Mitosis/Miosis
23) Put the following steps in the procedure for producing a karyotype in the correct order. I. Cells are visualized under the microscope. II. Cells are stimulated to divide. III. Homologues are organized into sets by matching size and banding patterns. IV. The cells are exposed to a hypotonic solution. V. Cells are stained and placed on a microscope slide. A) I, II, IV, V, III B) II, IV, V, I, III C) IV, II, V, I, III D) IV, V, II, I, III E) II, IV, I, V, III
B
25) In mitosis and cytokinesis, the main difference between plant and animal cells is that A) plants do not undergo cytokinesis. B) plants produce a cell plate to segregate the daughter nuclei, while animals form a cleavage furrow. C) plants have a central vacuole, while animal cells do not. D) plants produce a cell membrane in cytokinesis, while animals form a cell plate. E) in plants, kinet ochore microtubules shorten and draw chromosomes toward the poles; in animals, polar microtubules lengthen to push chromatids apart.
B
29) Which of the following mutations will NOT alter the amount of genetic material of a chromosome? A) duplication B) inversion C) simple translocation D) deficiency E) inversion and simple translocation
B
30) In a tetraploid species, a euploid individual would have ________ sets of chromosomes. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 2n+2
B
35) The life cycle of a sexually reproducing multicellular organism must include which processes? A) mitosis and meiosis. B) mitosis, meiosis, and fusion of the gametes. C) meiosis and fusion of gametes D) only mitosis E) only meiosis
B
5) Consider an organism whose diploid karyotype shows it to have a total of 60 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be contained in the sperm of this organism? A) 23 B) 30 C) 46 D) 60 E) 90
B
50) The following graph represents the concentration of cyclins over the course of the cell cycle. **GRAPH** Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the phase of the cell cycle where the green arrow is pointing? A) At this point in the cell cycle, the cell has determined that the DNA is intact and environmental conditions are favorable for DNA replication. B) At this point in the cell cycle, chromosomes have properly aligned on the metaphase plate and are beginning to separate. C) At this point in the cell cycle, DNA has already been replicated correctly and the cell is preparing for mitosis. D) At this point in the cycle the cell is determining if environmental condit ions are favorable for growth and proliferation. E) At this point in the cycle the cell is continuing to grow and make abundant tubulin proteins.
B
7) Which of the following is NOT a part of the mitotic spindle apparatus in plants? A) centrosome B) centrioles C) tubulin proteins D) kinetochore microtubules E) astral microtubules
B
51) The following graph represents the concentration of cyclins over the course of the cell cycle. **GRAPH** Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the phase of the cell cycle where the blue arrow is pointing? A) At this point in the cell cycle, the cell has determined that the DNA is intact, that environmental conditions are favora ble, and it is preparing for DNA replication. B) At this point in the cell cycle, chromosomes have properly aligned on the metaphase plate and are beginning to separate. C) At this point in the cell cycle, DNA has already been replicated and divided into t wo daughter nuclei. D) At this point in the cycle the cell is determining if environmental conditions are favorable for growth and proliferation. E) At this point in the cycle the cell is continuing to grow and make abundant tubulin proteins.
E
15) You prepare the first ever karyotype of an endangered species of fr og. Upon examination you find that all the chromosomes are metacentric. This is going to make it difficult to identify A) which is the p arm of the chromosome. B) which is the q arm of the chromosome. C) the unique G banding for each chromosome. D) if the chromosomes are telocentric. E) both the p and q arms of the chromosome.
E
19) Polyploidy in plants A) is common. B) allows for adaptation to diverse environments. C) may alter the levels of gene expression. D) may result in larger individuals. E) All of these statements are true regarding polyploidy in plants.
E
22) What does NOT happen in the cytokinesis of plant cells? A) Vesicles from the golgi apparatus move along the microtubules and fuse form cell plate. B) Cell wall forms between the two daughter cells. C) The two nuclei are segregated into separate daughter cells. D) When the vesicles fuse, their membranes contribute to the formation of plasma membrane on either side of the cell plate. E) Formation of the cleavage furrow separates the cells.
E
28) A chromosome with the centromere located two- thirds of the distance from its end could be classified as A) metacentric. B) submetacentric. C) acrocentric. D) telocentric. E) either submetacentric or acrocentric.
E
34) Sister chromatids separate during A) anaphase of meiosis I. B) metaphase of meiosis I. C) metaphase of meiosis II. D) telophase of meiosis I. E) anaphase of meiosis II.
E
53) How are sister chromatids connected to each other? A) Through complementary base pairing of DNA at the centromere B) Through centromere proteins that are attracted to each other by opposite charges C) Through activated cyclin/CDK complexes D) Through the centrioles E) Th rough cohesin proteins
E
6) Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning sister chromatids? A) The formation of sister chromatids doubles the amount of DNA in a cell. B) Sister chromatids consist of two id entical copies of a single homologue. C) Sister chromatids are held together at the centromere by cohesin proteins. D) Sister chromatids are formed during the S phase of the cell cycle. E) Sister chromatids separate during anaphase I of meiosis.
E
14) Why must the life cycle of sexually reproducing species alternate between haploid and diploid stages? A) Meiosis must occur at s ome point in the life cycle to prevent a doubling of chromosomes in each generation. B) Mitosis must occur at some point in the life cycle to prevent a reduction of chromosomes in each generation. C) The diploid stage allows for genetic recombination. D) M eiosis must occur at some point in the life cycle to prevent a reduction of chromosomes in each generation. E) Haploid cells cannot grow independently of diploid cells.
A
16) During crossing over in meiosis, an unequal exchange of genetic material occurs. This would most likely produce A) a deficiency in one homologue and a duplication in the other homologue. B) a deficiency in both homologues. C) a deficiency in one homologue and an inversion in the other homologue. D) a reciprocal translocation. E) a duplication in one homologue and an inversion in the other homologue.
A
18) Consider a cell in which nondisjunction occurs for all chromosomes during meiosis I. What would be the result of this event? A) two aneuploid gametes, each with an extra set of chromosomes B) two haploid gametes and one aneuploid gamete with an extra set of chromosomes C) four aneuploid gametes D) four haploid gametes E) t wo haploid gametes and two polyploidgametes
A
24) The centromere A) is a region of DNA where sister chromatids associate. B) is a group of proteins that attach to the kinetochore. C) is only present when chromosomes are highly compacted. D) is a group of proteins that attach to the mitotic spindle. E) is not present on the chromosomes of the daughter cells until anaphase.
A
33) Synaptonemal complexes form during A) prophase of meiosis I. B) prophase of meiosis II. C) prophase of meiosis I and meiosis II. D) prometaphase of meiosis I. E) promet aphase of meiosis II.
A
10) The formation of the bivalent during meiosis A) is required for the pairing of homologous chromosomes. B) contributes to the genetic diversity of a species. C) ensures that the resulting haploid cells will have the same combination of homologous chromosomes as the original diploid cell. D) aids the alignment of sister chromatids in a single row along the metaphase plate. E) occurs during meiosis I and meiosis II.
B
17) Consider a diploid species where n=5. If an individual of this species was found to have 11 chromosomes, it would be categorized as A) polyploid. B) aneuploid. C) tetraploid. D) monosomic. E) triploid.
B
1) Cytogenetics is A) a photographic representation of chromosome. B) the field of genetics that involves the microscopic examination of the chromosomes and cell division. C) the sorting process to divide one cell nucleus into two nuclei. D) the process in which the two nuclei are segregated into separate daughter cells. E) the process by which the haploid cells are produced from a cell that was originally diploid.
B
12) The major way that meiosis II differs from mitosis is that A) in meiosis II, the homologous sister chromatids align at the metaphase plate as a tetrad. B) in meiosis II, a pair of sister chromatids move to the pole. C) in meiosis II, the cells are haploid. D) in meiosis II, a synaptonemal complex is formed. E) in meiosis II, the homologues separate.
C
20) Most human embryos that are aneuploid A) result in Down's syndrome. B) result in sterility. C) are spontaneously aborted in the first trimester. D) can develop and survive to adulthood. E) are usually the result of increased nondisjunction in the gametes of older men.
C
26) A species that three sets of homologous chromosomes can have ________ different combinations of chromosomes in its gametes? A) 3 B) 6 C) 8 D) 27 E) 64
C
27) Meiosis I produces ________ cells, and meiosis II produces ________ cells. A) two diploid, two haploid B) two diploid, 4 haploid C) two haploid, 4 haploid D) two haploid, two haploid E) two somatic, two gametic
C
32) Chromosomes are replicated during the ________ phase. A) G1 B) G2 C) S D) M E) meta-
C
52) Which of the following statements about sister chromatids is TRUE? A) Sister chromatids are produced during mitosis. B) Sister chromatids are held together by complementary base pairing of DNA at the centromere. C) Sister chromatids are exact copies of each other and are formed just prior to cell division. D) After mitosis, sister chromatids contain the same genes, but they may have different alleles. E) All of these statements about sister chromatids are TRUE.
C
8) Place the following events of mitosis in the correct order. I. Sister chromatids align on the metaphase plate. II. The cleavage furrow forms. III. The nuclear membrane breaks up. IV. Sister chromatids begin to condense. V. Sister chromatids separate. A) I, II, III, IV, V B) III, IV, I, V, II C) IV, III, I, V, II D) III, II, I, IV, V E) IV, I, III, V, II
C
__54) Colchicine is a toxin that binds to tubulin proteins and prevents microtubules from elongating. What effect might this have on dividing cells? A) Cells will be able to complete mitosis, but cytokinesis will not occur. B) Chromosomes will not be able to condense, so mit osis will not occur. C) Sister chromatids will not be properly separated into separate daughter cells. D) Replicated chromosomes will not be able to stick together, so sister chromatids will not properly sort into daughter nuclei. E) The cell will not be able to move past the restriction point, so DNA will not be replicated.
C
13) In a haploid dominant species A) the multicellular organism is diploid and only the gametes are haploid. B) the multicellular organism is haploid and only the gametes are diploid. C) diploid cells are produced by mitosis and haploid cells are produced by meiosis. D) the multicellular organism is diploid, and only the zygo te is haploid. E) the multicellular organism is haploid, and only the zygote is diploid.
E
2) Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of a checkpoint that controls the progression of the cell cycle? A) During the G1 checkpoint, cyclin and cyclin- dependent kinases combine to form complexes that activate proteins involved in DNA replication. B) The G2 checkpoint checks for DNA damage and determines if all of the DNA is replicated. C) The metaphase checkpoint determines if all chromosomes are attached to the spindle apparatus. D) Cytokinesis involves the formation of cleavage furrow to separate the cells. E) The G1 checkpoint determines if conditions are favorable for cell division and if the DNA is undamaged.
D
21) When a gamete that is lacking a sex chromosome due to nondisjunction has fused with a gamete carrying an X chromosome, this type of abnormality leads to ________. A) Triple X syndrome B) Down Syndrome C) Edward Syndrome D) Turner syndrome E) Klinefelter Syndrome
D
3) Which of the following statements about the cell cycle is correct? A) The cell cycle is a sequence of replications and divisions that produces numerous new cells . B) The phases of the cell cycle are G1, S, and M phases. C) In actively dividing cells, the S and G2 phases are collectively known as interphase. D) When the S phase of the cell cycle is finished, a cell has twice as much DNA as it did during the G1 phas e. E) During G2 phase, the cell grows and copies its chromosomes in preparation for cell division.
D
31) A female who inherits an extra X chromosome will have A) Klinefelter syndrome. B) Turner syndrome. C) Down syndrome. D) Triple X syndrome. E) Edward syndrome.
D
4) Humans have ________ different pairs of autosomes. A) 46 B) 44 C) 23 D) 22 E) 11
D
49) The following graph represents the concentration of cy clins over the course of the cell cycle. **Graph** Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the phase of the cell cycle where the red arrow is pointing? A) At this point in the cell cycle, all sister chromatids are fully formed. B) At this point in the cell cycle, DNA has already been replicated correctly. C) At this point in the cell cycle, chromosomes have properly aligned on the metaphase plate and are beginning to separate. D) At this point in the cell cycle, the cell is determining if conditions are favorable for cell division. E) At this point in the cycle the cell is continuing to grow and make abundant tubulin proteins.
D
9) The process by which haploid cells are produced from diploid cells is called A) sexual reproduction. B) mitosis. C) fertilization. D) meiosis. E) reduction.
D
11) At the end of meiosis I A) cells are haploid. B) cells are diploid. C) the homologous pairs are in separate cells. D) the cells are diploid and the homologous pairs are in separate cells. E) the cells are haploid and the homologous pairs are in separate cells.
E
39) For any given species, cells in metaphase II of meiosis would contain 2× more genetic material than cells in metaphase of mitosis.
FALSE`
47) A mutation occurs in a gene that encodes a G 1 cyclin, such that the protein is unable to bind to its CDK. How will this affect the cell cycle? A) The cell will be stuck in G 1 and will not advance through the cell cycle. B) The cell will replicate its DNA, but will be unable to progress through mitosis. C) The cell will rapidly replicate its DNA and progress th rough mitosis, causing uncontrolled cell division, and leading to cancer. D) The cell will proceed thru mitosis without replicating its DNA. E) The cell will proceed to the S phase, and DNA repair enzymes will repair the mutated cyclin when it replicates t he DNA.
a
48) The following graph represents the concentration of cyclins over the course of the cell cycle. **GRAPH** Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the cell cycle where the red arrow is pointing? A) CDK proteins are actively phosphorylating proteins that are involved in DNA replication. B) CDK proteins are actively phosphorylating proteins that are responsible for assembling the mitotic spindle. C) CDK proteins are actively phosphorylating and activating cyclins so that the cell will prepare to replicate its DNA. D) CDK proteins are actively phosphorylating and activating cyclins so that the cell will properly assemble the spindle apparatus. E) CDK proteins are actively phosphorylating regions of the DNA that need to be targeted for DNA repair.
a
46) Which of the following statements regarding the G 1 (first gap) phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle is NOT true? A) Most cells spend the majority of their lives in the G 1 phase of the cell cycle. B) Cells that are terminally differentiated and will not divide mitotically might exit the G 1 phase and enter the G 0 phase. C) If environmental conditions are favorable during the G 1 phase, G 1 cyclins are degraded causing the cell to prepare to replicate its DNA. D) The G 1 phase is only part of interphase. E) If DNA is heavily damaged, checkpoint proteins will delay the cell cycle; the damage will either be fixed or cell division will be permanently stopped.
c
36) Homologous chromosomes are identical copies of each other.
false
37) Mitotic cell division is never used by organisms as a means of reproduction.
false
40) The karyotype of a normal human male would show a total of 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes.
false
41) If a cell contains 20 chromosomes during G2, it will have 40 chromosomes during S.
false
42) At prometaphase, the sister chromatids are organized into a single row in the center of the cell.
false
38) A diploid queen honeybee produces eggs by meiosis. Some of these eggs are never fertilized, while the rest are. These unfertilized eggs develop into haploid male honeybees. This can be an example of sexual reproduction.
true
43) A cell undergoing meiosis that contains sister chromatids may be either haploid or diploid.
true
44) One major difference between metaphase I and metaphase II is the presence or absence of bivalents.
true
45) Sexual life cycles include both haploid and diploid stages.
true
