
Charismatic
Which of the following types of leader is one who has the ability to motivate subordinates to transcend their expected performance?
Charismatic
D.
Classy Clay has extremely creative employees who, in the opinion of the organization, keep the company ahead of the competition. The creativity of these employees would be classified as a(n) _____. a.internal weakness b.external opportunity c.external strength d.internal strength e.neutral factor
Sandbox Sally's, Inc. is making some changes to the work schedules of its employees. Some of the employees are not happy with the changes. As their manager, Harry tells them that they can accept it or leave. What approach to change implementation is Harry using?
Coercion
Which approach to change implementation should be used when a crisis exists?
Coercion
Which of the following types of power is vested in the manager's ability to punish employees?
Coercive
Beth, a middle manager at Heather's Handbags, uses threats and punishments as ways of influencing the behavior of his subordinates. Which of the following sources of power is Beth relying on?
Coercive power
_____ is the extent to which team members are attracted to the team and motivated to remain in it. A. Norming B. Commitment C. Caring D. Cohesiveness E. Leadership.
Cohesiveness
When trying to overcome the resistance for change, which approach is best suited when change is technical?
Communication
TooEasy, Inc. is changing from a manual ordering system to a computer-based ordering system. As part of the implementation procedures, the company invests in detailed, comprehensive training classes. What approach to change implementation is TooEasy using?
Communication and education
61. Which of the following is NOT a need proposed by Maslow in his hierarchy of needs theory? a. Safety needs b. Compensation needs c. Physiological needs d. Esteem needs e. Self-actualization needs
Compensation needs
________ determines the structure, features, and functions of every information system.
Competitive strategy
Shifting one's own opinions to maintain team harmony refers to which socio-emotional role? A. Energizing B. Initiating ideas C. Encouraging D. Following E. Compromise
Compromise
69. Which is an advantage of the divisional structure?
Concern for customers' needs is high.
Which of the following is a follower who participates actively in the organization but does not use critical thinking skills?
Conformist
Researchers at the Ohio State University identified two major behaviors called:
Consideration and Initiating Structure
58. Which of the following theories emphasize the needs that motivate people? a. Process b. Reinforcement c. Content d. Contingency e. Situational
Content
Which of the following is a model of leadership that describes the relationship between leadership styles and specific organizational situations?
Contingency Approach
Which of the following is a model of leadership that describes the relationship between leadership styles and specific organizational situations?
Contingency approach
Which of the following refers to the system of governing an organization so that the interests of corporate owners are protected?
Corporate governance
Which of these, according to the leadership grid, is a 1,9 management style?
Country Club Management
Artful Innovations Inc. operates with open channels of communication and an established suggestion system that encourages brainstorming and freewheeling discussions. Artful Innovations can best be described as what type of organization?
Creative organization
The generation of novel ideas that may meet perceived needs or respond to opportunities for the organization is called?
Creativity
Which of the following refers to the generation of novel solutions to perceived problems?
Creativity
The role of the ____ is to prevent people in other roles from adopting a bad idea.
Critic
118. _____ is an important part of the job characteristics model. a. Critical psychological states b. A hierarchy of needs c. Schedules of reinforcement d. All of these e. None of these
Critical psychological states
Cooltown University recently invited members of its social network group to enter a contest on U-Tube to design the best video promoting the university. This is an example of what innovative approach?
Crowdsourcing
Which of the following refers to a major shift in the norms, values, attitudes, and mindset of the entire organization?
Culture change
_____ refers to the steps taken to complete a company process.
Cycle time
The ultimate impact of goals depended on the extent to which goal achievement is linked to: A. rewards. B. salary increases. C. promotions. D. all of these. E . salary increases and promotions.
D. All of these
Which of these are described by mission statements? A. Corporate values B. Product quality C. Location of facilities D. All of these E. None of these
D. All of these
You are violating which of these goal characteristics when you attempt to create goals for every aspect of employee behavior? A. Specific and measurable B. Linked to rewards C. Defined time period D. Cover key result areas E. Challenging but realistic
D. Cover key result areas
_____ enables firms to cope with unexpected events that are so sudden and devastating that they have the potential to destroy the organization if managers aren't prepared with a quick and appropriate response. A. Incident planning B. Contingency planning C. Strategic planning D. Crisis planning E. Emergency planning
D. Crisis planning
Jeff is a top manager at a textile factory. He is developing a crisis plan in the event that the company has a toxic spill or accident. Which of the following should Jeff undertake to prepare for such a crisis? A. Building relationships with neighboring businesses B. Detecting signals from the natural environment C. Polling employees on the likelihood of an environmental disaster D. Designating a crisis management team in the event of an environmental disaster E. Dismantling the company's ties to the external media
D. Designating a crisis management team in the event of an environmental disaster
Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits of MBO? A. Performance can be improved at all company levels. B. Employees are motivated. \ C. Efforts are focused on activities that will lead to goal attainment. D. Operational goals are able to displace strategic goals. E. Individual and department goals are aligned with company goals
D. Operational goals are able to displace strategic goals.
_____ goals lead to the attainment of _____ goals, which in turn lead to the attainment of _____ goals. A. Operational; strategic; tactical B. Tactical; operational; strategic C. Strategic; tactical; operational D. Operational; tactical; strategic E. None of these.
D. Operational; tactical; strategic
Of the strategic management functions, which is considered the most fundamental? A. Executing B. Analyzing C. Controlling D. Planning E. Leading
D. Planning
_____ is primarily responsible for strategic goals/plans. A. Middle management B. Board of directors C. Consultants D. Top management E. Lower management
D. Top management
Roxanne is a manager at Geronimo Gaming. She recently attended a seminar on goal setting. She wishes to use goals to provide a sense of direction to her staff. She is using goals as: A. a way to legitimize her department . B. a source of motivation. C. a standard of performance. D. a guide to action. E. a way to impress others.
D. a guide to action
At the top of the goal hierarchy is: A. strategic goals. B. tactical goals. C. operational goals. D. a mission. E. employee goals.
D. a mission
A statement that identifies distinguishing characteristics of an organization is known as a(n): A. goals statement. B. values statement. C. income statement. D. mission statement. E. competitive-edge statement.
D. mission statement
The _____ is the basis for the strategic level of goals and plans which in turn shapes the _____, and _____ level. A. goal; mission, tactical B. objective; operational, mission C . operational goal; mission and tactical D . mission; tactical, operational E . tactical plan; operational, mission
D. mission; tactical, operational
The _____ is the department manager's tool for daily and weekly operations. A. conventional goal B. strategic goal C. strategic plan D. operational plan E. targeted plan
D. operational plan
A project is an example of a: A . policy. B. standing plan. C. procedure. D. single use plan . E. rule
D. single use plan
Which of the following is considered a leverage ratio?
Debt ratio
At RWI Distilleries, rules and procedures are used only when necessary. Instead, shared goals and values guide employee behavior. RWI uses what type of organizational control?
Decentralized control
D.
Decisions regarding the proper amount of advertising for a particular good or service are related to: a.corporate-level strategies. b. functional-level strategies. c.tactical-level strategies. d.business-level strategies. e.retrenchment strategie
Ryan is a manager at Steve's Stoneworks, Inc. Hersey and Blanchard would consider most of his subordinates highly ready. Based on this, which of the following leadership styles is best for Ryan?
Delegating
36. Which of the following is the basis for grouping positions into departments and departments into the total organization
Departmentalization
You are the production manager for Connor's Construction, Inc. You decide to change the production procedure to increase efficiency. One of your long-time foremen is resisting the change, insisting that the idea won't work. He is exhibiting what obstacle to change?
Different assessment and goals
For the compact disc industry, the advent of MP3 technology can best be described as what type of innovation?
Disruptive innovation
_________ refers to innovations in products, services, or processes that radically change an industry's rules of the game for producers and consumers.
Disruptive innovation
_____ is a collaborative approach to negotiation that is based on a win-win assumption, whereby the parties want to come up with a creative solution that benefits both sides of the conflict. A. BATNA B. A bargaining zone C. Mediation D. Integrative negotiation E. Distributive negotiation
Distributive negotiation
____ is NOT a type of current problem that organizational development can help address.
Diversification
49. _____ is defined as all the ways in which people differ.
Diversity
10. _____ is also referred to as work specialization.
Division of labor
B.
Double Click, Inc. has a number of strategic business units. Their hand-held computer unit has a large market share inthis rapidly growing industry. Their hand-held computer business would be classified as: a.a dog. b.a star. c.a question mark. d.a cash cow. e.stuck in the middle.
89. The _____ involves whether putting effort into a task will lead to high performance. a. P -> O expectancy b. E -> P expectancy c. O -> V expectancy d. A -> Z expectancy e. V -> P expectancy
E -> P expectancy
According to the strategy map described in chapter 7, which of the following is NOT a type of goal? A. Financial performance goals B. Customer service goals C . Internal business process goals D . Learning and growth goals E . External business process goals
E. External business process goals
_____ is primarily responsible for operational goals/plans. A. Middle management B. Board of directors C. Consultants D. Top management E. Lower management
E. Lower management
Which of the following is a commonly-cited limitation of planning? A. Plans limit employee motivation and commitment. B. Plans make resource allocation more difficult. C. Plans make it more difficult to measure standards of performance. D. Plans boost intuition and creativity. E. Plans can create a false sense of security
E. Plans can create a false sense of security
_____ are called the action steps by which an organization intends to attain its strategic goals. A. Tactical goals B. Operational goals C. Tactical plans D. Operational plans E. Strategic plans
E. Strategic plans
The crisis management plan should be a _____ that specifies the actions to be taken, and by whom, if a crisis occurs. A. vague, verbal plan B. detailed, verbal plan C. long, difficult to read plan D. vague, written plan E. detailed, written plan
E. detailed, written plan
A(n) _____ is a cross-functional group of managers and employees who work together to gain a deep understanding of a specific business issues, with the aim of presenting insights related to that issue. A. espionage team B. functional team C. task force D. project team E. intelligence team
E. intelligence team
Silver Star Automobiles holds monthly planning and operational reviews to ensure that it is on track for meeting organizational goals. This involves which stage of the organizational planning process? A. Developing the plan B. Translating the plan C. Plan operations D. Executing the plan E. Monitoring and learning
E. monitoring and learning
Which of the following is not a step in the organizational planning process? A. Monitor and learn B. Plan operations C. Translate the plan D. Develop the plan E. Plan marketing tactics
E. plan marketing tactics
Which of the following is a control system that measures performance in terms of after-tax profits minus the cost of capital invested in tangible assets?
Economic value-added system
________ means creating more output with the same inputs or the same output with fewer inputs.
Efficiency
131. _____ is power sharing, or the delegation of power or authority to subordinates in an organization. a. Engagement b. Synergy c. Motivation d. Empowerment e. Leadership
Empowerment
Which of the following behaviors is NOT consistent with the socioemotional role? A. Encourage B. Energize C. Harmonize D. Compromise E. Follow
Energize
133. _____ is a situation in which employees enjoy their work, contribute enthusiastically to meeting goals, and feel a sense of belonging and commitment to the organization. a. Commitment b. Engagement c. Employee loyalty d. Employee assurance e. Employee guarantee
Engagement
________ products process large organizational and workgroup databases.
Enterprise DBMS
The horizontal linkage model is best applied in what type of business environment?
Environment that requires speed
82. _____ theory deals with employee's perception of fairness. a. Expectancy b. Reinforcement c. Need hierarchy d. Equity e. ERG
Equity
81. Which of the following is an example of a process theory of motivation? a. Need hierarchy theory b. Equity theory c. Two-factor theory d. ERG theory e. Acquired needs theory
Equity theory
Kendra is a manager at George's Goodies. On a regular basis Kendra and her subordinates set individual and organizational goals. This process is similar to which component of the control model?
Establishing performance standards
What is the first step in the feedback control system?
Establishing standards of performance
62. Nelson is motivated by a strong need for recognition and is continually seeking credit for his contributions to the organization. According to Maslow, Neil is motivated by which category of needs? a. Physiological b. Safety c. Belongingness d. Esteem e. Self-actualization
Esteem
85. Which of the following is based on the relationships between effort, performance, and outcomes? a. Equity theory b. Expectancy theory c. Reinforcement theory d. Two-factor theory e. ERG theory
Expectancy theory
Ron meets with his company's accountant to discuss the budget of anticipated and actual expenses for each segment of the organization. This involves review of which type of budget?
Expense budget
Which of the following includes anticipated and actual expenses for a responsibility center?
Expense budget
102. Which of the following techniques reduces the likelihood that behavior will be repeated? a. Positive reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement c. Extinction d. Reward enhancement e. All of these
Extinction
105. Which of these refers to the withdrawal of a positive reward, meaning that behavior is no longer reinforced and hence is less likely to occur in the future? a. Avoidance learning b. Punishment c. Positive reinforcement d. Extinction e. None of these
Extinction
106. One of your fellow team members at work is continually disrupting the team's work with jokes and general horseplay. You hope that by ignoring him he will stop this senseless behavior. You are attempting to use which reinforcement tool? a. Extinction b. Positive reinforcement c. Negative reinforcement d. Avoidance learning e. Desired behavior is reinforced annually
Extinction
D.
FLY Industries is a global conglomerate company headquartered in the United States that does business in over fifty countries. The company seeks to balance global efficiencies and local responsiveness by hiring locally as well as from home. It can best be described as using which global corporate strategy? a.Globalization strategy b.Multidomestic strategy c.Export strategy d.Transnational strategy e.Domestic strategy
10. According to MANAGER'S SHOPTALK in Chapter 16, a criticism of carrot-and-stick approaches is that extrinsic rewards assume people are driven by higher-level needs. a. True b. False
False
12. External and relatedness are the first two groups of needs in Aldefer's ERG theory. a. True b. False
False
14. Herzberg's two-factor theory divides work-related needs into two categories: hygiene factors and reward factors. a. True b. False
False
17. Hygiene factors are the same as satisfiers and are based on fulfillment of higher level needs including responsibility. a. True b. False
False
19. A need for power, a need for accomplishment and a need for superior power is proposed by David McClelland's acquired needs theory. a. True b. False
False
2. Two ways to classify rewards are extrinsic and monetary. a. True b. False
False
22. Expectancy theory is a process theory that focuses on individuals' perception of how fairly they are treated in comparison to other people. a. True b. False
False
25. Goal specificity, in goal-setting theory, refers to the difficulty level of goals. a. True b. False
False
28. Expectancy theory is based on the relationship among the individual's effort and performance and not on the desirability of outcomes. a. True b. False
False
3. Rewards given by another person are intrinsic rewards. a. True b. False
False
32. The expectancy theory attempts to define specific types of needs or rewards to establish that they exist and may be similar to other individuals. a. True b. False
False
35. The imposition of unpleasant outcomes on an employee is avoidance learning. a. True b. False
False
36. Punishment increases the likelihood that behavior will be repeated. a. True b. False
False
4. Extrinsic rewards refers to the satisfaction a person receives in the process of performing a particular action. a. True b. False
False
41. Job enlargement is a job design that incorporates achievement, recognition, and other high-level motivators into the work. a. True b. False
False
44. The job characteristic of autonomy influences the worker's experiencing meaningfulness of work. a. True b. False
False
46. Gain sharing rewards employees with part ownership of the organization based on achieving performance goals. a. True b. False
False
6. Process theories emphasize the needs that motivate people. a. True b. False
False
9. In Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, freedom from violence is an example of physiological needs. a. True b. False
False
A change in behavior or performance that occurs as the result of experience refers to perception.
False
A common dysfunction of teams is to be results oriented. True False
False
A competing style to handle conflict involves a high degree of assertiveness and a high degree of cooperation. True False
False
A formal team composed of employees from different areas of expertise and from different levels in the organization's formal chain of command is called a vertical team. True False
False
A group and a team are interchangeable terms. True False
False
A key is a physical device that is used to lock and unlock a message.
False
A multidomestic team is a work team made up of members of different nationalities whose activities span multiple countries. True False
False
A positive attitude toward one's job is called cognitive attitude.
False
A special purpose team is basically the same as a problem solving team. True False
False
Although diversity contributes to higher levels of agreement in a team setting, it also results in reduced creativity. True False
False
An accommodating style to handle conflict involves a high degree of assertiveness and a low degree of cooperation. True False
False
An internal attribution says something about the situation has caused the person's behavior.
False
As a result of Moore's Law, the ratio of price to performance of computers has increased dramatically over the years.
False
Attribution is the cognitive process people use to make sense out of the environment by selecting, organizing, and interpreting information.
False
Distributive negotiation is a collaborative approach to negotiation that is based on a win-win assumption, whereby the parties want to come up with a creative solution that benefits both sides of the conflict. True False
False
During the norming stage of team development, individual personalities emerge causing conflict and disagreements. True False
False
From attributions viewpoint, if the behavior is distinctive, the perceiver probably will make an internal attribution.
False
Horizontal teams are created by the organization as part of the formal organization structure. True False
False
Individual personalities emerge during the performing stage. True False
False
Job satisfaction is work behavior that goes beyond job requirements and contributes as needed to the organization's success.
False
Malware protection is an example of a data safeguard.
False
Negotiation is the process of using a third party to settle a dispute. True False
False
One of the developmental tasks of a database administrator is to create a system to record and manage the resolution of problems.
False
Porter's five forces model is also referred to as the value chain model.
False
Processes, systems, and information need to be created by a company to avoid "falling behind the technology curve."
False
Productive output pertains to the team's ability to meet the personal needs of its members. True False
False
Proximity is the tendency to group sensory data because they are alike in some way.
False
Recency supports the old truism that first impressions really do count.
False
Recent surveys indicate that the majority of working individuals strongly trust in their top management.
False
Satisficing is a team's ability to meet personal needs of its members and hence maintain their membership and commitment. True False
False
Task conflict refers to interpersonal incompatibility that creates tension and personal animosity among people. True False
False
Teams run efficient meetings, whereas groups run meetings that encourage open-ended discussion. True False
False
Technology change involves the hierarchy of authority. goals, administrative procedures and managerial systems.
False
The compromising style of conflict management reflects a high degree of cooperativeness and a low degree of assertiveness. True False
False
The five stages of team development are forming, storming, reforming, performing, and adjourning. True False
False
The four common ways in which norms develop for controlling and directing behavior are critical events, primacy, carryover behaviors, and implicit statements. True False
False
The innovation strategy for changing products and technologies that involves designing the organization to encourage creativity and the initiation of new ideas is known as cooperation.
False
The stage of team development in which conflicts are resolved and members focus on problem solving is called reforming. True False
False
The tendency to see one's own personal traits in other people refers to attribution
False
The three common alternatives for connecting to the Internet are WAN, Cable line, and DSL.
False
Two common behaviors of the socioemotional role are energizing and encouraging. True False
False
When a team is in moderate competition with other teams, its cohesiveness decreases as it strives to win. True False
False
Whenever you see http in your browser's address bar, you have a secure transmission and you can safely send sensitive data like credit card numbers.
False
Work team effectiveness is based on two outcomes--productive output and marketplace acceptance. True False
False
XML is the most common markup language for defining the structure and layout of Web pages.
False
Inbound logistics processes receive, store, and disseminate product input.
False but Should be true though?
A______ team is a multifunctional and sometimes multinational team that works under stringent timelines and is provided with high levels of resources and empowerment to accomplish an accelerated product development project.
Fast-cycle
At LifeCycle Products, a team of individuals from all areas of the company is currently working under a very strict deadline to develop the company's newest product. Luckily, the team is provided with a high level of resources and empowerment from management. This team can best be described as a(n):
Fast-cycle team
125. _____ is the extent to which doing the job provides information back to the employee about his or her performance. a. Feedback b. Assessment c. Evaluation d. Satisfaction e. Fulfillment
Feedback
80. In goal-setting theory, which term refers to the need to get information to people about how well they are doing in progressing toward goal achievement? a. Goal specificity b. Goal difficulty c. Goal acceptance d. Feedback e. Goal motivation
Feedback
What is the ideal size of work teams? A. Three B. Five C. Twelve D. Fifteen E. Twenty-three
Five
Harvest International is anticipating changes in their production procedures. You have been assigned to identify potential barriers to the change and suggest solutions to these barriers. You are using
Force field analysis
B.
Ford's decision to completely redesign its Ford Taurus can be classified asa: a.corporate level strategy. b. business level strategy. c.functional level strategy. d.retrenchment strategy. e.stability strategy
_____ are created by the organization as part of the formal organization structure.
Formal teams
Which of the following is the first stage of team development? A. Forming B. Storming C. Norming D. Performing E. Reforming
Forming
B.
Fred has been assigned to conduct a SWOT analysis for his organization, Acme, Inc.As part of this assignment, Fred will: a.conduct an external wage survey. b. search for the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats that impact his firm. c.choose a grand strategy for his firm. d.do a cost/benefit analysis. e.develop a mission
95. Which of the following structures is most consistent with a strategy of stability?
Functional structure
Which of the following is a formal team composed of a manager and his or her subordinates? A. Functional team B. Horizontal team C. Self-managed team D. Special-purpose team E. Social team
Functional team
D.
Gatekeep Utilities is a subsidiary ofGW Enterprises. Gatekeep has a mission and product line that is unique from GW. Gatekeep's competitors are also very different from those of its parent, and the subsidiary markets to a very different group of customers. As such, Gatekeep can be described as a(n) _____. a.product unit b. functional unit c.operational unit d.strategic business unit e.boston consulting group uniy
C.
General Products Inc. is a small clothing designer and manufacturer located in the United States. A vast majority ofthe company's revenues comes from U.S. sales, although about ten percentof the company's revenue come from sales toCanada. General Products Inc. can best be described as using which global corporate strategy? a.Globalization strategy b.Multidomestic strategy c.Export strategy d.Transnational strategy e.Domestic strategy
50. Salta Communications is a global telecommunications company that has operations on four continents. The CEO's direct supervisors include VPs for the North American South American, European, and the Asian divisions. Salta can best be described as using what organizational structure?
Geographic
B.
Gillette operates numerous strategic business units. Most of its units in the personal care division have low market share but high business growth. These units are classified as _____. a.dogs b.question marks c.stars d.cash cows e.none of these
_____ can present enormous challenges for team leaders, who have to bridge gaps of time, distance, and culture.
Global teams
78. Which term, in goal-setting theory, refers to the need to make goals highly ambitious but achievable? a. Goal specificity b. Goal difficulty c. Goal acceptance d. Feedback e. Goal motivation
Goal difficulty
70. Highroller Casinos provides good salaries and benefits, including bonuses of up to 25 percent of annual salaries. However, the company has been criticized for not establishing an achievement or recognition program for its employees. Which of the following best describes the company in terms of the two-factor theory? a. Good motivators and inadequate hygiene factors b. Good hygiene factors and inadequate motivators c. Good hygiene factors and motivators d. Inadequate hygiene factors and motivators e. None of the above
Good hygiene factors and inadequate motivators
________ is the most common language for defining the layout and structure of web pages.
HTML
________ is the process of reducing the vulnerabilities of a computer by restricting the functions and actions it is willing to perform.
Hardening
Amber is a member of a work team at Buchanon Dance, Inc. She often attempts to help disagreeing parties reach agreement. This is an example of which socioemotional role behavior? A. Compromise B. Follow C. Reduce tension D. Harmonize E. Summarize
Harmonize
77. Alden is a recent college graduate. He is unsure about his future. A counselor in his university's career resources office recently told Alden that he had a high need for achievement. Based on this, what type of career should Alden pursue? a. He should look for work as a project manager. b. He should think about starting his own business. c. He should look for work in "corporate America," he is sure to climb to the top. d. He should play the Lotto. e. None of these.
He should think about starting his own business
96. Which of the following is a basic aim of diversity awareness training?
Helping individuals become aware of their own prejudices
At LBK Industries, responsibility for quality control rests with a team of quality control inspectors and supervisors rather than with employees. LBK uses what type of organizational control?
Hierarchical control
57. Which motivation theory proposes that needs must be satisfied in sequence? a. Reinforcement theory b. ERG theory c. Hierarchy of needs theory d. Experiential learning theory e. Social learning theory
Hierarchy of needs theory
59. Which of the following is a content theory that proposes that people are motivated by physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization needs? a. Reinforcement theory b. Process theory c. Situational theory d. Hierarchy of needs theory e. Contingency theory
Hierarchy of needs theory
46. Which racial or ethnic category currently represents the largest and fastest growing minority group?
Hispanic
48. Which of the following group is expected to grow the most in employment from 2008 to 2018?
Hispanic
Innovation requires the coordination that occurs with the?
Horizontal linkage model
B.
How business units and product lines fit together in a logical way is the essence of: a.business-level strategy. b. portfolio strategy. c.competitive strategy. d.financial strategy. e.functional strategy
_____ means being unpretentious and modest rather than arrogant and prideful.
Humility
_____ standards represent an international standard for quality management.
ISO 9000
Which of these is based on a set of international standards for quality?
ISO certification
D.
If ABC International has standardized its product line throughout the world itis pursuing a: a.multidomestic strategy. b.retrenchment strategy. c.diversity strategy. d.globalization strategy. e.liquidation strategy
The final step to be managed in the change process is:
Implementation
_____ provide the basic information used for financial control of an organization.
Income statements
73. The majority of hourly workers at Formatting Unlimited are neither satisfied nor dissatisfied. What would Herzberg recommend if your goal were to increase their level of satisfaction? a. Increase the level of hygiene factors b. Increase the level of motivators c. Decrease the level of motivators d. Decrease the level of hygiene factors e. None of these
Increase the level of motivators
57. Which of the following is not a dividend of workplace diversity?
Increased costs associated with high turnover, absenteeism, and lawsuits.
Sally is a member of a work team at Beauty-R-Us Corporation. She often proposes new solutions to team problems. This is an example of which task specialist role? A. Harmonize B. Seek information C. Initiation D. Reduce tension E. Compromise
Initiation
According to business week 72% of top executives reported that _____ is a top priority.
Innovation
Which of the following is NOT one of the four key strategies for achieving a win-win solution through negotiation? A. Separate the people from the problem B. Focus on interests C. Generate many alternatives for mutual gain D. Insist that results be based on objective standards E. Keep the demands at the center
Insist that results be based on objective standards
104. _____ refers to the fact that services are perishable and cannot be stored in inventory.
Intangible output
At work, Sue Ellen favors a consensual and collaborative process, where influence derives from relationships rather than positions of power and formal authority. As such, she can best be viewed as what type of leader?
Interactive
In the process of implementing the balanced scorecard approach at his company, operations manager Seth Howard wonders whether internal activities and processes add value for customers and shareholders. This involves which dimension of the balanced scorecard?
Internal business processes
______ are stressors associated with relationships in the organization.
Interpersonal demands
Which of the following is NOT a valid component of authentic leadership?
Isolates Self From Others
Which of the following is NOT a valid component of authentic leadership?
Isolates self from others
Which of the following is TRUE of MySQL?
It is license-free for most applications.
Mistletoe Corporation has a detailed set of organizational goals and management information system that delivers timely and accurate information. Mistletoe still has control problems, however, because its managers refuse to act on the information they receive. Mistletoe's control process has flaws in which of the following areas?
Its ability to take corrective action when necessary
B.
Janessa is the CEO of a privately-held software company. In defining corporate-level strategies, which of the following questions would she most likely be concerned with? a.How do we compete? b. What business are we in? c.How does marketing support the business? d.How can we maximize profits? e.How can we make manufacturing processes more efficient?
110. Which of the following is the application of motivational theories to the structure of work for improving productivity and satisfaction? a. Job design b. Job enlargement c. Job simplification d. Job characteristics e. Job enrichment
Job design
115. Which of the following combines a series of tasks into one new, broader job? a. Job simplification b. Job enlargement c. Job rotation d. Job characteristics e. Job lay-off
Job enlargement
117. Karen is a first line supervisor at Wolfs, Inc. She wishes to increase her employee's opportunities for growth and learning. Which of the following techniques should she use? a. Job enlargement b. Job enrichment c. Job rotation d. Positive reinforcement e. Continuous
Job enrichment
113. _____ systematically moves employees from one job to another, thereby increasing the number of different tasks an employee performs without increasing the complexity of any one job. a. Job simplification b. Job rotation c. Job enlargement d. Job enrichment e. None of these
Job rotation
Inventory managers at SYX Enterprises utilize an inventory control system where materials are scheduled to arrive just as they are needed on the production line. This is referred to as:
Just-in-time inventory control
____ schedule materials to arrive at a company just as they are needed on the production line.
Just-in-time inventory system
28.Kevin's subordinates are highly trained and all perform similar tasks. Nichole's subordinates are spread over two locations and she has little available in the way of support systems. Which of the following statements is most correct?
Kevin's span of management can be larger than Nichole's.
High-Low Productions recently appointed 75 employees and external stakeholders to a temporary group that would discuss problems and opportunities, and would gather perspectives on changes that need to take place within the company. High-Low Productions is utilizing which organizational change tool?
Large group intervention
____ is an approach that brings together participants from all parts of the organization to discuss problems or opportunities and plan for major change.
Large-group intervention
Focusing on how well resources and human capital are being managed for the company's future by showing an improvement trend over periods of time refers to which component of the balanced scorecard?
Learning and growth
Which of the following is the power coming from a formal management position in the organization?
Legitimate power
71. Which of the following is(are) an advantage of team structure?
Less response time, quicker decisions
Linda is viewed by her colleagues as someone who makes productive contributions through talent, knowledge, and good work habits, but she is sometimes hard to work with because of her communication style. Based on the Level 5 leadership spectrum, Linda would be placed in which category?
Level 1: Highly capable individual
The leader who builds an enduring great organization through a combination of personal humility and professional resolve is a _____
Level 3
The leader who builds widespread commitment to a clear and compelling vision and stimulates people to high performance is a _____ leader
Level 4
Which of the following refers to the highest level in a hierarchy of manager capabilities?
Level 5 leadership
Ricky is well loved by his co-workers at Axel Cable Inc. He is viewed as having a great deal of humility, often giving credit for successes to other members of his team. As such, Ricky would be placed in which category of the Level 5 leadership spectrum?
Level 5: Level 5 executive
Which of the following refers to funding activities with borrowed money?
Leverage
129. Ricky is a manager at InfoServices, where she rewards the top sales employee every month by giving him or her a high-definition TV or PC. This is an example of what employee motivation program? a. Pay for performance b. Lifestyle award c. Employee stock ownership plan d. Flexible work schedule e. Team-based compensation
Lifestyle award
22. Which department performs tasks that reflect the organization's primary goals and mission?
Line
______ is the tendency to direct much of one's behavior toward the acquisition of power and the manipulation of others for personal gain.
Machiavellianism
77. Which of the following happens as organizations grow?
Managers have to find ways to tie different departments.
21. Which of the following typically is NOT considered a staff department?
Manufacturing
24. Carly's Clothes, Inc. manufactures children's clothes. Which of the following departments for Carly's Clothes can be considered a line department?
Manufacturing department
Which financial control system measures the stock market's estimate of the value of a company's past and projected capital investment projects?
Market value-added
101. Swift Move Facilities manufacturers two different bicycle models. The company produces a high volume of products using standardized production runs. The company does very little product customization. Swift Move uses what type of technology structure?
Mass production
Zachary, a manager at ExecuComp, receives quarterly reports, which track his department's production statistics. However, these reports lack key information regarding reject rates. Which of the following components of the control model need improvement?
Measuring actual performance
_____ reflects a moderate amount of concern for both people and production.
Middle of the Road Management
_____ reflects a moderate amount of concern for both people and production.
Middle of the road management
A.
Mingles, Inc. concentrates its efforts on its target market of 18 to 25 year olds. Itis using a(n) _____ strategy. a.focus b.differentiation c.cost leadership d.multidomestic e.universal strategy
Fred, a software engineer, is in charge of scrutinizing electronic communication patterns as part of his role within a virtual team at work. Fred's role fulfills which virtual team practice? A. Using technology to build relationships B. Shaping culture through technology C. Monitoring progress and rewards D. Administering rewards E. Using global teams to develop technology
Monitoring progress and rewards
Which of the following statements is true? A. Morale is higher in cohesive teams. B. Productivity is lower in cohesive teams. C. Satisfaction is lower in cohesive teams. D. Morale always suffers in cohesive teams. E. Absenteeism rates are substantially higher with cohesive teams.
Morale is higher in cohesive teams.
51. Which of the following is the arousal, direction, and persistence of behavior? a. Commitment b. Motivation c. Satisfaction d. Rewarding behavior e. Behavior modification
Motivation
71. Which of the following are high-level needs, according to Herzberg, and include achievement, recognition, responsibility, and opportunity for growth? a. Hygiene factors b. Extrinsic factors c. Motivators d. Dissatisfiers e. All of these
Motivators
72. _____ have the greatest impact, according to Herzberg, on job satisfaction. a. Hygiene factors b. Reinforcers c. Motivators d. Dissatisfiers e. All of these
Motivators
At which stage of the change process do managers evaluate problems and opportunities?
Need for change
____ indicates a disparity between existing and desired performance levels.
Need for change
Before implementing new changes in work schedules, Trudy's Trinkets works with the union to ensure a smooth transition. What approach to change is this company using?
Negotiation
Which approach should a group use to resist change if the group has power over implementation and if the group will lose out in the change?
Negotiation
____ uses formal bargaining to win acceptance and approval of a desired change.
Negotiation
The ____ is a unit separate from the rest of the organization responsible for the development of a major innovation
New Venture Team
A fund providing resources from which individuals and groups draw to develop new ideas, products, or businesses is referred to as a?
New-owner fund
Which of the following types of power stems from a leader's special knowledge?
None of these, reward power, referent power, legitimate power, coercive power.
Which of the following is a standard of conduct that is shared by team members and guides their behavior? A. Leadership B. Cohesiveness C. Norm D. Attitude E. None of these
Norm
Dale's work team is beginning to resolve its conflicts and consensus is developing on such things as members' roles. Dale's team is in which stage of team development? A. Norming B. Forming C. Storming D. Performing E. Reforming
Norming
During which stage of team development does team unity emerge? A. Forming B. Storming C. Performing D. Norming E. Adjourning
Norming
During which stage of team development should the team leader help clarify team roles, norms, and values? A. Adjourning B. Storming C. Forming D. Performing E. Norming
Norming
Silver n' Gold Inc. recently introduced a new control philosophy where all employees have access to the same information that owners have, such as what money is coming in and where it is going. This is an example of which control philosophy?
Open-book management
Which of the following allows employees to see for themselves the financial condition of the company?
Open-book management
________ processes are commonplace, routine, everyday business
Operational
101. Although she loves her job, Gloria is contemplating leaving it to focus her energy on parenting her three children. This would demonstrate which factor affecting women's careers?
Opt-out trend
29. Which of the following organizations have a flat structure compared to others?
Organization B with three hierarchical levels
Which of the following is the systematic process through which managers regulate organizational activities?
Organizational control
Organizational development can help managers address problems such as merger/acquisitions, conflict management, and ____.
Organizational decline/revitalization
Left-Right Industries employs a diverse set of individuals with strong personalities. Unfortunately, this means that there is a great deal of interpersonal disagreement among employees. What organizational tool would work best in this circumstance to manage conflict?
Organizational development
Which of the following is defined by the text as the application of behavioral science knowledge to improve an organization's health and effectiveness through its ability to cope with environmental changes, improve internal relationships, and increase problem-solving capabilities?
Organizational development
1. Which of the following refers to the deployment of organizational resources to achieve strategic goals?
Organizing
_____ refer(s) to the difference between assets and liabilities and is the company's net worth in stock and retained earnings.
Owners' equity
90. Tim is a manager at Chuck's Construction. He sees little opportunity for advancement at Chuck's Construction, regardless of how well he performs. Which of the following expectancies is low for Tim? a. E -> P expectancy b. O -> V expectancy c. P -> O expectancy d. E -> V expectancy e. None of these
P -> O expectancy
C.
Paramount, Inc. is particularly concerned about pending legislation in Congress that would further regulate their organization. This legislation would be classified as a(n) _____. a.external opportunity b.internal strength c.external threat d.external weakness e.congressional chao
The ____ approach to change implementation should be used when users have power to resist.
Participation
Michael's team has evolved to the storming stage of team development. As team leader, what should Michael be emphasizing? A. Lots of informal interaction B. Participation by all team members C. Task accomplishment D. Goal achievement E. Disbanding team
Participation by all team members
________ agreements that specify how the data will move among providers.
Peering
Jurgen is one of several middle managers sent to a training course on leadership skills. Through this effort, the organization is attempting:
People change
____ refers to a change in the attitudes and behaviors of a few employees in the organization.
People change
Use of the balanced scorecard can hinder or decrease organizational performance if it is implemented using which type of orientation?
Performance measurement orientation
55. _____ teams are brought together as a formal department in the organization.
Permanent
_____ power comes from personal sources that are not as invested in the organization, such as personal interests, goals, and values.
Personal
Referent power depends on the leader's:
Personal Characteristics
Self-confidence, honesty and integrity, and the desire to lead, are all components of which personal characteristic of leaders?
Personality
A.
Persuasion, motivation, and changes in cultures and values are examples of which of the dimensions used to implement strategy? a.Leadership b.Structural design c.Human resources d.Information and control systems e.Compensation
63. _____ describe the most basic human physical needs, including food, water and oxygen. a. Self-actualization needs b. Physiological needs c. Esteem needs d. Belongingness needs e. Safety needs
Physiological needs
_____ power comes from organizational structure and promotes stability, order, and problem solving within the structure.
Position
97. Which of the following is the administration of a pleasant and rewarding consequence following a desired behavior? a. Avoidance learning b. Punishment c. Positive reinforcement d. Extinction e. Suspension
Positive reinforcement
Which of these is the potential ability to influence the behavior of others?
Power
_____ means that the first behaviors that occur in a team often set a precedent for later team expectations. A. Critical events B. Primacy C. Carryover behaviors D. Explicit statements E. Recency
Primacy
93. Which of the following theories concern the thought processes that influence behavior? a. Process b. Reinforcement c. Content d. Needs e. Maslow's
Process
89. Which of the following is not an approach to structural design that reflects different uses of the chain of command?
Process approach
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of team structure and context influence cohesiveness? A. Personal attraction to the team B. Productivity expectations C. Shared goals D. Team interaction E. All of these are components
Productivity expectations
All of the following are major approaches to leadership EXCEPT:
Progressive Leadership
All of the following are major approaches to leadership EXCEPT:
Progressive leadership
87. Lisa is responsible for coordinating the efforts of several different departments. Which of the following titles best describes her position?
Project manager
101. _____ is the imposition of unpleasant outcomes on an employee. a. Avoidance learning b. Punishment c. Positive reinforcement d. Extinction e. Avoiding punishment
Punishment
103. One of your fellow students is continually late to class. The professor has tried numerous verbal warnings and recently took points away from the student's grade. Based on the above, the professor's actions are consistent with which of the following reinforcement techniques? a. Negative reinforcement b. Punishment c. Positive reinforcement d. Avoidance learning e. Rewards enhancement
Punishment
_____ is(are) most beneficial when employees have challenging jobs.
Quality circles
All of the the following are characteristics of creative individuals EXCEPT?
Rationality
Which of the following behaviors is consistent with the socioemotional role? A. Reduce tension B. Give opinions C. Seek information D. Summarize E. Energize
Reduce tension
82. Which of the following leads to strong coordination across functional areas and greater flexibility in responding to changes in the environments?
Reengineering
Which of the following is the reinforcement stage of organization development in which individuals acquire a desired new skill or attitude and are rewarded for it by the organization?
Refreezing
56. Which of the following theories focuses on employee learning of desired work behaviors? a. Reinforcement theory b. ERG theory c. Hierarchy of needs theory d. Experiential learning theory e. Content theory
Reinforcement Theory
60. _____ focus on employee learning of desired work behaviors. a. Contingency theories b. Situational theories c. Content theories d. Process theories e. Reinforcement theories
Reinforcement theories
96. Which of the following theories places an emphasis on behavior and its consequences? a. Two-factor theory b. Need hierarchy theory c. Reinforcement theory d. ERG theory e. Equity theory
Reinforcement theory
_____ is any organizational department or unit under the supervision of a single person who is responsible for its activity.
Responsibility center
_____ power is based in the ability of the leader to do such things as recommend promotions.
Reward
When leaders influence others through the exchange of benefits or favors, which influence tactic is being used?
Rule of Reciprocity
When leaders influence others through the exchange of benefits or favors, which influence tactic is being used?
Rule of reciprocity
_____ pertains to the team's ability to meet the personal needs of its members.
Satisfaction
15. _____ refers to a clearly defined line of authority in the organization that includes all employees.
Scalar principle
16. Rebecca works for a company that has clearly defined lines of authority. Each employee knows that he or she has authority and responsibility for a distinct set of tasks. Employees are also aware of the company's reporting structure as well as successive management levels all the way to the top. Rebecca's company follows which principle?
Scalar principle
A.
Sears' decision to sell off much of its financial services division is an example of a: a.corporate-level strategy. b. business-level strategy. c.functional-level strategy. d.growth strategy. e.stability strategy.
Cyrus's Resort has proposed some major structural changes within their organization. Some of the employees fear that they will lose power with the changes. They begin voicing resistance to the changes. What barrier to change are they exhibiting?
Self interests
_____ teams typically consist of 5 to 20 multiskilled workers who rotate jobs to produce an entire product or service or at least one complete aspect or portion of a product or service.
Self-directed
123. _____ is an individual's belief about his or her abilities to successfully accomplish a specific task or outcome. a. Self-control b. Self-efficacy c. Self-reinforcement d. Autonomy e. Delegation
Self-efficacy
Which of the following statements is true? A. Self-managed teams are empowered with decision-making authority. B. Self-managed teams still rely heavily on their manager. C. Self-managed teams have little access to resources. D. Self-managed teams will eventually develop into problem-solving teams. E. None of these
Self-managed teams are empowered with decision-making authority.
130. On the continuum of empowerment, what is the highest level of empowerment that requires the most complex skills? a. Self-management b. Suggestion programs c. Participation groups d. Cross-functional teams e. Periodic briefings
Self-management
_____ works best for employees with moderate readiness, according to Hersey and Blanchard.
Selling and participating
A.
Semway, a regional bank, recently announced that it would soon begin offering financial planning services. This is anexample of which of these?a.Related diversification b. Unrelated diversification c.Cross-functional diversification d.Product line diversification e.Industry diversification
A(n)_____ leader works to fulfill subordinated needs and goals as well as to achieve the organization's larger mission.
Servant
Jerome, a manager at Welford Nonprofit Group, is known for his selflessness and willingness to give to others. He likes working in the nonprofit sector because he wants to apply his skills and abilities to serve others who are less fortunate. Based on this information, which type of leader best describes Jerome?
Servant leader
Sandra works for a bank that is renowned for being the first commercial bank in the United States to introduce online banking. This can best be described as what type of innovation?
Service innovation
92. Which is the highest level of sexual harassment?
Sexual crimes
Jessica has just been appointed leader of a new work team in her organization. She is wondering what to do at her first meeting with the group. Which of the following would you suggest? A. She should waste little time; get the team focused on the task. B. She should help the team clarify roles and responsibilities. C. She should allow time for team members to become acquainted with one another; allow for informal social interaction. D. She should let someone else worry about this since she is the leader. E. She should propose to disband the team.
She should allow time for team members to become acquainted with one another; allow for informal social interaction.
Tiffany recently discovered that the reject rate for her department has exceeded the standard for performance in this area. What should Tiffany do to exercise effective control?
She should investigate and discover the cause of the problem.
A.
Sherri has been asked to participate on a cross-functional task force that is charged with performing an audit checklist for her advertising firm. The task force will analyze organizational strengths and weaknesses as they apply to the firm. Sherri's task isto analyze management quality, staff quality, degree of centralization, and organizational charts. This levelof analysis pertains to which area of the audit? a.Management and organization b.Marketing c.Human resources d.Research and development e.Production
Hersey and Blanchard are responsible for which theory?
Situational Theory
Which of the following is a quality control approach that emphasizes a relentless pursuit of higher quality and lower costs?
Six Sigma
Which quality control technique uses a five-step methodology to define, measure, analyze, improve, and control processes, otherwise referred to as DMAIC?
Six Sigma
"The Brain" is a permanent secret group within one of the nation's largest auto manufacturers. Members of this elite group focus intently on developing new and innovative automobile technologies. "The Brain" can best be described as what type of group or team?
Skunkwork
_____ refers to the tendency for the presence of others to enhance an individual's motivation and performance.
Social facilitation
_____ refers to the tendency for the presence of others to enhance one's motivation and performance. A. Public praise B. Social facilitation C. Community motivation D. Social performance E. Societal inspiration
Social facilitation
107. Which theory proposes that an individual's motivation can result not just from direct experience of rewards and punishments but also from the person's thoughts and beliefs and his or her observations of other people's behavior? a. Reinforcement theory b. Hierarchy of needs theory c. ERG theory d. Experiential learning theory e. Social learning theory
Social learning theory
124. Daisy tried to apply the job characteristics model to her workforce, but it only worked for some of her employees. Which of the following may be a reason why it did not work for everyone? a. Some of her employees are lazy. b. Some of her employees are low in growth-need strength. c. Some of her employees have a low need for power. d. All of her employees have high growth-needs. e. Some of her employees have low affiliation needs.
Some of her employees are low in growth-need strength
C.
Some people argue that _____ is the most difficult and most important part of strategic management. a.SWOT analysis b.strategic formation c.strategic execution d.strategic analysis e.strategy evaluation
Which of the following teams are created outside the formal organization structure to undertake a project of special importance or creativity? A. Vertical B. Command C. Special-purpose D. Cross-functional E. Functional
Special-purpose
23. _____ departments include all of those that provide specialized skills in support of _____ departments.
Staff; line
For control, this type of measure is an important part of achieving higher performance.
Statistical
61. _____ is a rigid, exaggerated, irrational belief associated with a particular group of people.
Stereotype
62. Stephanie is nervous about giving a presentation at the marketing firm where she works. One of her male coworkers told her, "Don't be such a girl, attack that presentation!" Now Stephanie is so concerned about appearing tough that she can barely concentrate on the content of the presentation. Stephanie's anxiety stems from:
Stereotype
64. _____ is a psychological experience of a person who, usually engaged in a task, is aware of a stereotype about his or her identity group suggesting he or she will not perform well on that task.
Stereotype threat
______ is the tendency to assign an individual to a group or broad category and then attribute generalizations about the group to the individual.
Stereotyping
______ is the tendency to assign an individual to a group or broad category and then attribute generalizations about the group to the individual.
Stereotyping
Which of the five stages of team development is marked by conflict and disagreement? A. Performing B. Norming C. Storming D. Forming E. Reforming
Storming
are natural talents and abilities that have been supported and reinforced w/ learned knowledge and skills and provide each individual w/ his or her best tools for accomplishment and satisfaction
Strengths
A physiological and emotional response to stimuli that place physical or psychological demands on an individual is called ______.
Stress
19. Which of the following characteristics distinguishes authority?
Subordinates accept it.
30. Which of the following factors is NOT associated with larger span of control?
Subordinates are located at various different locations.
_____ are goals that cannot be attained by a single party. A. Conflict goals B. Mission-driven goals C. Superordinate goals D. Competitive goals E. Extraordinary goals
Superordinate goals
Which of the following is an OD intervention technique in which questionnaires on organizational climate and other factors are distributed among employees and the results reported back to them by a change agent?
Survey feedback activites
37. Jacob, a customer service representative for AB Retailers, has seven levels of management between himself and the company's CEO. In contrast, his friend Rhonda, a customer service representative for YZ Retailers, has only four levels of management between her and the company CEO. Compared to YZ, Jacob's company has what type of organizational structure?
Tall
120. Which of the following refers to the degree to which an employee performs a total job with a recognizable beginning and ending? a. Task complexity b. Task identity c. Task significance d. Task structure e. None of these
Task Identity
______ are stressors arising from the tasks required of a person holding a particular job.
Task demands
Which of the following is consistent with initiating structure?
Task oriented behavior
A(n) _____ is a unit of two or more people who interact and coordinate their work to accomplish a specific goal.
Team
There are many organizational development activities, which are effective in solving many different problems. ____ enhances the cohesiveness and success of organizational groups.
Team building
_____, _____, and _____ are the three characteristics of team structure and context influence cohesiveness.
Team interaction; shared goals; personal attraction to the team
73. Which of the following is a contemporary approach to structural design in departmentalization?
Teams
Which of the following does NOT pertain to teams? A. Teams have a designated strong leader B. Teams have individual and mutual accountability C. Specific team vision or purpose D. Collective work products E. All of these pertain to teams
Teams have a designated strong leader
E.
Techniques used to monitor external environments include: a.hiring scanning organizations. b. hiring the competitive intelligence professionals. c.government reports. d.professional journals. e.all of these
A____ change is related to the organization production process.
Technological
Which of the following is a change in the organization's production process-- how the organization does its work?
Technology
According to the situational theory of Hersey and Blanchard, which of the following leader styles matches up best with low readiness subordinates?
Telling Style
According to the situational theory of Hersey and Blanchard, which of the following leader styles matches up best with low readiness subordinates?
Telling style
Sandra views herself as a tough but fair supervisor. She gives explicit directions to her subordinates about how tasks should be accomplished, but is not always approachable when they come to her with questions. Her employees sometimes feel that she is too gruff and impersonal. Which category on the situational leadership grid does Sandra fit into?
Telling style
C.
The BCG matrix organizes along which of the following dimensions? a.Market share and profit b.Sales and market share c.Business growth rate and market share d.Business growth rate and profit e.Sales and profits
Explain the Big Five personality factors. Are these applicable in an international context?
The Big Five personality factors describe an individual's extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience. Research has been limited to subjects in the United States, so it is difficult to apply in an international context.
E.
The _____ function recruits selects, trains, transfers, promotes, and lays off employees to achieve strategic goals. a.production b.leadership c.information and control systems d.structural design e.human resourcs
A.
The _____ strategy involves seeking efficient facilities, cutting costs and using tight cost controls to be more efficient than competitors. a.cost leadership b.differentiation c.focus d.internal growth e.liquidation
A.
The assumption that a single global market exists would lead toa: a.globalization strategy. b.multidomestic strategy. c.diversity strategy. d.domestic strategy. e.liquidation strategy
B.
The condition that exists when the organization's parts interact to produce a joint effect that is greater than the sum of the parts acting alone is known as: a.core competence. b. synergy. c.value creation. d.business-level strategy. e.multidomestic strategy
Which of the following is more common in large teams? A. Member satisfaction B. The development of subgroups C. Agreement D. Commitment E. All of these
The development of subgroups
What are the four components of emotional intelligence? Explain.
The four components of emotional intelligence are: self-awareness, self-management, social awareness and relationship awareness.
72. Which of the following is an invisible barrier that separates women and minorities from top management positions?
The glass ceiling
43. _____ serves as invisible barriers to important horizontal movement within the organization.
The glass wall
A.
The human resource department at Paula's Powerwheels is implementing a number of functional level strategies. These strategies include focusing on ways to retain and develop a stable work force and ways to improve efficiency in the organization. These functional-level strategies are consistent with which of the following strategies? a.Cost leadership b.Differentiation c.New product development d.New market development e.Divestiture
Which of the following is(are) important role(s) to be played during the process of organizational change?
The idea champion The critic The sponsor Inventor ALL OF THESE
What is force field analysis?
The process of determining which forces drive and which resist a proposed change.
B.
The purpose of _____ isto expand the firm's business operations to produce new kinds of valuable products and services? a.retrenchment b. diversification c.liquidation d.cash cow e.internal growth
C.
The question mark has a: a.large market share in a rapidly growing industry. b. large market share in a slow growth industry. c.small market share in a rapidly growing industry. d.small share of a slow growth market. e.moderate market share in a slow growth industry
3. Organizational structure includes which of these?
The set of formal tasks assigned to individuals, The set of formal tasks assigned to departments, The design of systems to ensure effective coordination of employees across departments, Formal reporting relationships
25. Which of the following refers to the number of employees reporting to a supervisor?
The span of management
A.
The star has a: a.large market share in a rapidly growing industry. b. large market share in a slow growth industry. c.small market share in a rapidly growing industry. d.small share of a slow growth market. e.moderate market share in a slow growth industry
Malcolm Bagget has been working as a production employee for the last three years. His firm is currently undergoing a change in structure with a new management group and the production department is being restructured. Each production employee will be assigned to a small six-member production team. Malcolm is looking forward to the extensive cross training that has been promised and is looking forward to enjoying more power and discretion than he has had in the past. In addition to skill training, Malcolm is receiving management training in team building. One of Malcolm's co-workers, Danny Newcomber, is great at reducing tension by telling jokes and in other ways drawing off emotions when the group atmosphere is tense. Additionally, Danny can be counted on to energize by stimulating the team into action when the interest drops. Danny is demonstrating which of these? a. The task specialist role b. The task and socioemotional role c. The socioemotional role d. The participator role e. None of these
The task and socioemotional role
Recently, Beagle Boutique was attempting to hire a middle manager. They were looking for an intelligent, active, and creative individual. Which approach to leadership was Beagle using?
The trait approach
Which of the following is a characteristic of structured processes?
They are effective.
Which of the following is TRUE about strategic processes?
They have broad scope and affect most of the firm.
88. Which of the following prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, and sex?
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
Kyle is seeing, on a regular basis, a difference between current and expected performance levels. She should begin?
To perceive a need for change
Which of the following symbolizes to all employees that the change is important for the organization?
Top managers support
Charlie, a manager at a textile company, is bothered by a lack in quality of products manufactured by his company. Charlie hopes to infuse quality into the company through continuous improvement by involving everyone who works there. This describes which control philosophy?
Total quality management
Which of the following is a philosophy of organization-wide commitment to continuous improvement, focusing on teamwork, customer satisfaction, and lowering costs?
Total quality management
55. Hopetech Industries has a corporate diversity plan that limits diversity to areas that do not change throughout a person's lifetime, such as race, gender, age, and disability. Hopetech's diversity plan follows which model of corporate diversity?
Traditional model
The distinguishing personal characteristics of a leader are known as:
Traits
Which type of leader clarifies the role and task requirements of subordinates?
Transactional
Andy's subordinates say that they love working for Andy because he inspires them to not only believe in the organization but to believe in their own potential as well. Based on this example, Andy can best be described as what type of leader?
Transformational
The _____ leader is distinguished by his/her ability to bring about organizational change.
Transformational
1. Employee motivation affects productivity, and part of a manager's job is to channel motivation toward the accomplishment of organizational goals. a. True b. False
True
11. Esteem needs are those needs that relate to the desire for a positive self-image and to receive attention, recognition, and appreciation from others. a. True b. False
True
13. Many companies are finding that creating a humane work environment that allows people to achieve a balance between work and personal life is also a great high-level motivator. a. True b. False
True
15. Factors that influence job satisfaction based on fulfillment of high-level needs such as achievement, recognition, and opportunity for growth are called motivators. a. True b. False
True
16. Hygiene factors are the same as dissatisfiers and include company policies and procedures. a. True b. False
True
18. The implication of the two-factor theory for managers is clear. Providing hygiene factors will eliminate employee dissatisfaction but will not motivate workers to high achievement levels. a. True b. False
True
20. A high need for power often is associated with successful attainment of top levels in the organizational hierarchy. a. True b. False
True
21. The group of theories that explain how employees meet their needs and determine their success are called process theories. a. True b. False
True
23. Goal acceptance, in goal-setting theory, means that employees have to "buy into" the goals and be committed to them. a. True b. False
True
24. Goal-setting theory proposes that managers can increase motivation by setting specific, challenging goals that are accepted as valid by subordinates, then helping people track their progress toward goal achievement by providing timely feedback. a. True b. False
True
26. The equity theory focuses on individual's perceptions of how fairly they are treated relative to others. a. True b. False
True
27. The equity theory, by J. Stacy Adams, states that equity exists when the ratio of outcomes to inputs for one person is equal to the same ratio for another person. a. True b. False
True
29. Motivation increases, according to the expectancy theory, when the worker believes that the successful performance will result by putting effort into a given task. This is called E-P expectancy. a. True b. False
True
30. According to expectancy theory, for an employee to be highly motivated, E-P expectancy and valence must be maximized. a. True b. False
True
31. Valence is the perceived value of a reward or outcome. a. True b. False
True
33. Behavior that is positively reinforced tends to be repeated, and behavior that is not reinforced tends not to be repeated, as stated in the Law of Effect. a. True b. False
True
34. The administration of a pleasant and rewarding consequence following a desired behavior is positive reinforcement. a. True b. False
True
37. Punishment is the imposition of an unpleasant outcome following undesirable behavior. a. True b. False
True
38. One weakness of the use of punishment in organizations is that it fails to indicate the correct behavior. a. True b. False
True
39. Extinction is defined as the withdrawal of positive reward. a. True b. False
True
40. Job rotation systematically moves employees from one job to another, thereby increasing the number of different tasks an employee performs without increasing the complexity of any one job. a. True b. False
True
42. Job enlargement combines a series of tasks into one new, broader job. a. True b. False
True
43. The degree to which the job is perceived as important and having an impact on the company or customers refers to task significance. a. True b. False
True
45. Skill variety, task identity, and task significance tend to influence the employee's psychological state of experienced meaningfulness of work. a. True b. False
True
47. Empowering employees means giving them four elements that enable them to act more freely to accomplish their jobs: information, knowledge, power, and rewards. a. True b. False
True
48. Employee stock ownership plans give employees part ownership of the organization, enabling them to share in improved profit performance. a. True b. False
True
49. Organizations that empower employees often reward them based on the results shown in the company's bottom line. a. True b. False
True
5. The arousal, direction and persistence of behavior refers to motivation. a. True b. False
True
50. Employee engagement means that people enjoy their jobs and are satisfied with their work conditions, contribute enthusiastically to meeting team and organizational goals, and feel a sense of belonging and commitment to the organization. a. True b. False
True
7. Three categories of motivation theories are content theories, process theories, and reinforcement theories. a. True b. False
True
8. Physiological needs are the most basic human physical needs, which are reflected in the workplace as needs for adequate heat, air, and base salary to ensure survival. a. True b. False
True
A collaborative approach to negotiation that is based on a win-win assumption, whereby the parties want to come up with a creative solution that benefits both sides of the conflict is called integrative negotiation. True False
True
A common cause of conflict includes scarce resources. True False
True
A competitive and adversarial negotiation approach in which each party strives to get as much as it can, usually at the expense of the other party is called distributive negotiation. True False
True
A database is a self-describing collection of integrated records.
True
A foreign key is essential in relational databases to represent the relationship between two tables.
True
A free rider is a person who benefits from team membership but does not make a proportionate contribution to the team's work. True False
True
A halo blinds the perceiver to other attributes that should be used in generating a more complete assessment.
True
A process may use multiple information systems, and an information system may touch many different processes.
True
A product change is a change in the organization's product or service outputs.
True
A statement that the average daily wage of all the construction workers in Nevada is $250 is an example of information.
True
A task force or a crossfunctional team is a group of employees from different departments formed to deal with a specific activity and existing only until the task is completed. True False
True
A team is defined as a group of two or more people who interact and coordinate their work to accomplish a specific objective. True False
True
A team shares or rotates leadership roles while a group has a designated strong leader. True False
True
A technological change is related to the organization's production process.
True
An avoiding style to handle conflict involves a low degree of assertiveness and a low degree of cooperation. True False
True
As a general rule, changing one component of an attitude can contribute to an overall change in attitude.
True
As a general rule, large teams make need satisfaction for individuals more difficult. True False
True
Controls help limit wide variations in activities so that a process runs more consistently and smoothly.
True
Creativity is the generation of novel ideas that may meet perceived needs or respond to opportunities for he organization.
True
Diet Soda Company has teams with high cohesiveness. Additionally, the teams are normally focused on their commitment to quality performance. This combination can be expected to result in high productivity. True False
True
Efficiency means accomplishing the process with minimum resources.
True
Efficiency objectives seek to conserve limited resources while effectiveness objectives help achieve a company strategy.
True
Employee involvement started out simply with techniques such as information sharing with employees or asking employees for suggestions about improving the work. Gradually, companies moved toward greater autonomy for employees, which ultimately led to self-directed teams. True False
True
Every business process has one or more possible objectives.
True
From attributions viewpoint, if the behavior is in consensus, the perceiver will probably respond to similar situations in the same way.
True
Global teams can pose a problem for team leaders with regards to language, technology, and belief differences. True False
True
Groupthink occurs when people are so committed to a cohesive team that they are reluctant to express contrary opinions. True False
True
In the adjourning stage of team development, task performance is not a priority. True False
True
Information is data presented in a meaningful context.
True
It is difficult to calculate the margin of supporting activities because the specific value added by supporting activities is difficult to know.
True
Loyalty to and heavy involvement in one's organization refers to organizational commitment.
True
Making explicit statements about the desired team behaviors is a powerful way leaders influence norms. True False
True
Management needs to cultivate a culture of compliance.
True
Norms begin to develop in the first interactions among members of a new team. True False
True
One of the primary advantages of virtual teams is the ability to rapidly assemble the most appropriate group of people to complete a project, solve a problem, or exploit a specific strategic opportunity. True False
True
Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary field dedicated to the study of how individuals and groups tend to act in organizations.
True
Organizational change refers to the adoption of a new idea or behavior by an organization.
True
Organizational strategy begins with an assessment of the fundamental characteristics and structure of an industry.
True
Organizations don't want to lose talented, highly skilled workers, so they try to create an atmosphere of job satisfaction.
True
Organizing the selected data into patterns for interpretation and response is the last step in the perception process.
True
Procedures anchor an information system to a process.
True
Rather than being controlled, dynamic processes are adaptive.
True
Research studies have confirmed that both functional diversity and gender diversity can have a positive impact on work team performance. True False
True
Self-directed teams are empowered with decision-making authority, allowing members to have the freedom to select new members, solve problems, spend money, monitor results, and plan for the future. True False
True
Self-directed teams consist of 5 to 20 multi-skilled workers who rotate jobs and produce an entire product or service. True False
True
Self-serving bias is when people give themselves too much credit for what they do well and give external forces too much blame when they fail.
True
Social facilitation is the tendency for the presence of others to influence an individual's motivation and performance. True False
True
Special data that describes the structure of a database is called metadata.
True
Standardized business processes reduce risk.
True
Team cohesiveness does not necessarily lead to higher team productivity. True False
True
Team members take the responsibilities of scheduling work and vacations and ordering materials in a self-directed team. True False
True
Teresa is highly imaginative and an artistically sensitive individual who displays a high degree of creativity. According to the Big Five personality factors, these qualities describe her openness to experience.
True
The degree to which a person is outgoing, sociable, assertive, and comfortable with interpersonal relationships is called extroversion.
True
The distinguishing characteristic of a LAN is a single location.
True
The innovation strategy for changing products and technologies that involves creating conditions and systems to facilitate internal and external coordination and knowledge sharing is known as cooperation.
True
The innovation strategy for changing products and technologies that involves designing the organization to encourage creativity and the initiation of new ideas is known as exploration.
True
The link between satisfaction and performance, according to research, is generally small and is affected by other factors.
True
The process of using a third party to settle a dispute is called mediation. True False
True
The storming stage of team development is marked by conflict and disagreement. True False
True
To connect to the Internet, every device needs an IP address.
True
Up to 500 user sites can share a cable line, and performance varies depending on how many other users are sending and receiving data.
True
Virtual and global teams are particularly prone to communication breakdowns. True False
True
Your browser sends requests and receives responses for service encoded in a predefined http request format.
True
______ is a behavior pattern characterized by extreme competitiveness, impatience, aggressiveness, and devotion to work
Type A behavior
_________ is the lack of information about future events.
Uncertainty
Beth's Barnyard, Inc. has decided to restructure the entire organization. You hold a meeting with your employees to notify them of the change. You do not give them any detailed information. Which of the barriers to change would you expect your employees to exhibit?
Uncertainty about the future
A step in the diagnosis stage of organizational development in which participants are made aware of problems is referred to as
Unfreezing
Organizational development specialists identify three distinct steps for achieving behavioral and attitudinal changes. These are
Unfreezing,changing and refreezing
13. _____ means that each employee is held accountable to only one supervisor.
Unity of command
51. The matrix structure violates which of the following principles of management?
Unity of command
91. Abbi works at Railroad Ties. Her bosses continually indicate that her motivational level is low. Abbi agrees, but is unwilling to work harder until the company changes the types of reward it offers its employees. Which of the following is low for Abbi? a. E -> P expectancy b. O -> P expectancy c. Valence d. Motivators e. O -> E indicators
Valence
92. Which of the following describes the value or attraction an individual has for an outcome? a. Motivators b. Valence c. O -> V expectancy d. P -> O expectancy e. E -> V expectancy
Valence
17. How does managerial authority flow through the organizational hierarchy?
Vertically
108. _____ occurs when an individual sees others perform certain behaviors and get rewarded for them. a. Vicarious learning b. Self-efficacy c. Self-reinforcement d. Delegation e. Experiential learning
Vicarious learning
65. Which of the following structures is the leanest of all organization forms because little supervision is required?
Virtual network approach
C.
What type of organizational unit has a unique business mission, product line, competitors, and markets relative together units in the same corporation? a.Product unit b.Functional unit c.Strategic business unit d.Operational unit e.Business consulting group unit
D.
When AT&T decided to buy Media One, a cable company, it was pursuing a(n) _____ strategy. a.functional-level b. internal growth c.multi-domestic d.corporate-level e.business-leve
E.
When Coca-Cola introduced Surge, a new citrus soft-drink, what type of strategy was being pursued? a.Functional-level strategy b. Multi-domestic strategy c.Corporate-level strategy d.Retrenchment strategy e.Business-level strategy
A.
When Philip-Morris, the tobacco giant, bought Kraft, Inc., it was pursuing a _____. a.corporate-level strategy b. business-level strategy c.functional-level strategy d.multidomestic strategy e.retrenchment strategy
B.
When an organization expands into a totally new line of business, itis implementing a strategy of: a.Related diversification b. Unrelated diversification c.Cross-functional diversification d.Product line diversification e.Industry diversification
A.
When properly managed, _____ can create additional value with existing resources, providing a big boost to the bottom line. a.synergy b. competitors c.government contacts d.command structure e.cooperation among customers
C.
Where does the information about opportunities and threats comes from? a.An analysis of the organization's internal environment b.A department by department study of the organization c.Scanning the external environments d.Employee grievances e.Financial ratios of the organization
C.
Which of the following is NOT one of Porter's competitive forces? a.Potential new entrants b.Bargaining power of suppliers c.Bargaining power of stockholders d.Bargaining power of customers e.Rivalry among competitor
D.
Which of the following is a business activity that an organization does especially well relative to its competition? a.Strategy b.Synergy c.Cash cow d.Core competence e.Multidomestic
B.
Which of the following isNOT one of the tools used for putting strategy into action? a.Visible leadership b.Diversification c.Human Resources d.Communication e.Clear roles and accountability
d.
Which of the following lists the strategic management process in proper order? a.Formulate strategy; Evaluate strategy; Perform SWOT analysis; Define new mission/goals; Execute strategy; Control strategy. b. Perform SWOT analysis; Evaluate current mission/goals; Formulate strategy; Execute strategy; Define new mission/goals. c.Evaluate current mission/goals; Define new mission/goals; Formulate strategy; Execute strategy; Perform SWOT analysis . d.Evaluate current mission/goals; Perform SWOT analysis; Define new mission/goals; Formulate strategy; Execute strategy. e.Define n
C.
Which of the following pertains to the organization as a whole? a.Business-level strategy b. Functional-level strategy c.Corporate-level strategy d.Operational-level strategy e.Competitive-level strategy
D.
Which of the following portfolio categories is made up of poor performers who command only a small share of a slow growth market?a.Star b.Cash cow c.Question mark d.Dog e.Cat
C.
Which of the following refers to a strategy that combines global coordination to attain efficiency with flexibility tomeet specific needs in various countries? a.Domestic strategy b.Global strategy c.Transnational strategy d.Multidomestic strategy e.Region design strategy
B.
Which of the following strategies involve an attempt to distinguish the firm's products or services from others in the industry? a.Cost leadership b.Differentiation c.Focus d.Internal growth e.Liquidation
D.
Which of the following strategies refers to moving into a new business that is related to the company's existing business activities?a.Horizontal integration b.Vertical integration c.Unrelated diversification d.Related diversification e.Strategic partnership
C.
Which of the following strategies would be appropriate when the need for both national responsiveness and global integration is low?a.Globalization b.Multidomestic c.Export d.Transnational e.Import
D.
Which of these is true about the cash cow? a.It generates tremendous profits in a rapidly growing industry. b. It has a small market share in a rapidly growing industry. c.It has a small market share in a slow growth industry. d.It has a large market share in a slow growth industry. e.It is generally a dead business that should be divested
D.
Which of these is true about the dog division?a.It has a large market share in a rapidly growing industry. b. It has a large market share in a slow growth industry. c.It has a small market share in a rapidly growing industry. d.It has a small share of a slow growth market. e.It has a moderate market share in a rapidly growing industry
C.
Which of these questions is central to a functional-level strategy? a.What business are we in? b. How do we compete? c.How do we support our chosen strategy? d.What business do we buy? e.Where to market our products
D.
Which strategy can be profitable for an organization when customers are loyal and willing to pay high prices?a.Focus b.Globalization c.Overall cost leadership d.Differentiation e.Liquidation
89. Which of the following groups has the largest wage gap between genders?
White
32. _____ is the trend in recent years.
Wider spans of management
C.
With a(n) _____ strategy, the organization concentrates on a specific regional market or buyer group. a.cost leadership b.differentiation c.focus d.internal growth e.liquidation
87. _____ are less likely than _____ to develop mentoring relationships.
Women; men
7. Which of the following refers to the degree to which organizational tasks are subdivided into individual jobs?
Work specialization
Wilson is viewed by his boss as driven, tenacious, and hardworking in the pursuit of his goals. These characteristics fit within which category?
Work-related characteristics
B.
_____ can be defined as the combination of benefits received and costs paid by the customer. a.Organizational benefits b. Value c.Cost-benefit diversity d.Synergy e.Core competence
E.
_____ level strategy pertains to the major functional departments within the business unit. a.Operational b.Corporate c.National d.Business e.Functional
D.
_____ refers to the modification of product design and advertising strategies to suit the specific needs of individual countries. a.Domestic strategy b.Global strategy c.Transnational strategy d.Multidomestic strategy e.Market design strategy
C.
_____ refers to the use of managerial tools to direct resources toward the achievement of strategic goals. a.Strategy formulation b. Strategy coordination c.Strategy execution d.Strategy control e.Strategy planning
102. On employee applications and during interviews, it is appropriate to ask all of the following EXCEPT: a. race or color of skin. b. if the applicant is over 18. c. if the applicant has ever been convicted of a crime. d. prior work experience. e. if the applicant has a legal right to work in the United States.
a
104. What type of interview allows the applicant a great deal of freedom in determining the course of the conversation, bringing to light information that could otherwise remain concealed? a. Nondirective interview b. Structured interview c. Panel interview d. Biographical interview e. Situational interview
a
114. In _____, an experienced manager shows a new employee how to perform job duties. a. on-the-job training b. classroom training c. orientation training d. computer-assisted instruction e. realistic job previews
a
116. When an experienced employee guides and supports a newcomer or less-experienced employee, this is referred to as _____. a. mentoring b. coaching c. managing d. directing e. consulting
a
119. ____ provide more challenging assignments, prescribe new responsibilities, and help employees grow by expanding and developing their abilities. a. Promotions b. Appraisals c. Evaluations d. Endorsements e. Coaching
a
120. Which of the following is a process that uses multiple raters, including self-rating, to appraise employee performance and guide development? a. A 360-degree feedback b. Job evaluation c. Multiple-rater appraisal d. Performance appraisal interview e. Homogeneity appraisal
a
121. Which of the following performance appraisal methods essentially evaluates employees by pitting them against one another? a. Performance review ranking system b. Semantic differential rating scale c. Behaviorally anchored rating scale d. Unidimensional rating scale e. All of these
a
124. Colby is a new interviewer who just finished an interview with Renee. Her professional style and her flawless grooming immediately struck him. Colby gave Renee a very good evaluation although her previous work experience and educational background were not that exceptional. What rating error did Colby succumb to? a. Halo effect b. Central tendency c. Homogeneity d. Leniency e. General tendency
a
128. _____ is incentive pay that ties at least part of compensation to employee effort and performance. a. Pay-for-performance b. Seniority pay c. Universal compensation plan d. Cafeteria-plan e. Group performance pay
a
51. _____ refers to the activities undertaken to attract, develop, and maintain an effective workforce within an organization. a. Human resource management b. Recruitment c. Talent search d. Strategic management e. Operations management
a
55. Today, more than ever, strategic decisions are related to human resource considerations. Which of the following refers to the economic value of the knowledge, experience, skills, and capabilities of employees? a. Human capital b. Economic capital c. Contingency assets d. Capital assets e. Economic assets
a
59. Lainie was denied a promotion to partner in her accounting firm because of her gender. Lainie is a victim of _____. a. discrimination b. affirmative action c. equal employment opportunity d. employment-at-will e. termination-at-will
a
66. Which legal act establishes mandatory safety and health standards in organizations? a. Occupational Safety and Health Act b. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act c. Family and Medical Leave Act d. Americans with Disabilities Act e. Civil Rights Act
a
68. Which Health/Safety law requires continued health insurance coverage (paid by employee) following termination? a. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act b. Health Maintenance Organization Act c. Occupational Safety and Health Act d. Family and Medical Leave Act e. None of these
a
77. Which of the following means using computers and telecommunications equipment to do work without going to an office? a. Telecommuting b. Social Loafing c. New social contract d. Outsourcing e. Realistic Job Preview
a
89. _____ is a systematic process of gathering and interpreting information about the essential duties. a. A job analysis b. A job listing c. A job requirement d. A job description e. A realistic job preview
a
93. A(n) _____ typically lists job duties as well as desirable qualifications for a particular job. a. job description b. application form c. assessment test d. paper-and-pencil test e. OJT
a
Jason has been unemployed for three months. When his wife asked him why he was not looking for a job, Jason responded, "If I am lucky, I will get my old job back." Jason would be considered as having a(n): A. external locus of control. B. high conscientiousness. C. sensation and intuition type personality. D. internal locus of control. E. high Mach attitude.
a
Jay is a trusting and forgiving individual who gets along with others because of being good-natured and cooperative. This describes which of the Big Five personality factors? A. Agreeableness B. Conscientiousness C. Emotional stability D. Openness to experience E. Extroversion
a
Rachel is described by her colleagues as pragmatic, super-competitive, and more likely to persuade than be persuaded. She fits which personality category most closely? A. High Mach B. Low Mach C. High Feeling D. Low Feeling E. Moderate Thinking
a
Seeking positions of power and responsibility, Chandra has rapidly moved up the ranks within her organization. Colleagues describe her as someone with a tremendous amount of energy, and a powerful force for leadership within the organization. Based on this description, Chandra has what type of personality? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. Type X E. Type Y
a
Selina is meeting with her subordinate Mike for his annual performance review. At the end of the review, Mike tells Selina that he is confused about some things she said. By asking Selina to explain certain things in more detail, Mike is engaging in which component of the communication process? a.Providing feedback b.Sifting through noise c.Selecting a channel d.Encoding the message e.Decoding the message
a
The receiver _______ the symbols to interpret the meaning of the message. a. decodes b. must ignore c. responds to d. encodes e. transmits
a
The tendency to overestimate the contribution of internal factors to one's successes and the contribution of external factors to one's failures is a result of: A. self-serving bias. B. openness to experience. C. over stability. D. emotional plateau. E. Machiavellianism.
a
To be effective communicators, managers should: a. encourage the use of multiple channels of communication b. limit use of communication technology c. strictly push for face-to-face communication d. enhance lateral communication opportunities by encouraging teams e. focus primarily on enhancing downward communication in the organization
a
Upward communication is usually used to communicate information about all of the following EXCEPT: a. indoctrination b. grievance and disputes c. financial and accounting information d. performance reports e. suggestions for improvement
a
When interviewing prospective employees, Samuel, a seasoned manager, often observes hand gestures, facial expressions, and use of space to gauge individuals' personalities. These are all examples of: a.nonverbal communication. b.empathizing. c.direct communication. d.nuance communication. e.listening.
a
Which of the following has the lowest channel richness? a. bulletins b. memos c. telephone d. electronic mail e. face-to-face talk
a
Which of these styles, according to Jung, avoids specifics, decentralizes decision-making and develops few rules and regulations? A. Intuitive-feeling B. Sensation-thinking C. Intuitive-thinking D. Sensation-feeling E. None of these.
a
_____ and _____ are potential sources for communication errors, because knowledge, attitudes, and background act as filters. a.Decoding, encoding b.Decoding, channel c.Decoding, noise d.Encoding, channel e.Encoding, noise
a
_____ is necessary for communication to be considered two-way. a.Feedback b.Channel c.Message d.Noise e.Circuit
a
_____ is the acquisition and cultivation of personal relationships that cross departmental, hierarchical, and even organizational boundaries. a.Personal networking b.The grapevine c.Dynamic relationship d.Fundraising e.Network nurturing
a
InfoTech's new product team has a norm of backing up each of their computer's hard drives at the end of each working day. This norm developed because one day a computer virus infected the team's computer network and destroyed many important computer files. The cause of this norm was clearly: A. an explicit statement. B. carryover behaviors. C. primacy. D. a critical event. E. none of these.
a critical event.
33. Barney and Betty work at Mountain Peak, Inc. Although they both work on the assembly line, they have the authority to make many decisions about their job. Mountain Peak can be said to have:
a high degree of decentralization.
49. Disadvantages of the virtual network approach include:
a lack of hands-on control.,the possibility of losing an important part of the organization.,weakened employee loyalty, a lack of hands-on control and weakened employee loyalty.
74. The desire to form close personal relationships, avoid conflict, and establish warm friendships, describes: a. a need for affiliation. b. a need for power. c. a need for achievement. d. a need for authority. e. all of these.
a need for affiliation
Which of the following is an example of inadvertent human error?
a procedure problem
Heather belongs to an informal group at work that meets twice a month to discuss common issues and problems in the workplace. Recently, this group has been focusing on ways to improve safety in the workplace. This group is an example of:
a quality circle.
80. A task force is _____ committee(s) formed to solve a specific problem.
a temporary
122. Which of these styles is adopted by managers who have a deep concern for others as individuals? a. Behavioral b. Classical c. Analytic d. Logical e. Conceptual
a. Behavioral
90. Melissa is a manager at InStylez Clothing. Her job is very complex and she feels that she does not have enough time to identify and/or process all the information she needs to make decisions. Melissa's situation is most consistent with which of the following concepts? a. Bounded rationality b. The classical model of decision making c. Satisficing d. Brainstorming e. Scientific management
a. Bounded rationality
129. Which of the following defines a technique that uses a face-to-face group to spontaneously suggest a broad range of alternatives for decision making? a. Brainstorming b. Groupthink c. Point-counterpoint d. Brainwriting e. Devil's advocate
a. Brainstorming
65. Which of the following means that all the information the decision-maker needs is fully available? a. Certainty b. Risk c. Uncertainty d. Ambiguity e. None of these
a. Certainty
50. Which of the following is a choice made from available alternatives? a. Decision b. Plan c. Goal d. Tactic e. Strategy
a. Decision
107. "When did it occur" and "how did it occur" are questions associated with which step of the decision making process? a. Diagnosis and analysis of causes b. Recognition of decision requirement c. Development of alternatives d. Selection of desired alternative e. None of these
a. Diagnosis and analysis of causes
105. _____ is the last step in the decision making process. a. Evaluation and feedback b. Development of alternatives c. Implementation of chosen alternative d. Selection of desired requirement e. Recognition of decision requirement
a. Evaluation and feedback
81. Which approach defines how a decision-maker should make decisions? a. Normative b. Scientific c. Descriptive d. Reflective e. Humanistic
a. Normative
131. Which of the following is a decision-making technique in which people are assigned to express competing points of view? a. Point-counterpoint b. Devil's advocate c. Debate d. Groupthink e. Brainwriting
a. Point-counterpoint
99. Jefferson Inc. is an information technology consulting firm located in Washington D.C. Decisions at Jefferson are complex and involve many people, with a significant amount of disagreement and conflict. Which decision-making model fits best for this organization? a. Political b. Functional c. Classical d. Administrative e. Bureaucratic
a. Political
63. At the start of every shift, Carl, a delivery truck driver, plans out his route based on the addresses that he will be visiting to drop off packages. This can best be described as what kind of decision? a. Programmed b. Nonprogrammed c. Wicked d. Administrative e. Intuitive
a. Programmed
2. A decision is a choice made from available alternatives. a. True b. False
a. True
55. Bierderlack has a policy that states that more than three absences in a six-month period shall result in a suspension. Colleen, the manager, has just decided to suspend one of her shift employees for violating this policy. This is an example of: a. a programmed decision. b. a nonprogrammed decision. c. an insignificant decision. d. poor management. e. personal grudge.
a. a programmed decision.
75. The condition under which ambiguity occurs is when: a. alternatives are difficult to define. b. objectives are well defined. c. information about outcomes is readily available. d. all the alternatives are known. e. decisions are already made.
a. alternatives are difficult to define.
48. Managers are often referred to as: a. decision makers. b. peace makers. c. conflict creators. d. an unnecessary layer of employees. e. profit suppressor.
a. decision makers.
60. Good examples of _____ decisions are strategic decisions. a. nonprogrammed b. programmed c. insignificant d. recurring e. structured
a. nonprogrammed
126. When managers base decisions on what has worked in the past and fail to explore new options, they are: a. perpetuating the status quo. b. being influenced by emotions. c. being overconfident. d. justifying past actions. e. seeing what they want to see.
a. perpetuating the status quo.
56. Nordstrom Department store's "No questions asked - Return's Policy" is an example of a(n): a. programmed decision. b. nonprogrammed decision. c. novel decision. d. poor management. e. unstructured decision.
a. programmed decision.
57. If your instructor has an attendance policy, she/he is using a(n): a. programmed decision. b. unique approach. c. condition of ambiguity. d. nonprogrammed decision. e. none of these.
a. programmed decision.
72. The four positions on the possibility of failure scale include certainty, risk, ambiguity, and _____. a. uncertainty b. conflict c. necessity d. indecision e. possibility
a. uncertainty
Sherry is a first-line supervisor at Rooftop Corporation. She is most concerned with which level of goals? A. Operational goals B. Tactical plans C. Strategic goals D. Mission statement E. Vision
a. operational goals
The _____ style to handle conflict involves a low degree of assertiveness and a high degree of cooperation.
accommodating
The _____ conflict resolution style is best when maintaining harmony is important. A. competing style B. collaborating style C. accommodating style D. avoiding style E. comprising
accommodating style
18. The people with authority and responsibility are subject to reporting and justifying task outcomes to those above them in the chain of command. This is called _____.
accountability
The conversion ratio is considered to be a(n) _____ ratio.
activity
Darren and his team have just finished Project A, and are preparing to disband. Darren and his team are in the _____ stage of team development. A. forming B. storming C. norming D. performing E. adjourning
adjourning
Once some teams have evolved to the _____ stage of team development, task performance is no longer the top priority. A. performing B. storming C. adjourning D. norming E. achieving
adjourning
______ is the degree to which a person is able to get along with others by being good-natured, cooperative, forgiving, understanding, and trusting.
agreeableness
135. The hygiene factors, or dissatifiers, that Donovan can influence include all of the following EXCEPT: a. salary and wages. b. supervision relationships. c. working conditions. d. company policies. e. all are hygiene factors.
all are hygiene factors
128. Empowering employees means giving employees _____. a. information b. knowledge c. power d. rewards e. all of these
all of these
Which of the following characteristics of leaders have been studied?
all of these, personality traits, physical traits, social traits, work-related traits
Some of the key characteristics associated with charismatic leaders include:
all of these, visionary skills, communication skills, motivation skills
66. Shooting Star, Inc. has slow response to external changes, centralized decision making, and poor coordination across departments. It is likely structured:
along functional lines.
132. On the continuum of empowerment, employees who are self-managed: a. give input. b. participate in decisions. c. are responsible for decision process and strategy. d. have no decision discretion. e. make decisions.
are responsible for decision and process strategy
All the following are conflict handling styles discussed in your text EXCEPT: A. competing style. B. assertive style. C. avoiding style. D. accommodating style. E. compromising style.
assertive style.
A(n) ______ is an evaluation that predisposes a person to act in a certain way.
attitude
14. The formal and legitimate right of a manager to make decisions is _____.
authority
According to MANAGER'S SHOPTALK in Chapter 19, the interest in self-awareness is part of a growing discipline called _____.
auto-analytics
99. The removal of an unpleasant consequence following a desired behavior is referred to as: a. avoidance learning. b. punishment. c. positive reinforcement. d. extinction. e. inefficient management.
avoidance learning
The _____ style to handle conflict involves a low degree of assertiveness and a low degree of cooperation.
avoiding
100. Recruiting methods that are used to promote the hiring, development, and retention of "protected groups" are examples of: a. equal employment opportunity. b. affirmative action. c. illegal discrimination. d. unfair labor practices. e. nepotism.
b
103. According to MANAGER'S SHOPTALK in chapter 12, which of the following would improve your chances of getting the job? a. Talking too much b. Turning questions into conversations c. Failing to effectively close d. Stretching the truth e. Making a fashion statement
b
109. Blayne is interviewing for an IT specialist position at a technology firm. His interviewer informs him that he will ask him a series of standardized questions that are being asked of every applicant interviewing for the same position. This can best be described as what type of interview? a. Nondirective interview b. Structured interview c. Panel interview d. Biographical interview e. Situational interview
b
115. The most common form of formal corporate training is: a. on-the-job training. b. classroom training. c. orientation training. d. developmental training. e. external training.
b
125. Which of the following refers to all monetary payments and all goods or commodities used in lieu of money to reward employees? a. Bonus b. Compensation c. Wages d. Incentive Pay e. Point System
b
129. _____ allow employees to select the benefits of greatest value to them. a. Pay-for-performance b. Cafeteria-plan benefits packages c. Incentive pay d. Group performance pay e. Merit-based pay
b
130. Intentionally reducing the company's workforce to the point where the number of employees is deemed to be right for the company's current situation is referred to as _____. a. restructuring b. rightsizing c. supersizing d. reengineering e. recruiting
b
134. When making a performance evaluation, which of the following suggestions would NOT help Gregory? a. Be personally knowledgeable about the employee's job and performance levels. b. Be prepared to tell and sell his view to the employee when necessary. c. Give more frequent feedback to newer employees. d. All of these suggestions would be helpful.
b
135. In training employees for the new positions, Gregory will apply which human resource management goal? a. Implementing strategies b. Managing talent c. Maintaining an effective workforce d. Finding the right people e. Controlling strategies
b
57. Which of the following created the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission? a. Americans with Disabilities Act b. Civil Rights Act c. Equal Pay Act d. Vocational Rehabilitation Act e. Immigration Reform and Control Act
b
61. Greene, Inc. requires that all managers undergo gender sensitivity training with the intent of eliminating gender stereotypes in the organization. This is an example of: a. equal employment opportunity. b. affirmative action. c. cultural bias. d. employment-at-will. e. sexual harassment.
b
63. The _____ prohibits discrimination against qualified individuals by employers for a demand of "reasonable accommodation" a. Civil Rights Act b. American with Disabilities Act c. Vocational Rehabilitation Act d. Family and Medical Leave Act e. Equal Pay Act
b
67. Family and Medical Leave Act require employers to provide up to _____ weeks unpaid leave for childbirth, adoption, or family emergencies. a. 8 b. 12 c. 16 d. 24 e. 52
b
73. A(n) _____ is a company that is highly attractive to potential employees because of human resources practices that focus on tangible and intangible benefits, and that embraces a long-term view to solving immediate problems. a. Fortune 500 company b. employer of choice c. socially responsible firm d. rural firm e. family-owned corporation
b
74. Which of the following is a key performance driver that is tied to human capital investments? a. Revenue growth b. Innovation c. Workforce planning d. Career development e. Recruiting
b
79. _____ is the second step in attracting individuals who show signs of becoming valued, productive, and satisfied employees. a. Selecting the candidate b. Choosing recruiting procedures c. Applying the matching model d. Human resource planning e. Initiating change
b
80. In utilizing the matching model of employee selection, the organization offers _____ and the employee offers ____. a. contributions, inducements b. inducements, contributions c. contributions, pay and benefits d. ability, training e. skills, rewards
b
85. _____ is defined as activities or practices that define the characteristics of applicants to whom selection procedures are ultimately applied. a. Selection b. Recruiting c. Training d. Developing e. Planning
b
86. An example of _____ is when current employees are given preference when a position opens in their organization. a. discrimination b. internal recruiting c. nepotism d. external recruiting e. cannibalizing
b
95. _____ dramatically extends the organization's recruiting reach, offering access to a wider pool of applicants and saving time and money. a. Competitor referrals b. E-cruiting c. Newspaper ads d. Trade shows e. Hiring older workers
b
98. While interviews are _____, they are generally _____ predictors of subsequent job performance. a. rarely used, not valid b. widely used, not valid c. rarely used, excellent d. widely used, valid e. painful, excellent
b
A centralized network is one in which: a.team members are free to interact with any of the team members. b.team members communicate through one individual to make decisions. c.team members communicate with an assigned partner. d.team members work independently and there is no need for communication. e.none of these.
b
A widely used personality test that measures how people differ on all four of Jung's sets of paired opposites is the ______. A. Keirsey personality test B. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator C. Eysenck Personality Test D. Enneagram Personality Type Detector E. Oxford Capacity Analysis
b
Characteristics of a good listener are someone who: a. asks questions, listens for facts, and avoids distractions b. asks questions, summarizes, and listens to central themes c. listens between lines, starts to argue, and works hard d. shows interest, works hard, and starts to argue e. shows interest, judges content, and has preconceptions
b
Frank regretfully missed an important deadline at work. His boss, George, thinks to himself, "Frank missed that deadline because he is lazy; I really need to crack down on him more." This is an example of what kind of attribution? A. External attribution B. Internal attribution C. Horizontal attribution D. Vertical attribution E. Skewed attribution
b
Good listeners exhibit all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: a.asking questions. b.having preconceptions. c.tolerates bad habits. d.judges content, not delivery errors. e.all of these.
b
Individuals high on authoritarianism have problems with: A. power and toughness. B. use of subjective feelings. C. sticking to conventional values. D. obeying recognized authority above them.
b
Managing emotion is a basic component of emotional intelligence. Which of the following best describes managing emotions? A. It is the basis for all the other components; being aware of what you are feeling. B. It is the ability to balance one's moods so that worry, anxiety, fear, or anger do not cloud thinking. C. It is the ability to be hopeful and to persist in the face of obstacles. D. It is the ability to be able to put yourself in someone else's shoes. E. It is the ability to connect to others and build positive relationships.
b
Many organizations use suggestion boxes, open door policies, and surveys to facilitate: a.diagonal communication. b.upward communication. c.formal communication. d.downward communication. e.informal communication.
b
Messages that appraise how well individuals and departments are doing their jobs are called: a.job instructions. b.performance feedback. c.practices. d.indoctrination. e.implementation of strategies.
b
Ron, a new associate at Barkley and Sons, is working to cultivate personal relationships with individuals outside of his department, in hopes that someday these relationships will help him succeed professionally. Ron is developing which of the following? a.Informal channel of communication b.Personal communication network c.Organizational grapevine d.Focus group e.Career pathway team
b
The capacity of an information channel is influenced by all of these except: a. both the ability to establish a personal focus and the ability to facilitate rapid, two-way feedback b. the ability to minimize costs c. the ability to establish a personal focus d. the ability to facilitate rapid, two-way feedback e. the ability to handle multiple cues simultaneously
b
The tendancy to overestimate the contribution of external factors is part of which perceptual bias? A. Projection B. The fundamental attribution error C. The halo effect D. Figure ground E. Selective perception
b
The tendancy to overestimate the contribution of internal factors is part of which perceptual bias? A. Projection B. Self- serving bias C. The halo effect D. Figure ground E. Selective perception
b
Traits of _____seem to be particularly important in today's collaborative organizations. A. likability B. agreeableness C. friendliness D. openness E. sociability
b
When an electronic mail system is installed as part of the communication system, what element of the communication process is changed? a.Message b.Channel c.Receiver d.Sender e.Filter
b
When informing your staff of the date for the company picnic, a ________ would be the most practical and successful. a. telephone b. memo c. newspaper notice d. video conference e. face-to-face contact
b
Which communication channel would be most successful to inform managers of impending company-wide layoff? a.Telephone conversations b.Face-to-face contact c.Electronic media d.Written media e.None of these
b
Which of the following is(are) part of keys to effective listening? a. listen for facts b. listen for ideas c. be passive, laid back d. have preconceptions e. all of these
b
Which of the following links employees in all directions, ranging from the president through middle management, support staff, and line employees? a.Vertical communication b.The grapevine c.Upward communication d.Management by wandering around e.Diagonal communication
b
Which of the following refers to the degree to which a person is focused on a few goals, thus behaving in ways that are responsible, dependable, persistent, and achievement oriented? A. Agreeableness B. Conscientiousness C. Emotional stability D. Openness to experience E. Extroversion
b
_____ does not focus on a single receiver, uses limited information cues, and does not permit feedback. a.A personal memo b.Bulletins c.Telephone conversations d.Face-to-face contact e.Video conference
b
_____ refers to messages designed to motivate employees to adopt the company's mission and cultural values and to participate in special ceremonies. a.Performance feedback b.Indoctrination c.Job instructions d.Practices e.Implementation of strategies
b
_____ refers to the set of characteristics that underlie a relatively stable pattern of behavior in response to ideas, objects, or people in the environment. A. Dissonance B. Personality C. Halo effect D. Attitude E. Perception
b
_______ are examples of channels which managers might choose to use when communicating with employees. a. newsletter, telephone, and feedback b. telephone, electronic mail, and memo c. television, encoding, and letter d. national newspapers and television e. all of these
b
_____conflict occurs when an individual perceives incompatible demands from others. A. Attitude B. Role C. Personality D. Perception E. Ability
b
86. Which model of decision making is associated with satisficing, bounded rationality, and uncertainty? a. Classical b. Administrative c. Quantitative d. Rational e. Political
b. Administrative
87. The growth of quantitative decision techniques that use computers has expanded the use of which decision-making approach? a. Administrative b. Classical c. Intuitive d. Political e. Bureaucratic
b. Classical
51. Mark, a production manager at Kaylie's Kookware, recently chose to schedule his workers to work overtime. His alternative was to hire more workers. He is now monitoring the consequences of his choice. This is an example of _____. a. planning b. decision-making c. organizing d. controlling e. leading
b. Decision-making
103. _____ is the step in the decision-making process in which managers analyze underlying causal factors associated with the decision situation. a. Analysis b. Diagnosis c. Recognition d. Judgment e. Identification
b. Diagnosis
1. Making a choice is the most significant part of the decision-making process. a. True b. False
b. False
132. _____ refers to the tendency of people in groups to suppress contrary opinions. a. Point-counterpoint b. Groupthink c. Devil's advocacy d. Escalating commitment e. Brainstorming
b. Groupthink
68. Which of the following means that a decision has clear-cut goals and that good information is available, but the future outcomes associated with each alternative are subject to chance? a. Certainty b. Risk c. Uncertainty d. Ambiguity e. Brainstorming
b. Risk
114. Which of the following refers to the willingness to undertake risk with the opportunity to increase one's return? a. Tunnel vision b. Risk propensity c. Risk averse d. Thrill seeking e. Ineffective investment philosophy
b. Risk propensity
71. Which of the following has the highest possibility of failure? a. The condition of certainty b. The condition of ambiguity c. The condition of uncertainty d. The condition of risk e. All of these
b. The condition of ambiguity
80. Which of these assumptions are included in the classical model of decision making? a. Problems are unstructured and ill defined. b. The decision-maker strives for conditions of certainty. c. Criteria for evaluating alternatives are unknown. d. The decision-maker selects the alternatives that will minimize the economic return to the organization. e. The situation is always uncertain.
b. The decision-maker strives for conditions of certainty.
111. For a programmed decision: a. alternatives are usually difficult to identify. b. alternatives are usually easy to identify. c. there are usually few alternatives. d. there are usually few alternatives and they are difficult to identify. e. there are no alternatives.
b. alternatives are usually easy to identify.
89. The concept that people have the time and cognitive ability to process only a limited amount of information on which to base decisions is known as: a. satisficing. b. bounded rationality. c. classical model of decision making. d. normative approach. e. scientific approach.
b. bounded rationality.
95. All of the following are characteristics of the administrative decision making model except: a. vague problem and goals. b. conditions of certainty. c. limited information about alternatives and their outcomes. d. satisfying choice. e. all of these are characteristics of administrative decision making model.
b. conditions of certainty.
59. Examples of nonprogrammed decisions would include the decision to: a. reorder supplies. b. develop a new product or service. c. perform routine maintenance on one of the machines in manufacturing. d. terminate an employee for violation of company rules. e. fill a position.
b. develop a new product or service.
100. All of these are basic assumptions of the political model except: a. organizations are made up of groups with diverse interests, goals, and values. b. information is clear and complete. c. managers do not have the time, resources, or mental capacity to identify all dimensions of the problem. d. managers engage in the push and pull of debate to decide goals and discuss alternatives. e. all of these are basic assumptions of the political model.
b. information is clear and complete.
106. The recognition of the decision requirement step in the managerial decision making process requires managers to: a. develop alternative solutions. b. integrate information in novel ways. c. use the classical model of decision making. d. focus on generating ideas. e. select undesirable alternatives.
b. integrate information in novel ways.
62. Two area banks, Bank A and Bank B, decided to merge their operations. This is an example of a: a. programmed decision. b. nonprogrammed decision. c. decision rule. d. structured decision. e. bad community decision.
b. nonprogrammed decision.
54. Programmed decisions are made in response to _____ organizational problems. a. unusual b. recurring c. significant d. minor e. unique
b. recurring
94. Most managers settle for a _____ rather than a _____ solution. a. minimizing; maximizing b. satisficing; maximizing c. top-level; bottomline d. maximizing; satisficing e. challenging; simple
b. satisficing; maximizing
70. When managers know which goals they wish to achieve, but information about alternatives and future events is incomplete, the condition of _____ exists. a. risk b. uncertainty c. ambiguity d. certainty e. problematic
b. uncertainty
The planning process begins with which of these? A. The development of operational goals B. The development of a mission statement C. Communication of goals to the rest of the organization D. A company wide meeting E. Brainstorming
b. The development of a mission statement
The firm's financial position with respect to assets and liabilities at a specific point in time is shown by its:
balance sheet.
Pauline is an area manager at Ironman Gym. She anticipates her area's needs and formulates a proposed budget every quarter. She then sends this proposal to her manager. This is an example of:
bottom-up budgeting.
78. Pattie's Pancakes recently held a series of focus groups to gather information on employee perceptions of women and minorities in the workplace. In particular, Pattie's was interested in learning about the myths, values, and beliefs that currently exist in their organization. This is an example of:
building a corporate culture that values diversity.
Which of the following is the smallest data element in a database?
byte
105. _____ requires the applicant to play the role of a manager who must decide how to respond to ten memos in his or her in-basket within a two-hour period. a. Multitasking b. Employee motivation test c. In-basket simulation d. Employee capability test e. Cold call simulation
c
108. Which of these may include intelligence tests, aptitude and ability test, and personality inventories? a. Assessment tests b. Probability exams c. Employment tests d. Development tests e. Culture exams
c
111. Which of the following refers to a method of directing, instructing and training a person with the goal to develop specific management skills? a. Mentoring b. Shadowing c. Coaching d. Apprenticeship e. Guiding
c
112. A junior VP at a financial services firm meets regularly with Edward, a retired businessman who is now in the business of directing, instructing, and training managers in the development of their personal competencies. Edward can best be described as a(n) _____. a. enabler b. protege c. coach d. recruiter e. mentor
c
122. _____ is developed from critical incidents relating to job performance. a. Performance appraisal interview b. Semantic differential rating scale c. Behaviorally anchored rating scale d. Unidimensional rating scale e. All of these
c
123. One of the most dangerous performance evaluation errors is _____, which places an employee into a class or category based on one or a few traits or characteristics. a. homogeneity b. the halo effect c. stereotyping d. diversion e. leniency
c
126. With _____, compensation is linked to the specific tasks that an employee performs. a. skill-based pay b. incentive pay c. job-based pay d. salary e. competency-based pay
c
133. To select high-potential individuals for management positions, what is the best selection device that Gregory could use? a. Interview. b. Employment test. c. Assessment center. d. Job application form. e. None of these are essential.
c
53. All of the following are current strategic issues of particular concern to managers EXCEPT: a. right people to become more competitive on a global basis. b. right people for improving quality, innovation, and customer service. c. right people to become more competitive on a local basis. d. right people to retain during mergers and acquisitions. e. right people to apply new information technology for e-business.
c
58. The hiring of applicants based on criteria that are not job-related is called: a. affirmative action. b. equal employment opportunity. c. discrimination. d. reverse discrimination. e. employment-at-will.
c
65. The _____ prohibits discrimination based on physical or mental disability. a. Civil Rights Act b. Immigration Reform and Control Act c. Vocational Rehabilitation Act d. Age Discrimination in Employment Act e. Vietnam-Era Veterans Readjustment Act
c
71. From the employer's viewpoint, which of these is part of new social contract? a. Standard training programs b. Limited information c. Incentive compensation d. Routine jobs
c
76. Artie's Pretzels is a small but well-known company that receives thousands of job applications every year, though it only fills about 50 positions annually. Company managers have learned that Artie's human resource practices are one of the driving factors that attract potential employees. Artie's Pretzels is an example of a(n) _____. a. contingency employer b. employer of options c. employer of choice d. Employer of necessity e. telecommuter-friendly employer
c
81. The forecasting of human resource needs and the projected matching of individuals with expected job vacancies is referred to as human resource _____. a. development b. organizing c. planning d. selection e. downsizing
c
82. Bryan, who works in the human resource department, is interested in gathering data on the projected number of resignations and retirements over the next ten years. He is most likely to perform which of the following activities? a. Choosing a recruiting source b. Selecting an employment candidate c. Human resource planning d. Welcoming new employees e. Downsizing
c
83. All of the following are questions relevant to human resource planning EXCEPT: a. What is the current turnover rate b. What is the volume of business expected to be over the next five years? c. What was the volume of business over the past five years?" d. How will new technology affect the organization? e. All of these are relevant questions for human resource planning.
c
87. _____ generates higher employee commitment, development, and satisfaction than does_____. a. External recruiting, internal recruiting b. External selection, internal selection c. Internal recruiting, external recruiting d. Internal recruiting, internal selection e. Downsizing, monetary rewards
c
88. Conolly Company uses internal recruiting whenever possible. This practice: a. costs more than external recruiting. b. decreases employee satisfaction. c. generates increased employee commitment. d. demotivates existing employee given limited socializing opportunities. e. gives employees an upper hand in negotiations.
c
91. Which of the following is a recruiting approach that gives applicants all pertinent and realistic information about the job and the organization? a. Reality check b. Affirmative action c. Realistic job preview d. Employment-at-will e. Chart selection approach
c
94. At GoodSpeak Telecommunications, employees receive a cash bonus when they submit names of people who subsequently accept employment with the company. This is an example of which innovation in recruiting? a. Trade group networking b. Social networking c. Employee referral d. Cold call recruiting e. Geographic networking
c
96. Which of the following is a device for collecting information about an applicant's education, previous job experience, and other background characteristics? a. An employment test b. An assessment center c. An application form d. An affirmative action form e. A privacy form
c
97. Which of the following refers to the process of determining the skills, abilities, and other attributes a person needs to perform a particular job? a. Recruiting b. Training c. Selection d. Development e. Orientation
c
An example of non-verbal communication is all of these except: a. voice b. body language c. written memo d. posture e. facial expression
c
Blaming the teacher for a poor grade on an exam, and taking credit for good grades could be an example of which perceptual bias? A. perceptual distortion. B. closure activity. C. the fundamental attribution error. D. stereotyping. E. perceptual grouping.
c
Compared to men, women tend to: a.stare and point more. b.value their position at center stage. c.use verbal language to exhibit knowledge and skill. d.use their unique conversational style to show involvement. e.enjoy demonstrating their knowledge.
c
Gregory Trout has just received a memo explaining that because of his department's success with the newly developed Trout, Inc., that his request for three new employees has been approved. Gregory now faces the challenge of working with the areas of human resource management in recruiting, selecting, training and maintaining effective employees. 132. In recruiting and selecting employees for the new positions, Gregory will apply which human resource management goal? a. Implementing strategies b. Managing talent c. Maintaining an effective workforce d. Finding the right people e. Controlling strategies
c
If Ben is tense, nervous, depressed and insecure, he would tend to be rated as low on which of these factors? A. Agreeableness B. Conscientiousness C. Emotional stability D. Openness to experience E. Extroversion
c
Jay, a divisional vice president of a consumer goods manufacturer, gives a presentation to all divisional employees to outline the company's goals for the coming year. This is an example of what type of organizational communication? a.Grapevine communication b.Lateral communication c.Downward communication d.Virtual communication e.Upward communication
c
Maliah bases her judgments on impersonal analysis. To resolve problems at work, she uses reason and logic rather than personal values or emotional aspects of the situation. In gathering information, Maliah prefers routine and order. Based on this information, Maliah ranks highly in which Myers- Briggs category? A. Judging-Perceiving B. Intuitive-Thinking C. Sensation-Thinking D. Sensation-Feeling E. Intuitive-Feeling
c
Managers' communication is _____-directed, in that it directs everyone's attention toward the vision, values, and desired goals of the team or organization and influences people to act in a way to achieve the goals. a.image b.idea c.purpose d.need e.communication
c
Non-verbal communication has the biggest impact when using _____. a.formal letter b.telephone c.face to face communication d.video conference e.newspaper article
c
Research shows that _____are predisposed to being pragmatic, capable of lying to achieve personal goals, more likely to win in win-lose situations, and more likely to persuade than be persuaded. A. high introverted individuals B. high authoritarians C. high Machs D. low extroverted individuals E. low Machs
c
Roy is a top executive at a cigarette manufacturing company who believes that cigarettes are dangerous products and they kill people. This condition can be described as: A. job involvement. B. extroversion. C. cognitive dissonance. D. Machiavellianism. E. job satisfaction.
c
Sharon is a part of a software engineering team. Her task is to develop a diagnostic program for the medical profession. This is a very complex task. What type of communication structure would work best for her group? a. linear b. centralized c. decentralized d. focused e. all of these
c
Which of the following refers to the tendency to place the primary responsibility for one's success or failure either within oneself or on outside forces? A. Machiavellianism B. Emotional stability C. Locus of control D. Authoritarianism E. Extroversion
c
Which of the following terms is the belief that power and status differences should exist within the organization? A. Extroversion B. Machiavellianism C. Authoritarianism D. Perceptual distortion E. Locus of control
c
_____ refers to a team communication structure in which team members freely communicate with one another and arrive at decisions. a.Circular network b.Linear network c.Decentralized network d.Centralized network e.Gossip structure
c
_____ refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode. a.Upward communication b.Electronic mail c.Channel richness d.Feedback e.Encoding
c
_____is defined as a positive attitude toward one's job. A. Occupation approval B. Career fulfillment C. Job satisfaction D. Organizational happiness E. Organizational commitment
c
96. Which of the following is the process of forming alliances among managers during the decision making process? a. Networking b. Socializing c. Coalition building d. Satisficing e. Passing the buck
c. Coalition building
52. _____ refers to the process of identifying problems and then resolving them. a. Organizing b. Controlling c. Decision-making d. Planning e. Leading
c. Decision-making
85. _____ approach describes how managers actually make decisions, where as _____ approach defines how a decision-maker should make decisions. a. Normative; descriptive b. Normative; classical c. Descriptive; normative d. Descriptive; administrative e. Normative; administrative
c. Descriptive; normative
108. When managers ask questions such as "What is the state of disequilibrium affecting us?", they are in which stage of the managerial decision-making process? a. Selection of a desired alternative b. Development of alternatives c. Diagnosis and analysis of causes d. Recognition of decision requirement e. Evaluation and feedback
c. Diagnosis and analysis of causes
109. When quality control measures at the local tire plant were found to be inadequate, managers were asking themselves, "How did this occur?" and "What is the result?" The company is in which stage of the managerial decision-making process? a. Selection of a desired alternative b. Development of alternatives c. Diagnosis and analysis of causes d. Recognition of decision requirement e. Evaluation and feedback
c. Diagnosis and analysis of causes
118. Which style is used by people who prefer simple, clear-cut solutions to problems? a. Behavioral b. Conceptual c. Directive d. Analytical e. Classical
c. Directive
117. Genna is collecting data on how well the organization has done since their new strategy was implemented. She is in what stage of the managerial decision making process? a. The generation of alternatives b. Implementation of the chosen alternative c. Evaluation and feedback d. Recognition of the decision requirement e. Selection of desired alternative
c. Evaluation and feedback
82. _____ is the approach that defines how a decision maker should make decisions and provides guidelines for reaching an ideal outcome for the organization. a. Administrative b. Descriptive c. Normative d. Bounded rationality e. None of these
c. Normative
53. _____ decisions are associated with decision rules. a. Nonprogrammed b. Unique c. Programmed d. Ill-structured e. Novel
c. Programmed
101. Shirley works in the human resource department at Turtle Shells, Inc. She believes she is seeing an increase in drinking problems among the workforce. She thinks she needs to investigate further. She is at what stage of the managerial decision making process? a. Diagnosis and analysis of causes b. Development of alternatives c. Recognition of decision requirement d. Evaluation and feedback e. Selection of desired alternatives
c. Recognition of decision requirement
104. Which of the following is the first step in the managerial decision making process? a. Evaluation and feedback b. Development of alternatives c. Recognition of decision requirement d. Diagnosis and analysis of causes e. Selection of desired alternatives
c. Recognition of decision requirement
67. Under conditions of _____, statistical analyses are useful. a. certainty b. ambiguity c. risk d. uncertainty e. conflict
c. Risk
69. _____ means that managers know which goals they wish to achieve, but information about alternatives and future events is incomplete. a. Certainty b. Risk c. Uncertainty d. Ambiguity e. Advocacy
c. Uncertainty
76. _____ decisions are associated with conflicts over goals and decision alternatives, rapidly changing circumstances, fuzzy information, and unclear links among decision elements. a. Nonprogrammed b. Programmed c. Wicked d. Conventional e. Irrational
c. Wicked
88. The _____ model of decision making describes how managers actually makes decisions in situations characterized by nonprogrammed decisions, uncertainty, and ambiguity. a. normative b. classical c. administrative d. scientific management e. objective
c. administrative
64. Associated with the condition of _____ is the lowest possibility of failure. a. ambiguity b. uncertainty c. certainty d. risk e. all of these
c. certainty
84. The _____ model of decision making is most valuable when applied to _____. a. administrative; programmed decisions b. classical; nonprogrammed decisions c. classical; programmed decisions d. classical; ambiguous decisions e. administrative; structured decisions
c. classical; programmed decisions
119. Personal _____ style refers to differences among people with respect to how they perceives problems and make decisions. a. risk taking b. behavior c. decision d. strategic e. analysis
c. decision
130. The _____ is the individual who is assigned the role of challenging assumptions made by the group. a. group gadfly b. multiple advocate c. devil's advocate d. brainstormer e. inferior member
c. devil's advocate
78. The classical model of decision making is based on _____ assumptions. a. philosophical b. irrational c. economic d. uncertainty e. technological
c. economic
110. The decision-maker must _____ once the problem has been recognized and analyzed. a. evaluate and provide feedback b. choose among alternatives c. generate alternatives d. prioritize the alternatives e. reanalyze the problem
c. generate alternatives
61. When a small community hospital decides to add a radiation therapy unit, it is considered a: a. programmed decision. b. structured decision. c. nonprogrammed decision. d. poor management decision. e. certainty decision.
c. nonprogrammed decision.
112. Ryan is a manager at Dream Catchers. Dream Catchers is currently operating in an environment of high uncertainty. As a result, Ryan will: a. most likely be making programmed decisions. b. probably have an easy time generating alternatives. c. probably have a difficult time generating alternatives. d. most likely rely on the classical model of decision making. e. wait until environment becomes certain.
c. probably have a difficult time generating alternatives.
125. All of the following are cognitive biases that can affect manager's judgment except: a. being influenced by initial impressions. b. justifying past decisions. c. seeing what you don't want to see. d. perpetuating the status quo. e. overconfidence.
c. seeing what you don't want to see.
113. Once the desired alternative is developed, it should be _____. a. analyzed b. evaluated c. selected d. recognized e. identified
c. selected
High Fence Corporation is currently implementing an MBO program. Managers and employees jointly set objectives and develop action plans, and goal achievement is evaluated on an annual basis. High Fence is missing which major activity that must occur in order for MBO to be successful? A. Developing a mission statement B. Developing tactical goals C. Reviewing progress D. Reviewing operational plans E. None of these
c. Reviewing progress
_____ refers to a desired future state that an organization attempts to realize. a. plan b. vision statement c. goal d. mission statement e. Idea
c. goal
The organization's reason for existence is known as the organization's _____. A. value B. vision C. mission D. goal E. service
c. mission
Madison has been assigned to work on the development of a budget that plans future investments in major assets such as buildings and heavy machinery. Madison is working on a(n) _____ budget.
capital
The _____ plans future investments in major assets to be depreciated over several years.
capital budget
40. In times of crisis or risk of company failure, authority should be:
centralized at the top.
11. Jacob was recently looking at his company's organization chart in an attempt to discover who reports to whom. Jacob is studying his organization's:
chain of command.
12. Unity of command and the scalar principle are both closely related to the:
chain of command.
A condition in which two attitudes or a behavior and an attitude conflict is called ______.
cognitive dissonance
A functional team is also referred to as a(n) _____. A. command team B. task force C. special purpose team D. horizontal team E. interorganizational team
command team
A long-lasting, sometimes permanent team in the organization structure created to deal with tasks that recur regularly is called a(n) _____.
committee
Wyatt has recently been appointed by his boss to a group that has been meeting since the company he works for was founded. The purpose of this group is to make budgetary decisions on an ongoing basis. Wyatt's group can best be defined as a _____. A. committee B. global team C. focus group D. virtual team E. self-directed team
committee
Nancy belongs to a horizontal team in her organization. She was selected on the basis of her title, not her expertise. The type of horizontal team she belongs to is likely a(n): A. self-managed work team. B. task force. C. cross-functional team. D. committee. E. ad-hoc committee.
committee.
All of the following are major perspectives of the Balanced Scorecard EXCEPT _____.
competitors
All of these behaviors are consistent with the role of a task specialist EXCEPT: A. seek information. B. initiation. C. summarize. D. compromise. E. energize.
compromise.
The _____ style to handle conflict involves a moderate degree of assertiveness and a moderate degree of cooperation.
compromising
The Leadership Grid uses two leader behaviors, known as:
concern for people and concern for production.
Managing team _____ is the most important skill required for effective team management. A. norms B. cohesiveness C. conflict D. membership E. none of these
conflict
Researchers at the Ohio State University identified two major behaviors called:
consideration and initiating structure
It seems that once a year the managers of Stone Construction, Inc. attempt a major organization intervention, such as management-by-objectives. They never seem to be satisfied with the performance of Stone Construction and, sure enough, 12 months later, along comes another major intervention. By implementing organizational change in this way, Stone Construction's management may well be violating the principle of:
continuous improvement.
The _____ is purchase orders divided by customer inquiries.
conversion ratio
76. Innovative Creations Corporation is designed along functional lines. New product development is very slow and the process is plagued by many problems. One of the problems is that the people in marketing never communicate with the people in production. This is an example of poor _____.
coordination
79. The outcome of information and cooperation is _____.
coordination
92. An organization strives for internal efficiency with a(n) _____ strategy.
cost leadership
A task force is sometimes called a(n): A. vertical team. B. cross-functional team. C. command team. D. special-purpose team. E. executive team.
cross-functional team.
The forked lines on the right side of a line on an E-R diagram that indicate a 1:N relationship between two entities are referred to as ________.
crow's feet
110. While on a job interview for an administrative position at a university, Alyssa was asked to respond to simulated memos and emails that are similar to those she would address if she was in that position. This is an example of a(n) _____. a. cognitive ability test b. performance review c. 360 degree feedback test d. work sample test e. assessment center
d
117. Pizza Deluxe University is an in-house center and education facility that offers broad-based learning opportunities for employees. Pizza Deluxe University would be considered a(n) _____. a. assessment center b. on-the-job training center c. orientation center d. corporate university e. learning community
d
118. The process of observing and evaluating an employee's performance, recording the assessment, and providing feedback to the employee is referred to as: a. orientation training. b. classroom training. c. a paper-and-pencil test. d. performance appraisal. e. none of these.
d
131. Which are used to help determine why employees are leaving their jobs? a. Termination interviews b. Focus groups c. Employment tests d. Exit interviews e. Assessment Centers
d
52. The strategic approach to human resource management recognizes key elements. Which of the following is NOT an ingredient in successful human resource management? a. All managers are human resource managers. b. Employees are viewed as assets. c. Human resource management is a matching process. d. Only top-line managers are predominantly human resource managers. e. All of these are examples of key ingredients in human resource management.
d
54. All of the following are goals of human resource management EXCEPT : a. finding the right people for the job. b. managing talent so people achieve their potential. c. maintaining an effective work force. d. turning over an effective workforce. e. both attracting an effective work force and maintaining an effective work force.
d
56. Recruiting and selecting employees involves which human resource management goal? a. Implementing strategies b. Managing talent c. Maintaining an effective workforce d. Finding the right people e. Controlling strategies
d
60. ____ is a policy requiring employers to be proactive in being certain that equal opportunity exists for all within their organization. a. Equal employment opportunity b. Discrimination c. Reverse discrimination d. Affirmative action e. Employment-at-will
d
62. Which legal act underscored the need for well-written job descriptions and specifications that accurately reflect the mental and physical dimensions of jobs? a. Vocational Rehabilitation Act b. Accountability Act c. Civil Rights Act d. Americans with Disabilities Act e. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
d
64. Which of the following restricts mandatory retirement? a. The Americans with Disabilities Act b. The Immigration Reform and Control Act c. The Vocational Rehabilitation Act d. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act e. The Vietnam-Era Veterans Readjustment Act
d
69. _____ is part of the new social contract for employees. a. Job security b. A cog in the machine c. Knowing d. Employability, personal responsibility e. Routine jobs
d
72. _____ has led to the elimination of many positions in organizations. a. Globalization b. Insourcing c. Differentiation d. Restructuring e. All of these
d
75. In the new workplace, _____ are people who work for an organization, but not on a permanent or full-time basis. a. upper-level employees b. direct-related workers c. temporary employees d. contingent workers e. low-level employees
d
78. _____ is the first step in attracting an effective work force. a. Selecting the candidate b. Choosing recruiting sources c. Applying the matching model d. Human resource planning e. Initiating change
d
84. Jenna has been given the assignment of determining how many new tellers her bank will need to hire over the next five years. Which of the following questions is irrelevant to her task? a.How many tellers are expected to retire over the next five years? b.What new technologies (e.g., automated teller machines) will be introduced over the next five years? c.How many new branches does the bank expect to open over the next five years? d. All of these are relevant. e. All of these are irrelevant.
d
90. Which of the following is NOT a method used in external recruiting? a. Private employment agencies b. Employee referrals c. Newspaper advertising d. Employee resource chart e. State employment services
d
92. _____ is a listing of job duties and desirable qualifications for a particular job. a. A job analysis b. A job listing c. A job requirement d. A job description e. A realistic job previews
d
99. Rock Bottom, Inc. (RBI) has a relatively high turnover rate among its new employees. Recently, the human resource department conducted a series of interviews with employees who were choosing to leave RBI after a short period of time. It was concluded that unmet expectations were the primary reason these people were leaving so soon. RBI can begin to solve this problem by emphasizing: a. external recruiting. b. affirmative action. c. better training and development. d. the use of realistic job previews. e. employment-at-will.
d
A manager might use _____ as a type of communication a. meetings b. telephone conversations c. talking informally d. all of these e. meetings and telephone conversations
d
Canyon River, Inc. is looking for an individual who has a broad range of interests and is imaginative, creative, artistically sensitive, and willing to consider new ideas. Which of these factors are they emphasizing in their search? A. Agreeableness B. Conscientiousness C. Emotional stability D. Openness to experience E. Extroversion
d
Communication is defined by the text as the process by which information is: a.transmitted to others. b.stored. c.shared. d.exchanged and understood by two or more people, usually with the intent to motivate or influence behavior. e.received.
d
During breaks at work. Albert and Daphne talk occasionally about the problems that they are working on at work, in hopes that they can help each other out. This is an example of what type of organizational communication? a. formal communication b. upward communication c. virtual communication d. lateral communication e. downward communication
d
Highly successful salespeople spend _____ of a sales call letting the customer talk. a.40-50 percent b.all c.15-20 percent d.60-70 percent e.none
d
Individuals who believe that they control their own destiny are described as having a: A. high external locus of control. B. high Mach personality. C. low introversion characteristic. D. high internal locus of control. E. low Mach personality.
d
Information distortion or loss of message content is a major problem with: a.upward communication. b.formal communication. c.horizontal communication. d.downward communication. e.informal communication.
d
Jenna composes an email from home to her boss to inform him that she will be late getting to work that day. The act of composing an email involves which stage of the communication process? a.Decoding the message b.Selecting a channel c.Providing feedback d.Encoding the message e.Sifting through noise
d
Keys to effective listening include all of the following EXCEPT: a.find areas of interest. b.listen for ideas. c.be responsive. d.have preconceptions. e.all of these are keys to effective listening.
d
Silvia, a seasoned assembly line worker at an automobile manufacturer, wants to demonstrate to Allison, a new trainee, how her job relates to other organizational activities. This encompasses which downward communication topic? a.Performance feedback b.Indoctrination c.Practices d.Job instructions e.Goals
d
The Big Five personality factors includes all of these EXCEPT: A. extroversion. B. conscientiousness. C. emotional stability. D. locus of control. E. agreeableness.
d
The learned behaviors associated with being male or female are referred to as: a.plurality. b.stereotypes. c.ethnocentrism. d.gender roles. e.racial roles.
d
The term _____ is defined as "an individual's level of fear or anxiety associated with either real or anticipated communication." a.communication medium b.anticipation nervousness c.public consternation d.communication apprehension e.leadership trepidation
d
Type A behavior pattern is characterized by all of these EXCEPT: A. impatience. B. devotion to work. C. aggressiveness. D. relaxed lifestyle. E. extreme competitiveness.
d
What kinds of skills are fundamental necessities in every part of a manager's job? a.MBWA b.Organizational c.Punishment d.Communication e.Analysis
d
What percentage of a manager's time is spent in direct communication? a.20 percent b.40 percent c.100 percent d.80 percent e.50 percent
d
When a group of workers have routine tasks to perform, a ________ communication structure allows more time for the task to be completed a. decentralized b. team c. gossip d. centralized e. linear
d
Which of the following is defined as the tendency to direct much of one's behavior toward the acquisition of power and the manipulation of others for personal gain? A. Authoritarianism B. External locus of control C. Introversion characteristic D. Machiavellianism E. Organizational citizenship
d
Which of the following is the uncertainty about what behaviors are expected of a person in a particular role? A. Role conflict B. Task overload C. Nonprogrammed decisions D. Role ambiguity E. Task underload
d
Which of the following, in the communication process, has the responsibility to decode the symbols and interpret the meaning of the message? a.Middleman b.Channel c.Sender d.Receiver e.Filter
d
Which of these is the richest medium for communication? a.Voice mail b.Telephone conversations c.Electronic media d.Face-to-face contact e.Written media
d
Which of these styles would likely be appropriate for a counseling job? A. Intuitive-feeling B. Sensation-thinking C. Intuitive-thinking D. Sensation-feeling E. None of these.
d
_____ channels are channels that exist outside the formally authorized channels without regard for the organization's hierarchy of authority. a.Downward communication b.Horizontal communication c.Management by wandering around d.Personal communication e.Upward communication
d
_____ refers to dialogue across boundaries and hierarchical levels about the team or organization's vision, critical strategic themes, and values that help achieve important goals. a.Deliberate talk b.Intentional chat c.Calculated exchange d.Strategic conversation e.Tactical discussion
d
_________ is defined as communication transmitted through actions and behaviors rather than through words. a. Verbal communication b. written communication c. electronic mail d. nonverbal communication e. oral communication
d
_____refers to loyalty to the heavy involvement in the organization. A. Organization citizenship B. Job satisfaction C. Dissonance D. Organizational commitment E. Job involvement
d
_____type people, according to Jung, would rather work with known facts and hard data and prefer routine and order in gathering information. A. Feeling B. Gut-feel C. Intuitive D. Sensation E. Affective
d
73. _____ is by far the most difficult situation for a decision-maker. a. Certainty b. Risk c. Uncertainty d. Ambiguity e. Brainstorming
d. Ambiguity
74. Which of the following means that the goals to be achieved or the problem to be solved is unclear, alternatives are difficult to define, and information about outcomes is unavailable? a. Certainty b. Risk c. Uncertainty d. Ambiguity e. Brainstorming
d. Ambiguity
49. _____ is a vital part of good management because decisions determine how the organization solves its problems, allocates resources, and accomplishes its goals. a. Organizing b. Competitive visioning c. Proper alignment d. Good decision making e. Leadership
d. Good decision making
79. Riley is a manager at the Tinker Tools. She is expected to make decisions that are in the organization's best economic interests. Her decisions should be based on which of the following models? a. The administrative model of decision making b. The garbage can model of decision making c. The scientific management model of decision making d. The classical model of decision making e. The humanistic model of decision making
d. The classical model of decision making
77. During the fallout of the global financial crisis of the late 2000s, finance companies had to make important decisions in a highly ambiguous environment. The decision to buyout failed banks could best be described as what type of decision? a. Bounded b. Programmed c. Conventional d. Wicked decision problem e. Irrational decision
d. Wicked decision problem
58. Nonprogrammed decisions are made in response to situations that are: a. unique. b. unstructured. c. important to the organization. d. all of these e. unique and important to the organization.
d. all of these
121. Managers are considered to have a(n) _____ style when they prefer to consider complex solutions based on as much data as they can gather. a. behavioral b. conceptual c. directive d. analytical e. classical
d. analytical
120. Research has identified four major decision styles. These include all of the following except _____. a. behavioral b. conceptual c. analytical d. authoritative e. directive
d. authoritative
123. People with a(n) _____ style usually are concerned with the personal development of others and may make decisions that help others achieve their goals. a. classical b. analytic c. logical d. behavioral e. conceptual
d. behavioral
93. Intuition is based on _____, but lacking in _____. a. conscious thought; practicality b. experience; applicability c. a solid analysis; applicability d. experience; conscious thought e. thought-process; guts
d. experience; conscious thought
115. The _____ step in the decision making process involves using managerial, administrative, and persuasive abilities to translate the chosen alternative into action. a. recognition b. analysis c. evaluation d. implementation e. feedback
d. implementation
83. All of the following are characteristics of the classical decision making model except: a. clear-cut problems and goals. b. conditions of certainty. c. rational choice by individual for maximizing outcomes. d. limited information about alternatives and their outcomes. e. all of these are characteristics of classical decision making model.
d. limited information about alternatives and their outcomes.
97. The _____ model of decision-making is useful for making nonprogrammed decisions when conditions are uncertain, information is limited, and there are managerial conflicts about what goals to pursue or what course of action to take. a. classical b. functional c. bureaucratic d. political e. administrative
d. political
91. The essence of _____ is to choose the first solution available. a. bounded rationality b. creativity c. decision maximization d. satisficing e. the classical model of decision making
d. satisficing
66. Bobby, a product manager, wants to increase the market share of his product. He is unsure about how to go about it, not knowing for sure how costs, price, the competition, and the quality of his product will interact to influence market share. Bobby is operating under a condition of _____. a. risk b. ambiguity c. certainty d. uncertainty e. brainstorming
d. uncertainty
Focusing manager and employee efforts on activities that will lead to goal attainment is a benefit of what management method? A. Tactical planning B. Contingency planning C. Single-use planning D. Management by objectives E. Management by walking around
d. management by objectives
A ________ is a collection of forms, reports, queries, and programs that use the DBMS to process a database.
database application
35. Change and uncertainty in the environment are usually associated with _____.
decentralization
39. The use of teams may lead to too much:
decentralization.
The control "system" at FreshFood Corporation is based on the culture of the organization and norms that develop in the individual work teams. This is an example of:
decentralized control.
27. Shoshanna is manager of a customer service firm where she oversees five subordinates. To help her subordinates learn more about the different roles within the company, Shoshanna regularly assigns them tasks that are not part of their normal routine. This is an example of:
delegation
20. Gina wishes to transfer authority and responsibility to her subordinates. This process is known as:
delegation.
93. With a(n) _____ strategy, the organization attempts to develop innovative products unique to the market.
differentiation
102. Organizations such as Amazon.com, Google, Facebook, and Priceline.com are examples of firms that are based on:
digital technology.
A competitive and adversarial negotiation approach in which each party strives to get as much as it can, usually at the expense of the other party, is called: A. BATNA. B. a bargaining zone. C. mediation. D. integrative negotiation. E. distributive negotiation.
distributive negotiation.
95. Research has shown that:
diverse groups are more creative than homogeneous groups.
Josh is a manager at On-The-Go Cars. He recently has read quite a bit of literature on the benefits of work teams. He is particularly interested in forming a vertical team. There are twenty-eight employees in his department. Josh should: A. recruit more employees for his department; twenty-eight is too small for a work team. B. form one team of twenty-eight employees. C. divide the group into four teams of seven employees each. D. forget the team idea; he has too many employees and he shouldn't divide his work group. E. do his job and not worry about teams.
divide the group into four teams of seven employees each.
41. When departments are grouped together on the basis of organizational outputs, the organization is using a:
divisional structure.
42. Self-contained unit structure is a term used for:
divisional structure.
72. Stephanie works in one of seven research and development departments at Tara's Terrace, Inc. This would suggest that Tara's Terrace has a:
divisional structure.
38. The functional, _____, and _____ are traditional approaches that rely on the chain of command to define departmental groupings and reporting relationships along the hierarchy.
divisional, matrix
9. Louise works in the manufacturing department at Ice Sculptures. The work in Louise's department is low in task specialization. As a result, Louise:
does a variety of tasks and activities.
88. A recent study from the U.S. Department of Labor shows that the top reason that people leave their jobs is because they: a. don't make enough money. b. don't feel appreciated. c. don't believe in what the organization stands for. d. don't like their colleagues. e. don't like their boss.
don't feel appreciated
101. Which of the following is inappropriate to ask on an employment application? a. If the applicant is over 18 b. Where the applicant went to school c. If the applicant has ever been convicted of a crime d. Whether the applicant has any disabilities that might inhibit job performance e. Applicant's ancestry/ethnicity
e
106. One of the newest ways of gauging whether a candidate is right for the company is by checking: a. previous places of employment. b. with references. c. trial employment period. d. aptitude tests. e. social networking sites.
e
107. All of the following are selection devices used for assessing applicant qualifications EXCEPT a(n) _____. a. application form b. interview c. employment test d. assessment center e. drug usage test
e
113. Which of these is(are) part of new approaches to recruiting? a. Recruiting welfare recipients b. E-cruiting c. Hiring former prison inmates d. Non-traditional sources of employees e. All of these
e
127. Sandra, a human resources manager at an advertising firm, is currently in the process of determining the value and worth of advertising executive positions within the agency. This is referred to as _____. a. compensation b. rightsizing c. wage and salary surveying d. incentive pay e. job evaluation
e
70. Which of the following is tied to the goal of managing talent in organizations? a. Labor relations b. Job analysis c. Wages and salary d. HRM planning e. Training and development
e
A high degree of _____means you can accurately assess your own strengths and limitations and have a healthy sense of self-confidence. A. self-management B. social cohesiveness C. social awareness D. relationship management E. self-awareness
e
According to the text, all of the following are ways managers can improve their writing skills EXCEPT: a.respecting the reader. b.getting a second opinion. c.writing clearly rather than impressively. d.knowing your point and get to it. e.writing lengthy explanations.
e
All of the following are things bad bosses do to create stress for their subordinates EXCEPT: A. Bully and harass people to keep them on their toes. B. Create perpetual doubt about how well employees are performing. C. Fail to give people credit for their contributions and achievements. D. Impose unreasonable demands and overwhelming workloads. E. Tell people exactly what is expected of them.
e
An interdisciplinary field dedicated to the study of how individuals and groups tend to act in organizations is called: A. sociology. B. vocational counseling. C. cultural anthropology. D. psychology. E. organizational behavior.
e
Bernice is a talkative, assertive, and sociable individual who is very comfortable with interpersonal relationships. Which of the following is applicable to Bernice? A. Machiavellianism B. Conscientiousness C. Agreeableness D. Emotional stability E. Extroversion
e
Channel richness refers to the: a.number of channels available at any one time. b.number of messages a channel can carry at one time. c.profitability potential of a proposed channel. d.speed in which messages can be carried. e.amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode.
e
Messages that convey data or statistics or simply put into words what managers already agree on and understand are referred to as: a.qualitative messages. b.instant messages. c.non-routine messages. d.grapevine messages. e.routine messages.
e
Most executives now believe that important information flows from the: a.internal to external. b.horizontal level to diagonal level. c.diagonal level. d.top down. e.bottom up.
e
People with an external locus of control are: A. more achievement oriented. B. better able to handle complex information and problem solving. C. more independent. D. easier to motivate. E. easier to lead.
e
Stress can be caused by: A. task demands. B. role demands. C. interpersonal demands. D. physical demands. E. all of these.
e
The skills of _____ require receiving messages to accurately grasp facts and feelings to interpret the meaning of the message. a.communication b.managing c.telling d.reception e.listening
e
When managers who express positive emotions such as happiness, enthusiasm, and appreciation trigger these same positive emotions in employees, _____is happening. A. Perceptual selectivity B. Cognitive dissonance C. Contagious feeling D. Self-efficacy E. Emotion contagion
e
Which of the following is described by the text as a communication channel that flows within the chain of command or task responsibility defined by the organization? a.Upward communication b.Horizontal communication c.Diagonal communication d.Downward communication e.Formal communication
e
Which of the following is the best advice for written communication that is highly important? a.Keep it long b.Use technology channels to distribute the message c.Use jargon d.Use pretentious language e.Get a second opinion
e
Which of these is used for solving intradepartmental problems, interdepartmental coordination, and change initiatives and improvements? a.Informal communication b.Vertical communication c.Upward communication d.Downward communication e.Horizontal communication
e
Will explains to his boss that his computer has a virus, and needs to be scanned and cleaned. This is an example of which topic of upward communication? a.Suggestions for improvement b.Performance reports c.Grievances and disputes d.Financial and accounting information e.Problems and exceptions
e
124. Finance managers at Big Bend Inc. made a financial blunder when they solely looked at the previous year's sales to estimate sales for the coming year. Of which management bias is this an example? a. Being influenced by emotions b. Perpetuating the status quo c. Seeing what you want to see d. Justifying past actions e. Being influenced by initial impressions
e. Being influenced by initial impressions
92. Rodney doesn't always realize that within his role as an air traffic controller, he must continuously perceive and process information based on knowledge and experience that he is not consciously aware of. This describes what type of decision-making? a. Administrative b. Right-brained c. Satisficing d. Rational e. Intuitive
e. Intuitive
127. The ability to make _____ decisions is a critical skill in today's fast-moving organizations. a. fast b. widely supported c. high-quality d. frequent e. all of these
e. all of these
116. Feedback is important because: a. decision making is a continuous process. b. it provides decision-makers with new information. c. it helps determine if a new decision needs to be made. d. it provides decision-makers with new information and it helps determine if a new decision needs to be made. e. all of these.
e. all of these.
128. As a top manager, Joanna works with others within her team every day in making important corporate decisions. Her preferred decision-making approach is to generate as many alternatives to problems as possible in a short amount of time. This approach is referred to as _____. a. groupthink b. devil's advocacy c. point-counterpoint d. escalating commitment e. brainstorming
e. brainstorming
133. The tendency of organizations to invest time and money in a solution despite strong evidence that is not appropriate is referred to as: a. technological decisions. b. collective intuition. c. decision learning. d. team delay. e. escalating commitment.
e. escalating commitment.
98. The _____ model closely resembles the real environment in which most managers and decision-makers operate. a. normative b. administrative c. descriptive d. classical e. political
e. political
102. A(n) _____ occurs when the organizational accomplishment is less than established goals. a. strength b. threat c. diagnosis d. opportunity e. problem
e. problem
53. A(n)_____ is an example of an intrinsic reward. a. employee's feelings of self-worth b. pat on the back from your boss c. pay raise d. promotion e. bonus
employee's feelings of self-worth
8. When work specialization is extensive:
employees perform a single task.
127. The delegation of power and authority to subordinates is referred to as: a. need for power. b. need for achievement. c. empowerment. d. passing the buck. e. need of affiliation.
empowerment
43. Relative to the functional structure, the divisional structure:
encourages decentralization.
134. Carla's subordinates view her as a great manager. Not only does she get the job done, but she organizes the workplace in such a way that employees experience a sense of meaningfulness, connection, and growth. This is an example of employee: a. pay-for-performance. b. delegation. c. empathy. d. apathy. e. engagement.
engagement
52. All of the following are the major disadvantages of the matrix structure EXCEPT:
enlarged tasks for employees.
73. Women make up less than 16 percent of all Fortune 500 executives. This could be due to:
equal opportunity.
Which of the following is an example of a managerial sales and marketing process?
evaluating promotional discounts
When an unsuspecting user accesses a fake Wi-Fi access point, which has the same name as a legitimate Wi-Fi access point, this is an example of a/an ________.
evil twin
63. All of the following are advantages of a functional structure EXCEPT:
excellent coordination between functions.
Which of the following information systems facilitate strategic processes?
executive support systems
66. Alderfer referred to the needs for physical well being as _____ needs. a. physiological b. existence c. belongingness d. relatedness e. growth
existence
Information varies from person to person based on ________.
experiences or education?
Andrea is team leader of the focus group at her organization. In the past, the group was plagued by lack of cooperation and disrespect. Today, she told team members that if anyone tried to undermine another member, that person would be kicked off the team. This is an example of a(n): A. critical event. B. explicit statement. C. experiential carryover. D. implied norm. E. accommodation.
explicit statement.
Once a month, the top managers at George's Greenhouse make a point of meeting with the work teams in their respective divisions in order to communicate to them the organization's priorities, goals, and needs. This is an example of top management attempting to influence team norms through: A. explicit statements. B. primacy. C. carryover behaviors. D. critical events. E. all of these.
explicit statements.
52. A(n)_____ refers to a reward given by another person. a. intrinsic reward b. internal reward c. extrinsic reward d. valued reward e. charity
extrinsic reward
54. Katie dislikes almost everything about her job. The only reason she continues to work at Mace Autobody is the excellent benefits package she receives. Katie is motivated by: a. extrinsic rewards. b. intrinsic rewards. c. variable rewards. d. all of these. e. none of these.
extrinsic rewards
All well-designed control systems involve the use of _____ to determine whether performance meets established standards.
feedback
CyberChasers Corporation sends a post-purchase questionnaire to all consumers who buy their products. They are interested in gathering data on product quality, customer service orientation, and customer satisfaction. This is an example of a:
feedback control.
The ideal size of work teams is often thought to be _____.
five
62. The biggest advantage to a virtual network approach is _____ and _____ on a global scale.
flexibility; competitiveness
96. The pure functional structure does not enable the organization to be:
flexible.
The _____ stage of development is a period of orientation and getting acquainted.
forming
4. Organization structure is defined as the:
framework in which the organization defined how tasks are divided, resources are deployed, and departments are coordinated.
A(n) _____ is a person who benefits from team membership but does not make a proportionate contribution to the team's work. A. "yes" man B. social worker C. work surfer D. free rider E. groupthink
free rider
A(n) _____ is a team member who attains benefits from team membership but does not actively participate in and contribute to the team's work.
free rider
The term _____ refers to a team member who attains benefit from team membership but does not do a proportionate share of the work.
free rider
Randy is a team leader at Welldrilling.net. His team is made up of fifteen co-workers. Recently, he has noticed a tendency for some team members to participate much less than others. They seem uninterested and content to let others do the work. This is called: A. free riding. B. reduced commitment. C. power realignment. D. the costs of coordination. E. self-directed team.
free riding
67. Organ Rentals Corporation has been having numerous problems. Communication across departments is poor and decisions are backing up at the top of the organization. Organ Rentals uses a _____ structure.
functional
A(n) _____ team is composed of employees from about the same hierarchical level but from different areas of expertise.
functional
Tamika is a manager at Sleeveless Clothes, Inc. Recently, she was assigned a work team. She is in charge of the team and it consists of the subordinates under her authority. This is an example of a _____ team. A. horizontal B. functional C. self-managed D. special-purpose E. social
functional
78. When the organization is structured along _____ lines, coordination is required.
functional, divisional, team, functional or divisional
The tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors on another's behavior and to overestimate the influence of internal factors is called the ______.
fundamental attribution error
45. All functions in a specific country or region report to the same division manager in _____ divisions.
geographic-based
All of the following are key steps of setting up feedback control systems EXCEPT:
getting employee opinions.
Total quality management:
gives all employees the responsibility for achieving quality goals.
At FEI Industries, teams of product developers coordinate their work electronically at the North American, European, and Asian sites to coincide with peak operating hours at each location. Such teams are referred to as a _____. A. project team B. committee C. focus group D. global team E. self-directed team
global team
Cross-border work teams made up of members of different nationalities whose activities span multiple countries are called: A. self-directed teams. B. project teams. C. multinational teams. D. long distance teams. E. global teams.
global teams.
79. In goal-setting theory, _____ refers to the idea that employees have to "buy into" the goals. a. goal specificity b. goal difficulty c. goal acceptance d. feedback e. goal motivation
goal acceptance
95. In goal-setting theory, _____ refers to the degree to which goals are concrete and unambiguous. a. goal specificity b. goal difficulty c. goal acceptance d. feedback e. goal motivation
goal specificity
The early research on leadership traits was referred to as the:
great man approach
The LHX quality task force has a strong leader in Josh Clark. Josh runs efficient meetings, where he leads discussion and decision-making. In the end, tasks are delegated to members for subsequent follow-up. The LHX task force can best be characterized as a(n) _____. A. club B. team C. group D. organization E. none of these
group
A manager can put together a(n) _____ of people, but never build a(n) _____.
group; team
The tendency for people to be so committed to a cohesive team that they are reluctant to express contrary opinions refers to _____. A. brainstorm B. brain dump C. group innovation D. groupthink E. group anxiety
groupthink
The ______ occurs when the perceiver develops an overall impression of a person or situation based on one attribute, either favorable or unfavorable.
halo effect
The ______ occurs when the perceiver develops an overall impression of a person or situation based on one attribute, either favorable or unfavorable.
halo effect
97. Research has shown that network groups:
help retain minority employees.
The basic philosophy of control at Nutrients-For-You, Inc. is based on the policies found in the employee handbook, as well as a strict hierarchy of authority. This philosophy is consistent with:
hierarchical control.
Megan is a manager at Botell International. She is very friendly and extremely respectful of her subordinate's welfare. She can be described as:
high in consideration
The collaborating style of conflict resolution is based on a _____ degree of assertiveness and a _____ degree of cooperativeness. A. high, high B. high, low C. low, high D. low, low E. low, medium
high, high
The competing style of conflict resolution is based on a _____ degree of assertiveness and a _____ degree of cooperativeness. A. high, high B. high, low C. low, high D. low, low E. low, medium
high, low
84. Makai's Marketing Mix (MMM) does not use its resources wisely. The employees at MMM spend too much time in meetings and not enough time focusing on the task at hand. MMM's management should consider changing the organizational structure from _____ to _____.
horizontal, vertical
According to the leadership grid, _____ means the absence of a management philosophy, where managers exert little effort toward interpersonal relationships or work accomplishment.
impoverished management
Team _____ occurs when individuals and departments rely on other individuals and departments for information or resources to accomplish their work. A. accountability B. cohesiveness C. control D. interdependence E. independence
interdependence
94. A pure functional structure is most appropriate for achieving:
internal efficiency goals.
55. Sally enjoys her job as a teacher, not because of the pay or benefits, but because she feels good about shaping the minds of tomorrow's leaders. Sally is motivated by: a. power factors. b. leadership factors. c. hygiene factors. d. extrinsic rewards. e. intrinsic rewards.
intrinsic rewards
70. Advantages of the matrix structure include:
it increases employee participation., it makes efficient use of human resources., it works well in a changing environment., it develops both general and specialist management skills.
Leadership is reciprocal, according to your text. This means:
it occurs between people.
116. A job design that incorporates achievement, recognition, and other high-level motivators into the work is referred to as: a. job simplification. b. job rotation. c. job enlargement. d. job enrichment. e. none of these.
job enrichment
112. Larry is looking for ways to increase the number of different tasks that an employee performs without increasing task complexity. He should try: a. job simplification. b. job enlargement. c. job rotation. d. job enrichment. e. job lay-off.
job rotation
A positive attitude toward one's job is called ______.
job satisfaction
The less effective leaders, in the University of Michigan studies, were called:
job-centered leaders
126. The job characteristic of feedback provides the worker with: a. employee growth-need strength. b. experienced meaningfulness of work. c. experienced responsibility. d. knowledge of actual results. e. demotivation.
knowledge of actual results
74. The team approach to departmentalization is a response to:
lack of participative teams., centralized decision-making., the competitive global environment., both lack of participative teams and centralized decision-making.
Which of the following refers to group atmosphere and members' attitude toward and acceptance of the leader?
leader-member relations
Charismatic leaders are often _____ than transactional leaders.
less predictable
The _____ ratio refers to the ability of the organization to meet its current debt obligation.
liquidity
The tendency to place the primary responsibility for one's success or failure either within oneself (internally) or on outside forces (externally) is called the ______.
locus of control
The tendency to place the primary responsibility for one's success or failure either within oneself (internally) or on outside forces (externally) is called the ______.
locus of control
Which of the following is NOT one of the four fundamental competitive strategies?
low cost and differentiation within an industry segment
The accommodating style of conflict resolution is based on a _____ degree of assertiveness and a _____ degree of cooperativeness. A. high, high B. high, low C. low, high D. low, low E. low, medium
low, high
The avoiding style of conflict resolution is based on a _____ degree of assertiveness and a _____ degree of cooperativeness. A. high, high B. high, low C. low, high D. low, low E. low, medium
low, low
An advantage of the bottom-up budgeting process is:
lower managers are more involved.
Contingency factors that can influence the success of a TQM program in a positive way include all of the following EXCEPT:
managers wait for big, dramatic innovations.
46. Global companies often use a _____ structure to achieve simultaneous coordination of products across countries.
matrix
47. A formal chain of command for both functional and divisional relationships is provided by the _____ approach to structure.
matrix
48. Kent works at the Tick Tock, Inc. He has two bosses, one a functional manager and the other a divisional manager. Tick Tock, Inc. has a _____ structure.
matrix
54. The _____ is the product or functional boss, who is responsible for one side of the matrix.
matrix boss
According to the control model, after establishing standards of performance the manager should:
measure actual performance.
The process of using a third party to settle a dispute is known as _____.
mediation
Carmen's group found itself unable to handle a conflict. The group decides to bring in an outside consultant to discuss the conflict with both sides and work toward a resolution. The group is using: A. BATNA. B. a bargaining zone. C. mediation. D. integrative negotiation. E. distributive negotiation.
mediation.
Herman is a team leader at CyberChasers. He usually tries to resolve conflict by referring the problem to a third party, such as his boss. This style of conflict resolution is known as: A. arbitration. B. mediation. C. bargaining. D. superordinate goals. E. negotiation.
mediation.
In situations of _____, according to Fiedler, relationship-oriented leaders are more effective.
moderate favorability
61. In the _____ approach, a manufacturing company uses outside suppliers to provide entire chunks of a product, which are then assembled into a final product by a handful of workers.
modular
70. A culture that accepts only one way of doing things and one set of values and beliefs is referred to as a(n) _____.
monoculture
The _____ the team interacts, the _____ cohesive the team. A. less, more B. more, more C. more, less D. all of these E. none of these
more, more
Self-directed teams consist of 5 to 20 _____ workers. A. union B. non-union C. multiskilled D. low wage E. all of these
multiskilled
31. Relative to a flat organizational structure, a tall structure has a _____ span of management and _____ hierarchical levels.
narrow; more
76. Denise has a desire to influence others, be responsible for them, and have authority over them. It can be described as her: a. need for power. b. need for achievement. c. need for affiliation. d. need for relatedness. e. none of these.
need for power
Ahmad is a new manager at AJ Homes Company. He has absolutely no experience as a manager nor does he know the technology of his department well. These two factors prevent Ahmad from directing his workforce. This is an example of _____ impacting leadership styles and behaviors.
neutralizers
114. Which of these combines a number of tasks horizontally into one, new broader job? a. Job simplification b. Job rotation c. Job enrichment d. All of these e. None of these
none of these
138. One of Donovan's best employees has a driving need to be able to attain a high standard of success, to master complex tasks, and to surpass others. Donovan recognizes these acquired needs as defined as: a. the need for accomplishment. b. the need for power. c. the need for affiliation. d. the need for adaptation. e. none of these.
none of these
During the _____ stage of team development, conflict is resolved, and team harmony and unity emerge.
norming
Malcolm Bagget has been working as a production employee for the last three years. His firm is currently undergoing a change in structure with a new management group and the production department is being restructured. Each production employee will be assigned to a small six-member production team. Malcolm is looking forward to the extensive cross training that has been promised and is looking forward to enjoying more power and discretion than he has had in the past. In addition to skill training, Malcolm is receiving management training in team building. When Malcolm's team encounters the establishment of order and cohesion with the leader helping to clarify team roles and values, then his team is in the developmental stage of team development of _____. a. forming b. storming c. norming d. performing e. adjourning
norming
Kristen, in her role as team leader, has recently switched her style from one of clarifying team roles to one of emphasizing task accomplishment. Her change was driven by a desire to keep pace with her team, which has evolved from the _____ stage to the _____ stage of team development. A. forming, storming B. storming, performing C. performing, adjourning D. norming, performing E. storming, reforming
norming, performing
The goal of _____ is to get every employee thinking and acting like a business owner.
open-book management
Ophelia, the new CEO at Odyssey Inc., plans to implement a highly effective systematic process of regulating organizational activities to make them consistent with the expectations that are established by managers within the company. This is referred to as _____ control.
organizational
6. The _____ delineates the chain of command, indicates departmental tasks and how they fit together, and provides order and logic for the organization.
organizational chart
Work behavior that goes beyond job requirements and contributes as needed to the organization's success is referred to as ______.
organizational citizenship
Loyalty to and heavy involvement in one's organization is called ______.
organizational commitment
The forming stage of team development is characterized by: A. the establishment of order and cohesion. B. cooperation. C. problem solving. D. orientation. E. conflict.
orientation.
69. According to Herzberg, _____ is an example of a hygiene factor. a. achievement b. recognition c. pay d. responsibility e. opportunity for growth
pay
The process people use to make sense of the environment by selecting, organizing, and interpreting information from the environment is referred to as ______.
perception
______ is the cognitive process people use to make sense out of the environment by selecting, organizing, and interpreting information.
perception
Errors in perceptual judgment that arise from inaccuracies in any part of the perception process are called ______.
perceptual distortions
Some team members are asked to play a dual role. These members: A. engage in two sets of behaviors: initiation and energize. B. perform both role: task specialist and socioemotional. C. perform both roles: liaison and negotiator. D. engage in two sets of behavior: follow and compromise. E. do not do anything.
perform both role: task specialist and socioemotional.
During the _____ stage of team development, the major emphasis is on problem solving and accomplishing the assigned task.
performing
During the _____ stage of team development, the major emphasis is on task accomplishment. A. forming B. performing C. achieving D. norming E. storming
performing
Self-directed teams are _____ teams. A. temporary B. permanent C. ad-hoc D. task force E. none of these
permanent
Fiedler used all of the following to describe how leaders fit the situation EXCEPT:
personal power
Which of the following is NOT a manager quality?
personal power
An individual's ______ is the set of characteristics that underlie a relatively stable pattern of behavior in response to ideas, objects, or people in the environment.
personality
Colleen Farney at TeleTech shows vast knowledge, intelligence, cognitive ability, and keen decisiveness. Which personal characteristic of leadership is she showing?
personality
98. Bruce publicly praises his employees when they have achieved their goals. Bruce hopes this will increase the likelihood of goal achievement in the future. This is an example of: a. extinction. b. negative reinforcement. c. avoidance learning. d. positive reinforcement. e. none of these.
positive reinforcement
75. A high need for _____ is associated with successful attainment of top levels in the organizational hierarchy, according to McClelland. a. power b. achievement c. affiliation d. success e. expertise
power
When the process changes, the ________ will also need to change.
procedure
Porter's model of integrating the activities of all departments involved in a value chain is referred to as business ________.
process design
94. Theories that explain how employees select the behaviors that allow them to meet their needs are known as: a. content theories. b. contingency theories. c. process theories. d. need hierarchy theories. e. reinforcement theories.
process theories
The quality and quantity of task outputs as defined by team goals is known as _____.
productive output
Net income divided by sales is the correct formula for calculating:
profit margin on sales.
Tammy is a production manager at Eagle's Nest, Inc.. She is concerned that too much money is being wasted on inventory that is sitting in the warehouse too long. She should calculate a(n):
profitability ratio.
86. A(n) ____ is responsible for coordinating the activities of several departments.
project manager
Service-oriented architecture (SOA) provides a way for apps on a network to talk to each other using all these ways, EXCEPT ________.
providing metadata about the page
A group of 6 to 12 volunteer employees who meet regularly to discuss and solve problems affecting their common work activities is a _____.
quality circle
A(n) ________ is a search request for data from a database.
query
85. Flash Card Inc. recently underwent a significant company-wide change that involved revision of its manufacturing and leadership processes. The result of this was a stronger emphasis on horizontal coordination. This level of change is referred to as _____.
reengineering
67. Frank is primarily driven by a need to establish close social relationships with other people. Alderfer would say he is motivated by: a. growth needs. b. existence needs. c. relatedness needs. d. self-actualization needs. e. physiological needs.
relatedness needs
Two leadership styles used by Fiedler in his contingency theory were:
relationship-oriented and task-oriented.
All of the following are interpersonal influence tactics EXCEPT:
rely on the rule of demand
64. An advantage of functional structures is the:
resulting economies of scale.
All of the following are common dysfunctions of teams EXCEPT: A. lack of trust. B. avoidance of accountability. C. fear of conflict. D. lack of commitment. E. results orientation.
results orientation.
Candice uses praise, letters of support, and pats on the back as ways of influencing her subordinate's behaviors. All of these actions are highly valued by the work group. This is an example of:
reward power
A ________ is referred to as a subset of activities in a business process that is performed by a particular individual.
role
Uncertainty about what behaviors are expected of a person in a particular role is referred to as ______.
role ambiguity
137. The motivator factors, or satisfiers, that Donovan can change and influence include all of the following EXCEPT: a. recognition. b. growth opportunities. c. achievement. d. salary. e. all are motivator factors.
salary
In the context of work team effectiveness, _____ pertains to the team's ability to meet the personal needs of its members. A. cohesiveness B. satisfaction C. commitment D. leadership E. norms
satisfaction
Work team effectiveness is based on three outcomes: productive output, capacity to adapt and learn, and _____. A. cohesiveness B. satisfaction C. commitment D. leadership E. norms
satisfaction
60. According to MANAGER'S SHOPTALK in Chapter 10, all of the following are effective ways for a manager to delegate EXCEPT:
save feedback for completion of the project.
Effective virtual team leaders use technology to build relationships through all of the following ways EXCEPT: A. bring attention to and appreciate divers skills and opinions. B. scrutinize electronic communication patterns. C. use technology to enhance communication and trust. D. ensure timely responses online. E. manage online socialization.
scrutinize electronic communication patterns.
65. According to Maslow, the highest order needs are: a. self-actualization needs. b. physiological needs. c. esteem needs. d. belongingness needs. e. safety needs.
self-actualization needs
In a(n) _____ team, team members take over managerial duties.
self-directed
Carolyn is a member of a work team at Creepy Clown's Company. She and her teammates possess several different skills and are able to perform a major organizational task with little or no oversight from management. Carolyn is a member of a(n): A. union. B. self-directed team. C. project team. D. special-purpose team. E. bureaucratic team.
self-directed team.
A(n)_____ leader works to fulfill subordinated needs and goals as well as to achieve the organization's larger mission.
servant
26. Traditionally, a span of management of about _____ has been recommended.
seven
5. The organization chart:
shows the characteristics of the organization's vertical structure., is a visual representation of the organization's structure, details the formal reporting relationships that exist within an organization, both shows the characteristics of the organization's vertical structure and is a visual representation of the organization's structure.
111. While job ____ can lead to greater task efficiencies, it has failed as a motivational technique. a. rotation b. enlargement c. simplification d. characteristics e. enrichment
simplification
119. The core dimension of Hackman and Oldham's model of job characteristics that is based on the number of diverse activities that make up a job is known as: a. autonomy. b. job enlargement. c. skill variety. d. task identity. e. feedback.
skill variety
100. In _____ production, firms produce goods in batches of one or a few products designed to customer specification.
small batch
A role in which the individual provides support for team members' emotional needs and social unity is called a(n) _____ role
socioemotional
A team created outside the formal organization to undertake a project of special importance or creativity is known as a(n) _____.
special purpose team
To reduce the organization's cycle time is to reduce the number of:
steps in an organizational process.
During the _____ stage of team development, individual personalities emerge. People become more assertive in clarifying their roles and what is expected of them.
storming
During the _____ stage, the team leader should encourage participation by each team member. A. forming B. storming C. norming D. adjourning E. performing
storming
When Naomi makes decisions regarding the location of a new franchise for her Italian restaurant and charts out the growth plan for her business over the next 5-8 years, her decisions relate to the ________ processes of her business.
strategic
All of the following are leadership qualities EXCEPT :a. visionary. b. innovative. c. promotes change. d. structured. e. nurtures.
structured
A _____ is a situational variable that makes a leadership style unnecessary or redundant.
substitute
A goal that cannot be reached by a single party is called a(n) _____.
superordinate goal
In the case of ________, the same key is used to encode and to decode a message.
symmetric encryption
Kyle's work group consistently exceeds the goals the members set for themselves some months ago. In an attempt to better motivate the group, Kyle thought it would be a good idea to set new goals. This is an example of Kyle exercising control by:
taking corrective action.
81. Marissa was recently assigned to a committee whose task is to research new product opportunities. Once this group generates a list of six or seven viable options, it will be disbanded. This group is also known as a _____.
task force
A _____ is a group of employees from different departments formed to deal with a specific activity and existing only until the task is completed. A. vertical team B. command team C. special purpose team D. task force E. functional group
task force
121. The degree to which the job is perceived as important and having impact on the company or customers is referred to as: a. task complexity. b. task identity. c. task significance. d. task structure. e. task simplification.
task significance
A role in which the individual devotes personal time and energy to helping the team accomplish its task is called a(n) _____ role.
task specialist
There are two types of roles that emerge in teams. They are the ____ role and the ____ role. A. task specialist, socioeconomic B. generalists, socioeconomic C. task specialist, socioemotional D. generalists, socioemotional E. socioemotional, socioeconomic
task specialist, socioemotional
Contingency factors that can influence the success of a TQM program in a negative way include all of the following EXCEPT:
tasks make high skill demands on employees.
Quality circles are based on the assumption(s) that:
the people who do the job know it better than anyone else.
88. Typically, project managers have authority over _____ but not over _____ assigned to it.
the project; people
Decentralized control is usually implemented in all of the following areas EXCEPT:
the quality control department.
75. Coordination is defined as:
the quality of collaboration across departments.
68. All of the following are advantages of a divisional structure EXCEPT:
there is little duplication of services across divisions.
Which of the following appropriately justifies a company's decision to develop an information system?
to achieve organizational strategy
53. Juan is a top manager at I.F.L., a matrix organization. He oversees both the product and functional chains of command, and is responsible for maintaining a power balance between the two sides of the matrix. Juan is a _____.
top leader
Brad is a department manager at Home Theater, Inc. His sole role in the budget process is to implement the budget that is developed for him. This is an example of:
top-down budgeting.
The distinguishing personal characteristics of a leader are known as:
traits
The _____ leader is distinguished by his/her ability to bring about organizational change.
transformational
A contingency factor that can influence the success of a TQM program in a negative way is that:
union leaders are left out of QC discussions.
91. Mondavi Corporation has a finance department, a marketing department, and a production department. Mondavi:
uses a functional structure.
When criminals replace a legitimate user or software program with their own access or illegitimate software program to give the attacker unauthorized control of some part of the IS, it is known as ________.
usurpation
Common types of formal teams are: A. vertical and diagonal. B. horizontal and diagonal. C. vertical and horizontal. D. horizontal and lateral. E. lateral and diagonal.
vertical and horizontal.
90. Kara's department is made up of people with similar skills and work activities. Her organization uses the _____ approach to departmentalization.
vertical functional
98. A(n) _____ works best in a stable organizational environment.
vertical structure
A(n) _____ is composed of a manager and his or her subordinates in the formal chain of command.
vertical team
109. At Rightway Industries, new hires spend a significant portion of their first week of training just walking around the factory, observing other workers and watching them get rewarded for doing their jobs well. This is an example of: a. vicarious learning. b. self-efficacy. c. self-reinforcement. d. delegation. e. experiential learning.
vicarious learning
A(n) _____ team uses computer technology and groupware so that geographically distant members can collaborate on projects and reach common goals.
virtual
Members of _____ teams remain in separate locations around the world and conduct their work electronically. A. intercultural B. international C. multinational D. virtual global E. distance
virtual global
56. Walt works for a large company. Recently, his organization began to contract out such functions as training, engineering, and computer service. This approach is consistent with a _____ structure.
virtual network
59. In the _____ structure, the organization is viewed as a central hub surrounded by a network of outside specialists which are sometimes spread all over the world.
virtual network
57. The _____ is an organization structure that divides the major functions of the organization into separate companies.
virtual network approach
58. The _____ is an organization structure that divides the major functions of the organization into separate companies and coordinates their activities from a small headquarters organization.
virtual network approach
Sylvia is a member of a team that uses e-mail, instant messaging, and blogging to communicate. Although she sees members of her team on breaks and at lunch, Sylvia does not interact with them face-to-face in a professional setting. Sylvia's team can best be described as a: A. project team. B. global team. C. focus group. D. virtual team. E. self-directed team.
virtual team.
When you buy something online, you provide your credit card data; when that data is transmitted over the Internet, it is an example of ________.
vulnerability
In general, research has found a(n) _____ relationship between personal traits and leader
weak
2. Strategy defines _____ to do (it) while organizing defines _____ to do (it).
what; how
Today, many virtual teams use _____ to facilitate regular collaboration and open information sharing. A. hand-written messages B. face-to-face communication C. brainstorming D. e-mail E. wikis
wikis
According to research, _____ typically score higher on social and emotional skills.
women
According to MANAGER'S SHOPTALK in Chapter 15, when delegating leaders do all of the following EXCEPT:
work alone to accomplish important tasks.
45. All of the following are changes that are reshaping our workforce EXCEPT:
younger workforce.
The first step in the perception process is _____. A. contrasting B. attribution C. reasoning D. observation E. stereotyping
d
71. Most organizations _____ shift from a monoculture perspective to one of pluralism.
must make a conscious effort to
83. TickTock Clock Corporation is attempting to develop a truly diverse workplace. TickTock's president assigned the human resources department the task of determining the demographics of the local area labor market. This is an attempt to change existing _____ within the organization.
cultures
An employee with a high degree of _____ is more likely to want to stay with their current company. A. work happiness B. cognitive dissonance C. organizational fit D. organizational committment E. cognitive evaluations
d
Josh evaluates Kandi's performance and gives her an "outstanding" based on his knowledge that she came to work everyday earlier than anyone else and therefore she is extremely hardworking. Josh is making which of these errors in perceptual judgment? A. Perceptual defense B. Projection C. Stereotyping D. The halo effect E. Figure-ground
d
Studies have found that the characteristic most common to top executives is: A. a Type A personality. B. a workaholic mentality. C. an unsatisfied worker. D. an optimistic attitude. E. an introverted personality.
d
The cognitive process people use to make sense out of the environment by selecting, organizing, and interpreting information is called: A. selective retention. B. dissonance. C. attitude. D. perception. E. personality.
d
Which of the following describes the last step in the perception process? A. Observing information B. Screening the information C. Selecting what to process D. Organizing the selected data into patterns E. Transmitting the observed information
d
People generally experience _____ when their work matches their needs and interests, when working conditions and rewards (such as pay) are satisfactory, and when the employees like their co-workers. A. job involvement B. extroversion C. cognitive dissonance D. Machiavellianism E. job satisfaction
e
Which of the following is a way for managers to promote organizational committment? A. Making work difficult B. Punishing poor performance C. Creating more rules D. Giving more rewards E. Being honest
e
A survey by the Conference Board found that _____ percentage of US workers are satisfied with their work. A. 25 B. 75 C. 45 D. 10 E. 95
c
An individual's strong belief that he or she can successfully accomplish a specific task or outcome is referred to as: A. locus of control. B. self- confidence. C. self-efficacy. D. perceptual selectivity. E. cognitive dissonance.
c
In what stage of the perception process are individuals likely to put things into patterns? A. Selecting B. Projecting C. Organizing D. Sensing E. Reasoning
c
54. Inclusive dimensions of diversity:
can change throughout one's lifetime.
93. Matthew is Mandy's supervisor. He promises to fire her if she does not engage in sexual activity with him. This type of sexual harassment would be categorized as:
coercion with threat of punishment.
The tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors on another's behavior and to overestimate the influence of internal factors is called the ______.
fundamental attribution error
80. Paying a woman less than a man for the same work is an example of::
gender discrimination
______ are stressors associated with relationships in the organization.
interpersonal demands
100. Gloria has recognized that valuing diversity is good for her organization for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
it is mandated by ethical responsibility.
86. Birmingham Boardwalk, Inc. uses a(n) _____ program to provide minorities and women with direct training and inside information on the norms and expectations of the organization.
mentoring
103. Gloria would like to form a women's leadership group to help other women at Sarah's Sharks advance within the company. Membership within the group will be voluntary and open to anyone. This group would best be described as a(n):
network group
99. Shortly after she landed a corporate-level job at InfoBasis, Tonya Kennel formed a women's leadership group to help women advance within the company. Membership within the group was voluntary and open to women with a desire to advance in the company. Tonya's group can best be described as a(n):
network group
47. The average U.S. worker, today, is _____ than ever.
older
Which of the following refers to work behavior that goes beyond job requirements and contributes as needed to the organization's success? A. Job satisfaction B. Organizational citizenship C. Cognitive dissonance D. Job involvement E. Organizational Commitment
b
_____is the process by which individuals screen and select the various objects and stimuli that vie for their attention. A. Person-job fit B. Perceptual selectivity C. Organizational citizenry D. Projection E. Perceptual grouping
b
_____refers to a positive attitude toward one's job. A. Organizational citizenship B. Job satisfaction C. Cognitive dissonance D. Organizational commitment E. Job involvement
b
44. Which workforce generation category is characterized as ambitious but lacking loyalty to the organization?
Generation Y
76. Josephine would like to become part of an elite manager network at her company so she can get access to general and line management experience to help her succeed within the company. However, she learns that the manager network is made up exclusively of men. This demonstrates which factor affecting women's careers?
Glass ceiling
82. With most new employees in the late twenties or early thirties, Albertson & Sons Inc. has learned that helping new employees secure home loans has been a valuable service that pays off in the long term. This is an example of what type of diversity initiative or program?
Accommodating special needs
56. According to MANAGER'S SHOPTALK in chapter 13, which of the following is not a characteristic used to help foreign managers understand Americans?
Americans are formal.
______ is the belief that power and status differences should exist within the organization.
Authoritarianism
94. Which of these actions did the U.S. Supreme Court take?
Broadened the definition of sexual harassment to include same sex harassment and harassment of men by female coworkers.
90. _____ mentoring relationships sometimes leave both parties uncomfortable.
Cross-race
63. Which of the following refers to special training to help people identify their own cultural boundaries, prejudices, and stereotypes and to develop the skills for managing and working in a diverse workplace?
Diversity training
81. Which of the following is the most common diversity initiative, according to Fortune 1000 respondents?
Diversity-focused recruiting
65. _____ reflects the belief that one's own group is superior to other groups.
Ethnocentrism
68. _____ is the belief that groups are inherently equal.
Ethnorelativism
79. _____ involves exposing traditional managers to nontraditional peers to help break down stereotypical beliefs.
Exposure
______ is the tendency to direct much of one's behavior toward the acquisition of power and the manipulation of others for personal gain.
Machiavellianism
60. _____ means creating a climate in which the potential advantages of diversity for organizational or group performance are maximized while the potential disadvantages are minimized.
Managing diversity
85. Which of the following refers to a higher ranking, senior organizational member who is committed to providing upward mobility and support to a protégé's professional career?
Mentor
75. _____ implies that women's commitment to their children limits their commitment to the company or their ability to handle the rigors of corporate management.
Opt-out trend
77. Riya was a highly successful manager at Optics International. After ten years with the company, she decided to leave and become a fulltime mother and caregiver to her ailing father. This example demonstrates which factor affecting women's careers?
Opt-out trend
69. Which of the following means that an organization accommodates several subcultures?
Pluralism
58. Smileline Inc. has an onsite daycare facility and provides employees fulltime daycare at a very low cost. The company implemented this years ago when managers realized that childcare responsibilities were contributing to high turnover and absenteeism. This example highlights which dividend of workplace diversity?
Reduced costs associated with high turnover, absenteeism, and lawsuits
An overall impression of a person or situation based on one attribute, either favorable or unfavorable, is an example of: A. projection. B. the halo effect. C. perceptual defense. D. stereotyping. E. attribution.
b
The general assurance in one's own ideas, judgment, and capabilities is referred to as: A. locus of control. B. self- confidence. C. self-efficacy. D. perceptual selectivity. E. cognitive dissonance.
b
______ is a behavior pattern characterized by extreme competitiveness, impatience, aggressiveness, and devotion to work.
Type A behavior
All of the following are tactics for promoting stronger organizational commitment EXCEPT: A. naintaining a secretive culture B. being honest and trustworthy in business dealings.. C. giving employees a say in business decisions. D. treating employees fairly. E. offering employees rewards that they value.
a
An evaluation that predisposes a person to act in a certain way is called a(n) _____. A. attitude B. authoritarianism C. perception D. projection E. personality
a
Research shows that the link between _____ and _____ is small and is influenced by other factors. A. satisfaction; performance B. stress; work C. stress; home D. stress; performance E. satisfaction; personality
a
Which of the following is the tendency to assign an individual to a group or broad category and then to attribute widely held generalizations about the group to the individual? A. Stereotyping B. Projection C. Figure- ground D. The halo effect E. Perceptual defense
a
66. An ethnocentric perspective leads to:
a monoculture.
67. Phlex Plastic has a very strong set of corporate values. In fact, Phlex has been known to discourage the emergence of alternative values. Phlex is most likely:
a monoculture.
51. Inclusive dimensions of diversity include:
all of these.
______ are judgments about what caused a person's behavior-something about the person or something about the situation.
attributions
An individual's ______ is the set of characteristics that underlie a relatively stable pattern of behavior in response to ideas, objects, or people in the environment.
personality
102. Gloria can enjoy higher success through diversity by accommodating employees' special needs, including all of the following EXCEPT:
provide paternity and maternity leave and flexible hours for dual income families.
50. Traditional model dimensions of diversity include:
race.
52. All of the following are traditional model dimensions of diversity EXCEPT:
religious beliefs.
Uncertainty about what behaviors are expected of a person in a particular role is referred to as ______.
role ambiguity
53. All of these are inclusive dimensions of diversity EXCEPT:
sexual orientation.
physiological and emotional response to stimuli that place physical or psychological demands on an individual is called ______.
stress
______ are stressors arising from the tasks required of a person holding a particular job.
task demands
74. Trouser's Inc. top management is exclusively made up of older white males. Trouser's promotes from within and top management is most comfortable with individuals who are similar to them. Women and minorities at this company who wish to be promoted are likely to experience _____.
the glass ceiling effect
98. All of the following are true about employee network groups EXCEPT:
the groups are formally created by the organization.
84. Organizations must find ways to eliminate the glass ceiling effect. One effective way to do this has been:
to develop mentoring relationships.
