MGT101 (1,2,3,4,6,7,8,10,11,14,15)

Réussis tes devoirs et examens dès maintenant avec Quizwiz!

1) A(n) _____ organization is similar to the bureaucratic model. A) mechanistic B) organic C) continuous process D) large-batch E) unit

1) A(n) _____ plan is a general plan outlining decisions about resource allocation, priorities, and action steps necessary to reach the goals set by the top managers. A) recovery B) contingency C) operational D) tactical E) strategic

1) According to the Michigan studies, managers using _____ behavior are interested in developing a cohesive work group and ensuring that employees are satisfied with their jobs. A) consideration B) initiating structure C) job-centered leader D) employee-centered leader E) authoritative

1) Jimmy owns an ice cream parlor. He designs a schedule for the different tasks the employees have to perform in order to prevent monotony at work. According to the schedule, if an employee makes waffle cones on a day, he serves ice creams the next day and clears the tables on the day after that. Jimmy is using the _____ approach at his ice cream parlor. A) job enrichment B) job enlargement C) job rotation D) job deskilling E) job specialization

1) Job enrichment: A) does not increase the number of tasks that workers perform. B) requires the organization to be highly centralized. C) requires delegation of authority. D) requires workers to perform a single task. E) involves workers moving from job to job in a predetermined manner.

1) Justin is rewarded a significant pay raise for his contributions to the organization. This motivates him to put in more hard work and better performances. The organization has used _____ to strengthen his behavior. A) Avoidance B) Extinction C) Positive reinforcement D) Punishment E) Distortion

1) Karl is fond of saying, "Remember, half the doctors you see graduated in the bottom of their class." Karl is attempting to limit the _____ power of physicians A) expert B) legitimate C) referent D) rewarded E) coercive

1) Ken is a newly hired police officer. He has been asked to spend a workday with a more experienced officer to learn about paperwork, how to handle accident scenes, how to interact with people, and other duties that he will be expected to perform. Which of the following concepts is illustrated in the scenario? A) Performance appraisal B) The assessment center method C) Training manuals D) On-the-job training E) The lecture method

1) Leading Edge Software Inc. has introduced a new activity called "Group Farming" in which the company's executive groups participate in farming activities for three hours every month. This activity has been designed by the company to emphasize the importance of interdependence and coordination among its employees. Which of the following organization development techniques is the company using? A) Third-party peacemaking B) Process consultation C) Team building D) Survey feedback E) Coaching and counseling

1) Leo showed up late for a meeting. His boss ignored it. She was using _____ as reinforcement. A) avoidance B) extinction C) positive reinforcement D) punishment E) distortion

1) Libra Technologies Inc. frequently asks its employees to measure such things as supervisor effectiveness. The company circulates various questionnaires among all its employees to get their insights. Which organization development is illustrated in the scenario? A) Third-party peacemaking B) Survey feedback C) Team building D) Process consultation E) Force-field analysis

1) Libra Travels LLC. has a few back-up buses at key locations where the business operates. This is to be prepared in case any of its day-tour buses break down. This is an example of a: A) project. B) program. C) regulation. D) single-use plan. E) contingency plan.

1) Number of claims processed, total sales, and scrap rate are all examples of _____. A) training methods B) predictive validation methods C) content validation methods D) judgmental performance appraisal criteria E) objective performance appraisal criteria

1) Operational goals are set by: A) first-line managers. B) top-level managers. C) the board of directors. D) shareholders. E) investors.

1) Substantive modification to some part of an organization is known as _____. A) organization synergy B) organization maturity C) organization implementation D) organization change E) organization entropy

1) The _____ design is essentially a holding company that results from unrelated diversification. A) H-form B) U-form C) divisional D) departmental E) M-form

1) The _____ is a management policy decision about whether a firm wants to pay above, at, or below the going rate for labor in the industry or the geographic area. A) wage-level decision B) benefit-level decision C) wage-structure decision D) individual wage decisione E) individual benefit decision

1) The _____ is a portfolio management technique that considers industry attractiveness and competitive position rather than focusing solely on market growth and market share. A) Black-Litterman model B) modern portfolio theory C) growth-share matrix D) BCG matrix E) GE Business Screen

1) The top managers at Redd Inc. are developing a plan to reduce the production costs of the company. By reducing costs, Redd wants to gain a competitive advantage of cost leadership. The plan being developed in this scenario is a(n) _____ plan. A) strategic B) tactical C) operational D) contingency E) recovery

1) Wendy is reluctant to accept a new job offer because she's worried about her ability to meet new job demands. The most likely reason for such employee resistance to change is _____. A) threatened self-interests B) facilitation C) uncertainty D) participation E) feelings of loss

1) _____ can be defined as a set of activities directed at an organization's resources, with the aim of achieving organizational goals in an efficient and effective manner. A) Economics B) Job de-skilling C) Management D) Self-dealing E) Divestment

1) _____ compares each employee with a fixed standard rather than comparison with other employees. A) An objective method B) Rating C) Ranking D) Job specialization E) Job enlargement

1. Which of the following uses computers to design parts and complete products and to simulate performance so that prototypes need not be constructed? a. Computer-aided automation b. Computerized robotics c. Agrimation d. Computer-aided design e. Flexible manufacturing systems

4) One of the titles found in the group of middle managers is _____. A) director B) vice president C) supervisor D) office manager E) plant manager

49. A(n) _____ strategy requires small cash outlay, is heavily regulated by government, and does not require modification to products for local conditions. a.importing b.licensing c.joint venture d.direct investment e.offshoring

Mechanistic organizations: A) have the least level of specialization. B) are least likely to have rules and regulations. C) are most frequently found in stable environments. D) are least likely to be bureaucratic. E) are the most decentralized

One of the benefits of job specialization is that: A) it makes employees proficient at a task. B) it significantly increases employee satisfaction. C) it offers new challenges and stimulation to the workers. D) it decreases boredom and absenteeism among workers. E) it eliminates job monotony and fatigue.

The _____ design is based on two overlapping bases of departmentalization. A) H-form B) matrix C) functional D) divisional E) U-form

The _____ is the component of a strategy that specifies the range of markets in which an organization will compete. A) divestiture B) competency C) scope D) resource deployment E) deskillin

The first stage of the organizational innovation process is _____ of creative ideas. A) growth B) maturity C) launch D) development E) applicatio

_____ is the extent to which an organization is broken down into subunits. A) Entropy B) Differentiation C) Integration D) Synergy E) Divestitur

23. A major purpose of social networking for business is a. to establish a means for people to connect to the company's brand. b. to make new friends. c. to locate old friends. d. to form interest groups.

12. Which one of the following strategies should be classified as a business-level strategy? a. strategic alliances b. diversification of goods and services c. product differentiation d. sticking to core competencies

11. Much informal learning takes place a. in meetings b. on breaks c. in customer interactions d. all of the choices

13. An example of a knock out question for a flight attendant would be a. "Would you want a child of yours to be an airplane pilot?" b. "Are you currently employed?" c. "Who invented the airplane?" d. "Are you afraid of flying?"

18. A key advantage of delivering training content by MP3 players is that workers can a. listen to music while being trained. b. impress customers with how cool they look. c. design their own training content. d. receive training during spare moments.

18. When two pharmaceutical firms get together to market a drug, their strategy is referred to as a. high speed. b. cost leadership. c. product differentiation. d. a strategic alliance.

21. At Staples, customers can purchase from its catalog, retail stores, or Web site. This illustrates that technology can a. integrate the traditional way of doing business with e-business. b. integrate the new economy with the old economy. c. increase the visibility of companies. d. all of the choices

21. Performance evaluation methods are usually designed to measure a. traits b. behavior. c. results. d. all of the choices

22. A company involved in data mining probably wants to a. find new ways of squeezing profits out of old products. b. outsource its IT function. c. form a strategic alliance with a mining company. d. make additional use of information already on hand.

22. Save-A-Lot has become one of the most successful grocery chains by serving the poor and offering low prices. This is an example of a. focus strategy. b. premium pricing. c. product differentiation d. cost leadership

24. Management by objectives (MBO) includes a. reviewing group members' proposals. b. creating action plans to achieve objectives. c. establishing unit objectives. d. all of the choices.

24. Under a variable pay system, workers receive some of their pay based on a. demonstration of skills. b. demonstration of competencies the company needs for its success. c. number of years of employment. d. actual job performance.

25. An effective call center for an E-business a. allows customers to use e-mail and the telephone at the same time. b. limits calls to normal working hours. c. virtually eliminates telephone contact with customers. d. allows customers to follow up by telephone.

25. Part of Domino's Pizza's original success was based on getting pizzas delivered more quickly than competitors. This strategy is called a. strategic planning b. cost leadership c. focus. d. high speed

1) A _____ is the most general form of standing plan that specifies the organization's general response to a designated problem or situation. A) project B) standard operating procedure C) policy D) program E) single-use plan

1) A _____ organization works to facilitate the lifelong personal development of all of its employees while continually transforming itself to respond to changing demands and needs. A) bureaucratic B) centralized C) hybrid D) learning E) matrix

1) A cafeteria benefits plan: A) allows employees to choose from a set of optional benefits. B) provides performance-linked incentives to employees. C) reimburses employees for their food and transportation expenses. D) pays extra wages to employees for work they do during their lunch hour. E) allows employees to take a certain number of unpaid leaves.

1) A category of temporary workers is: A) independent contractors. B) shareholders. C) intrapreneurs. D) angel investors. E) venture capitalists.

1) A change in an organization's culture is an example of change in the area of _____. A) organization structure B) organizational operations C) work processes D) information technology E) organizational control systems

1) A company has all of its candidates who are qualifiable for promotion attend a five-day evaluation session during which they take a battery of tests, interviews, and perform in simulated work scenarios. The _____ method is used for the selection process in this scenario. A) assessment center B) structured orientation process C) job analysis D) job deskilling E) attrition

1) A company has built a new manufacturing plant to increase production. This scenario illustrates which step in the Lewin model of organization change? A) Unfreezing B) Entropy C) Reengineering D) Implementation E) Refreezing

1) A company has introduced new rules and regulations and appraisal criteria to promote discipline and commitment among employees. This organization change is in the area of _____. A) work process B) enterprise resource management C) technology D) operations E) people

1) A company has recently undergone a transformation from using a highly centralized approach to a much more decentralized approach for managing its operations. This change represents a change in the area of _____. A) technology B) work sequences C) work processes D) organization structure E) enterprise resource planning

1) A construction worker injured on the job is on convalescent time-off for five weeks. She has a desire to get back to work and achieve her goals more effectively than she has done in the past. This portrays her need for _____. A) esteem B) power C) affiliation D) security E) achievement

1) A criticism against executive compensation in recent years is that: A) organizations are getting increasingly innovative in their incentive programs. B) executive compensation is based on the performance of each and every employee in an organization. C) there seems to be no relationship between organization's performance and executives' compensations. D) executives are earning a meager amount compared to the typical worker in an organization E) the gap between the earnings of a CEO and the earnings of a typical worker is significantly less.

1) A disadvantage of using compressed work schedules is that: A) some individuals develop resentment as they feel constrained by their job schedules. B) it makes it difficult for employees to attend routine personal businesses. C) employees put too much effort in a single day, and tend to perform at lower levels. D) employees have to work additional hours all the five days of a week. E) it gives employees more personal control over the times they work.

1) A finding of Woodward's study about forms of technology was that: A) mass-production organizations tended to have the lowest level of specialization. B) small-batch organizations tended to have minimal bureaucracy. C) mass-production organizations tended to be the least bureaucratic. D) continuous-process technology was the simplest of all forms of technology. E) continuous-process organizations tended to be the most bureaucratic.

1) A firm pursuing a(n) _____ strategy concentrates on a specific regional market, product line, or group of buyers. A) overall cost leadership B) divesting C) restraint of trade D) anti-competitive E) focus

1) A hospital refuses to employ male nurses. This illustrates _____. A) confirmatory bias B) affirmative action C) a direct form of discrimination D) equal employment opportunity E) employment at will

1) A job application blank should not contain questions about an applicant's_____. A) previous work history B) educational background C) national origin D) age E) personal interests

1) A job description is most likely to provide information about: A) the skills of an existing employee. B) the tools, materials, and equipment used to perform the job. C) the educational background of an applicant. D) the personal profile of a supervisor. E) the kind of skills that a job demands.

1) A major advantage of incentives relative to merit systems is that: A) incentives do not accumulate by becoming part of an individual's salary. B) incentives are provided only one time, based on that level of performance. C) individuals receive the same amount or larger irrespective of their performances over the years. D) the base salary of an individual is unaffected by lower incentives. E) these plans remain static and cannot be modified by an organization.

1) A manager can assign tasks to a subordinate, and a subordinate who refuses to do them can be reprimanded or even fired. This is an example of _____ power. A) legitimate B) informal C) referent D) expert E) coercive

1) A manager expends extra effort because she has been told that she will get a $50,000 bonus if her team meets their quota. She also feels stress because she has been informed that she will be put on probation if she does not get her team to perform above last year's total. Which of the following does this scenario illustrate? A) Equity theory B) Maslow's esteem needs C) Two-factor theory D) Performance-to-outcome expectancy E) The Porter-Lawler extension

1) A manager expressing praise, gratitude, or recognition best exemplifies _____ power. A) informal B) reward C) referent D) expert E) coercive

1) A manager gives her employees a variable bonus every month based on resulting cost savings every time they exceed their sales quota. This type of incentive pay is known as _____. A) fixed-rate pay B) profit sharing C) gainsharing D) lump-sum bonus E) pay-for-knowledge

1) A manager tells a subordinate that he will not recommend her for promotion unless she supports his proposal in an upcoming sales meeting. Which type of political behavior is reflected in the given scenario? A) Creation of an obligation B) Coercion C) Initiating structure D) Persuasion E) Assault

1) A manager who provides reinforcement on a periodic basis, regardless of behavior, is using a _____ schedule. A) variable-interval B) variable-fixed C) fixed-ratio D) fixed-intervale E) variable-ratio

1) A manager who provides reinforcement on the basis of a particular number of behaviors, rather than on the basis of time is using a(n) _____ schedule. A) fixed-ratio B) fixed-interval C) variable-interval D) variable-ratio E) interval-ratio

1) A mechanistic organization is most likely to: A) have the least level of job specialization. B) have a flexible structure. C) have centralized authority. D) have an informal organizational design. E) operate in an unstable environment.

1) A medical student belonging to a minority ethnic group was selected for an internship program at a hospital even though he had lower grades and test scores than other applicants. This scenario illustrates: A) confirmatory bias. B) employment at will. C) affirmative action. D) source monitoring error. E) equal employment opportunity.

1) A news producer has the authority to choose which reporter will get to cover important news items and which reporter will cover trivial news items. The news producer uses this authority to recognize the hard work of reporters. Which of the following types of power is the producer using in this case? A) Referent B) Expert C) Reward D) Coercive E) Informal

1) A performance appraisal system in which managers are evaluated by everyone around them-their boss, their peers, and their subordinates is known as _____. A) employment at will B) 360-degree feedback C) source monitoring D) job evaluation E) job specialization

1) A person who works for an organization on something other than a permanent or fulltime basis is known as a(n)_____. A) SCORE volunteer B) union worker C) contingent worker D) knowledge worker E) intrapreneur

1) A policy at Synergy Corp. states that the middle managers get a pay that is three times the pay of supervisors and the top managers get a pay that is six times the pay of first-line managers. The policy is regarding the _____ of Synergy. A) wage-benefit decision B) wage-level decision C) individual-wage structure D) benefit structure E) wage structure

1) A popular retail outlet provides its salespersons a small bonus for every sale that exceeds a $50 bill amount. The type of reinforcement used here is _____. A) Fixed-ratio B) Fixed-interval C) Variable-interval D) Variable-ratio E) Fixed-variable

1) A secretary who knows how to unravel bureaucratic red tape has _____ power over anyone who needs that information. A) reward B) referent C) legitimate D) expert E) coercive

1) A supervisor exhibiting _____ behavior, identified by the path-goal theory, is most likely to let subordinates know what is expected of them, gives guidance and direction, and schedules work. A) participative leader B) supportive leader C) directive leader D) achievement-oriented leader E) Task-oriented leader

1) A supervisor's frequent use of coercion involves the: A) use of distortion. B) use of extinction. C) use of positive reinforcement. D) loss of leadership. E) loss of persuasion.

1) A taxi company has a policy that it will never hire women drivers. This scenario illustrates_____. A) workforce diversity B) source monitoring error C) a direct form of discrimination D) confirmatory bias E) affirmative action

1) A value associated with the outcomes of a performance is called its _____. A) behavior B) valence C) need D) hygiene factor E) commitment

1) A variable-ratio schedule is difficult to use for formal rewards such as pay because: A) it typically weakens the behavior that has been previously rewarded. B) is the least powerful schedule in terms of maintaining the desired behaviors. C) it has a fixed number of desires to needed for each reinforcement. D) it does not motivate the employee to increase the frequency of the desired behavior. E) it would be complicated to keep track of who was rewarded when.

1) A virtual organization: A) typically has only a handful of permanent employees. B) typically has a bureaucratic design. C) has an inflexible formal structure. D) typically has a very large staff and administrative headquarters facility. E) has functional departmentalization.

1) A wide span of management in a flat organization may result in a manager having _____. A) less authority over subordinates B) more administrative responsibility C) less accountability to a higher-up D) less supervisory responsibility E) more officers at different levels to report to

1) A(n) ____ goal for a waste management plant could be "to develop a recycling campaign for rural communities of less than 1000 customers." It would develop naturally out of a strategic goal "to increase recycling by 10% everywhere." A) strategic B) departmental C) functional D) divestiture E) tactical

1) A(n) _____ is a change in the appearance or performance of a product or service or of the physical processes through which a product or service is manufactured. A) technical innovation B) incremental innovation C) radical innovation D) mechanical innovation E) managerial innovation

1) A(n) _____ is a comprehensive plan for accomplishing an organization's goals. A) scope B) competence C) strategy D) article of incorporation E) statement of qualification

1) A(n) _____ is a model of organization design based on a legitimate and formal system of authority. A) adhocracy B) bureaucracy C) entropy D) autocracy E) theocracy

1) A(n) _____ is a person who actually conceives of and develops the new idea, product, or service by means of the creative process. A) inventor B) sponsor C) product champion D) angel investor E) venture capitalist

1) A(n) _____ is a single-use plan for a large set of activities. It might consist of identifying procedures for introducing a new product line, opening a new facility, or changing the organization's mission. A) policy B) entropy C) regulation D) project E) program

1) A(n) _____ is a top-level manager who approves of and supports a project. This person may fight for the budget needed to develop an idea, overcome arguments against a project, and use organizational politics to ensure the project's survival. A) product champion B) inventor C) innovation champion D) investor E) sponsor

1) A(n) _____ is an area in an organization's environment that, if exploited, may generate higher performance. A) organizational opportunity B) economic downswing C) organizational strength D) process gaine E) process loss

1) A(n) _____ is an internal skill or capability that does not enable a company to choose and implement strategies that support its mission. A) organizational weakness B) organizational threat C) market threat D) process gaine) economic downswing

1) A(n) _____ is usually a middle manager who learns about a new project and becomes committed to it. He helps overcome organizational resistance to change and convinces others to take the innovation seriously. A) product champion B) inventor C) sponsor D) venture capitalist E) transformational leader

1) A(n) _____ is usually computerized and contains information on each employee's education, work experience, and career aspirations. ) bona fide occupational qualification B) article of incorporation C) skills inventory D) statement of qualification E) job description

1) A(n) _____ lists each important managerial position in an organization, who occupies it, how long he or she will probably remain in the position, and who is or will be a qualified fill-in. A) skills inventory B) employee information system C) enterprise resource planning system D) replacement chart E) Gantt chart

1) A(n) _____ occurs when a manager allows the assessment of an employee on one dimension to spread to ratings of that employee on other dimensions. A) recency error B) average error C) validation error D) source monitoring error E) halo error

1) A(n) _____ represents a special compensation opportunity that is usually tied to performance. A) wage B) salary C) incentive D) benefit E) intangible reward

1) Abbott, a shoe manufacturing company, strives to keep its workers satisfied. As many of them are working mothers, the company allows flexible time shifts. CEO Miles White says, "One of the most important things we can do for working families today is to help them lead healthier lives." According to the Michigan studies, White is demonstrating _____ behavior. D) employee-centered leader

1) According to Fiedler, _____ is the degree to which the group's task is well defined. A) task thread B) task stream C) task orientation D) task structure E) task parallel

1) According to Fiedler, a task is structured when it is: A) routine, difficult to understand, and unambiguous. B) routine, easy to understand, and ambiguous. C) irregular, difficult to understand, and ambiguous. D) routine, easy to understand, and unambiguous. E) irregular, difficult to understand, and unambiguous.

1) According to Fiedler, the key situational factor of leadership is the _____ from the leader's point of view. A) cause of the situation B) importance of establishing formal lines of communication C) favorableness of the situation D) overall objective of the situation E) importance of an employee-centered environment

1) According to Maslow's hierarchy, _____ needs include the need that people have for respect and recognition. A) achievement B) security C) self-actualization D) belongingness E) esteem

1) According to Maslow's hierarchy, the need to have a safe physical and emotional environment is a(n) _____ need. A) esteem B) physiological C) psychological D) security E) social

1) According to Maslow's hierarchy, when a satisfaction of security needs is achieved an individual is typically concerned with a need for _____. A) self-actualization B) recognition C) physiology D) belongingness E) positive self-image

1) According to Maslow, an individual is motivated first and foremost to satisfy _____ needs. A) security B) self-actualization C) physiological D) esteem E) belongingness

1) According to Weber, in a bureaucracy: A) there should not be any arbitrary dismissals. B) there should be no rules and regulations. C) promotions should not be given based on technical expertise. D) there should not be a social distance between supervisors and subordinates. E) there should be a chain of command.

1) According to Woodward's findings related to technology and organization design: A) successful continuous-process organizations tended to have more bureaucracy. B) unit-batch organizations had the highest level of specialization. C) mass-production organizations tended to be the least bureaucratic. D) unit-batch organizations tended to be the most bureaucratic. E) mass-production organizations had a higher level of specialization.

1) According to Woodward, which of the following is true about the relationship between organization design and core technology? A) Organizations using mass production technology tend to have the least level of specialization. B) Organizations using continuous-process technologies tend to be the most bureaucratic. C) Organizations with large-batch technologies tend to be more bureaucratic. D) Continuous-process technology is the least complex of all other technologies. E) Organizations using unit or small-batch technology are the most bureaucratic.

1) According to the Lewin model of organization change process, refreezing involves _____. A) recognizing why the change is necessary B) informing people about the change C) the implementation of the change D) reinforcing the change so that it becomes a part of the system E) repeating the organization change process at frequent intervals

1) According to the Managerial Grid, the _____ manager is highly concerned about production but exhibits little concern for people. A) 9,1 B) 0,1 C) 1,9 D) 0,1 E) 9,0

1) According to the expectancy theory, which of the following conditions must be met for motivated behavior to occur? A) Effort-to-performance expectancy must be greater than zero B) Performance-to-outcome expectancy must be less than zero C) Sum of the valencies for an outcome must be less than zero D) The individual must believe that effort and performance are unrelated E) Every outcome must have a negative valence

1) According to the job characteristics approach, task identity is _____. A) the number of things a person does in a job B) the extent to which a worker does a complete portion of the total job C) the extent to which a worker knows how well the job is being performed D) the perceived importance of the task E) the degree of control a worker has over how the work is performed

1) According to the motivation framework, after a worker notices an unfilled need, the next step is: A) choosing a behavior that satisfies the need. B) determining future needs. C) searching for ways to satisfy the need. D) evaluating need satisfaction. E) identifying a need deficiency.

1) According to the path-goal theory, a person with an internal locus of control is most likely to prefer _____ leadership. A) task-oriented B) achievement-oriented C) directive D) supportive E) participative

1) According to the path-goal theory, if people perceive that they are lacking in abilities, they are most likely to prefer _____ to help them understand path-goal relationships better. B) directive leadership

1) According to the results of a classic study, employee participation: A) reduces the need for communication. B) encourages employees to resist change. C) increases productivity and satisfaction. D) increases turnover rates. E) creates a centralized structure.

1) According to the two-factor theory, which of the following is a hygiene factor that influences an employee's satisfaction or dissatisfaction? A) Achievement B) Recognition C) Working conditions D) Advancement and growth E) The work itself

1) Advertising, campus interviews, employment agencies, and union hiring halls are all _____ methods. A) external recruiting B) job analysis C) validation D) job evaluation E) realistic job preview

1) After oil prices hit record highs and the oil companies made record profits, some of the oil company's CEOs appeared on the Today show to explain their business to consumers. This is an example of: A) creation of an obligation. B) impression management. C) initiating structure. D) persuasion. E) inducement.

1) Alba Inc. replaced old equipment with new and advanced production equipment in all its plants. This is an example of a change in the area of _____. A) job design B) people C) organization culture D) line-staff structure E) technology and operations

1) Alba Motorbikes is known for its heavyweight motorcycles. The company places emphasis on the quality of the bikes and after-sale service. The brand also enjoys customer loyalty. This scenario described Alba Motorbikes': A) distinctive competence. B) scope. C) process gain. D) competitive disadvantage. E) related diversification.

1) Alberto complimented Daniel on his project updates two weeks in a row. Then he waited a month to compliment him again. Not knowing when Alberto will drop by for inspection, Daniel keeps his projects updated regularly. What reinforcement schedule is he using? A) Fixed-interval B) Fixed-ratio C) Variable-interval D) Variable-ratio E) Fixed-variable

1) Allowing employees to spend part of their time working offsite, usually at home, is called _____. A) empowerment B) compressed work schedule C) flexitime D) job sharing E) telecommuting

1) Alpha Corp. has divided its business into a number of sub units. This organization change is an example of change in the area of _____. A) people B) operations C) structure and design D) social responsibility E) organization mission

1) Alpha Inc. is a large shoe manufacturer that caters to a large customer base. In addition to the high volume of shoes it manufactures, the company sells simple-designed sneakers for low prices. Many customers buy Alpha shoes because they are durable and inexpensive. Which of the following strategies is illustrated in the scenario? A) Overall cost leadership strategy B) Market diversification strategy C) Differentiation strategy D) Divesting strategy E) Market development strategy

1) Amelia believes that if she tries hard to eliminate distractions and concentrate on her work, she will learn to do her job more efficiently. Amelia has: A) low effort-to-performance expectancy. B) moderate performance-to-outcome expectancy. C) low performance-to-outcome expectancy. D) high effort-to-performance expectancy. E) moderate effort-to-performance expectancy.

1) An arrangement where an employee works a traditional schedule one week and a compressed schedule the next, getting every other Friday off is called as _____. A) job sharing B) flextime C) nine-eighty schedule D) compressed work schedule E) traditional work schedule

1) An attempt to assess the worth of each job relative to other jobs is known as _____. A) job analysis B) job evaluation C) the wage-level decision D) performance appraisal E) benefit determination

1) An effective individual strategy for managing a diverse workforce is: A) Encouraging interpersonal communication B) Treating everyone the same without regard for their fundamental human differences C) Creating ethnically homogenous work teams D) Using micromanagement techniques E) Limiting managerial communication

1) An example of a force for change in the task environment of an organization is _____. A) pricing strategies of competitors B) employee turnover rates C) capital availability D) employee motivation E) production costs

1) An example of judgmental performance measure is _____. A) ranking B) total sales C) scrap rate D) dollar volume of sales E) number of units produced

1) An organization that pursues a single-product strategy: A) clusters relayed products in a single strategic business unit. B) manufactures a range of products that are related to each other in some way. C) uses a single marketing strategy for all its products. D) operates in a single geographic market. E) creates a separate business unit for each product it sells.

1) An organization that pursues a(n) _____ strategy seeks to stand out among competitors through the quality (broadly defined) of its products or services. A) differentiation B) divesting C) anti-competitive D) focus E) cost-leadership

1) An organization that uses a team organization design:. A) has a bureaucratic structure. B) has an inflexible organizational structure. C) has functional teams that perform specific functional tasks. D) relies exclusively on project-type teams. E) provides little scope for teams to develop adaptability.

1) An organization with a diverse workforce: ) is most likely to have a high turnover. B) is most likely to have low productivity. C) is least likely to have conflicts. D) is least likely to require communication. E) is most likely to have a competitive advantage.

1) An organizational _____ is the formal and informal mechanisms by which employee performance is defined, evaluated, and awarded. A) reinforcement policies B) reward system C) work schedule D) outcome E) valence

1) Ana is a police detective. She believes that she is just as good a detective as her male counterparts. Because she is female, many of her counterparts assume that she will type up their reports as well as her own. She has been doing this typing for a while and is increasingly feeling underrewarded for her efforts. In terms of _____, she will decrease her inputs by refusing to do additional work and try to reduce the gap between work and rewards. A) expectancy theory B) reinforcement theory C) equity theory D) hierarchy of needs theory E) two-factor theory

1) Aries Inc. manufactures dairy products and detergents.This is an example of _____ diversification. A) horizontal B) unrelated C) single-product D) concentric E) related

1) As a process, leadership can be defined as: A) the practice of empowering employees to participate in organizational decision making. B) the set of characteristics attributed to individuals who are perceived to be leaders. C) the use of noncoercive influence to shape an organization's goals. D) the ability to assess business process performance. E) the ability to adjust to and understand the changes in a workplace.

1) As a property, leadership can be best defined as: A) the practice of empowering employees to participate in organizational decision making. B) a set of belief that supports the practice of interpersonal risk taking in teams. C) the ability to shape employee behavior without using force. D) the ability to adjust to and understand changes in the workplace. E) a set of characteristics found in people who can influence the behavior of others.

1) As an organization passes from one stage of the organizational lifecycle to the next, _____. A) it becomes smaller B) it's coordination demands increase C) it becomes more centralized D) it's structure becomes less mechanistic E) it's control systems become more limited

1) Aside from motivational strategies such as the content perspective, process perspectives, and reinforcement perspectives, an organization's _____ is its most basic tool for managing employee motivation. A) strategic plan B) vision statement C) objective D) reward system E) goal

1) Assurance on ____ can satisfy the security needs of an employee in the workplace. A) comfortable work environment B) positive self-image C) adequate wages D) job continuity E) recognition

1) At Delta Corp. the manufacturing and design department frequently consults with the research and development department and the marketing and sales department regularly interacts with the manufacturing and design department. This scenario illustrates _____ at Delta. A) coordination B) delegation C) job rotation D) job specialization E) centralization

1) At Gamma Inc., there are separate departments of employees who specialize in sales, service maintenance, customer service, and accounting. What form of departmentalization does Gamma use? A) Functional departmentalization B) Product departmentalization C) Location departmentalization D) Customer departmentalization E) Sequential departmentalization

1) At Heritage Chocolates, the raw materials are processed at a plant and then sent to the manufacturing plant. The manufactured chocolates are finally sent to the packaging plant. This scenario illustrates _____ at Heritage Chocolates. A) pooled interdependence B) two-way interdependence C) reciprocal interdependence D) sequential interdependence E) structural interdependence

1) At Libra Motors Inc. operations managers give availability information to the dealerships department. When the dealerships department has a specific order, it is sent to the operations department. Which of the following concepts is illustrated in the scenario? A) Sequential interdependence B) Product departmentalization C) Pooled interdependence D) Reciprocal interdependence E) One-way interdependence

1) At Omega Inc., a fixed amount of money is added to the salaries of employees if their performance exceeds a predetermined level of expectation. A smaller portion of the amount is added if the employees' performances just meet the expected level. Omega is most likely to be motivating their employees with _____. A) incentives B) intangible benefits C) rankings D) progressions E) appraisals

1) At Supertech Inc., a technology company, employees are given more authority and are allowed to make their own decisions. Supertech operates in a business environment that is not predictable. The middle managers, supervisors, and employees have a degree of autonomy and are encouraged to make decisions. Which of the following concepts is illustrated in the scenario? A) Deskilling B) High power distance C) Micromanagement D) Decentralization E) Job specialization

1) At Synergy School, Math, English, Science and Social Studies departments operate separately. Student test scores in each area are gathered to evaluate the effectiveness of the school. What level of interdependence does this represent? A) Pooled interdependence B) Complex interdependence C) Reciprocal interdependence D) Sequential interdependence E) Absolute interdependence

1) At the opposite ends of the single continuum used by the Michigan studies are the leader's: A) initiating-structure behavior and consideration behavior. B) job-centered leader behavior and employee-centered leader behavior. C) concern for production and concern for people. D) task-oriented behavior and relationship-oriented behavior. E) traits reflecting the hierarchical theory x and traits reflecting the innovative theory y.

1) Attempting to change the attitudes and values of a company's workforce indicates a change in the area of _____. A) people B) work processes C) organizational control systems D) organization structure E) task environment

1) Based on the Michigan studies, Rensis Likert argued that the _____ behavior generally tends to be more effective. A) initiating structure B) job-centered leader C) employee-centered leader D) considerate E) authoritative

1) Beta LLC has decided to change its hiring criteria so that more people with technical expertise can join the company. Which step of the change process is illustrated in the scenario? A) Establishment of goals for the change B) Recognition of the need for change C) Selection of appropriate change technique D) Diagnosis of the relevant variables E) Evaluation and follow-up

1) Bill Lennox is a good man. He demonstrates high moral standards with every decision he takes and inspires others to follow suit. From the given information, we can say that he has _____ power. A) legitimate B) technological C) expert D) referente E) coercive

1) Blue Bells Inc. is a software services firm. Lately, the company's HR department noticed that its employees' performance levels have plummeted, and a survey conducted by the firm indicated that this was due to low employee satisfaction levels. This prompted the HR department to introduce a new incentive system in the company. This is an example of change in the area of _____. A) people B) task environment C) technology and operations D) general environment E) regulatory systems

1) Brenda, a senior engineer at Machineworks Inc., sets herself difficult goals and assumes personal responsibility for the performance of her subordinates. Brenda most likely has a high need for _____. A) achievement B) affiliation C) esteem D) security E) potential

1) Brianna's employer has announced a goal of getting workers to live a healthier lifestyle. Because of this, Brianna has improved the foods she eats and is getting more physical activity. Which attribute of the expanded goal-setting theory best portrays this example? A) goal specificity B) goal acceptance C) goal satisfaction D) goal congruity E) goal difficulty

1) Brianne, a graduate engineer, prefers to work in a job that provides her the opportunity to interact with people and make new friends on the job. Brianne has a need for _____. A) achievement B) affiliation C) power D) esteem E) security

1) Bullies in the workplace use sarcasm, humiliation, and fear to influence others. This is a form of _____ power. A) expertB) legitimateC) referentD) rewardE) coercive

1) Carl, the manager at a publishing house, heads the editorial team. Peggy, one of his subordinates belongs to his in-group. This information would be significant for the proceedings of the: A) Vroom's decision tree approach. B) path-goal theory. C) leader-member exchange model. D) least-preferred coworker theory. E) leadership grid.

1) Carolyn, a manager, discusses and reasons with the Board of Directors of her company until they agree to let her try her new strategic plan for a trial period. Carolyn is using _____ in the given situation. A) an obligation B) persuasion C) coercion D) inducement E) passive aggression

1) Cheri and Aaron both wanted to work part-time, and they found a lawyer who was willing to split one full-time paralegal job between the two of them so that Cheri works mornings and Aaron works afternoons. This arrangement is known as _____. A) flextime B) participation C) OB Mod D) job sharing E) reinforcement

1) Christine is in charge of managing the marketing team at her office. To be an efficient leader, she should: A) affect the behavior of others only through coercion. B) use her power only in ways that are ethical. C) defy all forms of authority. D) engage in freeriding. E) encourage instances of groupthink.

1) Consumer tastes and preferences are _____ forces that influence an organization's product line. A) technical B) internal C) managerial D) external E) political

1) Creating different teams for finance, production, and marketing is consistent with _____ departmentalization. A) location B) product C) functional D) sequential E) customer

1) Cuisine Royale is a restaurant chain that has many outlets. Each outlet has a separate budget and a set of staff. To determine the success of the entire chain, the profits made by all the outlets are put together. Which of the following concepts is illustrated in the scenario? A) Pooled interdependence B) Reciprocal interdependence C) Job rotation D) Sequential interdependence E) Specialization

1) Daniel has been appointed leader of a project task force. He has legitimate power in this position. The task is unstructured. Also, Daniel has weak leader-member relations. According to Fiedler's LPC theory, what type of leadership style is appropriate in this situation? A) Task-oriented B) Relationship-oriented C) Participative D) Transformational leadership E) Concern for people

1) Demonstrating personal excitement or passion about something is part of _____ leadership. A) charismatic B) entrepreneurial C) symbolic D) integrative E) participative

1) Don Draper is responsible for managing the creative section of his ad agency. In one-to-one sessions, he asks each member of his group to give ideas for the ad campaign to promote a new product. He considers all the ideas and decides to go ahead with the best among them. Which decision-making style is best reflected in the given scenario? A) Consult individual B) Facilitate C) Delegate D) Participate E) Decide

1) Durban Cafe takes one order at a time and customizes the coffee as per the customer's requirement . The cafe uses _____ technology. A) small-batch B) mass-production C) continuous-process D) standardized process E) large-batch

1) During a job interview, Sarah asked the HR manager if the company would provide her a family insurance or a retirement plan. She was discussing the _____ that companies generally offer. A) benefits B) intangible benefits C) incentives D) wages E) progressions

1) During the decline stage of the product life cycle: A) demand peaks. B) new competitors enter the industry. C) sales drop. D) managers need to focus their efforts on "getting the product out the door" without sacrificing quality. E) managers must increase production costs.

1) During the growth stage of a product life cycle, companies should focus on: A) creating product differentiation. B) increasing overhead costs. C) sacrificing product quality. D) using anti-competitive strategies. E) divesting.

1) During the growth stage of the product life cycle,: A) most companies downsize. B) the demand is the lowest. C) competitors start exiting the industry. D) more firms begin producing the product. E) sales rapidly decline.

1) During the introduction phase of the product life cycle _____. A) companies must sacrifice product quality B) most companies tend to downsize C) demand may be very high D) competition is at its peake E) sales volume is the highest

1) During the maturity stage of a product life cycle: A) demand is maximum. B) companies must sacrifice product quality. C) sales are the highest. D) demand comes to a halt. E) product differentiation concerns are still important.

1) During the maturity stage of the product life cycle,: A) most companies start hiring more employees. B) managers need to focus their efforts on "getting product the out the door" without sacrificing quality. C) the sales volume is the highest. D) more competitors enter the industry. E) the overall demand growth for a product begins to slow down.

1) During which phase of the organizational innovation process do most organizations have access to an innovation and apply it in the same way? A) Innovation development B) Innovation maturity C) Innovation launch D) Innovation growth E) Innovation application

1) Elena is a sales representative. She gets paid a base salary plus a percentage of sales attained as a commission for a period of time. Her pay is an example of _____. A) merit pay plan B) scanlon plan C) gainsharing program D) nonmonetary incentives E) incentive pay plan

1) Employees at GreenTech Inc. complete their schedules on time as every hour they take in excess may lead to a corresponding loss of pay. Their behaviors are strengthened through _____. A) Avoidance B) Extinction C) Positive reinforcement D) Punishment E) Incentives

1) Employment requirements such as test scores and other qualifications are legally defined as having a(n) _____ on minorities and women when such individuals meet or pass the requirement at a rate less than 80 percent of the rate of majority group members. A) affirmative action B) adverse impact C) confirmatory action D) lien E) divergent impact

1) Enlightened Minds is a software services firm that uses routine training programs, seminars by eminent developers, and discussion forums to keep employees updated on the recent developments in the software field. Enlightened Minds is an example of a(n) _____. A) learning organization B) team organization C) H-Form organization D) matrix organization E) virtual organization

1) Executives who retire and then work as consultants are part of the _____ workforce. A) temporary B) emergent C) task-oriented D) job-specific E) union

1) Firms that implement a strategy of _____ operate multiple businesses that are not logically associated with one another. A) single-business unit B) unrelated diversification C) entropy D) nondiversification E) synergy

1) Gadgetbug Inc. is known for its extremely efficient after-purchase service. None of Gadgetbug's competitors provide the same kind of customer service. Gadgetbug's _____ is described in the scenario. A) scope B) divestiture strategy C) strategic limitation D) process loss E) distinctive competence

1) Gadgetbug Inc. manufactures home appliances. All the decisions are made by the top managers at the company. The middle and lower managers follow the instructions given by top managers rather than making decisions by themselves. Which of the following concepts is illustrated in the scenario? A) Self-dealing B) Synergy C) Centralization D) Specialization E) Delegation

1) Gamma Corp. is planning to bring in new internal standards for all the products it manufactures. The new standards will ensure better quality and will also help the company gain a competitive advantage. However, the factors that stand in the way of the change are increased workload on employees and the need for skill development among employees. To minimize these factors that hinder the change, Gamma has decided to motivate its employees through a reward system. Which of the following concepts is illustrated in the scenario? A) Force-field analysis B) Participation C) Job deskilling D) Specialization E) Micromanagement

1) Gamma Inc. has a reputation for paying higher than the prevailing wages in its industry. This is an example of a(n) _____ decision by its management. A) wage-level B) wage-structure C) individual waged D) wage-benefit package E) benefit-level

1) Gemini Motors has an assembly-line structure. Workers combine separate parts into standardized finished motorbikes. Gemini Motors is most likely to be using _____ technology. A) small-batch B) mass-production C) continuous-process D) unit E) job enrichment

1) Goals set for and by line-managers are called _____ goals. A) strategic B) tactical C) developmental D) organizational E) operational

1) How did Fiedler measure leadership styles? D) By means of a questionnaire called the least-preferred coworker measure

1) Hydraliscious is a juice brand that sells a wide range of fruit juices that only uses organic ingredients, which is its uniqueness when compared with other brands. Even though Hydraliscious juices are highly priced, a lot of customers buy them because of the quality of the juices. Hydraliscious is most likely to be using a(n)_____ strategy. A) Differentiation B) cost-leadership C) divesting D) bundle pricing E) anti-competitive

1) If one wants to maintain an employee's behavior at a high level with variations in the level of behavior irrespective of the time interval, which of the following schedules of reinforcement would be most successful? A) Fixed-interval B) Fixed-ratio C) Variable-interval D) Variable-ratio E) Continuous

1) Image LLC, an advertising company, has recently received several long-term projects from leading companies. Image has decided to switch from functional departmentalization to cross-functional work teams to be able to perform better. This is an example of change in the area of _____. A) technology and operations B) social structure C) people D) organization structure and design E) task environment

1) In Fiedler's model, a high least-preferred coworker score is said to reflect a _____ orientation. A) relationship B) task C) structure D) communication E) schedule

1) In Fiedler's model, favorable situations are those that have: B) good leader-member relations, highly structured tasks, and strong leader position-power.

1) In _____ technology, raw materials are transformed to a finished product by a series of machine transformations in such a way that the composition of the materials themselves is changed. A) product-customization B) large-batch C) mass-production D) continuous-process E) small-batch

1) In _____, the jobs do not change, but instead workers move from job to job. A) job rotation B) job specialization C) job enrichment D) job deskilling E) job enlargement

1) In _____, the output of one unit becomes the input for another in a serial fashion. A) pooled interdependence B) sequential interdependence C) structural interdependence D) total interdependence E) reciprocal interdependence\

1) In a BCG matrix, _____ are businesses that have a large share of a market that is not expected to grow substantially. A) stars B) cash cows C) entropies D) question marks E) dogs

1) In a BCG matrix, _____ are businesses that have a very small share of a market that is not expected to grow. A) question marks B) cows C) stars D) dogs E) rate busters

1) In a Boston Consulting Group (BCG) matrix, _____ are businesses that have only a small share of a quickly growing market. A) stars B) question marks C) entropies D) dogs E) cash cows

1) In contrast to Fiedler's theory, path-goal theory assumes that leaders: A) have little tolerance for their least-preferred coworker. B) can change their leadership style to fit the demands of a particular situation. C) should maintain a consistent leadership style to avoid confusing subordinates. D) must find a fit between their leader styles and the situation. E) should always maintain a participative leader style.

1) In contrast to strategic plans, tactical plans must: A) specify resources and time frames. B) be developed independently of the internal business environment. C) be developed independently of the external business environment. D) be more general and broadly based. E) focus on resources, environment, and mission.

1) In expectancy theory, raises, promotions, stress and resentment are all _____ of an individual's behaviors. A) factors B) motivations C) reinforcements D) outcomes E) valences

1) In human resource management, _____ usually refers to teaching operational or technical employees how to do the job for which they were hired. A) job rotation B) job specialization C) development D) training E) deskilling

1) In most change situations, there are factors that make the change process more difficult and others that seem to ease the process. The process by which a manager identifies these factors and then tries to tip the balance so that the factors facilitating the change outweigh those hindering the change is called _____. A) facilitation B) implementation C) force-field analysis D) participative development E) education

1) In organizations using _____, the product is manufactured in assembly-line fashion by combining component parts into another part or finished product. A) job rotation technology B) large-batch technology C) unit technology D) continuous-process technology E) small-batch technology

1) In the GE Business Screen matrix, which of the following determines the competitive position of the company? A) Market size B) Market growth C) Price competitiveness D) Capital requirements E) Competitive intensity

1) In the GE Business Screen matrix, which of the following is a determinant of industry attractiveness? A) Market share B) Market size C) Product quality D) Operating costs E) Service network

1) In the GE Business Screen portfolio management technique, businesses that have good competitive position in an attractive industry are known as: A) losers. B) winners. C) profit producers. D) question marks. E) cash cows.

1) In the Managerial Grid, the ideal manager behavior is represented by a 9,9 "team" manager, who has high concern for both: A) structure and people. B) people and production. C) leadership and production. D) finances and operations. E) resources and products.

1) In the Ohio State studies, employees of supervisors who ranked high on initiating structure: A) reflected low absence rates. B) were high performers. C) expressed high levels of satisfaction. D) had low productivity. E) were confused about the leader-subordinate role.

1) In the business world, the term _____ is generally used to refer to demographic differences among people-differences in gender, age, ethnicity, and so forth. A) homogeneity B) synergy C) diversity D) divestiture E) entropy

1) In the context of SWOT analysis, which of the following would be considered as an organization's strength? A) Exiting competitors B) High overhead costs C) Favorable government policies D) Motivated employees E) High employee turnover rate

1) In the context of organization development techniques, coaching and counseling: A) focus on how an individual is performing today. B) provide nonevaluative feedback to individuals. C) provide assistance to individuals with achieving non-work-related objectives. D) are designed for managers and not executive employees. E) focus exclusively on increasing productivity.

1) In the context of the GE Business Screen matrix, _____ is a determinant of the competitive position of a company. A) intensity of competition B) government policies C) market size D) market growth E) market share

1) In the context of the GE Business Screen, a determinant of an organization's competitive position is: A) capital requirements. B) market growth. C) government policies. D) market size. E) product quality.

1) In the context of the GE Business Screen, a determinant of industry attractiveness would be: A) capital requirements. B) product quality. C) service network. D) price competitiveness. E) market share.

1) In the context of the Vroom's decision tree approach, when a manager allows his group to define for itself the exact nature and parameters of a problem and then to develop a solution, they follow the _____ decision-making style. A) facilitate B) consult individually C) decide D) delegate E) consult group

1) In the context of the Vroom's decision tree approach, when managers present a problem to their group at a meeting, define the problem and its boundaries, and then guide group member discussions as they make the decision, they follow the _____ decision-making style. A) delegate B) consult group C) facilitated D) consult individually E) decide

1) In the context of the charismatic leadership theory, proposed by Robert House, charismatic leaders are likely to: A) rate low on self-confidence. B) avoid influencing people. C) have a firm conviction in their beliefs. D) have an external locus of control. E) be dependent on others.

1) In the context of the job characteristics approach, skill variety refers to: A) the extent to which a worker knows how well the job is being performed. B) the degree of control a worker has over how the work is performed. C) the perceived importance of a task. D) the extent to which a worker does a complete or identifiable portion of the total job. E) the number of things a person does in a job.

1) In the maturity stage of the product life cycle,: A) the demand is extremely high. B) product sales rapidly increase. C) compeition is at its peak. D) managers need to focus their efforts on "getting the product out the door" without sacrificing quality. E) the number of new firms producing the product begins to decline.

1) In the reengineering process, the first step involves: A) setting goals and developing a strategy. B) emphasizing top management's commitment to reengineering. C) implementing the chosen strategy across the organization. D) optimizing top-down and bottom-up perspectives. E) creating a sense of urgency among managers.

1) Jaime, who works at Minlog Inc., maintains punctuality to avoid a loss of pay. Jaime's behavior is strengthened through _____. A) avoidance B) extinction C) positive reinforcement D) punishment E) distortion

1) Jan works as a salesperson. She generally achieves the expected targets but has also failed several times. For the previous month, she performed better than all her team members and achieved a huge sales volume. Even though Jan has not achieved her targets on several occasions during the past one year, her supervisor ranked her as number one. This is an example of how a(n) _____ can influence a performance appraisal. A) recency error B) halo error C) source monitoring error D) severity error E) average error

1) Janice owns a bakery that has only ten employees, out of which three are bakers, four are waiters, and the rest belong to the housekeeping staff. Which of the following approaches to departmentalization would work best for the bakery? A) Functional departmentalization B) Product departmentalization C) Customer departmentalization D) Location departmentalization E) Sequential departmentalization

1) Jason, a manager, is working on a new project that involves a lot of statistics. Jason is looking for employees with a background in statistics. He can find this information in the _____ of his company. A) article of incorporation B) job description C) job specification D) skills inventory E) replacement chart

1) Jeanne owns a boutique in Paris and is best known for the formal suits that she stitches for working women. She makes customized suits for each of her customers, keeping their age, body type, and their appearance in mind. Which of the following technologies is Jeanne using in her boutique? A) Standardized-process technology B) Large-batch technology C) Continuous-process technology D) Small-batch technology E) Mass-production technology

1) Jennifer, the CEO of Phoenix Corp., is planning to build an internal design team for the company. She is looking for employees within the company who have the expertise and an interest in designing. Jennifer can find this information in the _____. A) replacement chart B) job specification C) skills inventory D) job description E) article of incorporation

1) Jenny runs a small boutique in New Orleans and has five employees working under her. Lately, she has noticed that her boutique has not been delivering customer orders on time, and she has realized that it is because of the rise in the number of customers and insufficient manpower. She has decided to employ another five employees. Which step of the change process is illustrated in the scenario? A) Implementing the change B) Diagnosis of relevant variables C) Selection of an appropriate change technique D) Planning for implementation of change E) Evaluation and follow-up

1) Jessica Weller, a senior manager at DigWell Inc., differentiates the annual pay raises provided to her subordinates based on their individual contributions to the organization. The type of reward system used by Jessica is an example of _____. A) fixed-rate pay B) profit sharing C) gainsharing D) scanlon plan E) merit pay

1) Madeline works at a local retail store. She feels that she is being underpaid in spite of her job performance. She motivates herself to improve her performance to get the due recognition she deserves. Madeline's motivation is due to a _____. A) need deficiency B) negative reinforcement C) low performance-to-outcome expectancy D) dissatisfaction of physiological needs E) need for belongingness

1) Martha is given a new cabin and a new job title as recognition for her accomplishment over her years of service to the organization. She is satisfied with the recognition and respect from her colleagues. This portrays that the organization is addressing her _____ needs. A) esteem B) psychological C) security D) physiology E) self-actualization

1) Martin is trying to adopt more automated equipment in his soda bottling facility, and workers are resisting the change. When Martin decides to hold a meeting to explain to workers how the change will be beneficial to them, he is using _____ as a means of overcoming resistance to change. A) entropy B) micromanagement C) deskilling D) education E) specialization

1) Mihee, the chief nurse in a hospital, sets challenging goals for her subordinates because she has confidence in her fellow nurses. Based on the path-goal theory, what kind of leader behavior is Mihee exhibiting? A) Task-oriented B) Employee-centered C) Achievement-oriented D) Relationship-oriented E) Bureaucratic

1) Modifying the benefits system on a yearly basis to maintain employee satisfaction is most likely to be a _____ change. A) reactive B) planned C) contingency D) legal E) general environmental

1) Monthly paychecks are examples of reinforcements provided at a _____ schedule. A) Random B) Fixed-interval C) Fixed-ratio D) Variable-ratio E) Variable-interval

1) Neal works for the state of Vermont. He perceives that his union will protect him from getting fired, but the only way he will get promoted is if the person above him retires or dies. He has A) low effort-to-performance expectancy, and low performance-to-outcome expectancy. B) low effort-to-performance expectancy, and high performance-to-outcome expectancy. C) high effort-to-performance expectancy, and low performance-to-outcome expectancy. D) high effort-to-performance expectancy, and high performance-to-outcome expectancy. E) zero valence.

1) Nelson recently attended an interview where the HR manager showed him a video of an ordinary work day in the organization and explained in detail the expectations of the job. The HR manager also explained about the criteria for promotions in the company. Although some of the information did not appeal to Nelson, he was sure about what to expect from the job and the company. The organization used the _____ method in the interview. A) affirmative action B) training and development C) job enlargement D) job specialization E) realistic job preview

1) Nutrimax Inc. identifies its purpose as "to produce the finest cookies in the world while upholding our principles of promoting good health and maintaining environmental sustainability." This purpose is most likely to be the _____ of Nutrimax. A) strategic goal B) distinctive competence C) mission statement D) operational goal E) tactical goal

1) One disadvantage of using product departmentalization is that: A) decision making tends to become slower and more bureaucratic. B) the performance of individual products or product groups becomes difficult to assess. C) administrative costs rise because each department must have its own functional specialists. D) all activities associated with one product or product group cannot be easily integrated and coordinated. E) accountability of departments becomes very difficult to monitor.

1) One of the disadvantages of job specialization is that: A) it increases the transfer time between tasks. B) it makes it difficult to develop specialized equipment to assist with a job. C) it does not help a worker become proficient at a task. D) it does not offer challenges or stimulation to workers. E) it requires workers to handle different tasks at a time.

1) One of the reasons Steve Jobs was very successful at Apple was his charisma. From this observation, we can infer that he had _____ power. A) referent B) reward C) legitimate D) coercive E) expert

1) Organizational size is defined as: A) the total number of investors and stockholders in an organization. B) the total number of departments in an organization. C) the total number of full-time or full-time-equivalent employees in an organization. D) the total number of customers of an organization. E) the total number of middle and first-line managers in an organization.

1) Organizations provide adequate wages, comfortable temperatures, restrooms, ventilation, etc. as a means to address the _____ needs of its employees. A) esteem B) belongingness C) self-actualization D) security E) physiological

1) Organizations with a diverse workforce are most likely to _____ when compared to less diverse organizations. A) have higher levels of productivity B) have higher levels of turnover C) have higher levels of absenteeism D) foster fewer conflicts E) have a lack of understanding of different market segments

1) Organizations with a diverse workforce: A) have fewer training needs. B) find it difficult to gain competitive advantages. C) tend to have low productivity. D) tend to have conflicts. E) find it difficult to understand different market segments.

1) ProDairy Inc. reduced the prices of its products to combat competitors that were selling dairy products at lower prices. This scenario illustrates a force for change present in the _____ of an organization. A) task environment B) supply chain C) internal environment D) legal-political environment E) demographic environment

1) Punishment involves the use of _____ power. A) legitimate E) reward C) referent D) expert E) coercive

1) Pursuing a strategy of _____ reduces an organization's dependence on any one of its business activities and thus reduces economic risk. A) single-product B) single-service C) divestiture D) related diversification E) trade restraint

1) Reactive changes: A) are made in anticipation of future events. B) are generally more effective than planned changes. C) have more potential for poorly conceived and executed change. D) involve fewer risks than planned changes. E) are preferred to planned changes by most successful organizations.

1) Reciprocal interdependence: A) is found in product and not service-based companies. B) involves one-way interdependence. C) represents the lowest level of interdependence. D) involves minimal communication among departments. E) is the most complex form of interdependence.

1) Relish Inc. is a large corporation in the food industry that manufactures canned foods, confectionery, and baked?foods. The organization has a separate department for each of these types of food manufactured. Each department integrates all the activities required to manage their respective line of food. Which of the following types of departmentalization is illustrated in the scenario? A) Sequential departmentalization B) Customer departmentalization C) Product departmentalization D) Location departmentalization E) Functional departmentalization

1) Researchers have found that a flat organization structure _____. A) fosters more communication problems B) is more expensive to maintain than a tall structure C) leads to higher levels of employee morale D) fosters bureaucracy E) leads to lower levels of employee productivity

1) Rewards tied specifically to _____ have the greatest impact on enhancing motivation. A) outcome B) performance C) effort D) ability E) skill

1) Richard Inc. has been receiving complaints from its customers about the inefficiency of its customer service professionals. The company has now decided to change the recruitment criteria for this role. The new criteria place more emphasis on technical expertise. Richard Inc. is attempting to make a change in the area of _____. A) information technology B) work sequences C) operations D) enterprise resource planning E) organization structure and design

1) Robin Plastics Inc. recently set up a new strategic business unit. The company made changes in the area of _____. A) technology and operations B) social structure C) people D) task environment E) organization structure and design

1) Sam, the CEO of a company, has the power to take decisions related to resource allocations. His power is mainly derived from his position in the company. Which power is best demonstrated in the given scenario? A) Coercive B) Reward C) Legitimate D) Expert E) Referent.

1) Samantha is responsible for building the day-to-day work schedules for her subordinates. She assigns specific tasks to her subordinates and designs activities according to the objectives that she receives from her seniors. Samantha works on _____ plans. A) Operational B) organizational C) strategic D) divestiture E) tactical

1) Sara is an efficient supervisor at a restaurant, which is part of a large national chain. She was recently sent to a two-week educational course by her employer to help her get the skills she needs for promotion to a higher management post. The human resource management concept illustrated in the scenario is _____. A) job specialization B) job rotation C) development D) training E) recruitment

1) Sequential interdependence: A) typically involves no interaction among departments. B) generally involves one-way interdependence. C) is the most complex form of interdependence. D) is a level of interdependence in which the performance of one department is not affected by the performance of other departments. E) represents the lowest level of interdependence.

1) Strategic goals are set by: A) first-line managers. B) middle managers. C) top managers. D) stockholders. E) consumers.

1) Strategies to slow the entry of competitors are important if an organization is entering an industry during the _____ stage of the product life cycle. A) growth B) introduction C) declined D) maturity E) recovery

1) Supertech Inc. is a large firm that manufactures gadgets and mobile phones. The company sells a line of inexpensive mobile phones exclusively targeted at youth and teenagers in Selenasia. Which of the following strategies is illustrated in the scenario? A) Differentiation strategy B) Focus strategy C) Restraint of trade strategy D) Anti-competitive strategy E) Divesting strategy

1) Tactical goals are set by: A) first-line managers. B) middle managers. C) assembly-line managers. D) stockholders. E) investors.

1) Tall organizations: A) have more managers than flat organizations. B) foster employee morale better than flat organizations. C) place excessive supervisory responsibilities on managers. D) have very few communication problems. E) have less managerial expenses than flat organizations.

1) Teresa, a recruiter, needs to know basic information such as the name, educational background, and the work experience of a candidate she will be interviewing. Teresa can find this information in the candidate's _____. A) skills inventory B) job description C) job specification D) application blanke E) replacement chart

1) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act forbids discrimination against workers above which of the following ages? A) 40 B) 45 C) 50 D) 55 E) 65

1) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act: A) exclusively protects the elderly belonging to minority groups from discrimination. B) sets a minimum wage for the elderly and requires overtime pay for work in excess of 40 hours per week. C) protects individuals below the age of 25 years from discrimination. D) requires affirmative action. E) requires passive nondiscrimination.

1) The Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) is _____. A) a method used for the validation of a selection device B) an objective method of performance appraisal C) a judgmental method of performance appraisal D) a job training technique E) a job analysis technique

1) The CEO at Green Inc. has established that employees at the workplace should adhere to the vertical communication system. She has established fixed work flow systems and strictly monitors these processes. The steps taken by the CEO at Green Inc. reflect the _____ behavior of leaders suggested by the Ohio State studies. A) consideration B) initiating structure C) employee-centered D) job-centered E) authoritative

1) The CEO of Redd Inc. needs to know the names of the line managers in the company who will soon be ready to take up positions in middle management. The CEO can obtain this information from the _____. A) demand forecast B) job analysis C) supply forecast D) job evaluation E) replacement chart

1) The Civil Rights Act of 1991: A) limits union powers. B) mandates affirmative action in all private business firms. C) limits punitive damages in lawsuits. D) allows passive discrimination. E) sets standards for product packaging

1) The Civil Rights Act of 1991: A) increases punitive damages in lawsuits. B) makes it easier for employees to sue an organization for discrimination. C) requires employers to provide up to 12 weeks of paid leave for family and medical emergencies. D) limits union powers. E) sets standards for safe working conditions.

1) The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 requires employers to provide up to _____ for family and medical emergencies. A) six months of paid leave B) 12 weeks of unpaid leave C) 15 weeks of paid leave D) one year of unpaid leave E) one year of paid leave

1) The Ohio State researchers found that employees of supervisors who ranked high on _____ were high performers but expressed low levels of satisfaction and had a higher absence rate. A) concern for people B) consideration C) initiating structure D) employee-centered leader behavior E) task-oriented leadership behavior

1) The _____ design is based on multiple businesses in related areas operating within a larger organizational framework. A) conglomerate B) divisional C) H-form D) matrix E) functional

1) The _____ is the most powerful schedule in terms of maintaining desired behavior. A) variable-interval schedule B) fixed-ratio schedule C) variable-ratio schedule D) fixed-interval schedule E) nine-eighty schedule

1) The _____ lists the duties of a job, the job's working conditions, and the tools, materials, and equipment used to perform it. A) job specification B) job description C) replacement chart D) statement of qualification E) article of incorporation

1) The _____ lists the skills, abilities, and other credentials needed to do a job. A) article of incorporation B) replacement chart C) job description D) job specification E) statement of qualification

1) The _____ of an organizational life cycle is characterized by growth and the expansion of organizational resources. A) youth B) birth C) senescence D) decline E) divestiture

1) The _____ sets up a procedure for employees to vote on whether to have a union. A) National Labor Relations Act B) Labor Management Relations Act C) Taft-Hartley Act D) Civil Rights Act of 1991 E) Fair Labor Standards Act

1) The _____ varies the number of behaviors needed for each reinforcement. A) variable-ratio schedule B) fixed-ratio schedule C) variable-interval schedule D) fixed-interval schedule E) nine-eighty schedule

1) The _____, passed in 1938 and amended frequently since then, sets a minimum wage and requires the payment of overtime rates for work in excess of 40 hours per week. A) National Labor Relations Act B) Labor Management Relations Act C) National Labor Relations Act D) Occupational Safety and Health Act E) Fair Labor Standards Act

1) The advantage of using the functional departmentalization approach is that: A) supervision is facilitated because an individual manager needs to be familiar with only a small set of skills. B) the speed and effectiveness of decision making increase as the organization grows. C) accountability and performance become easier to monitor. D) employees get a better view of the total organization. E) decision making becomes less bureaucratic as the organization grows.

1) The assessment center: A) is used to select external candidates. B) is a content-valid simulation of major parts of the managerial job. C) is most likely to be biased against women and minority groups. D) essentially involves conducting physical exams and drug tests on candidates. E) essentially involves running credit checks on prospective employees.

1) The behavior that is called "job-centered leader behavior" in the Michigan studies is similar to the behavior called _____ behavior in the Ohio State studies. A) initiating-structure B) consideration C) concern for production D) concern for people E) employee-centered leader

1) The choices a firm makes as to where and how much to invest reflect issues of _____. A) value migration B) distinctive competencies C) resource deployment D) deskilling E) industrial symbiosis

1) The concept of charismatic leadership is most closely related to: A) the Vroom-Yetton-Jago approach. B) the trait approach. C) Fiedler's contingency theory. D) substitutes for leadership. E) path-goal theory.

1) The first organized approach to studying leadership focused on A) leadership behavior B) leadership traits. C) rewards expected. D) situational favorableness. E) leader-member relations.

1) The first step of the change process involves: A) recognizing the need for change. B) implementing the change. C) selecting a change technique. D) choosing a change leader. E) overcoming resistance to change.

1) The means by which a labor agreement is enforced is the _____. A) grievance procedure B) union rights clause C) management rights clause D) union security clause E) strike/lockout procedure

1) The more a manager uses coercive power, the more likely he is to encourage _____. A. sympathy. B. good will. C. resentment. D. cordiality. E. tolerance.

1) The more important the information and the fewer the people who have access to it, the greater is the degree of _____ power possessed by any one individual. A) legitimate B) reward C) referent D) expert E) coercive

1) The narrowest of the standing plans, _____ describe exactly how specific activities are to be carried out. A) standard operating procedures B) projects and programs C) rules and regulations D) contingency theories E) crisis management procedures

1) The normal process within an organization that leads to a system decline is known as _____. A) reengineering B) synergy C) process gain D) innovation E) entropy

1) The radical redesign of all aspects of an organization in order to achieve major gains in cost reduction, service delivery, or reduction in order-processing time is known as _____. A) entropy B) process change C) innovation D) reengineering E) system change

1) The reengineering process can be made effective by: A) adopting a hands-off leadership style. B) extensively using micromanagement leadership techniques. C) adopting a strong but not autocratic leadership style. D) eliminating any sense of urgency in the organization. E) limiting employee participation in the process.

1) The set of activities directed at attracting, developing, and maintaining an effective workforce is called _____. A) operations management B) organization development C) relationship management D) enterprise feedback management E) human resource management

1) The set of processes for determining the strategies that will be used by an organization is known as: A) strategy implementation. B) environmental scanning. C) strategy formulation. D) divesting. E) deskilling.

1) The starting point in formulating strategies is usually: A) SWOT analysis. B) resource deployment. C) divesting. D) deskilling. E) contingency analysis.

1) The term span of management refers to the: A) extent to which authority is delegated at the individual level. B) extent to which authority is systematically delegated to middle and lower levels of management. C) number of people reporting to a particular manager. D) process of grouping jobs according to some logical pattern. E) number of managers assigned to a department.

1) The top executives at Delta Inc. have decided to reorganize the corporation from product divisions into geographic sectors. This is a(n) _____ force for change. A) internal B) technical C) political D) external E) environmental

1) The top management at Omega Inc. recently initiated an employee motivation drive to improve employee morale and in turn decrease turnover rates. It has now commissioned a statistics firm to check the effect of its initiative on the employees' morale. Which step of the comprehensive approach to change is illustrated in the scenario? A) Evaluation and follow-up B) Selection of appropriate change technique C) Planning for implementation of change D) Diagnosis of relevant variables E) Actual implementation

1) The top management at Phoenix Inc. planned to shift their corporate office to a bigger and better facility about four streets away from the current location. The top managers knew that their decision would meet with considerable employee resistance, so they informed all the employees well in advance of the advantages of moving to the new office. This minimized the employees' resistance. Which of the following techniques of overcoming resistance is illustrated in the scenario? A) Risk propensity B) Education C) Specialization D) Micromanagement E) Deskilling

1) The top managers of Dietizza, a large low-fat pizza chain, plan to increase the profitability of all its outlets by 15 percent in a period of two years. This is a(n) _____ goal. A) tactical B) operational C) nonspecific D) divestiture E) strategic

1) To overcome resistance to change, the top management of a company discusses with its employees the new employee policies and procedures that it proposes to bring in and also seeks their involvement in the change process. This scenario illustrates the _____ technique that helps reduce resistance to change. A) participation B) synergy C) deskilling D) greenwashing E) risk propensity

1) Top managers at Phoenix Inc. are all computer engineers and are highly regarded by other companies. They are frequently approached by executive search firms with information about openings at other companies. The managers are examples of _____. A) temporary workers B) emergent workers C) contingent employees D) job-specific employees E) knowledge workers

1) Tyler is the marketing manager at MarketAds Inc., and Emily is an account manager reporting to him. Tyler instructs Emily to improve public opinion. The goal that Emily was given lacks goal _____. A) specificity B) acceptance C) conformity D) congruity E) difficulty

1) Under the _____ arrangement, the members and units in an organization are grouped into functional departments such as marketing and production. A) division form B) Z-form C) H-form D) U-form E) M-form

1) Under which of the following circumstances will an employee feel a need deficiency? A) When she feels that her tasks are challenging B) When she receives recognition for a job well done C) When she feels she is underpaid D) When she is motivated to perform a job E) When she attains self-actualization

1) Unions negotiating for higher wages is an example of a(n) _____ force for change. A) internal B) technical C) external D) managerial E) legal

1) Units with _____ operate with little interaction-the output of the units is put together at the organizational level. A) pooled interdependence B) total interdependence C) reciprocal interdependence D) sequential interdependence E) structural interdependence

1) Valencia, an employee at Y Inc., attempts to bring all her contributions to successful projects to the notice of her manager. Her intention is to build a good image in the eyes of the management. What is best exemplified by Valencia's behavior? A) Creation of an obligation B) Impression management C) Coercion D) Persuasion E) Inducement

1) Venus Corp. is a large corporation with many strategic business units. The top managers and board of directors are reviewing the performance of the business units to estimate the amount of resources that each unit will require in the next few years. The plan created for allocation of resources among the business units of Venus would be a(n) _____ plan. A) strategic B) tactical C) operational D) contingency E) recovery

1) Venus Corp. prohibits its employees from smoking in its premises. This is an example of a(n): A) standard operating procedure B) rule C) program D) entropy E) project

1) Venus LLC has recently recruited a new batch of employees, and the HR manager intends to apprise company rules to the employees. Which of the following training methods is most preferable in this scenario? A) Electronic-media-based training B) The lecture method C) Role-playing D) Case discussion groups E) On-the-job training

1) Verbal reprimands, written reprimands, disciplinary layoffs, fines, demotion, and termination are examples of _____ power possessed by managers. A) coercive B) reward C) legitimate D) expert E) referent

1) Vernique, a manager, consults with her subordinates and encourages their involvement in the decision making process. Based on the path-goal theory, what kind of leader behavior is Vernique exhibiting? A) Job-oriented B) Employee-centered C) Achievement-oriented D) Participative E) Bureaucrat

1) Virtually all larger businesses in the United States use a(n) _____ strategy. A) related-diversification B) single-product C) divestiture D) unrelated diversification E) single-service

1) Watches.com, an online watch store, recently adopted a new enterprise resource planning (ERP) system to help keep track of the company's inventory and to deliver customers' orders on time. The company's adoption of the new ERP system reflects a change in the area of _____. A) organization culture B) job design C) technology and operations D) people E) departmentalization

1) What is the basic assumption of situational approaches to leadership? A) Increasing worker job satisfaction through considerate leadership will get the best results. B) Initiating structure for employees so they know exactly what needs to be done will be most effective. C) The appropriate leader style will vary from one set of circumstances to another. D) Effective leaders can be identified by certain traits. E) The 1,1 manager exhibits minimal concern for both production and people.

1) What is the most important idea for managers to remember from equity theory? A) People who feel underrewarded may try to decrease the inequity by increasing their inputs. B) Employees must receive equal rewards irrespective of their overall performance. C) For rewards to motivate employees, employees must perceive them as being fair. D) Employees must consider their inputs equal to the inputs of their colleagues. E) Employees must consider their outcomes equal to the outcomes of their colleagues.

1) What measures should managers take to prevent political behavior from doing excessive damage? A) They should refrain from providing subordinates with autonomy. B) They should provide challenges to subordinates. C) They should use their coercive powers. D) They should reduce diversity in the workplace. E) They should encourage ethnocentrism.

1) When Beta Inc. acquired Redd Communications, there was a huge uproar by the staff of Redd Communications as there were rumors of staff reductions and operations closures. _____ was the cause for this reaction by the Redd Communications staff. A) Synergy B) Process gain C) Uncertainty D) Process loss E) Facilitation

1) When a company changes its work processes, the change is in the area of _____. A) people B) technology and operations C) job design D) facilitation E) task environment

1) When a firm decides to decrease the number of first-line managers it has, and thus increase the span of management of first-line managers, it is making a change in the area of _____. A) organization structure and design B) social structure C) task environment D) people E) technology and operations

1) When a manager tries to encourage social interaction among his subordinates, he is trying to address their need for _____. A) belongingness B) esteem C) security D) physiological E) self-actualization

1) When an organization promotes someone, it sends a signal to everyone that the person is competent. This gives the person _____ power A) legitimate B) technological C) reward D) referente E) coercive

1) When an organization uses an employment test that the majority ethnic group is known to pass at a higher rate than minority groups , it is exhibiting _____. A) an indirect form of discrimination B) equal employment opportunity C) affirmative action D) a direct form of discrimination E) a realistic job preview

1) When compared to flat organizations, tall organizations: A) foster fewer communication problems. B) foster more employee productivity. C) are more expensive. D) place excessive responsibilities on managers. E) are less bureaucratic.

1) When compared to tall organizations, flat organizations: A) are more expensive. B) place more supervisory responsibilities on managers. C) have more layers of managers. D) place minimal administrative responsibilities on managers. E) have lower levels of employee morale and productivity.

1) When followers react favorably because they identify in some way with a leader, the leader is said to possess _____ power. A) reward B) expert C) legitimate D) coercive E) referent

1) When human resource managers determine how much each worker in a particular wage grade will be paid, they are making a(n) _____ decision. A) wage-level B) wage-structure C) individual waged D) benefit-level E) overall-benefit

1) When leaders decide to either give salary increases to their employees or withhold any salary increases, which of the following types of power do they exercise? A) Coercive B) Reward C) Informal D) Expert E) Referent

1) When organizational change involves planned alteration of work sequence or work activities, the change primarily occurs in the area of _____. A) people B) technology and operations C) social responsibility D) strategy E) organizational structure and design

1) When the top management at Venus Corp. sought to change the organization design, form more work teams, and decrease the managers' span of management, it met with great resistance from the managers. This was because the managers feared that their power within the company would decrease. The managers' reaction to change was brought about by _____. A) facilitation B) participation C) threatened self-interests D) low self-confidence E) unfamiliarity with company procedures

1) Which of the following approaches to identifying a leader is a person using if he votes for a politician based on his communication skills, intelligence, appearance, and assertiveness? A) LPC theory B) Vroom's decision tree approach C) Path-goal theory D) Trait approach E) Fiedler's contingency theory

1) Which of the following can help make the business change process more effective? A) Limiting employee involvement in the process B) Refraining from creating a sense of urgency in the organization C) Starting the process with a new, clean slate D) Limiting communication channels E) Refraining from changing company strategies

1) Which of the following can help make the reengineering process more effective? A) Limiting communication B) Creating a sense of urgency in the organization C) Adopting a highly centralized organizational structure D) Refraining from making extensive changes E) Limiting employee involvement in the process

1) Which of the following concepts suggests that there must be a clear and unbroken line of authority that extends from the lowest to the highest position in the organization? A) The scalar principle B) Unity of command C) Entropy D) Synergy E) Decentralization

1) Which of the following factors would be included in Maslow's physiological needs category? A) Air B) Job stability C) Safety D) Recognition E) Self-image

1) Which of the following forces for change is present in the task environment of an organization? A) Prices at which suppliers sell raw materials B) The number of employees in the organization C) Political changes in the country in which the organization operates D) Overhead production costs of the organization E) Availability of resources in the organization

1) Which of the following is NOT a possible reward for a manager to use who wants to exercise effective reward power with his or her subordinates? A) A cash bonusB) A recommendation for promotion C) An interesting job task D) A salary increase E) A standard reward for everyone

1) Which of the following is a cause for the resistance to change that a worker might feel because the worker disagrees with the management that the change will be best for the organization in the long-run? A) Threatened self-interests B) Risk propensity C) Participation D) Different perceptions E) Feelings of loss

1) Which of the following is a characteristic of Weber's bureaucracy? A) Promotions based on technical expertise B) Absence of rules and regulations C) Arbitrary dismissals D) Random work assignment E) A high level of decentralization

1) Which of the following is a defining characteristic of strategic leaders? A) They possess interpersonal attraction that inspires support and acceptance. B) They understand the organization and recognize its superior alignment with the environment. C) They transmit a sense of mission, stimulate learning experiences, and inspire new ways of thinking. D) They understand international differences and diversity-based differences within one culture. E) They encourage others by supporting them, empathizing with them, and expressing confidence in them.

1) Which of the following is a determinant of an organization's competitive position in the context of the GE Business Screen? A) Government policies B) Market size C) Technological know-how D) Capital requirements E) Market growth

1) Which of the following is a disadvantage of functional departmentalization? A) Supervision becomes difficult as managers will need to have skills in several areas. B) Coordinating activities inside each department becomes difficult. C) Decision making may tend to become slower as the organization grows. D) Employees tend to focus on the overall organization rather than their specific jobs. E) Functional departmentalization cannot be implemented for smaller organizations.

1) Which of the following is a discussion process between a union and management that focuses on agreeing to a written contract that will cover all relevant aspects of their relationship? A) Job evaluation B) Collective bargaining C) The grievance procedure D) Certification E) Arbitration

1) Which of the following is a generic approach to leadership? A) The least-preferred coworker model B) The path-goal model C) Vroom's decision tree approach D) The Ohio state studies E) The leader-member exchange approach

1) Which of the following is a group based incentive reward system? A) Merit pay B) Gainsharing C) Piece-rate incentive plan D) Annual pay raise E) Sales commission

1) Which of the following is a possible diagnostic activity in organization development? A) Enterprise resource planning B) Attitude surveys C) Force-field analysis D) Job shadowing E) Reverse engineering

1) Which of the following is a prerequisite for effective leadership? A) Low tolerance toward diversity B) Belief in the dictatorship style of leadership C) High levels of coercive powers D) Belief in ethnocentrism E) High standards of ethical conduct

1) Which of the following is a process perspective on motivation? A) Maslow's need hierarchy B) McClelland's work on need for power C) McClelland's work on need for achievement D) Two-factor theory E) Equity theory

1) Which of the following is a situational leadership model? A) Trait approach B) Michigan studies C) Ohio State studies D) Leadership Grid E) Path-goal theory

1) Which of the following is a task characteristic that may neutralize or substitute for leadership? A) Collective hysteria B) Conformity C) Intrinsic satisfaction D) Bystander apathy E) Groupthink

1) Which of the following is an accurate comparison between tall organizations and flat organizations? A) Tall organizations foster employee morale better than flat organizations. B) Tall organizations have fewer managers than flat organizations. C) Tall organizations foster more communication problems than flat organizations. D) Tall organizations place excessive administrative responsibilities on managers than flat organizations. E) Tall organizations foster more productivity than flat organizations.

1) Which of the following is an advantage of Web-based training methods? A) They can be easily updated and revised. B) They facilitate interpersonal skills better than all other training methods. C) They perfectly simulate real activities. D) They effectively facilitate face-to-face interaction. E) They can be easily used in place of vestibule training methods.

1) Which of the following is an advantage of job specialization? A) It decreases transfer time between tasks. B) It increases the level of employee satisfaction. C) It eliminates monotony and boredom. D) It provides stimulation and challenges to employees. E) It significantly reduces employee turnover rates.

1) Which of the following is an effective individual strategy for managing diversity? A) Using micromanagement techniques for managing minority groups B) Limiting interpersonal communication C) Fostering tolerance D) Treating everyone the same without regard for their fundamental human differences E) Forming culturally and ethnically homogenous work teams

1) Which of the following is an effective way of overcoming resistance to change? A) Allowing employees to participate in the change process B) Fostering an environment of uncertainty in the organization C) Announcing the change only after it has been implemented D) Minimizing communication among employees E) Avoiding force-field analysis

1) Which of the following is an effective way of overcoming resistance to change? A) Using micromanagement techniques B) Using facilitation techniques C) Using deskilling techniques D) Limiting employee involvement in the change process E) Minimizing communication

1) Which of the following is an example of a direct form of discrimination? A) An organization intentionally seeking and hiring employees from groups that are underrepresented in the organization B) An organization refusing to promote employees belonging to an ethnic minority into management C) An organization hiring professionals based on their experience and skills D) An organization using employment tests that men pass at a higher rate than women E) An organization using realistic job previews to recruit employees

1) Which of the following is an example of a goal for change for an organization? A) Reacting to a forecast indicating new market potential B) Recognizing that poor employee morale was caused by dangerous working conditions C) Deciding to decrease employee turnover rates by 90 percent D) Introducing a new reward system for employees E) Arranging for training on interpersonal skills for managers

1) Which of the following is an example of a good leader in the context of business? A) A person who relies on force to lead people B) A person who disobeys authority C) A person who is a dictator D) A person who can influence others E) A person who is efficient and does not delegate his or her duties

1) Which of the following is an example of an objective measure of performance? A) Dollar volume of sales B) Interpersonal agreeability C) Ranking D) Ratings E) Commitment

1) Which of the following is an example of an organization's change in technology and operations? A) Enhanced job design B) Introduction of departmentalization C) Adoption of new information systems D) Introduction of a new compensation program E) Introduction of new employment policies

1) Which of the following is an organizational strength? A) High employee turnover B) High production costs C) Well-established distribution channels D) High purchasing power of customers E) New competitors

1) Which of the following is most closely associated with an overall cost leadership strategy? A) Manufacturing highly-customized products B) Manufacturing products in bulk C) Providing highly efficient customer service that is better than any other competitor D) Selling products at high prices E) Using expensive raw materials

1) Which of the following is one of the assumptions on which the theory and practice of organization development (OD) are based? A) Employees tend to perform well when micromanagement techniques are used. B) The total organization and the way it is designed influence the way individuals behave within the organization. C) All employees have a strong need to control and influence their colleagues and the organization's work processes. D) Employees naturally dislike their work and lack ambition. E) A successful corporate leader is one who adopts an autocratic style of leadership to control his subordinates.

1) Which of the following is one of the characteristics of Weber's bureaucracy? A) Distinct division of labor B) Close personal relationships between supervisors and subordinates C) Absence of rules and regulations D) Maximum level of decentralization E) Presence of cross-departmental teams

1) Which of the following is the first step in human resource planning? A) Assessing external and internal trends B) Predicting demand C) Forecasting supply D) Comparing future demand and internal supply E) Planning a response to predicted shortfalls or overstaffing

1) Which of the following is the most probable motive for a manager to engage in political behavior? A) To avoid covert activities B) To acquire power C) To promote clear communication D) To promote transparency E) To avoid charges of political motivation

1) Which of the following is true about individual incentive plans? A) They are focused to recognize efforts rather than individual performances. B) They are used to provide individual performances with non monetary rewards. C) They are most likely to be used when performance can be subjectively assessed. D) They are focused at increasing a person's base salary at the end of every year. E) They are used to reward individual performance on a real-time basis.

1) Which of the following is true of business process changes? A) Business process change should not be carried out during a phase of entropy. B) Business process change requires a careful blend of top-down and bottom-up involvement. C) Centralization must be adopted by the top management for the business process change to be successful. D) Employee participation should be minimal during a business process change. E) Successful business process change is not accompanied by a sense of urgency.

1) Which of the following leadership models is a direct extension of the expectancy theory of motivation? A) Vroom's decision tree approach B) Fiedler's contingency C) Vertical-dyad linkage D) Path-goal E) Substitutes for leadership

1) Which of the following motivational theories is based on the idea that employees compare the treatment they receive relative to others' treatment in order to determine if they are being treated fairly? A) Expectancy theory B) Reinforcement theory C) Equity theory D) Hierarchy of needs theory E) Two-factor theory

1) Which of the following perspectives on motivation concerns "what" motivates people rather than "how" they are motivated? A) Reinforcement B) Process C) Content D) Equity E) Expectancy

1) Which of the following programs applies the concepts of reinforcement theory? A) Modified workweek B) Work redesign C) Organizational behavior modification D) Attribution theory E) Two-factor theory

1) Which of the following questions that companies consider is most closely related to the resource deployment component of a strategy? A) How much money should we invest in our business units overseas? B) What are the markets in which we can compete? C) What are the preferences of our customers? D) Who are our competitors? E) How can we make our products more unique in a way that they stand out?

1) Which of the following reinforcement methods can be used to weaken behaviors? A) Recognition B) Avoidance C) Extinction D) Participation E) Pay raises

1) Which of the following reinforcement schedules offers a worker the least incentive to do good work? A) Fixed-interval B) Fixed-ratio C) Variable-interval D) Variable-ratio E) Continuous

1) Which of the following represents organization change in the area of change in technology and operations? A) Changing line and staff relationships B) Upgrading the management information system C) Training people to give them new skills and abilities D) Redesigning jobs E) Changing the authority distribution in a company

1) Which of the following statements is true about a tactical plan? A) It is an organized sequence of steps designed to execute strategic plans. B) It is exclusively developed by the board of directors. C) It is more broad and nonspecific when compared to a strategic plan. D) It is developed independently of the external business environment. E) It does not specify time frames and resources.

1) Which of the following statements is true about an organic organization? A) It has a flexible and informal organizational design. B) It is most likely to be operating in a very stable and predictable environment. C) It has a structure that is similar to a bureaucracy. D) It is most likely to have centralized authority. E) It has higher levels of job specialization than a mechanistic organization.

1) Which of the following statements is true about organic organizations? A) They are similar to bureaucracies. B) They are formal and rigid. C) They have centralized authority. D) They operate in unstable environments. E) They have an inflexible organizational design.

1) Which of the following statements is true about tactical goals? A) Their focus is on how to operationalize actions necessary to achieve strategic goals. B) Their focus is on broad and long-term issues such as increasing the profitability of the organization over a period of time. C) They are set for and by top managers. D) They are set for and by the board of directors. E) They are broad and nonspecific.

1) Which of the following statements is true about the differentiation strategy? A) It enables a firm to sell products at lower prices and still make profits. B) It enables a firm to charge more for its products. C) It is aimed at reducing production costs by using inexpensive raw materials. D) It involves making simple, low-priced products for the mass market. E) It cannot be used by companies that only offer services.

1) Which of the following statements is true in the context of diversity in an organization? A) Organizations with a diverse workforce are also better able to understand different market segments than are less diverse organizations. B) Organizations with diverse workforces are generally less creative and innovative than other organizations. C) Organizations that place emphasis on diversity tend to have fewer conflicts and communication problems than other organizations. D) Organizations that place emphasis on diversity have fewer training requirements than organizations with non-diverse workforces. E) Organizations with diverse workforces generally have lower levels of productivity than other organizations.

1) Which of the following statements is true in the context of effectively managing diverse workforces? A) Tolerance is not required to effectively function in a diverse workforce. B) A diverse workforce can be managed effectively by not acknowledging the differences among people. C) Organizations can more effectively manage diversity by following practices and procedures that are based on flexibility. D) Any effort to treat everyone the same, without regard for their fundamental human differences, will reduce problems. E) Limiting communication among different ethnic groups is an effective way of handling conflicts in a diverse organization.

1) Which of the following statements is true of political behavior? A) Political behavior is always a manifestation of good intent. B) Managers should cover up disagreements so that subordinates will have less opportunity for political behavior. C) Even if a manager's actions are not politically motivated, others may assume that they are. D) By providing subordinates with autonomy, managers are likely to promote political behavior. E) Managers should use power if they want to avoid charges of political motivation.

1) Which of the following strategies can help companies during the maturity stage of a product life cycle? A) Manufacturing products in small quantities intermittently than in bulk B) Drastically increasing product prices C) Focusing on keeping costs low D) Sacrificing the quality of products E) Focusing more on strategies to slow the entry of competitors

1) Which of the following strategies can help companies survive during the decline stage of the product life cycle? A) Increasing production costs B) Manufacturing the products frequently and in smaller quantities C) Avoiding differentiation strategies D) Developing new products or services E) Focusing on strategies to slow the entry of competitors

1) Which of the following strategies will help companies succeed during the growth stage of a product cycle? A) Increasing overhead costs B) Focusing on developing new products or services C) Sacrificing product quality D) Focusing on creating product differentiation E) Increasing product prices significantly

1) Which of the following will be considered as an organizational strength in the context of SWOT analysis? A) Organizational opportunities B) New competitors C) Surplus capital D) High overhead costs E) New government policies

1) Which of the following will help a company achieve an overall cost leadership? A) Manufacturing customized products in small quantities B) Increasing after-purchase services C) Using simple inexpensive product packaging D) Selling products at very high prices E) Increasing overhead costs

1) Which of the following would require continually adding new tasks and challenges as part of the job design? A) Job enlargement B) Job specialization C) Job rotation D) Job enrichment E) Job deskilling

1) While matching human resource supply and demand, managers can handle predicted shortfalls by _____. A) avoiding the employment of new employees B) convincing individuals who are approaching retirement to stay on C) not replacing people who have quit D) laying off employees E) reducing the benefits provided to employees

1) Why has the importance of cross-cultural leadership increased in today's times? A) Because of improving profit margins B) Because of office politics C) Because of increasing unethical practices D) Because of the increasing environmental concerns E) Because of the improving diversity ratios in workplaces

1) Windmere allows its administrative employees to arrive any time between 7:00 a.m. and 9:00 a.m., and to leave any time between 4:00 p.m. and 6:00 p.m., as long as they work an eight-hour day. This arrangement is known as _____. A) empowerment B) compressed work schedule C) a nine-eighty schedule D) flextime E) traditional schedule

1) Work schedules that allow employees to select, within broad parameters, the hours they work is called _____. A) job sharing B) flextime C) nine-eighty schedule D) compressed work schedule E) traditional work schedule

1) Workers at Windlock Works Inc. were instructed by their supervisor to increase productivity to 350 percent in the next three months. The workers are most likely to be challenged by goal _____. A) specificity B) acceptance C) conformity D) congruity E) difficulty

1) Working a full forty-hour week in fewer than the traditional five days is called as _____. A) job sharing B) flexitime C) nine-eighty schedule D) compressed work schedule E) flexible work schedule

1) You are reading a document that says that a job applicant must have good writing skills, be a citizen of the United States, and have a degree in management. You are reading a(n) _____. A) article of incorporation B) job analysis C) job description D) replacement chart E) job specification

1) Zen Electricals Inc. has internal experts who help executives learn about how others see them and improve their performance in the future. The company is using the organization development technique called _____. A) technostructural activities B) process consultation C) team building D) coaching and counseling E) third-party peacemaking

1) Zing Inc. is a large fashion brand that manufactures clothing and shoes. The top managers of Zing have decided to use the profits from its clothing outlets to invest in the shoes business. This scenario illustrates the _____ component of a strategy. A) resource deployment B) scope C) distinctive competence D) process loss E) divestiture

1) ____ is a counterproductive side affect of using punishment as a reinforcement method. A) Commitment B) Motivation C) Resentment D) Participation E) Empowerment

1) ____ is the ability to affect the behavior of others. A) Power B) Discipline C) Function D) Potential E) Virtue

1) _____ also contains the National Emergency Strike provision, which allows the president of the United States to prevent or end a strike that endangers national security. A) The Civil Rights Act of 1991 B) Title IV of the Sarbanes Oxley Act C) The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 D) The Taft-Hartley Act E) The Kennedy-Hawkins Act

1) _____ are aimed at analyzing the current condition of an organization; this approach involves using questionnaires, opinion surveys, interviews, archival data, and meetings to assess the various characteristics of the organization. A) Life and career planning activities B) Technostructural activities C) Third-party peacemaking activities D) Diagnostic activities E) Process consultation activities

1) _____ are changes in the way products or services are manufactured, created, or distributed. A) Process innovations B) Operational innovations C) Radical innovations D) Mechanical innovations E) Managerial innovations

1) _____ are consequences of behaviors in an organizational setting, usually rewards. A) Performance B) Valences C) Outcomes D) Need deficiencies E) Commitments

1) _____ are new products, services, or technologies developed by an organization that completely replace the existing products, services, or technologies in an industry. A) Process innovations B) Incremental innovations C) Radical innovations D) Mechanical innovations E) Managerial innovations

1) _____ are usually set up through a procedure called job evaluation-an attempt to assess the worth of each job relative to other jobs. A) Wage-level policies B) Wage structures C) Individual wage policies D) Wage level decisions E) Individual-benefit structures

1) _____ argues that behavior that results in rewarding consequences is likely to be repeated, whereas behavior that results in punishing consequences is less likely to be repeated A) Equity theory B) Reinforcement theory C) Two-factor theory D) Maslow's hierarchy E) Expectancy theory

1) _____ attempts to increase both the number of tasks a worker does and the control the worker has over the job. A) Job deskilling B) Job enrichment C) Job specialization D) Job rotation E) Job entropy

1) _____ behavior, identified by the path-goal theory, primarily involves being friendly and approachable, showing concern for subordinate welfare, and treating members as equals. A) Directive leader B) Task-oriented leader C) Achievement-oriented leader D) Participative leader E) Supportive leader

1) _____ departmentalization groups together those jobs involving the same or similar activities. A) Product B) Functional C) Location D) Customer E) Sequential

1) _____ describes activities carried out for the specific purpose of acquiring, developing, and using power and other resources to obtain one's preferred outcomes. A) Group cognition B) Workplace diversity C) Organizational culture D) Political behavior E) Collective intelligence

1) _____ describes the number of different businesses that an organization is engaged in and the extent to which these businesses are related to one another. A) Entropy B) Diversification C) Divestiture D) Competency E) Economy of scale

1) _____ encompasses the conversion processes used to transform inputs (such as materials or information) into outputs (such as products or services). A) Deskilling B) Entropy C) Synergy D) Technology E) Divestiture

1) _____ exists when activities flow both ways between units. A) Sequential interdependence B) Pooled interdependence C) Structural interdependence D) Reciprocal interdependence E) Total interdependence

1) _____ focuses on why people choose certain behavioral options to satisfy their needs and how they evaluate their satisfaction after they have attained those goals. A) Maslow's hierarchy B) Two-factor theory C) Expectancy theory D) Reinforcement theory E) Variable work schedule

1) _____ include things like a deep pool of managerial talent, surplus capital, a unique reputation and/or brand name. A) Market opportunities B) Organizational opportunities C) Market strengths D) Environmental strengths E) Organizational strengths

1) _____ involves systematically moving employees from one job to another. A) Job enlargement B) Job rotation C) Job deskilling D) Job specialization E) Job enrichment

1) _____ is a common platform for changing business processes. A) Enterprise resource planning B) Entropy C) Reverse engineering D) Contingency planning E) Synergy

1) _____ is a formal assessment of how well employees are doing their jobs. A) Job specialization B) Job analysis C) Performance appraisal D) Employment branding E) Validation

1) _____ is a group based incentive reward system where the distribution of gains is tilted heavily toward the employees. A) Merit pay B) Gainsharing C) Piece-rate incentive plan D) Scanlon plan E) Sales commission

1) _____ is a period of stability in an organizational lifecycle, eventually evolving into decline. A) Maturity B) Birth C) Youth D) Midlife E) Synergy

1) _____ is a piecemeal response to circumstances as they develop. A) Planned change B) Programmed change C) Premeditated change D) Natural change E) Reactive change

1) _____ is a reward system wherein an organization pays an employee a certain amount of money for every unit he or she produces. A) Scanlon plan B) Piece-rate incentive plan C) Incentive pay D) Merit pay plan E) Gainsharing

1) _____ is a systematized procedure for collecting and recording information about jobs within an organization. A) Job analysis B) Job evaluation C) Job specialization D) Job enrichment E) Job enlargement

1) _____ is a theory of leadership which suggests that the primary functions of a leader are to make valued or desired rewards available in the workplace and to clarify for the subordinate the kinds of behavior that will lead to those rewards. A) Path-goal theory B) Leadership trait approach C) Least-preferred coworker theory D) Strategic leadership approach E) Leader-member exchange theory

1) _____ is a way of approaching business opportunities and challenges. A) Supply-chain management ) Value migration C) Self-dealing D) Strategic management E) Greenwashing

1) _____ is an effective method to use for training employees about ethical dilemmas and ethical decision making. A) Job specialization B) Case discussion groups C) On-the-job training D) The lecture method E) Programmed instruction

1) _____ is an example of an external force that affects an organization. A) Employee motivation B) Production costs C) New government regulations D) Surplus capital E) High employee turnover

1) _____ is an intangible determinant of individual performance. A) Motivation B) Management C) Attribution D) Personality E) Contribution

1) _____ is an organization development (OD) technique that helps employees formulate their personal goals and evaluate strategies for integrating their goals with the goals of the organization. A) Process consultation B) Third-party peacemaking C) Team building D) Life and career planning E) Counseling

1) _____ is change that is designed and implemented in an orderly and timely fashion in anticipation of future events. A) Planned change B) Reactive change C) Involuntary change D) Organic change E) Crisis change

1) _____ is defined as a clear and distinct line of authority among the positions in an organization. A) Chain of command B) Span of management C) Job deskilling D) Flat structure E) Synergy

1) _____ is defined as determining the extent to which a selection device is really predictive of future job performance. A) Realistic job preview B) Internal recruitment C) Job evaluation D) Validation E) Job analysis

1) _____ is defined as intentionally seeking and hiring qualified or qualifiable employees from racial, sexual, and ethnic groups that are underrepresented in an organization. A) Affirmative action B) Direct form of discrimination C) Indirect form of discrimination D) Adverse impact E) Validation

1) _____ is defined as the process of linking the activities of the various departments of an organization. A) Centralization B) Specialization C) Decentralization D) Coordination E) Delegation

1) _____ is defined as the set of forces that cause people to behave in certain ways. A) Motivation B) Management C) Attribution D) Personality E) Contribution

1) _____ is necessary to create change, while management is necessary to achieve orderly results. A) Dominion B) Leadership C) Legitimacy D) Administration E) Control

1) _____ is one of the three specific ways for promoting innovation in organizations. A) Organization culture B) Organization development C) Enterprise resource planning D) Force-field analysis E) Division of labor

1) _____ is power that has been legitimized by the organization. A) Entropy B) Process gain C) Synergy D) Authority E) Process loss

1) _____ is the conversion process used by an organization to transform inputs into outputs. A) Reengineering B) Divestment C) Technology D) Entropy E) Process gain

1) _____ is the degree to which the overall task of the organization is broken down and divided into smaller component parts. A) Job specialization B) Job enrichment C) Job rotation D) Job enlargement E) Task identity

1) _____ is the degree to which the various subunits must work together in a coordinated fashion. A) Integration B) Differentiation C) Departmentalization D) Specialization E) Entropy

1) _____ is the financial remuneration given by an organization to its employees in exchange for their work. A) Progression B) Compensation C) Validation D) An intangible benefit E) Insurance

1) _____ is the last step in the change process. A) Diagnosis of relevant variables B) Actual implementation C) Evaluation and follow-up D) Recognition of the need for change E) Establishment of goals for the change

1) _____ is the managed effort of an organization to develop new products or services or new uses for existing products or services A) Divestiture B) Innovation C) Reverse engineering D) Job deskilling E) Contingency management

1) _____ is the part of the Managerial Grid that deals with the job and task aspects of leader behavior. A) Employee-centered leader behavior B) Initiating structure C) Task-oriented leadership behavior D) Concern for people E) Concern for production

1) _____ is the process by which a manager assigns a portion of his or her total workload to others. A) Micromanagement B) Delegation C) Entropy D) Synergy E) Centralization

1) _____ is the process of dealing with employees who are represented by a union. A) Labor relations B) Public relations C) Human relations D) Operational management E) Assembly-line management

1) _____ is the process of enabling workers to set their own work goals, make decisions, and solve problems within their sphere of responsibility and authority. A) Participation B) Empowerment C) Commitment D) Reinforcement E) Enrichment

1) _____ is the process of giving employees a voice in making decisions about their own work. A) Participation B) Empowerment C) Commitment D) Reinforcement E) Enrichment

1) _____ is the process of grouping jobs according to some logical arrangement. A) Job rotation B) Job enrichment C) Departmentalization D) Centralization E) Industrialization

1) _____ is the process of systematically delegating power and authority throughout the organization to middle- and lower-level managers. A) Deskilling B) Decentralization C) Self-dealing D) Divesting E) Specialization

1) _____ is the process of systematically retaining power and authority in the hands of higher-level managers. A) Specialization B) Delegation C) Centralization D) Self-dealing E) Deskilling

1) _____ is the set of strategic alternatives that helps an organization focus its competitive efforts for each industry or market in a targeted and focused manner. A) Anti-competitive strategy B) Divestiture strategy C) Corporate-level strategy D) Business-level strategy E) Operational-level strategy

1) _____ is the stage of the innovation process at which an organization introduces new products or services to the marketplace. A) Innovation development B) Application launch C) Innovation application D) Application growth E) Innovation maturity

1) _____ is the style of leadership that goes beyond ordinary expectations by transmitting a sense of mission, stimulating learning experiences, and inspiring new ways of thinking. A) Directive leadership B) Participative leadership C) Transformational leadership D) Supportive leadership E) Task-oriented leadership

1) _____ is used by managers to weaken undesired behaviors by creating unpleasant consequences. A) Recognition B) Extinction C) Avoidance D) Punishment E) Incentive

1) _____ is used when employees must learn a physical skill, and this method also enables participants to focus on safety, learning, and feedback rather than on productivity. A) Job rotation B) The lecture method C) Case discussion groups D) Vestibule training E) Assigned reading

1) _____ leader behavior, identified by the path-goal theory, primarily involves setting challenging goals, expecting subordinates to perform at high levels, encouraging subordinates, and showing confidence in subordinates' abilities. A) Relationship-oriented B) Achievement-oriented C) Directive D) Participative E) Supportive

1) _____ needs are at the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. A) Security B) Self-actualization C) Physiological D) Esteem E) Belongingness

1) _____ needs in Maslow's hierarchy involve realizing one's potential for continued growth and individual development. A) Esteem B) Social C) Self-actualization D) Security E) Physiological

1) _____ planning refers to the determination of alternative courses of action to be taken if an intended plan is unexpectedly disrupted or rendered inappropriate. A) Divestiture B) Deskilling C) Synergy D) Contingency E) Entropy

1) _____ plans have a short-term focus and are relatively narrow in scope. A) Corporate B) Tactical C) Operational D) Contingency E) Strategic

1) _____ power is power granted through the organizational hierarchy. A) Expert B) Referent C) Coercive D) Reward E) Legitimate

1) _____ refers to pay awarded to employees on the basis of the relative value of their contributions to the organization, which is a performance-based reward arrangement for individuals. A) Scanlon plan B) Piece-rate incentives C) Incentive pay D) Merit pay E) Gainsharing

1) _____ refers to teaching managers and professionals the skills needed for both present and future jobs. A) Development B) Deskilling C) Validation D) Job evaluation E) Performance appraisal

1) _____ refers to the methods by which strategies are operationalized or executed within the organization; it focuses on the processes through which strategies are achieved. A) Strategy implementation B) Strategy mapping C) Strategy formulation D) Strategy visualization E) Strategy conceptualization

1) _____ reflects an organization's investment in attracting, retaining, and motivating an effective workforce. A) Financial capital B) Human capital C) Surplus capital D) Enterprise capital E) Production capital

1) _____ represents an important method that managers can use to enhance employee motivation. A) Punishment B) Extinction C) Absenteeism D) Turnover E) Empowerment

1) _____ represents the lowest level of interdependence. A) Pooled interdependence B) Reciprocal interdependence C) Sequential interdependence D) Synergetic interdependence E) Structural interdependence

1) _____ strategy is the set of strategic alternatives from which an organization chooses as it manages its operations simultaneously across several industries and several markets. A) Corporate-level B) Business-level C) Operational-level D) Divestiture E) Anti-competitive

1) _____ strategy is the set of strategic alternatives from which an organization chooses as it operates in a particular industry or market. A) Business-level B) Corporate-level C) Operational-level D) Divestiture E) Anti-competitive

1) _____ suggests that each person within an organization must have a clear reporting relationship to one and only one boss. A) Span of management B) Entropy C) Flat hierarchy D) Unity of command E) Scalar principle

1) _____ was developed to increase the total number of tasks workers perform. As a result, all workers perform a wide variety of tasks, which presumably reduces the level of job dissatisfaction. A) Job enlargement B) Job rotation C) Job enrichment D) Job specialization E) Job deskilling

1) _____, sometimes called indirect compensation, are things of value other than compensation that an organization provides to its workers. A) Appraisals B) Ratings C) Rankings D) Benefits E) Scrap rates

1) _____forbids discrimination on the basis of sex, race, color, religion, or national origin in all areas of the employment relationship. A) The Citizen Rights Act of 1957 B) Title IV of the Sarbanes Oxley Act C) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 D) Section 1107 of the Sarbanes Oxley Act E) Section 401 of the Public Company Accounting Reform and Investor Protection Act

1) _____is an ideal method for training employees in group decision making. A) Vestibule training B) Programmed learning C) Role-playing D) Assigned reading E) The lecture method

1) essica is required to follow a forty-hour work schedule from 9:00 in the morning and ends at 5:00 each day, every week. However, she has the freedom to take a day off by working two extra hours each day. This reflects a _____. A) variable work schedule B) flexible work schedule C) telecommuting arrangement D) job sharing arrangement E) traditional work schedule

1. A _____ layout is appropriate when large quantities of a single product are needed. a. process b. cellular c. fixed-point d. product e. distributed

1. A company buys electronic components, assembles them into PCs, and then ships them to customers. In this case the electronic components are _____ for the company. A) Outputs B) products C) processes D) inputs E) services

1. A convenience store at the gas station provides utility for customers because it makes it easy for them to purchase a few essentials when they stop for gasoline. The convenience store belongs to the _____ industry. a. service b. manufacturing c. automotive d. importing e. electronics

1. A factory produces 100,000 units of its product with 10 hours of direct labor. Which of the following accurately represents the factory's labor productivity index? A) 1,000 B) 10 C) 10,000 D) 100 E) 1,000,000

1. A highest-possible-quality strategy will stress on _____. a. the lowest possible cost regardless of quality b. quality regardless of cost c. low quality at low cost d. large quantities at low cost e. productivity regardless of quality

1. A(n) _____ is any artificial device that is able to perform functions ordinarily thought to be appropriate for human beings. A) transformer B) expert system C) resistor D) robot E) just-in-time inventory system

1. A(n) _____ organization is one that transforms resources into an intangible output and creates time and place utility for its customers. a. manufacturing b. production c. service d. coal e. agricultural

1. An organization that transforms resources into an intangible output in order to create time or place utility for its customers is known as _____ company. a. an outsourcing b. a service c. a manufacturing d. the International Organization for Standardization 9000 e. total quality management

1. At a stereo making factory, the employees stationed along the assembly line are required to wear ring scanners, small electronic devices worn on their index fingers and wired to a small computer on their wrists. As a product moves along the assembly line and is handled by the stationed employee, its location or progress is updated on the company's database system. This way the management knows if there are any bottlenecks. This method of improving operations allows the company to: A) improve its productivity. B) decrease fixed cost. C) decrease its dependence on its Web site. D) increase customer affective responses. E) manage quality.

1. Azures Airlines operates between Washington Dulles, Newark Liberty, and Paris Charles de Gaulle airports. It offers all business-class services. The customers feel that the prices of Azures' flights are considerably lower than those of other similar airlines. This quality of Azures is an example of: A) features. B) aesthetics. C) reliability. D) perceived quality. E) serviceability.

1. Bingo Inc. sends its consultants for change management to various companies to learn how those companies have coped with changes in the past. Which of the following tools or techniques is Bingo using for improving quality? A) Benchmarking B) Value-added analysis C) Outsourcing D) Reducing cycle times E) Statistical quality control

1. Carrington is one of the best restaurants in Chicago. Carrington's chefs have made arrangements with local farmers to provide them with fresh and good quality vegetables and fruits. In the context of total quality management, the chefs are focusing on _____. A) employee involvement B) strategic commitment C) technology D) materials E) methods

1. Dina works in a residential construction company. She travels to the job site to build a house. The residential construction company is an example of a _____ layout. a. product b. cellular c. random d. fixed-position e. process

1. Dorothy loves buying Haven's herb bread. As advertised, she thinks it is the most versatile bread as well as being nutritious. It can be eaten by itself, made into sandwiches, added to salads, and so on. The versatility of the herb bread is a supplement to its nutrition and therefore it constitutes the _____ dimension of quality. A) features B) aesthetics C) reliability D) durability E) serviceability

1. During the 1970s in the United States, manufacturing entered a long period of decline. Which of the following is the primary reason for this decline? a. Modernization of plants b. Rise in unemployment c. Growth in the service sector d. Foreign competition e. E) Recession

1. During the decline of the manufacturing sector, a tremendous growth in the _____ sector kept the U.S. economy from declining at the same rate. a. coal b. service c. agriculture d. steel electronics

1. Eagle Inc. makes golf clubs. Each set has up to 12 clubs and each club in the set is slightly different from the other. Which of the following types of layout does Eagle's manufacturing plant have? a. Product layout b. Cellular layout c. Fixed-position layout d. Random layout e. Process layout

1. EduCool is a web-based student information system. It allows parents to follow their child's performance online. It includes grades, attendance, assignments, and student data on a daily basis. EduCool is an example of: a. advancement in service technology. b. advancement in manufacturing technology. c. computer-aided manufacturing. d. computer aided design. e. computer-assisted technology.

1. Fast food restaurants that assemble breads, spreads, and fillings as per the customers' preference belong to the _____ industry. a. service b. manufacturing c. automotive d. importing e. exporting

1. Globe-Mart, a large chain of department stores, strategically places distribution centers throughout the United States. In this context, Globe-Mart has made a _____ decision. a. product layout b. facilities location c. capacity d. product-service mix e. process layout

1. If the product is a physical good, operations create value and provide _____ utility by combining many dissimilar inputs to make something that is more valuable than the actual cost of the inputs used to create it. a. time b. form c. place d. service e. statistical

1. Implementing _____ requires making corrections until errors virtually disappear. A) ISO 14000 B) ISO 9000:2000 C) Six Sigma D) value-added analysis E) statistical quality control

1. In a toy manufacturing factory, the employees are stationed along the assembly line. As a toy moves along the assembly line, each employee stationed there adds a particular part to the toy. The toy factory has a _____ layout. a. process b. cellular c. fixed-point d. product e. distributed

1. In automation, _____ are the parts of the system that gather information and compare it to preset standards. a. feedback systems b. sensors c. robots d. mechanical arms e. control mechanisms

1. In automation, _____ is the flow of information from the machine back to the sensor. a. feedback b. agrimation c. input instruction d. design e. control mechanism

1. In automation, which of the following sends instructions to the automatic machine? a. Feedback b. Sensors c. Agrimation d. Steering system e. Control mechanism

1. In the United States, which of the following steps did the manufacturing companies take to recover from the long period of decline? a. They increased their workforces dramatically. b. They opened more plants. c. They changed their market. d. They modernized their plants. e. They changed their sector.

1. Just-in-time method helps an organization control its _____. A) raw materials inventory B) work-in-process inventory C) quality D) finished goods inventory E) in-transit inventory

1. Katina has hurt her hand. She goes to the emergency room. The doctor thinks Katina has a broken wrist, and sends her for an X-ray. In this example, which type of layout does the hospital have? a. Product layout b. Cellular layout c. Random layout d. Fixed-position layout e. Process layout

1. Operations management was once called _____. a. service management b. process management c. waste management d. production management e. output management

1. Performance is the dimension of quality that refers to: A) a product's primary operating characteristic. B) the degree to which a product's design and operating characteristics meet established standards. C) a probability of not malfunctioning during a specified period. D) a measure of product life. E) the speed and ease of repair.

1. Sarah followed an online recipe and made pizza for her family. It turned out so badly that she had to discard it. Sarah and her family said that the pizza tasted like cardboard. Which dimension of quality were they describing? A) Aesthetics B) Conformance C) Reliability D) Serviceability E) Performance

1. Serviceability is the dimension of quality that refers to: A) how a product looks, feels, tastes, and smells. B) the degree to which a product's design and operating characteristics meet established standards. C) a probability of not malfunctioning during a specified period. D) a measure of product life. E) the speed and ease of repair.

1. The _____ layout is used when the organization is creating a few very large and complex products. a. product b. cellular c. fixed-position d. process e. distributed

1. The _____ layout is used when the organization is creating a few very large and complex products. A) product B) cellular C) fixed-position D) process E) distributed

1. The dimension of quality of a product that refers to a probability of not malfunctioning during a specified period is the product's: A) features. B) conformance. C) reliability. D) durability. E) serviceability.

1. The dimension of quality that refers to the degree to which a product's design and operating characteristics meet established standards is: A) features. B) conformance. C) reliability. D) durability. serviceability

1. The purpose of an in-transit inventory is to: A) provide the materials needed to make the product. B) enable overall production to be divided into stages of manageable size. C) reduce the organization's investment on storage space. D) provide ready supply of products on customer demand and enable long, efficient production runs. E) distribute products to customers.

1. The total set of managerial activities an organization uses to transform resource inputs into products and services is called _____. a. technology management b. strategic management c. project management d. operations management e. self-management

1. Upsilon Inc. manufactures leather handbags. It later adds leather accessories, shoes, and clothing to its production line. With this step, Upsilon is taking a _____ decision. a. layout b. promotion-distribution c. capacity d. product-service mix e. facility

1. Virtually all successful quality-enhancement programs involve making the person responsible for doing the job responsible for making sure it is done right. This critical ingredient in total quality management refers to: A) employee involvement. B) strategic commitment. C) technology. D) materials. E) methods.

1. Which of the following TQM guidelines for reducing cycle time is most appropriate in a decentralized organization? A) Start from scratch B) Minimize the number of approvals needed to do something C) Develop and adhere to a schedule D) Do not ignore distribution E) Integrate speed into the organization's culture

1. Which of the following dimensions of quality refers to a measure of product life? A) Reliability B) Durability C) Serviceability D) Features Perceived quality

1. Which of the following guidelines for increasing speed is followed in a bureaucratic organization? A) Start from scratch B) Minimize the number of approvals needed to do something C) Develop and adhere to a schedule D) Do not ignore distribution E) Integrate speed into the organization's culture

1. Which of the following inventory types provides ready supply of products on customer demand and enables long, efficient production runs? A) Raw materials inventory B) Work-in-process inventory C) Procurements inventory D) Finished goods inventory In-transit inventory

1. Which of the following inventory types provides the components needed to make the product? A) Raw materials B) Work-in-process C) Merchandise D) Finished goods E) In-transit

1. Which of the following is a part of an organization's external environment? a. Board of directors b. Physical work environment c. Inflation d. Organization's culture e. Employees

1. Which of the following is a source of control for in-transit inventory? A) Shop floor control systems B) High-level production scheduling systems C) Marketing D) Distribution control systems E) Purchasing models and systems

1. Which of the following is an example of statistical quality control? A) Benchmarking B) Six Sigma C) In-process sampling D) ISO 9000:2000 E) Outsourcing

1. Which of the following is concerned with buying the materials and resources needed to produce products and services? A) Automation B) Purchasing management C) Inventory Management D) Materials control E) Quality control

1. Which of the following is the process of learning how other firms do things in an exceptionally high-quality manner? A) Value-added analysis B) Benchmarking C) Outsourcing D) Reducing cycle times E) Statistical quality control

1. Which of the following is true of ISO 9000:2000? A) Firms get to choose the organization they want to be audited by for the certification. B) It includes 2000 standards that should be met. C) These standards do not cover employee training and supplier relations. D) Firms that want to meet these standards need to apply for certification. E) The auditors review only the firm products in relation to the standards.

1. Which of the following is true of automation? a. The development of automation has created jobs across all industries. b. Automated machines make more errors. c. Automation discourages innovation. d. Automation helps to improve products and services. e. Automation was the earliest step in the development of machines and machine-controlling devices.

1. Which of the following is true of computer-integrated manufacturing (CIM)? a. It is a simple tool. b. It is very different from computer-aided manufacturing. c. In CIM, adjustment of machine placements and settings is manual. d. It is a powerful management control tool. e. It is a form of service technology.

1. Which of the following is true of the Malcolm Baldrige Award? A) It is awarded by the Rochester Institute of Technology. B) It is awarded to firms that achieve major improvements in the quality of their products or services. C) It is awarded to the company that has consistently maintained the same quality for 5 continuous years. D) It is awarded to the company that has shown the highest company productivity. E) It is awarded not to entire organizations but to individual teams of workers within organizations.

1. Which of the following levels of productivity represents the total level of productivity achieved by a country? A) Company B) Partial C) Partial D) Individual E) Aggregate

1. Which of the following questions is addressed by product-service mix decisions? a. How the services need to be provided? b. How many different products need to be offered? c. What quantity of a product needs to be produced? d. Where the products need to be distributed? e. How products need to be produced?

1. Which of the following statements about manufacturing technology is true? A) Computer-assisted manufacturing generates resistance. B) Computer-aided design systems are always reliable. C) Computer-integrated manufacturing systems are inexpensive. D) Computer-aided design systems are very simple. E) Computer-assisted manufacturing is the same as automation.

1. Which of the following uses robot harvesters to pick fruit from a variety of trees? A) Agrimation B) Flexible manufacturing systems C) Supply chain management D) Computer--assisted manufacturing E) Benchmarking

1. _____ include robotic work units or workstations, assembly lines, and robotic carts or some other form of computer-controlled transport system to move material as needed from one part of the system to another. A) Agrimations B) Flexible manufacturing systems C) Call-center systems D) Computer-aided design technologies E) Expert systems

1. _____ is a form of business that combines and transforms resources into tangible outcomes that are then sold to others. a. Service b. Manufacturing c. Outsourcing d. Licensing e. Exporting

1. _____ is also called procurement. A) Automation B) Purchasing management C) Inventory Management D) Materials control E) Quality control

1. _____ is the comprehensive evaluation of all work activities, materials flows, and paperwork to determine the worth and appeal that they add for customers. A) Acceptance sampling B) Benchmarking C) In-process sampling D) Six Sigma E) Value-added analysis

1. _____ is the process of managing operations control, resource acquisition and purchasing, and inventory to improve overall efficiency and effectiveness. A) Supply-chain management B) Technology management C) Design management D) Quality control E) Productivity control

1. _____ is the time needed by the organization to develop, make, and distribute products or services. A) In-process time B) Six Sigma time C) Process layout time D) Cycle time E) Just-in-time

1. _____ is the time needed by the organization to develop, make, and distribute products or services. A) In-process time B) Six Sigma time C) Process layout time D) Cycle time Just-in-time

1. _____ is the totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs. A) Inventory B) Process C) Quality D) Quantity E) Technology

1. _____ layouts are used in operations settings that create or process a variety of products. a. Product b. Cellular c. Random d. Fixed-position e. Process

1. _____ layouts are used when families of products can follow similar flow paths. a. Product b. Cellular c. Random d. Fixed-position e. Process

10) First-line managers: A) are primarily responsible for implementing the policies and plans developed by top managers. B) make decisions about activities such as acquiring other companies. C) officially represent their organization to the external environment. D) create organizational goals. E) handle administrative duties.

10. Eastlawn Pharmacy is a local drugstore that has been serving the neighborhood for over 25 years. Recently, a national pharmacy chain opened one of its stores two blocks from Eastlawn. Eastlawn is experiencing a change in its a.task environment. b.internal environment. c.physical work environment. d.government regulations. e.organizational culture.

11) Which of the following statements is true about first-line managers? A) They are primarily responsible for implementing policies made by top managers. B) They are typically involved in creating overall organizational strategies and goals. C) They officially represent their organization to the external environment. D) They typically spend a large proportion of their time supervising the work of their subordinates. E) They make decisions about activities such as acquiring other companies.

11. Which of the following is an accurate difference between the task environment and the general environment? a.The general environment is quite complex, whereas the task environment is very simple. b.The task environment provides useful information more readily than the general environment. c.The task environment deals with more abstract dimensions than the general environment. d.The general environment's impact is short term, whereas that of the task environment is long term. e.The general environment includes competitors and regulators, whereas that of the task environment includes customers, suppliers, and strategic partners.

12) _____ involves selecting a course of action from a set of alternatives. A) Divesting B) Controlling C) Leading D) Decision making E) Job deskilling

12. Laney's and MarketPlace are both grocery stores. They stock similar products, and customers switch between the stores based on convenience, sale items, and other promotions. Laney's and MarketPlace are a.strategic allies. b.competitors. c.associates. d.regulators. e.suppliers.

13) One of the titles found in the group of first-line managers is _____. A) chief executive officer B) coordinator C) division head D) general manager E) plant superintendent

13. Nonstop is a free instant messaging and voice chat service that allows users to communicate with each other, using a microphone and/or a webcam, over the Internet. Its popularity is increasing and, as a result, the number of people using Chatterbox, another instant texting service, has decreased. Nonstop is a _____ to Chatterbox. a.competitor b.supplier c.customer d.strategic partner e.regulator

14) Determining how a company's activities and resources are to be grouped is called _____. A) leading B) controlling C) deskilling D) planning E) organizing

14)Which stage of the Lewin model of organization change involves managers letting people who will be affected by an impending change know the reasons for the change? A) Implementing B) Recognizing C) Refreezing D) Transforming E) Unfreezing

14. Organizations that provide resources to other organizations are known as: a.suppliers. b.competitors. c.regulators. d.interest groups. e.importers.

15) yler works with Alpha Pharmaceuticals Inc. He is primarily responsible for overseeing production activities. Tyler is concerned with decisions such as the number of product units that need to be manufactured, the overall functioning of the production plants, and the quality of products. Tyler is most likely to be a(n)_____. A) operations manager B) marketing manager C) human resource manager D) sales manager E) public relations manager

15. For a private college, parents of students may be considered part of the _____ dimension of the task environment. a.supplier b.competitor c.regulator d.strategic partner e.customer

16) Typical responsibilities of operations managers include: A) inventory control. B) sales promotion. C) accounting. D) employee development. E) benefit systems development.

16. Two or more companies that work together in joint ventures or other partnerships are called what? a.Strategic partners b.Competitors c.Customers d.Suppliers e.Regulators

17) In its simplest form, _____ means setting an organization's goals and deciding how best to achieve them. A) coordinating B) deskilling C) organizing D) controlling E) planning

17. _____ are elements of the task environment that have the potential to control, legislate, or otherwise influence an organization's policies and practices. a.Board members b.Owners c.Strategic partners d.Employees e.Regulators

18) Which of the following would be included in the management function of planning? A) Selecting the course of action most likely to lead to success B) Monitoring progress toward the achievement of goals C) Motivating others to higher levels of achievement D) Communicating company policies to subordinates E) Organizing people and resources

18. Ralph Corp. and Swan Inc. have entered into an arrangement in which Ralph sells Swan's merchandise in its stores, and Swan promotes Ralph stores in its advertisements. In this context, which of the following best describes the relationship between Ralph Corp. and Swan Inc.? a.They are competitors. b.Ralph is Swan's supplier. c.Swan is Ralph's supplier. d.They are strategic partners. e.They are each customers of the other.

19) _____ work in areas like new product development, promotion, and distribution. A) Human resource managers B) Marketing managers C) Plant managers D) Operations managers E) Finance managers

19. A diner received many warnings from the local Board of Health regarding the quality of its food. The Board of Health objected to the trans-fats used for frying and the freshness of bread and meat used at the diner. The Board is playing the role of a(n) _____ in the restaurant's environment. a.competitor b.customer c.supplier d.regulator e.investor

2) Which of the following helps make the management process efficient? A) Increasing overhead production costs B) Using resources in a cost-effective manner C) Making management decisions independently of the organization's external environment D) Using the majority of resources for sales promotion activities E) Using micromanagement techniques

2. In Asia, consumers have historically had an aversion to debt. However, in recent years credit card use has grown significantly, supported by aggressive marketing to promote growth in the region. This example comprises the _____ dimension of an organization's general environment. a. economic b. technological c. sociocultural d. political-legal e. task

20) _____ are typically involved in recruiting and selecting employees, training and development, designing compensation and benefit systems, formulating performance appraisal systems, and discharging low-performing and problem employees. A) Operations managers B) Human resource managers C) Plant managers D) Marketing managers E) Finance managers

20. Canyon LLC, a television manufacturing company, is about to launch its smart TV. The television will come with a built-in web browser by a company called Wayfarer Inc. to access Internet. Canyon is Wayfarer's _____. a.strategic partner b.business rival c.franchisee d.supplier e.owner

21) _____ work at getting consumers and clients to buy the organization's products or services. A) Operations managers B) Marketing managers C) Regional managers D) Financial managers E) Human resources managers

21. Which of the following would supply capital to a business? a.Employment agencies b.Regulators c.Banks d.Board of directors e.Employees

22) _____ are concerned with creating and managing the systems that create an organization's products and services. A) Marketing managers B) Human resources managers C) Financial managers D) Operations managers E) First-line managers

22. A group organized by its members to attempt to influence organizations is known as a(n) a.interest group. b.board of directors. c.strategic ally. d.competitor. e.ethics committee.

23) _____ are not associated with any particular management specialty. A) Office managers B) Floor supervisors C) Public relations managers D) Operations managers E) Administrative managers

23. _____ are created by the government to protect the public from certain business practices or to protect organizations from one another. a.Interest groups b.Boards of directors c.Strategic partner d.Economic councils e.Regulatory agencies

24) _____ is the set of processes used to get members of an organization to work together to further the interests of the organization. A) Planning B) Organizing C) Controlling D) Leading E) Deskilling

24. A person who purchases stock in a company becomes a(n) _____ of the company. a.member of the board of directors b.customer c.strategic partner d.owner e.regulator

25) The final phase of the management process is _____ that involves monitoring the organization's progress toward its goals. A) planning B) organizing C) leading D) controlling E) deskilling

25. In a business, which of the following people have legal property rights to that business? a.Employees b.Suppliers c.Customers d.Owners e.Regulators

26) The management function of leading involves: A) setting an organization's goals. B) motivating and influencing others. C) grouping activities and resources. D) interacting with the external business environment. E) creating organizational strategies.

26. A corporate _____ that is relatively passive performs a general oversight function without getting actively involved in how the company is run. a. council of strategic partners b. board of directors c. regulators directorate d. whistle-blowing committee e. economic community

27) The management at Beta Corp. has introduced new employment policies. The mangers are now tracking and monitoring the implementation of the new policies. Which of the following management functions is illustrated in the scenario? A) Deskilling B) Controlling C) Organizing D) Leading E) Planning

27. _____ are hired for short periods of time and provide greater flexibility, earn lower wages, and often do not participate in benefits programs. a.Temporary workers b.Regulatory agencies c.Interest groups d.Strategic allies e.Suppliers

28) The skills necessary to accomplish or understand the specific kind of work done in an organization are called _____ skills. A) diagnostic B) time management C) conceptual D) technical E) spatial

28. Which of the following is an element of an organization's internal environment? a.Government regulations b.Competitors c.Facilities d.Strategic allies e.Technology suppliers

29) ____ skills refer to the abilities of managers to think in the abstract, understand the overall workings of the organization and its environment, to grasp how all the parts of the organization fit together, and to view the organization in a holistic manner. A) Time management B) Technical C) Conceptual D) Interpersonal E) Communication

29. Which of the following accurately describes the responsibility of a corporate board of directors? a.Exerting considerable influence by using the media to call attention to their positions b.Helping the company get the expertise they lack from other companies c.Ensuring the firm is run to best serve the stockholders' interests d.Gaining legal property rights to the business by buying stock e.Protecting the public from certain business practices or to protect organizations from one another

3) A management process is considered to be effective when: A) overhead production costs are increased. B) the right decisions are made and implemented. C) decisions are made independently of the organization's external environment. D) the same amount of resources are allocated to all the functions of the organization. E) the organization is highly centralized.

3. A business manufactures top-of-the-line cabinets. The _____ dimension of its general environment includes computer-assisted design software that helps to convert wood and people's idea into lovely, functional cabinets. a. legal b. sociocultural c. technological d. political e. economic

30) Technical skills: A) are crucial for top managers more than any other managers. B) are nonspecific and broad. C) depend on a manager's ability to think in the abstract. D) are especially important for first-line managers. E) are used the most when making organizational policies.

30. The term _____ refers to an individual's personal beliefs about whether a behavior, action, or decision is right or wrong. a.justice b.culture c.ethics d.aesthetics e.regulations

31) When a manager answers a subordinate's question regarding the process of creating a report from raw data, he is relying on his _____ skills. A) abstract B) technical C) time management D) decision-making E) spatial

31. Which of the following is true of ethics or ethical behavior? a. Ethics is the same for all individuals. b. Organizations define ethics in the context of the individual. c. Organizations themselves have ethics. d. Ethical behavior is controlled and directed according to rules made by federal agencies. e. Ethical behavior is behavior that conforms to generally accepted social norms.

32) The ability to motivate others is a(n) _____ skill. A) conceptual B) technical C) communication D) interpersonal E) diagnostic

32. The management of a company prevents its employees from meeting in groups of three or more. Which of the following would best describe these restrictions imposed by the management? a.Legal b.Unethical c.Illegal d.Ethical e.Racist

33) Winston is often intimidated and uncomfortable with his superiors. Winston needs to develop his _____ skills to be able to communicate easily with his superiors. A) time management B) spatial C) interpersonal D) conceptual E) diagnostic

33. A(n) _____ occurs when an employee's decision potentially benefits the individual to the possible detriment of the organization. a.loss of confidence b.security breach c.conflict of interest d.violation of organizational culture e.act of incitement

34) Maria, a manager, studied the performances of the various business units of her organization. After making an assessment, Maria came to the conclusion that the overall costs of the organization can be reduced by integrating the functions of two of the business units. This scenario illustrates Maria's _____ skills. A) technical B) time management C) social D) interpersonal E) conceptual

34. Which of the following terms represents a formal, written statement of the values and ethical standards that guide a firm's action? a.Codes of ethics b.Business plan c.Standard operating procedures d.Strategic plan e.Licensing agreement

35) _____ skills refer to the abilities of managers to visualize the most appropriate response to a situation. A) Social B) Interpersonal C) Technical D) Diagnositc E) Communication

35. Myrtle Wines, a chain of wine retailers, has prepared guidelines that clearly specify how employees should interact with suppliers, customers, competitors, and other people associated with their business. These guidelines are documented and distributed at all Myrtle outlets. The guidelines prepared by Myrtle forms its a.business plan. b.code of ethics. c.strategic plan. d.fair trade standards. e.licensing agreement.

36) _____ skills refer to a manager's abilities to both effectively convey ideas and information to others and effectively receive ideas and information from others. A) Technical B) Abstract C) Communication D) Diagnostic E) Conceptual

36. Ethical issues in corporate governance are primarily the responsibility of a.interest groups. b.employees. c.strategic partners. d.the board of directors. e.federal regulatory agencies.

37) When a manager writes a mail to a supplier apologizing for a delay in payment, he is most likely to be using his _____ skills. A) conceptual B) technical C) communication D) abstract E) spatial

37. _____ is a law that requires CEOs and CFOs to vouch personally for the truthfulness and fairness of their firms' financial disclosures and imposes tough new measures to deter and punish corporate and accounting fraud and corruption. a.Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 b.Glass-Steagall Act of 1933 c.Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999 d.Commodity Futures Modernization Act of 2000 e.Investment Company Act of 1940

38) Sarah, a manager, has postponed the task of preparing a report as she has realized that she needs to meet a supplier immediately. This scenario illustrates Sarah's _____ skills. A) conceptual B) spatial C) time management D) technical E) abstract

38. When organizations relate to their environments in ways that involve ethical dilemmas and decisions, these situations are said to fall within the context of the organization's _____ responsibility. a.legal b.ethical c.social d.cultural e.financial

39) Jordon, a manager, realizes that many employees are leaving the organization. He identifies inconvenient work timings and some of the new employment policies as the causes. Jordon decides to introduce better policies and flexible work timings to reduce employee turnover. This scenario illustrates Jordon's _____ skills. A) mechanical B) technical C) diagnostic D) spatiale E) time management

39. Some people who argue in favor of social responsibility for businesses claim that a.the purpose of business in U.S. society is to generate profit for owners. b.involvement in social programs gives businesses too much power. c.businesses do not create problems and should not therefore help solve them. d.businesses often have the resources necessary to solve problems. e.there is potential for conflicts of interest among businesses.

4. Alex, one of the proprietors of Atlas Corp. is worried. The stock market was not doing well, unemployment was 10 percent, inflation was on the rise again, and government debt was still increasing. These concerns of Alex are related to the _____ dimension of the general environment of Atlas Corp. a.legal b.sociocultural c.technological d.political e.economic

40) _____ refer to a manager's ability to prioritize work, to work efficiently, and to delegate work appropriately. A) Diagnostic skills B) Commanding skills C) Decision-making skills D) Time-management skills E) Conceptual skills

40. Which of the following is an accurate argument against social responsibility for organizations? a.Business is not a partner in our society, unlike the government and the general population. b.Corporations are citizens in our society. c.Profit generation, for the owners, is the purpose of business in U.S. society. d.Business does not create problems and should therefore not try to solve them. e.Business lacks the resources needed to solve social programs.

41) A manager who uses the scientific approach to management when making decisions is most likely rely on: A) instincts. B) stereotypes. C) personal experience. D) intuition. E) Logic.

41. _____ is the extent to which the organization conforms to local, state, federal, and international laws. a.Technological compliance b.Philanthropic giving c.Ethical compliance d.Legal compliance e.Risk management

42) A _____ is a conceptual framework for organizing knowledge and providing a blueprint for action. A) classic B) mnemonic C) prediction D) theory E) doctrine

42. Which of the following actions represents an attempt to manage social responsibility through ethical compliance? a.Requiring top financial managers to ensure compliance with securities and banking regulations b.Donating money to fund the performing arts c.Creating a committee to review policies concerning selection of new hires and promotion of employees d.Consulting the legal department regarding the requirements of a particular law e.Making human resource managers responsible for complying with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) standards

43) When employees deliberately work at a slower pace than their capabilities, it is called _____. A) Soldiering B) persevering C) controlling D) planning E) deceivi

43. Which of the following about the ethical compliance of an organization is true? a.It is a formal dimension of managing social responsibility. b.It cannot be enhanced by providing training. c.It includes awarding of funds or gifts to charities or other worthy causes. d.It is used to circumvent their legal obligations. e.It cannot be imposed by developing guidelines and codes of conduct.

44) Scientific management focuses on: A) improving the efficiency of individual workers. B) increasing employee turnover. C) analyzing the external rather than the internal environment of an organization. D) encouraging soldiering among employees. E) increasing overhead costs.

44. Development of guidelines and codes of conduct is one of the most common ways through which an organization ensures a.risk management. b.technological specification. c.philanthropic giving. d.ethical compliance. e.export restraint agreements.

45) Lillian Gilbreth was one of the earliest advocates of: A) the contingency theory. B) scientific management. C) administrative management. D) theory X and Y. E) the Hawthorne studies.

45. Which of the following is an informal organizational dimension of managing social responsibility? a.Licensing b.Philanthropic giving c.Legal compliance d.Ethical compliance e.Organizational culture

46) The first person to identify the managerial functions of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling was: A) Elton Mayo. B) Lillian Gilbreth. C) Henri Fayol. D) Hugo Munsterberg. E) Mary Parker Follett.

46. Soft Bites, a factory that makes breads, has asked all its retailers to return the loaves that have not been sold till the last date of expiry. It then donates all these loaves to shelters for the poor and the homeless. This act of Soft Bites can be termed as a.corporate gifting. b.legal compliance. c.ethical compliance. d.philanthropic giving. e.apprentice sponsoring.

47) Which of the following focuses on the management of the entire firm as opposed to the jobs of individual workers? A) The Contingency theory B) Scientific management C) Administrative management D) Theory X E) The Hawthorne studies

47. _____ is an employee's disclosure of illegal or unethical conduct by others within the organization. a.Lobbying b.Influence peddling c.Whistleblowing d.Source criticizing e.Reconnaissance

48) Which of the following statements is true of administrative management? A) It deals with the jobs of individual employees. B) It was first introduced by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth. C) It focuses solely on combating soldiering. D) It encompasses the concepts of planning, organizing, and controlling. E) It exclusively focuses on individual attitudes and behaviors and group processes.

48. Which of the following is an advantage of licensing as an approach to internationalization? a.Lack of competition b.Extended profitability c.Lesser uncertainty d.Flexibility e.Shared ownership

49) The scientific management perspective: A) assumed that workers liked their work. B) focused on the overall management of an organization rather than individual employees. C) emphasized the importance of supervising workers. D) was based on the assumption that workers are internally motivated to achieve organizational goals. E) placed maximum emphasis on individual attitudes and behaviors.

5) Which of the following statements is true about top managers? A) They are the largest group of managers in most organizations. B) They officially represent their organization to the external environment. C) They primarily oversee the day-to-day operations of an organization. D) They supervise and coordinate the activities of first-line managers. E) They supervise and coordinate the activities of operating employees.

5. The set of broad dimensions and forces in an organization's surroundings that determines its overall context is called the _____ environment. a.task b.general c.physical work d.regulatory e.ethical

50) Which of the following statements is true about the behavioral management perspective? A) It was first introduced by Max Weber. B) It viewed jobs and organizations from a mechanistic point of view. C) It was influenced by the industrial psychology movement. D) It essentially dealt with job specialization techniques. E) It slighted the role of the individual in organizations.

50. Atlantia is a German company that manufactures dishwashers in Germany. Its products are sold in the United States. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a.Atlantia is exporting its products to the United States. b.Atlantia has a license agreement with the United States. c.Atlantia is importing its products from the United States. d.Atlantia wholly owns subsidiaries of the firm in the United States. e.Atlantia is outsourcing to the United States.

51) The concept of _____, suggested by Weber, is based on a rational set of guidelines for structuring organizations in the most efficient manner. A) adhocracy B) bureaucracy C) technocracy D) meritocracy E) scientocracy

51. A potential disadvantage of licensing agreements is a.decreased profits. b.limited profitability. c.inflexibility. d.home production costs. e.excessive transportation costs.

52) Early advocates of the classical management perspective viewed organizations and jobs from an essentially _____ point of view. A) Mechanistic B) behavioral C) humanistic D) systematic E) contingent

52. Which of the following is true of a quota in trade? a.It is used most commonly to restrict trade. b.It is used to encourage strategic alliance. c.It is used to increase domestic competition. d.It is the tax breaks given by the host government. e.It is a form of tax collected on imported goods.

53) _____ is recognized as the father of industrial psychology. A) Douglas McGregor B) Elton Mayo C) Abraham Maslow D) Hugo Munsterberg E) Henri Fayol

53. An advantage of importing and exporting is a.shared ownership. b.the lack of government restrictions. c.low transportation costs. d.the lack of tariffs and taxes. e.small cash outlay.

54) The management pioneer who performed the Hawthorne studies at Western Electric was: A) Lillian Gilbreth. B) Elton Mayo. C) Henry Gantt. D) Frank Gilbreth. E) Frederick Taylor.

54. Making a product in the firm's domestic marketplace and selling it in another country is known as a.direct investment. b.exporting. c.joint venture. d.competing. e.franchising.

55) in the Hawthorne Studies, workers who overproduced were branded as _____. A) operators B) squealers C) rate busters D) chiselers E) producers

55. Once a licensing agreement is agreed to, the licensee pays a(n) _____ in return. a.interest b.royalty c.remuneration d.tariff e.reward

56) Which of the following was one of the findings of the Hawthorne studies? A) Workers tend to underperform when they are given special attention or supervision. B) Higher pay and incentives are more important to workers than social acceptance. C) All the workers in a group work toward achieving productivity targets set by supervisors. D) Both individual and social processes play a major role in shaping worker behavior. E) Workers in all groups tend to encourage and support members who are over productive.

56. Which of the following is an advantage of direct investment? a.New infrastructure b.Simplicity c.Enhanced control d.Greater political support e.Greater certainty

57) Which of the following is a Theory Y assumption? A) Social processes do not influence the performance of workers. B) People are not internally motivated to achieve their goals. C) People do not naturally dislike work. D) People like to be directed as they want security. E) People perform better when they are threatened by the manager.

57. Which of the following approaches to internationalization of business has the disadvantage of shared ownership? a.Importing b.Licensing c.Exporting d.Joint ventures e.Direct investment

58) Which of the following assumptions is represented by Theory Y? A) People prefer to be directed, to avoid responsibility, and to want security. B) People are bright, but under most organizational conditions, their potential is underutilized. C) People do not like work and try to avoid it. D) The productivity of workers is not affected by social processes at the workplace. E) Managers need to be coercive to get work done from their workers.

58)Alpha Electronics assembles different parts to make standardized laptops. Alpha Electronics uses _____ technology. A) job rotation B) mass-production C) unit D) continuous-process E) small-batch

58. What are maquiladoras? a.Strategic alliances between U.S. and Mexican companies b.Licensing agreements made between U.S. and Mexican companies c.Light assembly plants built in northern Mexico close to the U.S. border d.Convenience stores in northern Mexico to serve the workers in the area e.Light assembly plants in the U.S. near the Mexican border where day workers come for daily work

59) A difference between Theory X and Theory Y is that: A) Theory X makes positive assumptions. B) Theory Y is consistent with the views of scientific management. C) Theory Y assumes that people lack ambition. D) Theory Y represents the assumptions made by human relations advocates. E) Theory Y assumes that people naturally dislike work.

59. Basco Electric Inc., is an American company. It built two factories in Mexico, which are wholly owned subsidies of Basco. Basco chose to build in Mexico to get special concessions from the Mexican government for providing employment to the local population. The factories are an example of a.licensing agreements. b.franchises. c.leases. d.mergers. e.direct investments.

6) Which of the following is the role of top managers in an organization? A) Overseeing day-to-day operations B) Performing routine administrative tasks C) Implementing plans of first-line managers D) Creating organizational goals and overall strategy E) Coordinating the work of first-line managers

6)Alpha Motors Inc. was affected by the recession in 2008. The company had to make extensive changes to its organizational structure and design. This scenario illustrates how _____ forces affect organizations. A) technical B) external C) managerial D) legal E) internal

6. Which of the following is a concern of the technological dimension of an organization's general environment? a.Organization's policies and practices b.Inflation, interest rates, and unemployment c.Tools, methods, and technology d.Government regulations e.Offices, production facilities, and cafeteria

60) A Theory Y assumption is that: A) incentives rather than social processes influence workers. B) managers have to control, direct, coerce, and threaten employees to get them to work toward organizational goals. C) people prefer to be directed, to avoid responsibility, and to want security; they have little ambition. D) people are committed to goals to the degree that they receive personal rewards when they reach their objectives. E) people naturally dislike work and try to avoid it.

60. Sam's Big Bites, an American chain of burger stands, operates on all military bases in the United States. The agreement between Sam's Big Bites and the Department of Defense is a(n) a.maquiladora. b.licensing agreement. c.exporting agreement. d.importing agreement. e.strategic alliance.

61) The _____ proposed that workers respond primarily to the social context of the workplace, including social conditioning, group norms, and interpersonal dynamics. A) classical management perspective B) human relations movement C) systems theory D) management science perspective E) organizational theory

61. In a(n) _____, two or more firms jointly cooperate for mutual gain. a.direct investment b.technology transfer c.trategic alliance d.interest group e.economic community

62) Which of the following is a Theory X assumption? A) People will both seek and accept responsibility. B) Managers are harsh on their employees. C) People have little ambition. D) People are internally motivated. E) People do not naturally dislike work.

62. Greater economic and political risks are among the disadvantages associated with a.importing. b.exporting. c.licensing. d.direct investment. e.joint ventures.

63) Which of the following draws from psychology, sociology, anthropology, economics, and medicine? A) Organizational behavior B) Scientific management C) Administrative management D) Systems perspective E) Contingency perspective

63. The _____ environment of an organization includes all the values, symbols, beliefs, and language that guide behavior. a.task b.general c.physical work d.regulatory e.cultural

64) When a manufacturing plant uses mathematical models to plan production and schedule equipment maintenance, it is drawing upon: A) scientific management. B) administrative management. C) management science. D) behavioral perspective. E) Theory X assumptions.

64. Which of the following statements about cultural environment is true? a.An employee's cultural environment is personal, therefore, does not affect his profession. b.In international business, cultural factors always cause problems for managers. c.Cultural differences between countries can have a direct impact on business practice. d.Difficulties can arise when there is complete overlap between a manager's home culture and the culture of the country in which business is to be conducted. e.Subtle cultural differences between countries do not have a major impact on business activities.

65) Which of the following represent the two branches of the quantitative management theory? A) Scientific management and administrative management B) Human relations movement and organizational behavior C) Contingency theory and systems theory D) Theory X and Theory Y E) Management science and operations management

65. The French government charges a 25 percent tax on all American fruits and vegetables that are sold in France. This tax collected by French authorities is a(n) a.direct investment. b.license. c.export tariff. d.import tariff. e.strategic alliance.

66) The _____ perspective focuses on decision making, cost-effectiveness, mathematical models, and the use of computers. A) systems management B) behavioral management C) scientific management D) administrative management E) quantitative management

66. Accords reached by governments in which countries voluntarily limit the volume or value of goods they export to or import from one another are known as _____ agreements. a.service-level b.licensing c.export restraint d.strategic alliance e.operational-level

67) Which of the following statements is true about management science? A) It is part of the classical management perspective. B) It relies on bureaucratic techniques proposed by Max Weber. C) It focuses on mathematical representations of reality. D) It is concerned with improving the performance of individual workers. E) It introduced the piecework pay system.

67. Almonds United Inc., a company that produces almonds, is based in California, United States. Almonds United ensures that most of its produce is sold in the local market and not more than 20 percent is sold in the Indian markets each year. This is in accordance with the U.S. government's voluntary limit on trade with India. Almonds United is following the _____ exercised by the U.S. government. a.franchising agreement b.direct investment c.strategic alliance d.licensing agreement e.export restraint agreement

68) Which of the following statements is true about operations management? A) It is more statistically sophisticated than management science. B) It exclusively focuses on improving employee attitudes and behavior. C) It can be applied more directly to managerial situations than management science. D) It relies more on mathematical models than management science. E) It cannot be applied to inventory control and production operations of an organization.

68. The government of Westeria has made it mandatory that all local publishers must use paper made in Westeria itself. This restriction imposed by Westeria on its publishers is a form of a."ban maquiladoras" policy. b.import tariff. c.export restraint agreement. d."go global" strategy. e."buy national" legislation.

69) _____ is considered to be a form of applied management science. A) Scientific management B) Lean manufacturing C) Behavioral management D) Human relations movement E) Operations management

69. Which of the following statements about organizational culture is true? a.Organizational culture shapes the behavior of employees, and thus impacts organizational effectiveness. b.Organizational culture of an overseas franchisee is always the same as the culture of the nation in which the organization's headquarters are located. c.Organizational culture will necessarily be the same throughout an organization's subunits. d.Organizational culture refers to the cultural and artistic charities that an organization supports. e.Organizational culture is frequently and easily changed by most organizations.

7) _____ make decisions about activities such as investing in research and development (R&D) and entering or abandoning various markets. A) Division heads B) Limited partners C) First-line managers D) Middle managers E) Top managers

7. A company would begin to do business in another country only if the trade relationships with that country are relatively well defined and stable. In the context of general environment, which of the following does this point of view reflect? a.Task b.Economic c.Technological d.Political-legal e.Competitive

70) In the context of the systems perspective, an output would be: A) technological processes. B) labor skills. C) services. D) raw materials. E) human resources.

70. An American company is in a joint venture with an overseas Middle East company. The U.S. managers are particular about time management and appointments for conference calls and meetings. However, their overseas Middle Eastern counterparts are not conditioned the same way and don't necessarily adhere to schedules. This variation in time management is an aspect of their _____ environment. a.legal b.cultural c.technological d.political e.economic

71) In the context of the systems perspective, an input would be: A) human resources. B) losses. C) feedback loops. D) products. E) services.

71. A(n) _____ is a limit on the number or value of goods that can be traded. a.royalty b.tariff c.quota d.threshold e.allowance

72) Relatively new management concepts such as supply chain management and new techniques such as enterprise resource planning have evolved from the _____ perspective. A) quantitative management B) systems C) contingency D) classical management E) behavioral management

72. A(n) _____ is a tax collected on goods shipped across national boundaries. a.quota b.tariff c.allowance d.remuneration e.commission

73) In the systems perspective, outputs include _____. A) raw materials B) controls C) funds D) human resources E) employee attitudes

73. In international trade, the _____ amount is typically designed to ensure that domestic competitors will be able to maintain a certain market share. a.benefaction b.royalty c.tariff d.quota e.minimum hourly wage

74) Which of the following statements is true in the context of the systems perspective? A) Entropy is a process that leads to system progress. B) Products and services can be considered as system inputs. C) A closed system is closely connected with and interacts with its environment. D) The performance of one subsystem does not affect the performance of another subsystem. E) Organizations essentially should be open sys

74. _____ are, in effect, export quotas. a.Export restraint agreements b.Export licensing agreements c.Service-level agreements d.Export tariffs e.Strategic alliance agreements

75) _____ is a normal process that leads to system decline. A) Economy of scale B) Synergy C) Entropy D) Contingency E) Symbiosis

75. _____ gives preference to domestic producers through content or price restrictions. a."Buy national" legislation b."Go local" strategy c.Federal acquisition regulation d.Trade agreements legislation e."Ban maquiladoras" policy

76) _____ suggests that organizational units (or subsystems) may often be more successful working together than working alone. A) Divestiture B) Operations management C) Synergy D) Entropy E) Soldiering

76. Which of the following statements about the European Union is true? a.It dictates the internal organizational culture. b.It is a union of observer countries that monitor the open markets to ensure that WTO rules are followed. c.It is the strategic alliance between a European company and an American company. d.It a form of labor union across Europe. e.It is an economic community.

77) The _____ suggests that appropriate managerial behavior in a given situation depends on unique elements in a that situation. A) behavioral management perspective B) quantitative management perspective C) systems perspective D) contingency perspective E) universal perspective

77. Which of the following is an agreement among the United States, Canada, and Mexico to promote trade with one another? a.North American Free Trade Agreement b.North Atlantic Treaty Organization c.General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade d.Transatlantic Free Trade Agreement e.World Trade Organization

78) Emilio says, "Employees and situations are unique. Sometimes I get good results by trying one approach, sometimes I decide to do something completely different." Emilio's statement is best aligned with which of the following management views? A) The classical theory B) Administrative management C) The generalist perspective D) Theory X E) The contingency perspective

78. An international _____ is a set of countries that agree to markedly reduce or eliminate trade barriers among member nations. a.commonwealth b.trade bloc c.economic community d.customs union e.free trade area

79) In the systems perspective, _____ emphasizes the importance of working together in a cooperative and coordinated fashion. A) synergy B) entropy C) contingency D) diversity E) uniformity

79. Which of the following is a determinate of an organization's culture? a.The extended benefits provided by an organization b.Corporate success and shared experiences c.The regulations for work performance set by an organization d.The strategic partners of an organization e.The products and services available for the functioning of an organization

8) A common middle-management title is: A) chief executive officer. B) division head. C) supervisor. D) office manager. E) coordinator.

8. The _____ dimension of the general environment consists of government regulation of business and the relationship between business and government. a.technological b.task c.political-legal d.competitive e.socio-economic

80) A primary objective of management, from a systems perspective, is to continually reenergize the organization to avoid _____. A) reciprocity B) collaboration C) diversity D) entropy E) synergy

80. Unicorn designs Inc., a software company, requires its employees to wear a specific color every day of the week. The colors for the weekdays are presently orange, red, green, yellow, and blue, respectively. The colors are changed from time to time and the employees are informed about it. The colors should be visible and could be on anything, like scarves, bags, ties, or socks. According to the management, the color coding system makes the company a vibrant and fun place to work. This decision of the management affects the a.company's economic dimension. b.task environment. c.technological dimension. d.organizational culture. e.political-legal atmosphere.

81) The _____ perspective states that effective managerial behavior in one situation cannot always be generalized to other situations. A) behavioral B) scientific management C) contingency D) administrative management E) systems

81. The _____ is a trade agreement intended to promote international trade by reducing trade barriers and making it easier for all nations to compete in international markets. a. Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS) b. Agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) c. North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) d. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) e. Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT)

82) Which of the following statements is true about the contingency perspective? A) It states that the organizations which are not influenced by their external environments tend to be more successful than others. B) It states that effective managerial behavior in one situation cannot always be generalized to other situations. C) It states that all employees tend to perform better when they are promised higher incentives. D) It states that the behavior of employees at work is not influenced by social processes. E) It is a part of the classical perspective of management.

82. The _____ replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) and absorbed its mission in 1995. a.European Union (EU) b.International Trade Centre (ITC) c.World Trade Organization (WTO) d.United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) e.Global System of Trade Preferences among Developing Countries (GSTP)

83) Which of the following statements is true in the context of contemporary management trends? A) More and more organizations are using quality as a basis for competition. B) The service sector of the economy has steadily declined. C) Younger people entering the workforce over the past 20 to 30 years are more devoted to work and more willing to adapt. D) The emphasis on business ethics has declined. E) The emphasis on management of diversity has declined.

83. Where does an organization's culture originate? a.Societal norms and expectations b.Pressure applied through mergers c.With the organization's founder d.Resolution of disputes between rival factions e.Government regulation of the specific industry

84) Improving the quality of products and services tends to increase _____. A) inertia B) entropy C) latency D) productivity E) divestment

84. Which of the following is true of the World Trade Organization (WTO)? a.The WTO establishes impartial procedures for resolving trade disputes among its members. b.The WTO requires members to limit their markets in international trade. c.The WTO replaced the GATT and dismissed its mission. d.The WTO focuses too narrowly on human rights and the environment. e.The WTO promotes trade flows by encouraging nations to adopt preferential and flexible trade policies.

85) The _____ perspective places emphasis on individual attitudes. A) contingency B) systems C) quantitative management D) administrative management E) behavioral management

85. Which of the following is true of organizational culture? a.Managers are advised to maintain an organization's culture even if it has become dysfunctional. b.Corporate success and shared experiences have limited effect on organizational culture. c.Organizational culture is always consistent throughout each of the divisions of an organization. d.An organization's culture is not necessarily affected by the growth of rival factions within the organization. e.Organizational culture can be maintained by rewarding people whose behaviors are consistent with the existing culture.

9) _____ are probably the largest group of managers in most organizations, and are primarily responsible for implementing the policies and plans of an organization. A) Middle managers B) Top managers C) The members of board of directors D) First-line managers E) Floor supervisors

9. Competitors, customers, suppliers, strategic partners, and regulators make up the _____ environment of an organization. a.technological b.general c.economic d.political-legal e.task

A basic assumption on which the expectancy theory is based on is that: A) behavior is determined by a combination of forces in the individual and in the environment. B) people do not make decisions about their own behaviors in organizations. C) different people have the same type of needs, desires, and goals. D) people make choices based on the extent to which a given behavior will lead to undesired outcomes. E) people are motivated to seek social equity in the rewards they achieve for performance.

A company has set an objective to increase its product sales by 50 percent in the next two years. Identify the step of the organization change process of the company. A) Recognition of the need for change B) Establishment of goals for the change C) Selection of appropriate change technique D) Planning for implementation of the change E) Evaluation and follow-up

A difference between tactical and strategic plans is that: A) tactical plans have a more concrete focus. B) tactical plans are set for and by the board of directors. C) tactical plans have broader time horizons. D) strategic plans are developed by first-line managers. E) strategic plans deal with the day-to-day operations of an organization.

A force-field analysis identifies: A) management potential in existing employees. B) synergy in an organization. C) the need for structural change in an organization. D) factors that facilitate and hinder organization change. E) the appropriate span of management for an organization

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, once an individual has satisfied his physiological needs, he turns his focus towards _____ needs. A) survival needs B) esteem C) belongingness D) security E) self-actualization

An organization's _____ is a statement of its fundamental, unique purpose that sets a business apart from other firms of its type and identifies the scope of the business's operations in product and market terms. A) mission B) statement of qualification C) article of incorporation D) operational goal E) tactical plan

Clara plays offensive pranks at her workplace, which were so far encouraged by her colleagues. To make sure that she does not repeat such behaviors, managers at the organization instruct her colleagues to ignore her actions. The reinforcement method adopted by the organization is _____. A) Recognition B) Punishment C) Avoidance D) Extinction E) Pay raises

Every alternate day, quality control inspectors at McHeinz Inc. randomly select items from an assembly line for inspection, and compliment the workers for every product that meets their expectations on quality. However, they vary the number of items they inspect each time.This motivates the employees to put in more effort to ensure that all the items are of the required quality. What reinforcement schedule are the quality control inspectors using? A) Variable-interval B) Variable-fixed C) Fixed-ratio D) Fixed-intervale E) Variable-ratio

In general, the biggest cause of worker resistance to change is _____. A) satisfaction B) uncertainty C) regret D) feelings of loss E) different perceptions

In the context of the BCG matrix, _____ are businesses that have the largest share of a rapidly growing market. A) question marks B) stars C) cows D) dogs E) entropies

In the context of the job characteristics approach, _____ refers to the extent to which a worker knows how well the job is being performed. A) feedback B) task identity C) task significance D) autonomy E) skill variety

Managers can overcome resistance to change by: A) not letting employees know about the change. B) letting employees know about the change only after it has been successfully implemented. C) limiting the involvement of employees in the change process. D) minimizing communication during the change process. E) announcing the change much in advance

Relish has a chain of outlets that sells baked products. Relish requires all its employees to complete a month's training before they could work in the kitchen. This is an example of a: A) standard operating procedure. B) contingency plan. C) regulation D) policy. E) standing plans.

Ron, a manager at a hardware components manufacturing unit, has recently learned from a subordinate's report that the production rates in his firm have gone down immensely because of poor employee morale. Ron has realized that he needs to implement a change in the organization that will motivate employees. Which of the following steps in the comprehensive approach to change is illustrated in the scenario? A) Recognizing the need for change B) Understanding how to implement the change C) Setting goals for the change D) Selecting a change technique E) Implementing the change

When a subordinate has outstanding performance and his or her supervisor publicly praises it, the supervisor is using: A) positive reinforcement. B) punishment. C) avoidance. D) extinction. E) an intrinsic reward.

Which of the following exemplifies the first step in the comprehensive organization change model? A) Setting standards for a new absenteeism control procedure B) Noticing that the pension fund has less cash than needed to provide the guaranteed employee benefits C) Determining the probable causes of a recently detected drop in the level of employee job satisfaction D) Investigating different techniques for enhancing employee job satisfaction E) Planning meetings to help employees understand the procedures in the company's new quality program

Which of the following laws limits union power and specifies management rights during union-organizing campaign? A) The National Labor Relations Act B) The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 C) The Fair Labor Standards Act D) The Labor Management Relations Act E) The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

Which of the following statements is true about mechanistic organizations? A) They have a very flexible and informal structure. B) They have the lowest level of job specialization. C) They are highly decentralized. D) They are most frequently found in unpredictable and unstable environments. E) They structure their activities in predict

Which of the following statements is true about strategic goals? A) They are set by an organization's middle managers. B) They are set by first-line managers. C) They provide plans for the day-to-day operations of an organization. D) They focus on broad and general issues. E) Their focus is on short-term issues

____ techniques are methods that diversified organizations use to determine in which businesses to engage and how to manage these businesses to maximize corporate performance. A) Divestiture B) Portfolio management C) Process gain D) Deskilling E) Entropy

_____ is the process of attracting qualified persons to apply for jobs that are open. A) Mentoring B) Recruiting C) Job analysis D) Job evaluation E) Validation

_____ plans generally have an extended time horizon, and address questions of scope, resource deployment, competitive advantage, and synergy. A) Operational B) Contingency C) Recovery D) Tactical E) Strategic

1. Planning is a. a complex and comprehensive process involving interrelated stages. b. organizing, implementing, and controlling. c. finding the best person for a job. d. communicating effectively with stakeholders.

11. E-commerce has been a substantial asset to small enterprises because the Internet a. makes it easier for small businesses to compete with large firms. b. has strong controls against fraud. c. enables small firms to borrow money at very low cost. d. grants more Web sites to small than larger firms.

11. The purpose of the strategic inventory is to help the manager a. size up the environment accurately. b. determine how much inventory is on hand. c. involve workers at all levels in formulating strategy. d. develop operating plans.

12. A multicultural employee a. is able to conduct business in another culture. b. was raised in a multicultural environment. c. speaks three or more languages fluently. d. has experience working in other countries.

12. Information technology gives more workers access to a. information for decision making. b. strategic plans. c. motivational concepts. d. staffing concerns.

13. The point of an electronic employee self-service system is that employees a. carry out activities for themselves that required staff assistance in the past. b. conduct their own performance appraisals. c. prepare their own meals at lunchtime or other breaks. d. type their own correspondence.

13. The purpose of a SWOT analysis is to assess a. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. b. strategy, weaknesses, options, and time. c. satisfactions, worst options, and trade-offs. d. successes, winners, and ominous threats.

14. Which one of the following is not one of the five competitive forces that business strategists are supposed to take into account? a. competition among business units within the firm b. the power of customers to affect pricing and reduce profit margins c. the threat of similar or substitute products d. the power of suppliers to influence the company's pricing

15. The purpose of a realistic job preview is to give the job applicant a(n) a. accurate picture of the potential problems within the job. b. accurate picture of the earnings potential within the job. c. thorough analysis of his or her perceived strengths. d. thorough analysis of his or her perceived weaknesses.

2. A specific way in which human resources contributes to business strategy is by a. helping to build high-performance work practices. b. organizing company picnics. c. making PowerPoint presentations to top management. d. helping to prepare job descriptions.

2. WiFi (wireless fidelity) increases the value of laptop computers because a. the Internet can be accessed even when telephone line connections are not available. b. managers know immediately whether field workers are using their laptops. c. WiFi increases the memory of laptops. d. laptops last longer when WiFi is applied.

23. A ranking system that requires managers to rank each employee within each unit and distribute raises and bonuses accordingly is called a. stack-ranking b. 360-degree feedback c. employee benefits d. workman's compensation

23. Policies serve as guidelines to action a. that still allow for some interpretation. b. that must be followed quite strictly. c. for workers below the top-management level. d. mostly in the areas of finance and human resources.

24. Which one of the following is the least likely to contribute to the success of an e-business? a. minimize the opportunity for customers to telephone the company. b. reveal very little information to customers about the progress of their orders. c. develop a global presence. d. decide whether to be bricks or clicks.

4. Branch manager Hector establishes recycling goals for his branch to support the company's strategic goal of being a good environmental partner. What is Hector doing? a. tactical planning b. strategic planning c. long-range planning d. vision formulation

5. A major purpose of a company intranet is to a. serve as a Web site for company use only. b. keep customers informed of price changes. c. monitor employee use of the Internet. d. sell products and services by E-commerce.

5. An affirmative action program must comply with anti-discrimination law and a. create managerial opportunities for minorities and women. b. change employee attitudes about discrimination. c. increase minority hiring by 40 percent. d. increase minority pay by 40 percent.

6. According to federal laws prohibiting discrimination, it is illegal to discriminate against people a. in any aspect of employment. b. mostly with respect to hiring. c. mostly with respect to transfer, promotion, layoff, or recall. d. mostly with respect to recruitment and testing.

8. An example of e-leadership would be for the team leader to a. set up a chat room to deal with an important work issue. b. have a luncheon buffet for team members. c. visit workers at their home when they are ill. d. established a forced-ranking system within the group.

9. A key difference between a vision and a mission is that a. the mission relates more to today's realities. b. a mission is set farther into the future. c. a vision does not deal with products or services. d. a vision deals more with operations.

9. Microblogging refers to a. sending brief updates online about work activities to employees. b. e-leadership. c. wikis. d. setting up a chat room.

1. A major consequence of information technology on the daily work of managers is that they a. have more services from assistants than previously. b. perform considerable clerical work that was done previously by assistants. c. have many fewer messages to deal with. d. spend much more time on the telephone.

1. Human resources executive Sarah says, "I finally have a seat at the table." She most likely is implying that a. she is allowed into the executive dining room. b. her work is tied in with company business strategy. c. she no longer has to stand in the back of the room during meetings. d. she will be allowed to negotiate with the labor union.

10. A recommended procedure for formulating strategy is for top-level managers to a. form a small committee to do most of the work. b. gather inputs from large numbers of people. c. perform the task themselves during a retreat. d. base strategy on fixing customer complaints.

10. Online recruiting a. now accounts for about 80% of external hires. b. occurs on social networking Web sites such as Facebook, LinkedIn, and Twitter. c. is considered discriminatory because they require computer literacy. d. suffers from not attracting a large enough number of inquiries.

14. All of the big five personality factors a. are included in the Americans with Disabilities Act. b. influence job performance. c. are part of measuring the person-organization fit. d. create job problems, if present.

15. A concern about customer service in the information technology era is that the service a. is so rapid it is difficult to follow. b. has decreased in quality because it is so complex. c. requires too much human interaction. d. is only good at high technology firms.

16. Lucy applies for the position of ambulance medic. To give her a job simulation screening test, the interviewer a. asks her to say the alphabet backwards in three minutes. b. has her stop the bleeding of an accident victim. c. interviews her in an ambulance. d. interviews her in an operating room.

16. McDonald's states that it would like "to satisfy the world's appetite for good food, well-served, at a price people can afford." The preceding reflects McDonald's a. cost-leadership strategy. b. mission. c. annual goal statement. d. advertising campaign.

16. Using several electronic devices at once often interferes with a person's ability a. to evaluate staff members. b. to concentrate carefully on the major problem at hand. c. to reward employees based on their performance. d. to set goals.

17. A major consequence of e-commerce for purchasing is that a. comparison shopping is much more difficult. b. more products are bought and sold over the Internet. c. many sellers impose a surcharge for online purchases. d. smaller companies have less opportunity to display their products.

17. Krispy Kreme donuts, a well-known donut retailer (but much smaller than Dunkin Donuts), most likely emphasizes which one of the following business strategies? a. cost leadership b. product differentiation c. strategic alliances d. high speed

18. The biggest beneficiaries of the Internet revolution have been a. companies selling online exclusively. b. well-established companies who integrate the Internet into their current business. c. companies that carry virtually no inventory. d. start ups with links to major Web sites.

19. Performance, as measured in performance evaluation systems, appears to have the three following components: a. task performance, interpersonal performance, and mental performance b. task performance, citizenship performance, and counterproductive performance c. past performance, present performance, and future performance d. performance related to customers, the manager, and coworkers

19. Suppose that Starbucks opens a nation-wide chain of carwashes, called Starbucks Car Wash. After two years, the executive team sells of the car washes, and invests the cash back into building more Starbucks stores. The strategy illustrated is referred to as a. high speed. b. sticking to core competencies. c. product diversification. d. a strategic alliance.

20. A functional strategy for becoming and remaining a successful organization is to a. form a strategic alliance. b. find and retain competent people. c. get to market faster than others. d. export products.

21. Assume that Motorola developed a cell and camera phone so small it comes with a strap to wear on the wrist like a watch. Which strategy does this product launch most likely fit? a. cost leadership b. product differentiation c. focus d. high speed

25. A concern is that in some industries, union demands for compensation a. include variable pay. b. have made it difficult for companies to remain competitive. c. include wellness clinics. d. seek unfair treatment for workers.

3. The purpose of tactical planning is to a. establish a general purpose for the organization. b. translate strategic plans into specific goals and plans for organizational units. c. tell entry level workers what to do on a daily basis. d. compensate for past mistakes.

5. A study of CEO failure indicated that 70 percent of the time their failures were attributed to a. poorly developed plans. b. poor execution, not poor planning. c. over-ambitious plans. d. lack of adequate cost controls.

6. Wendy sets up a pass-protected Web page so work associates can provide input on problems facing the company. The technical name for Wendy's Web page is a a. personal digital assistant. b. wiki. c. domain name. d. surveillance tool.

14. A person labeled as a computer goof-off a. sabotages company files. b. takes naps while pretending to be working at the computer. c. spends too much time at the computer doing unimportant work. d. blames computer problems for not getting work accomplished.

15. The firm's purpose and where it fits into the world is identified by the a. strategy. b. policy. c. mission. d. objective.

17. E-learning, is least likely to be effective for teaching a. financial ratios. b. product information. c. interpersonal skills. d. software skills.

19. One of the key reasons that the Internet enhances globalization is that a. computer components can be made inexpensively overseas. b. music can be downloaded anywhere in the world. c. rapid communication with business partners around the world is feasible. d. you can download for free language translators from the Internet.

2. Strategic plans are designed to a. implement operational plans. b. establish day-by-day procedures. c. shape the destiny of the firm. d. carrying out the functions of management.

22. 360-degree feedback is a. a performance appraisal. b. an evaluation using a sampling of all the people with whom an employee interacts. c. both a & b d. a selection tool.

3. In terms of increasing productivity, information technology has made it easier for organizations to a. make their hierarchies steeper. b. add more staff. c. thin the number of employees. d. charge more for commodities (basic products where the brand is not key).

4. According to the theory of job imbeddedness, whether employees stay with a firm depends on a. how long a worker has held the job. b. how well the employee is liked by coworkers. c. a variety of factors on and off the job. d. the worker's demographic characteristics.

7. A contingency plan is implemented if the a. strategic plan is too modest. b. control processes do not work. c. original plan cannot be implemented. d. action plan succeeds.

7. The general purpose of strategic human resource planning is to a. develop selection systems to meet the needs of the firm. b. control costs in carrying out the human resource function. c. identify skills needed for the success of the business. d. ensure that business strategy does not neglect people.

8. Recruiting is the process of a. attracting job candidates. b. finding candidates with the right characteristics and skills to fill job openings. c. both a & b d. training job candidates.

8. Which one of the following is a component of true business strategy? a. a high level of operational effectiveness b. a set of activities common to other firms c. giving customers trade-offs d. having quite different activities to make similar products for different markets

10. Information technology has improved business models in the sense that a. companies now have a clearer analysis of which ventures will be profitable. b. internal operations can be overhauled. c. profit margins increase because of efficiencies in shipping. d. the business can be conducted in new ways such as selling direct.

20. "Living with increased visibility" refers to the fact that in the Internet age a. the government demands more information from companies. b. most employee recruiting is done over the Internet. c. newspapers are more likely to publish scandals involving Internet firms. d. positive and negative comments about the company can readily be posted on the Internet.

20. Forced rankings a. evaluate employees against a performance standard. b. measure employees against one another. c. select an outstanding performer. d. both a & b.

3. An example of a workplace factor that could lead to turnover is a. a booming economy with many job opportunities. b. a worker's limited ability to cope with the job demands. c. job-hopping tendencies of the worker. d. lack of emotional support from the supervisor.

4. In the virtual office, employees a. work without a team leader. b. complete one task before moving on to another. c. are all part-time or temporary workers. d. coordinate their activities although physically separate.

6. A manager controls the plan when he or she a. creates a vision statement. b. creates a mission statement. c. establishes a budget to pay for the action plan. d. checks to see how well goals are being attained.

7. Another important way in which information technology benefits managers is a. by allowing employees to serve themselves. b. by not requiring managerial or staff assistance. c. by requiring more staff assistance. d. both a & b

9. A job specification describes the a. working conditions encountered on the job. b. pay and benefits associated with the job. c. demands of the job. d. qualifications needed for the job.

MGT101 (1,2,3,4,6,7,8,10,11,14,15)

Ensembles d'études connexes

ES Chapter 16

Midterm 1 Intro to stats

Psych. Final Study

Intermediate Macroeconomics Ch 8-9 Learning Curve

busniess study guid

English 12 A- Lesson 11

Kinesology chapter 5 motor behavior

Chapter 49: Hepatic System

Acids, Bases, and Salts

C programming vocabulary

SKIN CANCER & MELANOMA TEST

Unit 2 Test Repetition Statements

Electricity Test

58 - Pelvic Diaphragm Vessels & Nerves

Chp4partdos

Management Exam 3

Chapter 14

TEST 4 (CLINICAL GENETICS)

transformers final exam review

Chapter 18