Mod 4 - 6 Vocab+Practice Quizzes
What are signs of increased intracranial pressure?
- cheyne-stroke respirations (fast, slow, apnea) - ataxic (biot) respirations - decrease pulse - headache - nausea - vomiting - decreased alertness - bardycardia - sluggish or non responsive eyes decerebrate posturing - crushing reflux
Where are afflicted bruises when someone is abusing another individual?
- buttock, lowerback, genitalia, inner thighs, cheek, earlobe, upper lip and inside of mouth
When preforming the daily inspection of an ambulance what should you be looking for?
- cleanliness -quality - function of the med equp - supplies
What is the treatment for envemonation?
- calm -wash with soap and water - be preped with epi - dont give anything by mount - supine -bring snake with if possibel
What are some potential hazards to improper splinting?
- compression of nerves, tisues, and blood - dleay transport - reducted of distal circulation - aggravation fo the injury -
In regards to the mechanism of ventilation. What occurs if an individual has a spinal injuries below C5?
- can no l.onger move intercoastal muscles (paralysis of all muscles below shoulders. - can still breath with the diaphragm
What is the purpose of spinal nerves (31 pairs)
- conduct impulses from the skin and other organs to the spinal cord - conduct motot impulses from the spinal cord to the muscles - spinal nerves serving the extremitites are arranged in complex networks
What are the 5 ways the body can lose heat?
- conduction - convenction - evaporation - radiation - respiration
what are some signs of airway infection in a child?
- congestion - fever -drooling - cold like symp
what are the functions of dressing and bandages?
- control bleeding - protect the wound - and tevent contamination and infection
What are the three functions of dressings and bandages?
- control bleeding - protect the wound from further damage - to prevent further contimination and infection
What is the treatment for someone that is experiancing cushings triad?
- controlled hyperventilations of you patietb via positive-pressure ventilations at a rate of 20 breats / min
How do you treat neck injuries?
- cover with occusive dressing - apply manual pressure but do not compress both carotid arteries at the same time - risk of air embolism high.
What are things that you should determine in the case of a car vs a motorcycle ?
- deformity of the motorcylce - side of most damage - distance of skid in the road - defomity of stationary objects or other vehicles extended and location of deformity in the helment
What does burn severity depend on?
- depth - extent - areas involved - preexsting medical conditions -patents older than 55 and younger than 5
How do you deal with a psychotic patient?
- deteremine if the situation is dangerous - clearly identify yourslef - be calm, direct, - mainiatn an emotional distance - dont touch, and dont go along with dilusions - they have their own rules and logic that isnt actually logical - dont argue - explain everything you are doing - involve people that they trust
What are the three most common methods to control external bleeding?
- direct, even pressure and elevation - pressure dressing and or splints - touniquests
what are S/S for a black widow spider bite?
- dizziness -sweating -nausea -vomiting -rashes - tightness in chest - sever cramps
What are common symptoms with a concussion?
- dizziness -weakness - visual changes - nausea vommiting - ringing in the ears - slurred speech - inability to focus if a patient has these signs and symptoms they may have a more severe underlying injury as well
What are the contradicitons of using a tourniquet?
- do not apply directly over a joint - always palce the tourniquet proximal to the injury - make sure that tourniquet is tightened securely - never use wire, rope, a belt, or anyt other narrow material as it can cut the skin - do not place padding under the tourniquet - never cover the touniquet with a bandage -write the tourniquet time on the patients forhead
What are important factors in determine the severity of a local cold injury?
- duration of the exposure - temp to which the body was exposed - wind velocity during exposure
when do acromioclavicular joint injuries occur?
- during sports and occurs when the collar bone pushed away from the clavicle distal end
What are combat veterans prone to for their health due to PTDS?
- early heart disease, - higher incidence of type 2 diabetes - loss of brain greay matter 0 higher incident of traumaict brain injury
When would you call an emergancy air mecial services?
- exteneded period required to access or extract a remote or trapped patient - patient needs ALS care and no ALS lvele ground ambulance service is available - multiple trauma patients - mass casualty incident - 20 - 25 miles
What is the delivery position?
- firm surface with pasdded blankets, sheets, towels - elevate hips 2 - 4 inches support neck, head, and upper back - legs and hips flexed with her feet flat and her knees spread apart
What are things that you should evaluate in a lateral car crash.?
- very common cause of death in associated crashes - lateral wiplash - lateral chest and abdomen injuries - fractures to lower extremities -organ damage from third collision
What ar ethe goals of in-line traction?
- stabilize the fracture fragments - align the limbs sufficiently - avoid potential nerovascular compromise
what are some possible traumatic condiitons that may cause internal bleeding?
- stomach ulcer - lacerated organ - ruptured spleen - brokwn bone, rib or femur - pelvic fracture
what should you do if a lift become uncontrolled?
- stop, reposition, and resume
What are some reasons someone would have complications with an orthopaedic injury?
- strenght of the force that causes the injury - location - patients overal all health
How does hte body try to rid itselft of excess heat?
- sweating - dilation of skin blood vessels - removal of clothing and relocation to a cooler location
what will you generally observe in a ligamanet injury?
- swelling, - occasional eccymosis - point tendernes - joint effusion
What are signs of hypoperfusion in children?
- tachycardia -poor capillary refil time - Altered LOC
What are the presenationfor a pediatric patient in pneumonia?
- tachypnea - nasal flaring - hypothermia or fever - unilateral diminished breath sounds or crackling over the infect lung segment
What are key signs to look for for a person that may be potentially violent?
- tense muscles, clenched fists, glaring eyes - pacing - cannont sit still - fiercly preotecting persoanl space
when shoul dyou remove an impaled object?
- the object is in the cheek or mouth, and obstructin the airway - the objects is in the chest and interferes with CPR
What are the two dangers of an electrical burn?
- there may be a alarge amount of deep tissue injury - the patient may go into cardiac or respiratory asses from the electrical shock
how are pediatric integumentary system different than an adult?
- thinner skin (less subcutaneous fat) - higher ratio of body surfa e area to body mass leads to larger fluid and head loss.
When are you allowed to restain someone?
- to protect youself or others from bodily harm - to prevent the patient from injuring himself or herself
what conditions cause the bends?
- too rapid an ascent - to long of a dive at too deep a depth - repeated dives within a short period of time nitrogen dissolves in bloood
The severity of a chemical burn is directly related to what three factors?
- type of chemical - concentration - duration of exposure.
What are the pertinant observations that you need to make when responding to terrorism?
- type of location - type of call -number of patients - victims statements - preincident indicator
traumatic injuries occur or caused by
- underlying medical conditons - medical ilness -when the bodies tissues are exposed to energy levels beyond thier tolerance
What are the structures within the neck?
- upper airway - esopjagus - carodis arteries and jugular veins - thyroid charilage - cricoid chart - upper part of the trachea
What lies in the midline of the neck?
- upper part of the esophagus and the trachia
how do you determine the extent of a burn?
- use the rules of palm or rule of nine - only count 2nd and 3rd degree burns
What are the external female genitalia?
- vaginal opening - labia majora and labia minora - clitoris - perineum
When does a new born begin sporadic breathing following birth?
15 - 30 seconds
How many EMTs does it take to apply a rigid splint?
2
how do you determeine the systolic blood pressure for a child ages 1 -10 yrs old?
70+(2 x childrens age in years) = systolic blood pressure
how much will a full-term single newboard baby weight? how much do premature babies typically weight?
7lbs 5lbs
What are the 4 stages of systemic hypothermia and what cores temperatures do they occur at?
93-95 (mild hypothermia) S/S - shiver, food stamping, vasoconstriction, tachypnea, LOC - withdrawn 89-92 (more severe) S/S - loss of coordination, muscle stiffness, bradypnea, bardycardia, LOC - confused, lethargic,sleepy 80-88 S/S - coma, weak pulse, dsysthmias, bradypnea, LOC - unresponsive <80 S/S - apparent death, cardiac arrest, unresponsive
commotio cordis
A blunt chest injury caused by a sudden, direct blow to the chest that occurs only during the critical portion of a person's heartbeat. Msy resutls in immediate cardic arrest
incident command system (ICS)
A system implemented to manage disasters and mass-casualty incidents in which section chiefs, including finance, logistics, operations and planning report to the incident commander. Also referred to as the incident management system.
optic nerve
A cranial nerve that transmits visual information to the brain.
structure fire
A fire in a house, apartment building, office, school, plant, warehouse, or other building.
rule of nines
A system that assigns percentages to sections of the body, allowing calculation of the amount of skin surface involved in the burn area.
scuba gear
A system that delivers air to the mouth and lungs at various atmospheric pressures, increasing with the depth of the dive; stands for self-contained underwater breathing apparatus.
traumatic brain injury (TBI)
A traumatic insult to the brain capable of producing physical, intellectual, emotional, social and vocational changes.
splint
A flexible or rigid device used to protect and maintain the position of an injured extremity.
Neisseria meningitides, what are S/S
A form of bacterial meningitis characterized by rapid onset of symptoms, often leading to shock and death. small, pinpoint, cherry-red spots or larger purple/blue rash
smallpox
A highly contagious disease; it is most contagious when blisters begin to form.
tactical situation
A hostage, robbery, or other situation in which armed conflict is threatened or shots have been fired and the threat of violence remains.
sprain
A joint injury involving damage to supporting ligaments, and sometimes partial or temporary dislocation of bone ends. Occurs when a joint is twisted or stretched beyond its normal range of motion
cerebellum
A large structure of the hindbrain that controls fine motor skills. coordinates balance and body movement
B-NICE
A memory device to recall the types of weapons of mass destruction: biologic, nuclear, incendiary, chemical, and explosive.
psychosis and what can it be brought on upon?
A mental disorder characterized by the loss of contact with reality. - mind-altering substances - intense stress - delusional disorders - schizophrenia
lymphatic system
A passive circulatory system in the body that transports a plasmalike liquid called lymph, a thin fluid that bathes the tissues of the body.
START triage
A patient sorting process that stands for Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment and uses a limited assessment of the patient's ability to walk, respirator status, hemodynamic status, and neurologic status.
traumatic asphyxia w/ S/S
A pattern of injuries seen after a severe force is applied to the chest, forcing blood from the great vessels back into the head and neck. JVD. cyanosis of the face and neck, hemorrhage in the sceler of the eye
articular cartilage
A pearly white layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surfaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints.
secondary blast injury
A penetrating or nonpenetrating injury caused by ordnance projectiles or secondary missiles.
sensorineural deafness
A permanent lack of hearing caused by a lesion or damage of the inner ear.
depression
A persistent mood of sadness, despair, and discouragement; may be a symptom of many different mental and physical disorders. or it may be a disorder on its own.
spotter
A person who assists a driver in backing up an ambulance to help adjust for blind spots at the back of the vehicle.
school-age
A person who is 6 to 12 years of age.
cavitation
A phenomenon in which speed causes a bullet to generate pressure waves, which cause damage distant from the bullet's path by the rapid changes in the tissue and fluid pressure that occurs with the projectile. - temporary larger -permanent - smaller the opening
reverse triage
A triage process used in treating multiple victims of a lightning strike, in which efforts are focused on those who are in respiratory and cardiac arrest; differs from conventional triage where such patients would be classified as deceased.
sterilization
A process, such as heating, that removes microbial contamination.
phosgene
A pulmonary agent that is a product of combustion, resulting from a fire at a textile factory or house or from metalwork or burning Freon. It is a very potent agent that has a delayed onset of symptoms, usually hours.
abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
A rapidly fatal condition in which the walls of the aorta in the abdomen weaken and blood leaks into the layers of the vessel, causing it to bulge.
sulfur mustard (H)
A vesicant; it is a brownish, yellowish oily substance that is generally considered very persistent; has the distinct smell of garlic or mustard and, when released, is quickly absorbed into the skin and/or mucous membranes and begins an irreversible process of damaging the cells. Also called mustard gas.
respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
A virus that causes an infection of the lungs and breathing passages; can lead to other serious illnesses that affect the lungs or heart, such as bronchiolitis and pneumonia; highly contagious and spread through droplets.
jugular vein distention
A visual bulging of the jugular veins in the neck that can be caused by fluid overload, pressure in the chest, cardiac tamponade, or tension pneumothorax.
avulsion, which layers of the skin is it between
An injury in which soft tissue is torn completely loose or is hanging as a flap. often results in signifant bleeding increased risk for infection typically the subcutanious and the fasha layer
open abdominal injury
An injury in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination.
closed abdominal injury
An injury in which there is soft-tissue damage inside the body but the skin remains intact.
penetrating wound
An injury resulting from a sharp, piercing object.
crushing injury - what is the severity dependent on and what can it cause
An injury that occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body. - depended on the amount of force and the length of the force - problematic when an object is crushing for over 4 hours mke sure to call ALS so they can adminiter fluids before the object is removed - may cause the cartilages of the upper airway and laryna to fracture cause leakage into the soft tissue
primary (direct) injury
An injury to the brain and its associated structures that is a direct result of impact to the head.
closed chest injury
An injury to the chest in which the skin is not broken, usually caused by blunt trauma.
danger zone (hot zone)
An area where people can be exposed to hazards such as electric wires, sharp metal edges, broken glass, toxic substances, lethal radiation, fire, or hazardous materials.
sexual assault
An attack against a person that is sexual in nature, the most common of which is rape.
psychiatric emergency
An emergency in which abnormal behavior threatens a person's own health and safety or the health and safety of another person, for example when a person becomes suicidal, homicidal, or has a psychotic episode.
mass-casualty incident (MCI)
An emergency situation involving three or more patients or that can place great demand on the equipment or personnel of the EMS system or has the potential to produce multiple casualties.
secondary containment
An engineered method to control spilled or released product if the main containment vessel fails.
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
An evaluation tool used to determine level of consciousness, which evaluate and assigns point values (scores) for eye opening, verbal response, and motor response, which are then totaled; effective in helping predict patient outcomes.
apparent life-threatening event (ALTE)
An event that causes unresponsiveness, cyanosis, and apnea in an infant, who then resumes breathing with stimulation
psychiatric disorderW
An illness with psychological or behavioral symptoms and/or impairment in functioning caused by a social/situational stress, diseases, psychologic, genetic, physical illness (diabetes), chemical (drugs), or biologic disturbance (electrolytes)
blunt trauma
An impact on the body by objects that cause injury without penetrating soft tissues or internal organs and cavities.
hazardous materials (HazMat) incident
An incident in which a hazardous material is no longer properly contained and isolated.
closed incident
An incident that is contained; all casualties are accounted for.
open incident
An incident that is not yet contained; there may be patients to be located and the situation may be ongoing, producing more patients.
work of breathing
An indicator of oxygenation and ventilation; reflects the patient's attempt to compensate for hypoxia.
pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
An infection of the fallopian tubes and the surrounding tissues of the pelvis. cheif complaint is abdominal pain, hurts worse when walking. usually starts during or after menstration
contagious
An infectious disease that spreads from one human to another; communicable.
meningitis and S/S
An inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord it is usually caused by a virus or a bacterium. - fever - altered LOC - seizures - Infants 2-3 months - apnea, cyanosis, fever, high pitch cry, and hypothermia, bulging frontanelles
croup
An inflammatory disease of the upper respiratory system that may cause a partial airway obstruction and is characterized by a barking cough; usually seen in children.
tertiary blast injury
An injury from whole-body displacement and subsequent traumatic impact with environmental objects.
amputation
An injury in which part of the body is completely severed.
cerebrum
Area of the brain responsible for all voluntary activities of the body and conscious thought. divided in two hemispheres with 4 lobes 75% of the brains total volume
control zones
Areas at a hazardous materials incident that are designated as hot, warm, or cold, based on safety issues and the degree of hazard found there.
blind spots
Areas of the road that are blocked from your view by your vehicle or mirrors.
fontanelles
Areas where the neonate's or infant's skull has not fused together; usually disappear at approximately 18 months of age.
glenoid fossa
The part of the scapula that joins with the humeral head to form the glenohumeral joint.
trajectory
The path a projectile takes once it is propelled.
aging
The process by which the temporary bond between the organophsophate and acetylcholinesterase undergoes hydrolysis, results in a permanent covalent bond.
ovulation
The process in which an ovum is released from a follicle.
demobilization
The process of directing responders to return to their facilities when work at a disaster or mass-casualty incident has finished, at least for those particular responders.
drowning
The process of experiencing respirator impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid.
cleaning
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface.
decontamination
The process of removing or neutralizing radioactive, chemical, or other hazardous material from clothing, equipment, vehicles, patients, and responders and properly disposing of it.
triage
The process of sorting patients based on the severity of injury and medical need to establish treatment and transportation priorities.
potential energy
The product of mass, gravity and height, which is converted into kinetic energy and results in injury, such as from a fall.
mastoid process
The prominent bony mass at the base of the skull about 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear.
contact hazard
The term used to describe danger posed by a chemical whose primary route of entry into the body is through the skin; posed by a hazardous agent that gives off very little or no vapors; also called a skin hazard.
vapor hazard
The term used to describe danger posed by an agent that enters teh body through the respiratory system.
placenta
The tissue attached to the uterine wall that nourishes the fetus through the umbilical cord.
sclera
The tough, fibrous, white portion of the eye that protects the more delicate inner structures and helps maintain the globular shape
radiation
The transfer of heat to colder objects in the environment by radiant energy; for example, heat gain from a fire.
lens
The transparent part of the eye through which images are focused on the retina.
cornea
The transparent tissue layer in front of the pupil and iris of the eye.
fallopian tubes
The tubes that extend from the uterus to the region of the ovary and through which the ovum passes from the ovary to the uterus; the primary location for fertilization of the ovum.
neutron radiation
The type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source, involving particles that are among the most powerful forms of radiation; the particles easily penetrate through lead and require several feet of concrete to stop them.
polypharmacy
The use of multiple medications on a regular basis.
birth canal
The vagina and cervix.
termination of command
The end of the incident command structure when an incident draws to a close.
kinetic energy
The energy of a moving object. ke = 1/2 mass x velocity2 kinetic energy during a car accident it converted to work to stop the car
What is contained in the mediastinum?
The heart, the great vessels (aorta, vena cava, pulmonary vessels), part of the esophagus and part of the trachea
supine hypotensive syndrome
Low blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the weight of the pregnant uterus when the woman is supine.
dirty bomb
Name given to an explosive radiologic dispersal device.
anisocoria
Naturally occurring uneven pupil size.
connecting nerves
Nerves in the spinal cord that connect the motor and sensory nerves with short fibers, allow exchange of simple messages
botulinum
Produced by bacteria, this is the most potent neurotoxin known. When introduced into the body, this neurotoxin affects the nervous system's ability to function and causes botulism.
What issues are handled by a psychologist vs a psychiatrist?
Psychologist - clinical depression psychiatrist - sever psychological problems where an individual will need medication
pulmonary blast injuries
Pulmonary trauma resulting from short-range exposure to the detonation of high-energy explosives.
central pulses
Pulses that are closes to the core (central) part of the body where the vital organs are located; include the carotid, femoral, and apical pulses.
solid organs
Solid masses of tissue where much of the chemical work of the body takes place (eg, the liver, spleen, pancreas, and kidneys).
calcaneus
The heel bone.
international terrorism
Terrorism that is carried out by people in a country other than their own; also know as cross-border terrorism. outside of the united states
domestic terrorism
Terrorism that is carried out by people in their own country.
state-sponsored terrorism
Terrorism that is funded and/or supported by nations that hold close ties with terrorist groups.
retrograde amnesia
The inability to remember events leading up to a head injury.
incident commander (IC)
The individual who has overall command of the incident in the field.
dermis
The inner layer of the skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels.
temporomandibular joint
The joint formed where the mandible and cranium meet, just in front of the ear.
disinfection
The killing of pathogenic agents by direct application of chemicals.
high-level disinfection
The killing of pathogenic agents by using potent means of disinfection
dissemination
The means by which a terrorist will spread an agent, for example, by poisoning the water supply or aerosolizing the agent into the air or ventilation system of a building.
work
The measure of force over distance. forces that bend, pull, or compress tissues beyond thier inherent limits results in the work that causes injury.
peritoneum
The membrane lining the abdominal cavity (parietal peritoneum) and covering the abdominal organs (visceral peritoneum).
four-person log roll
The recommended procedure for moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury from the ground to a long backboard or other spinal immobilization device.
flank
The region below the rib cage and above the hip.
core temperature
The temperature of the central part of the body (eg, the heart, lungs, and vital organs)
ambient temperature
The temperature of the surrounding environment.
venules
Very small, thin-walled blood vessels that empty into the veins
What are S/S of asthma? Treatment?
Wheezing, cough, dyspnea, and chest tightness after exposure to a precipitating factor or trigger. Expiration may be prolonged. bronchodilator via metered-dose inhaler with a spacer mask device
freelancing
When individual units or different organization make independent and often inefficient decision about the next appropriate action.
spiral fracture
a fracture in which the bone has been twisted apart
patholigical fracture
a fracture of weakened or dieases bone
visceral pain
a poorly localized, dull, or diffuse pain that arises from the abdominal organs, or viscera
Which of the following is a good guideline for physical examination of any patient? a) Avoid touching without permission. b) Complete the physical exam first, then check the ABCs. c) Always work toe-to-head. d) Examine extremities first.
a) Avoid touching without permission.
Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system? a) Extrication b) Triage c) Transport d) Treatment
a) Extrication
where is the superficial temporal artery
anterior to the ear int he temporal region
A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: a) preeclampsia. b) an ectopic pregnancy. c) placenta previa. d) gestational diabetes.
b) an ectopic pregnancy.
Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should: a) limit your physical examination to the area of pain or injury. b) attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems. c) perform a rapid assessment on all geriatric patients you treat. d) rely exclusively on family members for the medical history.
b) attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems.
Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: a) ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to. b) begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation. c) perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries. d) administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
b) begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation.
The musculoskeletal system refers to the: a) involuntary muscles of the nervous system. b) bones and voluntary muscles of the body. c) connective tissue that supports the skeleton. d) nervous system's control over the muscles.
b) bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. His Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is: a) 10. b) 8. c) 9. d) 11.
c) 9.
Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of: a) a separation of chromosome 21. b) a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes. c) a triplication of chromosome 21. d) an extra pair of chromosomes.
c) a triplication of chromosome 21.
The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: a) tightness in the chest. b) difficulty with vision. c) abdominal or joint pain. d) dizziness and nausea.
c) abdominal or joint pain.
An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: a) moist oral mucosa. b) bulging fontanelles. c) absent urine output. d) excessive tearing.
c) absent urine output.
Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: a) a fracture of the skull. b) spinal cord injury. c) intracranial bleeding. d) airway compromise.
c) intracranial bleeding.
When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as _______. a) crepitus. b) instability. c) guarding. d) distention.
c) guarding.
Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: a) diving. b) falls. c) hangings. d) compression.
c) hangings.
Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: a) safety goggles. b) turnout gear. c) hazardous materials gear. d) face shields.
c) hazardous materials gear.
Abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever are most likely due to _______. a) hypovolemia b) hemorrhage c) infection d) evisceration
c) infection
The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: a) stop signs. b) railroad crossings. c) intersections. d) stop lights.
c) intersections.
Mesentery are
connections from the small intestin to the abdominal lwall. clean injure and bleed into the peritoneal cavity.
Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) headache and fever. b) a stiff or painful neck. c) sunken fontanelles. d) altered mental status.
c) sunken fontanelles.
A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: a) partial-thickness burn. b) full-thickness burn. c) superficial burn. d) second-degree burn.
c) superficial burn.
what are teh 5 sections of the vertebrae? How many vertebrae are in each section?
cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacral (5), coccygeal(4)
What are some signs of hypoperfusion?
change in mental status - weakness, faintness, dizziness - change in skin, pale, cool, clammy - tachycardia - thirst, nausea, vomiting - shallow, rapid breathing - dull eyes, slighly dilated pupiles - capillary refil of more than 2 seconds in chilren - weak, rapid (thready pulse - altered LOC
What would a blocked/infected shunt cause?
changes in mental status and respiratory arrest
vacuum mattress
conform to body contours to immobilize geriatric patients with pelvic fractures can be used on a supine, sitting, or stadning patient more comforatable
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: a) cerebellum and brain. b) cerebrum and meninges. c) meninges and spinal cord. d) brain and spinal cord.
d) brain and spinal cord.
The thoracic cavity is seperated from the abdominal cavity by the:
diaphram
What is the difference between head bobbing and seesaw respirations?
head bob is head forward and back seesaw is belly out chest in, and chest in belly out
What is the difference between hemorrhagic and ischemic stroke?
hem-- broken blood vessel cause bleeding in the brain ischemic - when blood clot blocks the flow of blood to a portion of the brain
What type of consent is used if a person is not mentally competent to grant consent?
implied however if you are ever not sure call for a assistance of law enforcement personnal or guidance from medical control
which is more deadly cutaneous anthrax or pulmonary? What is the route of exposure?
inhalation, cutaneous, and GI
What are the organs that are most susseptable to becoming injuried during a blast injury?
organs with air -middle ear - ear drug can rupture with a change in 5 - 7 lbs of pressure over atmospheric - lung - gastrointestinal tract
What does the trachea connect?
oropharynx and larynx with the main passages of the lungs
what musculoskeletal injury posses the greatest risk for shock due to blood loss?
pelivic fracture. pelvis can accommodate a lot volume of blood, and shock can occur due to injruy to femoral veins or artiers. followed by a femur fracture as it can cause up to 1L of blood per femur
what is aortic ruptor (shearing)? and when does it typically occuur>
the aorta will seperate from its supporting structures and will result in bleeding to death within a matter of seconds typically will occur with rapid foward deceleration accidents. aka the chest hitting a steering wheel during a car accident
frostnip
the superficial local tissue destruction caused by freezing; it is limited in scope and does not destroy the full thickness of skin
rabid
Infected with rabies.
What are some types of neurotoxins?
- botulinum, ricin
What are some examples of functional disorders?
- Schizp[hrenia - anxiety - conditions - depression A chemical or physical basis of these disordered does not alter the appearance of the patient
What are some common causes for unequal pupils?
- brain injury - nerve disease - glaucoma - meningitis
What are the characteristic signs of anaphylaxis? what is the dose of EPi for a child?
- broncoconstriction - vasodilation -stridor/wheezing -0.15mL
When you arrive at the scene when on am abulance run what should you do ?
- Size up the scene and report your finding to dispatch
What is some signs that an infant is having a seizure?
- abnormal gaze - sucking - "bicycling" motions
When should you supect kidney damage?
- abrasion, laceration, contusion, penetrations wound, on the flank - fracturs on either side of the lower rib cage or lower thoracic pr upper lumbar vertebrae
How should you store equipement and supplies in the ambulance
- according to how urgently and how often they are used.
What crisises can result in a psychiatric emergency?
- acute medical situation - medical illness - mind-altering substances - stress
What are possible causes for vaginal bleeding?
- adnormal menstration - vaginal trauma - ectopic pregancy - spontaneous abortion - cervical polyps or cancer
how do you tell the difference between air embolism and decompression sickness? how do you treat both?
- air - generaly occurs immediated on the return of the surface - decompression sickness may not occur for several hours hyperbaric (recompression chamber)
What are some warrning signs of suicide?
- air of tearfulness, sadness, deep despiration, or hoplessness - avoiding eye contact, speaking slowly, and projectong a sense of vacancy - unable to talk about the future - suggestions of suicide - having any plans related to death (will, giving objects away, funneral)
what are some ways that you can stimulate a newborn baby?
- airway, drying, warming, suctioing, or tacticle stimulation
What is the difference between anterior and posterior nose bleeds?
- anterior - usally originate from the area of the sptum and bleed slowly - posterior - are usually more severe and often cause the blood to drain into the throa
What is the difference bewtreen arterial bleeding, venous bleeding, and capillary bleeding
- arterial blood is bright red and spurts in time with the pulse - venous leeding is dark red, and flows slowly or rapidly depending on the size of the vein. does not spirt -capilary bleeding is a dark red, oozes steadily but slowly.
What are some safe ways to approach a behavioral crisis?
- be direct - prepared to spend extra time - stay with the patient - do not get to close - express interest - avoid fighting be honest and reassuring - dont judge
what does blood clotting formation depend on
- blood statsis - changes in the blood vessel walls vasostriction - bloods ability to clot quagolation
What are the most common mechanisms of soft tissue injuries?
- blunt trauma - penetrating trauma - barotrauma (pressure) - and burns
What do you use to remove a hard and soft contact
- hard - small suction cup - soft - two drops of saline in the ye, pinch the lens between yor thumb and intex finger
what is the increased medical risk for patients that have down syndrome?
- heart conditions and hearing and vision problems - have large tonges iwth smaller oral and nasal cavities
What should you take into account for a fall victim?
- heigh of the fall - the type of surgface struck - the part of the body that hit first, followed by the path of enery
What are some symptoms of PTDS?
- helplessness, anxiety, anger, and fear
What are signs that a shunt is malfunctioning?
- high pitched cy or bulging fontanelles - headache - projectile vomiting - altered mental status - arritability - fever -nausea -difficulty walking
What are some normal changes that occur during pregnacy?
- hormone levels increase - shift in the normal position of the female organs (displacement of the disphram --? increase RR and decrease Minute volume - blood volume increases -red blood cells increase - clotting ability increase - heart rate increases 20% -weight gain
What are symptoms of delirium?
- hyperactive irrational behavior - vivid hallucinations - hypertension - tachycardia - diaphoresis - dilated pupiles
How can secondary brain injuried occur?
- hypoxia - hypotension - cerebral edema - intracranial hemorrhage - increase intercranial pressure - cerbral ischemia - infection
how frontelles assist you during an assessment?
- if they are bulging = increase ICP, - sucken = dehydrated
What should you do if a gastrostomy tube becomes dislodged?
- immediately stop the flow of any fluids and assess for signs or symptoms of bleeding into the stomach
How do you rewarm in the field?
- immerse frostbite in water 102 - 104 - dress the area with dry sterial dressings - do not break blisters
What are ridig splints?
- immobilize fractures - reduce pain - prevent soft tissue damage 0
What vital signs can chnage if there is a signifant blood loss?
- increase in heart rate - increase in respiration rate - decease in BP
What are the three ways that the rate and amount of heat loss of gain in the body is midified?
- increase pr decrease in heat production (shivering or reducing activity) 0 move to an area where heat loss can be increases or decreases - wear the appropriate clothing fo the environment
what are some problems associated with postterm pregnancy>
- increase risk for injry - increase need for cesarean section - perineal tears and infection - meconium
Gastric distension can results in
- increased interthroaxic pressure resulting in decreases cardiac output.
What are contrainications of using a traction spint
- injuries of the upper extremities - injuries close to or involoving the knee - injuries of the pelvis - parial amulation or avulsion with bone seperation - lower leg, foot, or ankle injuries
What is accountability in mobilization and deployment?
- keeping your supervisor advised of your location, actions, and completed tasks
What are things that you should evaluate in a rear end car crash.?
- known to cause whiplash-type injuries - acceleration type injury to the brain (third collision) - backseat passengers have a chance of injury with thier back(lateral or lumbar spine)
What are some signs of maxillary fractures. When do they typically occur?
- massive facial sweeling - instabilitu of the facial bones - misalignment of teeth blunt-force, high-energy impacts
In regards to the mechanism of ventilation. What occurs if an individual has a spinal injuries above C3?
- may lose all abiility to breath
What are some signs of mandible fractures?
- misalignment of the teeth - numbness of the chin - an inability to open the mouth
What are the associated health concerns with bariatric patients?
- mobility dif - diabetes - hypertension - heart disease - stroke
how is the pediatric airway different than an adult?
- smaller in diameter and shorter in length - lungs are smaller - heart is high in child chest -glottic opening higher and more anterior, no necks - larger, rounder occiput - larger tounge - long-floppy u-shaped epiglottis - neck structure not as ridged - narrowing, funnel-shaped upper airway - childrens o2 demand higher -intercostal muscles and diaphram weaker
How should you treat a patient with an inhalation burn
- move them outside - apply a cold compress to the throat to reduce sweeling
What can impact the bodies ability to form blood clots?
- movement - disease - medication - removal of bangages - external environment - body temperature - severity of injury
What shoudl you relay to the dispatcher when you are beinging your transportation stage?
- number of patients - name of recieving hospital - beginning milage
What eye injuires should alert you to the possibility of a head injury? (when assesing the eyes)
- one pupil larger then the other - eyes not moving together - failure of the eyes to follow your finger - bleeding under the conjunctive - protrusion of bulging of the eye
What are some key factors that you shoul dindirect;y deteremine when assessing a patient with excited delirium?
- orientation - memory - concentration - judgment ability to communicate, appearance, dress, and personal hygiene
What are the 6 P's of the musculoskeletal assessment?
- pain - peralosis - pearastesha (numbness/tingling) - pulselessness - pallar -pressure
What are some signs of vasoconstriction in an child?
- pallor - weak distal pulse in the extremities - delayed capillary refill - cool hands and feet
What are some things you are allowed to do in an ambulance with the use of warning lights
- park in an illegal location - proceed through a redlight - driver faster than the speed limit - drive agains the flwo fo traffic - travel left of center to make an illegal pass ] but NEVER allowed to pass a school bus
What are some of the functions of the skin?
- pathogen protection - fluid isolation - regaulate tempertature - nerves in skin to report sensations and environement to teh brain
What are some signs of a skull fracture?
- patients head appears deformed - visible cracks in teh skull - ecchymosis (bruising) raccoon eyes of battle signs.
if someone has a clavicle fracture what should you be suspicious of?
- possible damage to the neurovascular bundle and pneumothorax
What are the three concepts of energy?
- potential - kinetic - work
What topics should you focus on if you come upon a sexual assault patients?
- provide medical treatment - offer psychological care of patients - reserve evidence - take history - produce a patient care report
What does the symthathetic nervous system cause?
- pupils to dilate - smooth muscles in lungs to dilate - increase heart rate - bloodpressure to rise - shunting blood from the vital organs and muscles
What are some signs that a stoma for a colostomy or ileostomy is infected?
- redness - warm skin around the stoma - tenderness over the colostomy r ileostomy site
What mnemonic shoul dyou used to treat closed soft-tissue injuries?
- rest - ice - compression - vasocostriction - elevation - just above the level of the heart to reduce swelling - splinting
fractures of olecranon process of the ulna can result from, are associated with?
- results from direct or indirect forces - often associate with lacerations and abrasions
If someone has a liver injury where is thier referred pain?
- right shoulder
What are S/S of envenomation?
- serve burning at site - sweeling and bluish discoloration -weakness -nausea and vomiting - sweating -seizures -fainting
what are some S/S of a hip dislocation?
- sever pain in the hip - stron resistance to movement of the joint - tenderness on palpation
What are classifications of burns based on?
- source - depth - severity
What are things that you should determine in the case of a car vs pedestrain and bike ?
- speed of vehicle - wheather the patient was thrwon into the air - if the patient was struck and pulled under the car - call for ALS backup - spinal stabilization
What are things that you should evaluate in a frontal car crash.?
- was the patient restrained --> seatbelts can cause internal damage - did the aibags deploy --> deceleration injuries and decerase the injuries to the face, chest and head. - ensure the airbags are turned off if they did not deploy -look for contact points
What do you do if you find a portion of avulsed skin?
- wrap in sterile dressing - place in a plastic bag - keep cool but do not place on ice - label and deliver to the ED
S&S of heart attack in geriatric pts
--dyspnea -- epigastic and abdominal pain --weak feeling --syncope --confusion --AMS --peripheral edema
how much time should you spend on the scene of a trauma victum?
-10 minutes
pneumothorax
A partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space.
What are the S/S for a stroke?
-Altered LOC -numbness,weakness on one side - slurred speech -visiual disturbacnes -headache
What information should dispatch recieve?
-NOI< MOI - name location, callback number - # of patients - other pertinite info
What are frequent signs of internal bleeding?
-abdominal tenderness - guarding - rigidity - pain - distension - dizziness, syncopy, and weakness -tachycardia - hypotension - hematoma - contusion - hematemesis - melena
depressed skull fracture
-bone pressed inward into the brain tissue to at least the thickness of the skull; skull depressed : may cause bruising or tearing of dura and lead to menengitis or seizures, -skull depressed : may cause bruising or tearing of dura and lead to menengitis or seizure
how do you treat an evisceration in an admonal wound?
-cover with sterial guaze -secure the guaze with an occusive dressing -keep the organ moist and warm
how should you treat an animal bite?
-debridement - antibiotic - tetanus - surgial repair all bites should be elevated by a physician
What are the S/S for right sided heart failure?
-dependent/peripheral edema - JVD - ascites (fluid in abdomen) -enlarged liver typically caused by left side heart failure
what is the purpose of ICS
-ensure responders and public safety -achieve incident management goals -ensure the effceint use of resources
What are the 6 types of motor vehicle crashed classifications?
-frontal - rear end lateral rollover rotational t-bone
when shoudl you provide rapid transport for a pregnant patient?
-have a significant bleeding and pain - hypertension - serizure - LOC
What three main internal features do chest injuries afflict?
-heart - lungs - great blood vessels
What are the leading causes of death in patients over 65 years olf
-heart disease - diabetes -stroke -cancer -pulmonary disease -trauma
what is conducted during the en route to the station phase?
-infrom dispatch of your serveice - clean and disinfect - restock
What are things that you should evaluate in a rollover car crash.?
-large vehicles more prone - easer to obtain a spinal injury from hitting the ceiling - potential ejection from the car - vehile can strick more objects -
What are some physical changes that occur in geriatic that affects their confindence in mobility?
-muscle fibers become smaller, - motor nerurons decrease in number - strength declines -ligaments and cartilage of joints loss thier elasticity
What are the S/S for rockymountain spotten fever?
-occurs withing 7 - 10 days after the bite - nausea - vomiting - headache - weakness - paralysis - cardiorespirtoaty collapse
What are some signs/sympotoms of chest injury?
-pain ated or increase with breathing - bruising to the chest wall - localized pain aggravate the site of injury - crepitus with palpation of the chest - penetrating injury to the chest - dyspnea - heoptysis - rapid, weak paulse and low blood pressure - cyanosis around the lips or fingernails
What are two common diseases that are common in patients that are bedridden?
-pneumonia -UTI
How does age bring change in kidney function?
-reduction in renal function -reduction in renal blood flow -tubule degeneration thus mess up acid-base balance, toxins retention, ,and electrolight balance
What are the additional S/S that accompany a fever for a pediatric patient
-respirtory distress -shock -stiff neck - hot skin -flushed cheeks - bulging fontanelles
how do pediatric patients respond to fluid loss?
-tachycardia - tachypnea - cyanosis
infant
0-12 months
What is the statistic for reported rape and sexually molested
1 - 5 rape 1 to 4 sexually molested
What are the different types of bandages and when are they best used?
1) soft roller (easiest to use) 2. rolls of guaze 3. triangular 4. adhesive tape - holds smaller dressings and secures large
What are the three stages of labor?
1)Dilation of the cervix (begins with onset of contractions and ends when the cervix is fully dilated) 2)Delivery of the infant (begins when the fetus begins to encounter the birth canal and ends when it is born) 3)Delivery of the placenta (birth of the newborn to the delivery of the placenta)
Nasal canula flow rate and % O2 admin.
1-6L/min 24-44%
What does the Mnemonic CHILD ABUSE stand for?
1. Childs developmental Age 2. history of injury 3. inapprprate parent concerns 4. lack of supervision 5. Delay of seeking care 6. affect 7. bruises 8. unusal injury patterns 9. suspicious cicumstances 10. environmental clues
how mush does dirt weight per cubic foot>
100lbs
what are the stages of wound healing
1. Inflammatory (lag) phase Days 1-4 Release histamine resulting in vasodilation to send blood there. 2. Proliferative (repair) phase Days 3-21 Collagen synthesis provides tensile strength of wound At 14 days, tensile strength of would equals that of suture 3. Remodeling (maturation) phase Days 21 up to one year new generation of blood vssels
What are some age-related changes i the cardiovascular system for a geriatric patient?
1. The heart hypertrophies - increased after load 2. cardiac output declines - decrease in stroke volume 3.
What does TICLS stand for? When is it used?
1. Tone 2. Interactivesness 3. consolability 4. look or gaze 5. speech or cry. Used to determine if a pediatric patient is sick or not.
What are age-related changes to the body that predispose an older adult to respirtory illness?
1. airway musculature becomes weakened - resulting in a decrease in breathing compacity and the inability to utilize accessory muscles. 2. alveoli become enlarged and elasticity decreases - resulting in a decrease in air exchange 3. the bodies chemoreceptors slow - resulting in decrease sensitivity to CO2 and O2 levels and reduced response to apoxia. 4. decrease in cilia - decreases the ability to cough 5. loss of mechanics of the upper airway (gag reflex) - decreases the ability to clear excretions.
What are age-related changes that predispose an older adult to respiratory illness?
1. aiway musculature comes weakened, loosed the ability to use intercostal muscles 2. alveoli in the lung become enlarged and the elasticity decreases - harder to enchange air 3. the body's chemoreceptors slow with aging therefore they do not repsond to hypoxia readily 4. loss the ability to gag thus have a hearder time expelling excretions
How large and how should you make a medvac location?
100x100 mark the landing site with cones or vehicles
What are the three collision that occur during a car accident?
1. car against another object - (Damage to the car) assessed by the vehicle, you can often deteremine the significatns of the MIO 2. passenger against the interior of the car - common passenger injuried including lower extremity fractures, flailing chest, and head trauma (work of stoping the patient 3. passengers internal organs against solid structures of the body. - may not be the most obverious but are typically the most important
In any instance of a soft tissue injury what does the EMT always have to do? 4 things
1. control bleeding 2. prevent further contimination to decrease the risk of infection 3. protect wounds from durther damage 4. apply dressing and bandages to various parts of the body.
What are the four types of crash that can occur for a motorcylce?
1. head-on crash - motocycle strikes another object and stops forward motion. 2. angular crash - motocycles strikes an object at an angle (lower extermity injuries) 3 ejection - high speeds and sudden stop 4 controlled crash - when the biker lays the bike down
What is the difference between level 1, 2, 3, 4 trauma facilities?
1. large cities, every aspect of trauma care, usally univerity based 2. less populated areas, provides initial definative care, academic, private 3. provides assessment, resuscation, emerancy care, and stabilization 4. remote locations only have ALS
What are the 4 different stages of pressure ulcers?
1. nonblanching redness with damade under skin 2. blidter or ulse tha can affect the dermis and epidermis 3. invasion of the fat layer though the fascia 4. incasion to the muscle and bone.
What factors affect exposure during an environemental situation?
1. physical condition of the patient 2. age - thermoregulation (babies cant shiver) 3. nutrition and hydration
What are the ten phases of extrication?
1. preparation 2. enrount to the scene 3. arrival at the scene 4. harzard control 5. support operations 6. gaining access 7. emergancy care 8. removal of the patient 9. transfer of the patient 10. termination
What are the 9 phases of an ambulance call?
1. preparation for call 2. dispatch 3. en route 4. arrival @ scene 5. transfer of patient to ambulance 6. en route receiving facility - transport 7. at the receiving facility delivery 8. en route to station 9. post run
What are the three parts of the cardiovascular system?
1. pump (heart) 2. Container (blood vessels) 3. Fluid (bloody and body fluids)
What should you do if a home ventilator malfunctions?
1. remove the patient from the ventilator 2. aooly a tracheostomy collar 3. place a facemask over the stoma
When are these appropriate to use? 1. Gauze pads 2. adehsive-type dressing 3. occlusive dressing 4. universal dressing
1. smaller wounds 2. minor wounds 3. prevent air and liquid from entering or exiting the wound 4. antyhing ideal to cover large wounds
What are 6 communication techniques for addressing a geriatric patient?
1. speak respectfully 2. identify yourself 3. Be aware of how you present yourself 4. look directly at the patient at eye level 5. speak slowly and distinctly 6. explain what you will do before you do it
What are the two situations in which you must apply the splint to the limb in the position of defominity?
1. then the defomity is sever 2. when you encounter resistance or extreme pain when applu gentle traction to the fracture of a shaft f a long bone
what should you do if the umbilical cord is around the babies neck during delivery
1/ as soon as the head is delivered use on finger to feel whether the cord is aound the neck 2. slip the cord gently oover the delivered head 3/ is not, cut the cord and attemp to speed up delivery
what is the iculation period for small pox
10 - 12 days
Nonrebreather flow rate and %O2 admin.,
10-15L/min prodices up to 90-95%
at what heart rate should you begin resescitation efforts on a neonate?
100 beats - fine 60 -100 beats - BVM at room air reassess every 90 sec. is does not increase att 100% o2 <60 - BVM 100% o2 if it does not increase after 90sec begin compressions
At what height is a "significant" fall? What poses the greatest threat to the patients life?
20 ft - internal injuries
When an EMS provider is operating an ambulance in emergency mode (lights and sirens), most states do not allow the provider to: 1. turn in any direction at an intersection. 2. drive in the wrong direction down a one-way street. 3. proceed through a red light without stopping. 4. pass other vehicles in a no-passing zone.
3. proceed through a red light without stopping.
at what speed with the abulance begin to hydroplace when there is warer present on the roadway?
30mph
What height should you disable the front airbag in a truck or single-seated vehicle if there is a child in the front seat?
4'9"
How do you go about restaining someone>
5 people - one for each extermity be quick team leader use an appoperate level of force talk to the patient through out the process keep dignity and respect avoid eye contact and presonal space ever leav a restained person unattended four point restraint - put the restraints at thighs not ankels - if the patient is biting put a cervical collar on
How far should you park the ambulance from a trench resue?
500 feet
how much blood can an adult comfortablly donate and over what duration of time?
500mL of lbood over 15 - 20 minutes
when do the frontalles close for infants?
6 months - posterior 18 months - anterior
At what age is someone considered geriatrics?
65
What are the hallmark signs of croup
6month- 3 years - stridor -seal bark cough
safe zone
An area of protection providing safety from the danger zone (hot zone).
artery
A blood vessel, consisting of three layers of tissues and smooth muscle, that carries blood away from the heart.
What letters do you want to use when conducting the primary assessement for a child AB.....
A - airway B- breathing C- circulation D- disability E - exposure
National Incident Management System (NIMS)
A Department of Homeland Security system designed to enable federal, state, and local governments and private-sector and nongovernmental organization to effectively and efficiently prepare for, prevent, response to, and recover from domestic incidents, regardless of cause, size, or complexity, including act of catastrophic terrorism.
urinary tract infection (UTI)
A bacterial infection, usually of the lower urinary tract (urethra and bladder) that occurs when normal flora bacteria enter the urethra and grow.
methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
A bacterium that can cause infections in different parts of the body and is often resistant to commonly used antibiotics;l it is transmitted by different routes, including the respiratory route, and can be found on the skin, in surgical wounds, in the blood-stream, lungs and urinary tract.
vancomycin-resistant enteroccoi (VRE)
A bacterium that is normally present in the human intestines and the femail reproductive tract, but which can cause infection and which is resistant to the antibiotic vancomycin.
homeostasis
A balance of all systems of the body.
ligament
A band of fibrous tissue that connects bones to bones. It supports and strengthens a joint.
sling
A bandage or material that helps to support the weight of an injured upper extremity.
swathe
A bandage that passes around the chest to secure an injured arm to the chest.
quaternary blast injury
A blast injury that falls into one of the following categories: burns, crush injuries, toxic inhalation, medical emergencies, or mental health disorders.
phosgene oxime (CX)
A blistering agent that has a rapid onset of symptoms and produced immediate, intense pain and discomfort on contact.
lewisite (L)
A blistering agent that has a rapid onset of symptoms and produces immediate, intense pain and discomfort on contact.
pulmonary embolism
A blood clot that breaks off from a large vein and travels to the blood vessels of the lung causing obstruction of blood flow.
coup-contrecoup brain injury
A brain injury that occurs when force is applied to the head and energy transmission through brain tissue causes injury on the opposite side of original impact; coup injury occurs at the point of impact; contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, as the brain rebounds.
eustachian tube
A branch of the internal auditory canal that connects the middle ear to the oropharynx.
fracture
A break in the continuity of a bone.
contusion
A bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin; also see ecchymosis (black and blue). Dermis cells are damaged. May have long lasting brain damage
contact burn
A burn cause by direct contact with a hot object.
flame burn
A burn caused by an open flame.
steam burn
A burn caused by exposure to hot steam.
flash burn
A burn caused by exposure to very intense heat, such as in an explosion.
scald burn
A burn caused by hot liquids.
subcutaneous emphysema
A characteristic crackling sensation felt on palpation of the skin, caused by the presence of air in soft tissues. ( may be a sign of crushing injury)
hemostatic agent
A chemical compound that slows or stops bleeding by assisting with clot formation. EMS is still experimental
toddler
A child age 1 to 3 years.
nerve agents
A class of chemical called organophosphates; they function by blocking an essential enzyme in the nervous system, which causes the body's organs to become overstimulated and burn out.
hemothorax, what are S/S
A collection of blood in the pleural cavity. (chest cavity) - shock with no apparant reason - decreaes breath sounds -
single command system
A command system in which one person is in charge, generally used with small incidents that involve only one responding agency or one jurisdiction.
unified command system
A command system used in larger incidents in which there is a multiagency response or multiple jurisdictions are involved.
obesity
A complex condition in which a person has an excessive amount of body fat.
schizophrenia
A complex, difficult-to-identify mental disorder whose onset typically occurs during early adulthood. Symptoms typically become more prominent over time and include delusions, hallucinations, a lack of interest in pleasure, and erratic speech. typical onset occurs during early adulthood
fetal alcohol syndrome
A condition caused by the consumption of alcohol by a pregnant woman; characterized by growth and physical problems, mental retardation, and a variety of congenital abnormalities.
hypovolemic shock
A condition in which low blood volume, due to massive internal or external bleeding or extensive loss of body water, results in inadequate perfusion.
status epilepticus
A condition in which seizures recur every few minutes w/out regaining consciousness or last more than 30 minutes.
hyperthermia
A condition in which the body core temperature rises to 101 degrees F or more. High air temp, humidity, vigorous exercise
hypoperfusion
A condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to maintain normal cellular functions; also called shock.
shock
A condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation, and therefore inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery; to maintain normal cellular functions also called hypoperfusion.
hypothermia
A condition in which the internal or core body temperature falls below 95 degrees F. typically occur in temps between 30 - 50 F
placenta previa
A condition in which the placenta develops over and covers the cervix
flail chest
A condition in which three or more ribs are fracture in two or more places or in association with a fracture of the sternum so that a segment of the chest wall is effectively detached from the rest of the thoracic cage.
pregnancy-induced hypertension
A condition of late pregnancy that is characterized by headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called preeclampsia or toxemia of pregnancy.
High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)
A condition of unknown cause in which fluid accumulates in the lungs at altitude, interfering with ventilation, resulting in shortness of breath and fatigue, and characterized by impaired blood oxygenation, mental confusion, and loss of consciousness.
hemophilia
A congenital abnormality in which the body is unable to produce clots, which results in uncontrollable bleeding. these patients need immedite transport
laceration v incision
A deep, jagged cut in the skin. commonly tears the skin (tissue) sharp, smooth cut
posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
A delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. Often the result of one or more unresolved issues concerning the incident and may relate to an incident that involved physical harm or the threat of physical harm. can be triggered by thought, smell, noise, and can results in mightmares and flaskbacks
breech presentation
A delivery in which the buttocks come out first. if the butt is out of the birth conal the delivery has bega other wise transport
vertex presentation
A delivery in which the head of the newborn comes out first.
limb presentation
A delivery in which the presenting part is a single arm or leg.
spina bifida, what are some associated conditions?
A development defect in which a portion of the spinal cord or meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possibly even outside of the body, usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area. commonly have hydrocephalus which requires the placement of a shunt - partial paralysis - loss of bowel and bladder control - latex allergy
CPR board
A device that provides a firm surface under the patient's torso.
pelvic binder
A device to splint the bony pelvis to reduce hemorrhage from bone ends, venous disruption, and pain.
anthrax
A disease caused by deadly bacteria (Bacillus anthracis) that lay dormant in a spore (protective shell); the germ is released from the spore when exposed to the optimal temperature and moisture. The routes of entry are inhalation, cutaneous, and gastrointestinal (from consuming food that contains spores).
epiglottitis
A disease in which the epiglottis becomes inflamed and enlarged and may cause an upper airway obstruction.
arteriosclerosis
A disease that causes the arteries to thicken, harden, and calcify.
atherosclerosis
A disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque, eventually leading to a partial or complete blockage of blood flow.
functional disorder
A disorder in which there is no known physiologic reason for the abnormal functioning of an organ or organ system. a disorder that impairs bodily functions when th ebody seems to be structually normal - something is wrong but the root is unknown. these conditions do not physically alter the patient
syncope
A fainting spell or transient loss of consciousness often caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain.
hymenoptera
A family of insects that includes bees, wasps, ants, and yellow jackets.
material safety data sheets (MSDS)
A form, provided by manufacturers and compounders (blenders) of chemicals, containing information about chemical composition, physical and chemical properties, health and safety hazards, emergency response, and waste disposal of a specific material; also known as a safety data sheet (SDS).
kyphosis
A forward curling of the back cause by an abnormal increase in the curvature of the spine.
displaced fracture
A fracture in which bone fragments are separated from one another, producing deformity in the limb.
blow-out fracture
A fracture of the orbit or of the bones that support the floor of the orbit.
child abuse
A general term applying to all forms of abuse and neglect of children.
osteoporosis
A generalized bone disease, commonly associated with postmenopausal women, in which there is a reduction in the amount of bone mass leading to fractures after minimal trauma in either sex.
Down syndrome
A genetic chromosomal defect that can occur during fetal development and that results in intellectual impairment as well as certain physical characteristics, such a round heard with a flat occiput and slanted, wide-set eyes.
crepitus
A grating or grinding sensation cause by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling.
autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
A group of complex disorders of brain development, characterized by difficulties in social interaction, repetitive behaviors, and verbal and nonverbal communication.
neuropathy
A group of conditions in which the nerves leaving the spinal cord are damaged, resulting in distortion of signals to or from the brain.
viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF)
A group of diseases caused by viruses that include the Ebola, Rift Valley, and yellow fevers, among others. This group of viruses causes the blood in the body to seep out from teh tissues and blood vessels.
cerebral palsy, what are some possible causes?
A group of disorders characterized by poorly controlled body movement. - damage to the brain in utero - oxygen deprived at birth - traumtic brain injury - infection such as meningitis during early childhood be prepared for seizures.
position of function
A hand position in which the wrist is slightly dorsiflexed and all finger joints are moderately flexed.
eyes forward position
A head position in which the patient's eyes are looking straight ahead and the head and torso are in line.
heat exhaustion and S/S
A heat emergency in which a significant amount of fluid and electrolyte loss occurs because of heavy sweating; also called heat prostration or heat collapse. dissiness, weakeness, syncopy, muscle cramps, dry toung thirst, normal vitals
What is the mnemonic for assessing the cause of altered metal status?
A lchol E pilepsy I nulsin O piates or other drugs U remia (kidney faliure) T rauma, temp I nfection P oisoning S hock and other ilnesses
heat stroke
A life-threatening condition of severe hyperthermia caused by exposure to excessive natural or artificial heat, marked by warm, dry skin; severely altered mental status; and often irreversible coma.Occurs at temp is 80F and humidity 80% strong, rapid pulse at first, become weaker
open-book pelvic fracture
A life-threatening fracture of the pelvis caused by a force that displaces one or both sides of the pelvis laterally and posteriorly.
pneumonic plague
A lung infection, also known as plague pneumonia, that is the result of inhalation of plague-causing bacteria.
hematoma, when does it occur
A mass of blood that has collected within damaged tissue beneath the skin or in a body cavity. occurs when a large blood vessels is broken
decay
A natural process in which a material that is unstable attempts to stabilize itself by changing its structure.
Antidote Treatment Nerve Agent Auto-Injector (ATNAA)
A nerve agent antidote kit containing atropine and pralidoxime chloride delivered a s a single dose through one needle.
DuoDote Auto-Injector
A nerve agent antidote kit containing atropine and pralidoxime chloride; delivered as single does through one needle.
sarin (GB)
A nerve agent that is one of the G agents; a highly volatile colorless and odorless liquid that turns from liquid to gas within seconds to minutes at room temperature.
tabun (GA)
A nerve agent that is one of the G agents; is 36 times more persistent than sarin and approximately half as lethal; has a fruity smell and is unique because the components used to manufacture the agent are easy to acquire and the agent is easy to manufacture.
soman (GD)
A nerve agent that is one of the G agents; twice as persistent as sarin and five times as lethal; it has a fruity odor, as a result of the type of alcohol used in the agent, and is a contact and an inhalation hazard that can enter the body through skin absorption and through the respiratory tract.
ricin
A neurotoxin derived from mash that is left from the castor bean; causes pulmonary edema and respiratory and circulatory failure leading to death.
epistaxis
A nosebleed. this can cause the patient to loss enough blood to go into shock - can be controlled by pinching the nosile and leaning the head forward - can place goze in the upper lip to put pressure
flutter valve
A one-way valve that allows air to leave the chest cavity but not return; formed by taping three sides of an occlusive dressing to the chest wall, leaving the fourth side open as a valve; may also be part of a commercial vented occlusive dressing.
decompression sickness
A painful condition seen in divers who ascend too quickly, in which gas, especially nitrogen, forms bubbles in blood vessels and other tissues; see bends.
bends
A painful condition seen in divers who ascend too quickly, in which gas, especially nitrogen, forms bubbles in blood vessels and other tissuesl also called decompression sickness.
tracheostomy tube
A plastic tube placed within the tracheostomy site (stoma).
spontaneous pneumothorax
A pneumothorax that occurs when a weak area on the lung ruptures in the absence of major injury, allowing air to leak into the pleural space.
jump kit
A portable kit containing items that are used in the initial care of the patient.
preeclampsia
A pregnancy pregnancy-induced hypertension or toxemia of pregnancy. Complication that is characterized by high blood pressure, headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and fee. which can result in seizures.
ectopic pregnancy
A pregnancy that develops outside the uterus, typically in a fallopian tube.
term gestation
A pregnancy that has reached full term, between 39 weeks and 40 weeks, 6 days.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)
A preliminary action guide for first responders operating at a hazardous materials incident in coordination with the US Department of Transportation's labels and placard marking system. Jointly developed by the DOT, the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico, and Transport Canada.,
technical rescue situation
A rescue that requires special technical skills and equipment in one of many specialized rescue areas, such as technical rope rescue, cave rescue, and dive rescue.
cold zone
A safe area at a hazardous materials incident for the agencies involved in the operations. The incident commander, the command post, EMS providers, and other support functions necessary to control the incident should be located in this zone. Also referred to as the clean zone or the support zone.
trauma score
A score calculated from 1 to 16, with 16 being the best possible score. It relegates to the likelihood of patient survival with the exception of a severe head injury. It takes into account the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, respirator rate, respiratory expansion, systolic blood pressure, and capillary refill.
Apgar score
A scoring system for accessing the status of a newborn that assigns a number value to each of five areas.
Revised Trauma Score (RTS)
A scoring system used for patients with head trauma.
secondary device
A secondary explosive used by terrorists, set to explode after the initial bomb.
generalized tonic-clonic seizure
A seizure that features rhythmic back-and-forth motion of an extremity and body stiffness, or extreme twitching of all of the body's muscles, that may last several minutes or more; formerly known as a grand mal seizure.
excited delirium
A serious behavioral condition in which a person exhibits agitated behavior combined with disorientation, hallucinations, or delusions; also called agitated delirium or exhaustive mania.
antivenin
A serum that counteracts the effect of venom from an animal or insect.
gonorrhea
A sexually transmitted disease cause by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Grows and multiples rapid in warm, moist areas of the reproductive tract. if untreated can enter blood stream and spread
chlamydia
A sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. Most common STD. have low pack pain, rectum pain and can progress to pid
incision
A sharp, smooth cut in the skin.
nondisplaced fracture
A simple crack in the bone that has not cause the bone to move from its normal anatomic position also called a hairline fracture.
acromioclavicular (AC) joint
A simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula an the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder.
prolapse of the umbilical cord
A situation in which the umbilical cord comes out of the vagina before the fetus. mst be treated in the hospital. you will have to releave pressure on the umbilical cord by placing hands in the vagina
bloody show
A small amount of blood in the vagina that appears at the beginning of labor and may include a plug of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged when the cervix begins to dilate.
jumpSTART triage; what is the color coding?
A sorting system for pediatric patients younger than 8 years or weighing less than 100 pounds. There is a minor adaptation for infants because they cannot ambulate on their own. Green - can walk Yello - delayed transport (spontaneous breathing, peripheal pulse, respond to pain) Red - immediate response (apnea responsive to rescue breaths, inapproprate, pain response) Black:dead to expected to die
special weapons and tactics team (SWAT)
A specialized law enforcement tactical unit.
pediatrics
A specialized medical practice devoted to care of the young.
ambulance
A specialized vehicle for treating and transporting sick and injured patients.
pediatric assessment triangle (PAT)
A structured assessment tool used to rapidly form a general impression of the infant or child without touching him or her; consists of assessing appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to the skin.
mutagen
A substance that mutates, damages, and changes the structures of DNA in the body's cells.
delirium
A sudden change in mental status that is generally acute and reversible, characterized by disorientation, inability to focus, inattention, inability to think logically, memory loss, striking changes in personality and affect, hallucinations, delusions, or a decreased level of consciousness.
colostomy
A surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the colon and the surface of the body.
ileostomy
A surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the small intestine and the surface of the body.
tracheostomy
A surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) into the trachea; a stoma in the neck connects the trachea directly to the skin.
urostomy
A surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) that connects the urinary system to the surface of the skin and allows urine to drain through the abdominal wall.
shaken baby syndrome
A syndrome seen in abused infants and children; the patient has been subjected to violent, whiplash-type shaking injuries inflicted by the abusing individual that may case coma, seizures, and increased intracranial pressure due to tearing of the cerebral veins with consequent bleeding into the brain.
length-based resuscitation tape
A tape used to estimate an infant or child's weight on the basis of length; appropriate drug doses and equipment sizes are listed on the tape.
technical rescue group
A team of emergency responders from one or more departments in a region who are trained and on call for certain types of technical rescue.
rapid extrication technique
A technique to move a patient from a sitting position inside a vehicle to supine on a backboard in less than 1 minute when conditions do not allow for standard immobilization.
concussion
A temporary loss of alteration of part or all of the brains' abilities to function without actual physical damage to the brain.
gamma (x-ray)
A type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source that travels faster and has more energy than alpha and beta rays. These rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. most ionizing rationation (x-rays)
beta
A type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source; is slightly more penetrating than alpha and requires a layer of clothing to stop it.
alpha
A type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source; it is the least harmful penetrating type of radiation and cannot travel more than a few inches or penetrate most objects.
secondary triage
A type of patient sorting used in the treatment area that involves retriage of patients.
primary triage
A type of patient sorting used to rapidly categorize patients; the focus is on speed in locating all patients and determining an initial priority as their conditions warrant.
vernix caseosa
A white, cheesy substance that covers the body of the fetus.
disaster
A widespread event that disrupts community resources and functions, in turn threatening public safety, citizens' lives and property.
multigravida
A woman who has had previous pregnancies.
primigravida
A woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy.
You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes: A. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother b. separating the child from her mother and providing ventilatory assistance c. requesting a paramedic ambulance to insert an advanced airway device d. allowing the child to remain with her mother and pplaying a nasal cannula
A. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother
adolescents
Children between ages 12 to 18 years.
casualty collection area
An area set up by physicians, nurses, and other hospital staff near a major disaster scene where patients can receive further triage and medical care.
involuntary activities
Actions of the body that are not under a person's conscious control. divided into the sympathetic and the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system
voluntary activities
Actions that we consciously perform, in which sensory input or conscious thought determines a specific muscular activity. somatic nervous system
what are the four types of open wounds?
Abrasion, laceration, avulsion, puncture (penetration)
simple access
Access that is easily achieved without the use of tools or force.
linear skull fractures
Account for 80% of skull fractures; also referred to as nondisplaced skull fractures; commonly occur in the temporal-parietal region of the skull; not associated with deformities to the skull.
arterial air embolism and what can it cause
Air bubbles in the arterial blood vessels. can result in distrubance in vision - changes in behavior and state of consciousness - variety of other neuroligical signs.
What are the Deadly Dozen Chest Injuries?
Airway Obstruction Bronchial Disruption Diaphragmatic Tear Esophageal Injury Open Pneumothorax Tension Pneumothorax Massive Hemothorax Flail Chest Cardiac Tamponade Thoracic Aortic Dissection Myocardial Contusion Pulmonary Contusion
grunting
An "uh" sound heard during exhalation; reflects the child's attempt to keep the alveoli open; a sign of increased work of breathing.
aneurysm
An abnormal enlargement of the wall of a blood vessel that results from weakening of the vessel wall.
peptic ulcer disease
An abrasion of the stomach or small intestine.
subdural hematoma
An accumulation of blood beneath the dura mater but outside the brain occurs after a fall or injury involving strong deceleration forces (more common) LOC and reduced ability to speak
epidural hematoma
An accumulation of blood between the skull and the dura mater. almost always results from a blow to the head or a linear fracture LOC and lucid intervals
covert
An act in which the public safety community generally has no prior knowledge of the time, location, or nature of the attack.
presbycusis
An age-related condition of the ear that produces progressive bilateral hearing loss that is most noted at higher frequencies.
Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEM-TREC)
An agency that assists emergency responders in identifying and handling hazardous materials transport incidents.
cyanide
An agent that affects the body's ability to use oxygen. It is a colorless gas that has an odor similar to almonds. The effects being on the cellular level and are very rapidly seen at the organ and system levels.
mutual aid response
An agreement between neighboring EMS systems to respond to mass-casualty incidents or disasters in each other's region when local resources are insufficient to handle the response.
pertussis
An airborne bacterial infection that affects mostly children younger than 6 years, in which the patient is feverish and exhibits a "whoop" sound on inspiration after a coughing attack; highly contagious through droplet inflection. Also called whooping cough.
Pertussis (whooping cough)
An airborne bacterial infection that affects mostly children younger than 6 years. Patients will be feverish and exhibit a "whoop" sound on inspiration after a coughing attack; highly contagious through droplet infection.
occlusive dressing
An airtight dressing that protects a wound from air and bacteria; a commercial vented version allows air to passively escape from the chest, while an unvented dressing may be made of petroleum jelly-based (Vaseline) gauze, aluminum foil or plastic.
disease vector
An animal that spreads a disease, once infected, to another animal.
joint information center (JIC)
An area designated by the incident commander, or a designee, in which public information officers from multiple agencies distribute information about the incident.
sucking chest wound (open pneumothorax)
An open or penetrating chest wall wound through which air passes during inspiration and expiration, creating a sucking sound. See also open pneumothorax.
open pneumothorax
An open or penetrating chest wall wound through which air passes during inspiration and expiration, creating a sucking sound; also referred to as a sucking chest wound.
stoma
An opening through the skin and into an organ or other structure; for example, in the neck, it connects the trachea directly to the skin.
incident action plan
An oral or written plant stating general objectives reflecting the overall strategy for managing an incident.
bacterial vaginosis
An overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina; characterized by itching, burning, or pain, and possibly a "fishy" smelling discharge. Most common vaginal infection. can lead to premature birth or low birth weight
nuchal cord
An umbilical cord that is wrapped around the fetus's neck.
tripod position
An upright position in which the patient leans forward onto outstretched arms with the head and chin thrust slightly forward.
sniffing position
An upright position in which the patient's head and chin are thrust slightly forward to keep the airway open; the optimum position for the uninjured child who requires airway management.
projectile
And object propelled by force, such as a bullet by a weapon.
elder abuse
Any action on the part of an older person's family member, caregiver, or other associated person that takes advantage of the older person's person, property, or emotional state.
weapon of mass destruction (WMD)
Any agent designed to bring about mass death, casualties, and/or massive damage to property and infrastructure (bridges, tunnels, airports, and seaports); also know as a weapon of mass casualty (WMC).
weapon of mass casualty (WMC)
Any agent designed to bring about mass death, casualties, and/or massive damage to property and infrastructure (bridges, tunnels, airports, and seaports); also know as a weapon of mass destruction (WMD).
open fracture
Any break in a bone in which the overlying skin has been broken.
closed fracture
Any break in a bone in which the overlying skin is not broken.
nonbulk storage vessels
Any container other than bulk storage containers such as drums, bags, compressed gas cylinders, mercial and industrial chemicals such as solvents, industrial cleaners, and compounds.
bulk storage containers
Any container other than nonbulky storage containers such as fixed tanks, highway cargo tanks, rail tank cars, totes, and intermodal tanks. These are typically found in manufacturing facilities and are often surrounded by a secondary containment system to help control an accidental release.
radiologic dispersal device (RDD)
Any container that is designated to disperse radioactive material.
altered mental status and what can cause it
Any deviation from alert and oriented to person, place, time, and event, or any deviation from a patient's normal baseline mental status; may signal disease in the central nervous system or elsewhere in the body. hypoxia, hypoglycemia, impaired cerebral blood flow, hyper/hypothermia
radioactive material
Any material that emits radiation.
simple pneumothorax
Any pneumothorax that is free from significant physiologic changes and does not cause drastic changes in the vital signs of the patient.
dysbarism injuries
Any signs and symptoms cause by the difference between the surrounding atmospheric pressure and the total gas pressure in various tissues, fluids, and cavities of the body.
hazardous materials
Any substances that are toxic, poisonous, radioactive, flammable, or explosive and cause injury or death with exposure.
container
Any vessel or receptacle that holds material, including storage vessels, pipelines, and packaging.
What is the difference between the autonomic and somatic nervous system?
Autonomic - involuntary (handles body functions) Somatic - voluntary
index of suspicion
Awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries or illness may exist.
G agents
Early nerve agents that were developed by German scientist in the period after World War I and into World War II. There are three such agents: sarin, soman, and tabun.
bronchiolitis
Inflammation of the bronchioles that usually occurs in children younger than 2 years and is often caused by the respiratory syncytial virus
What is the mnemonic for kinds of WMDs?
B-NICE biologic necular incendiacry chemical explosive Or CBRNE radiologic
conjunctivitis
Inflammation of the conjunctiva.
tracheitis
Inflammation of the trachea.
Injuries to the external male genitalia _______. Select one: A. usually result in permanent damage B. are often life-threatening C. frequently lead to hypovolemic shock D. are rarely life-threatening
B. are often life-threatening
Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: A. water in the lungs following submersion in water. B. death from suffocation after submersion in water. Correct C. temporary survival after submersion in water. D. death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water.
B. death from suffocation after submersion in water. Correct
pneumonia
Bacterial infection of the lungs. increase in mucus production and interfere with ability of the alveoli oxygenate to blood. v bad for old people b/c of there stretched aveoli
bubonic plague
Bacterial infection that affects the lymphatic system. It is transmitted by infected rodents and fleas and characterized by acute malaise, fever, and the formation of tender, enlarged, inflamed lymph nodes that appear as lesions, called buboes. Also called the Black Death.
partial-thickness (second-degree) burns
Burns that affect the epidermis and some portion of the dermis but not the subcutaneous tissue, characterized by blisters and skin that is white to red, moist, and mottled.
drums
Barrel-like containers used to store a wide variety of substances, including food-grade materials, corrosives, flammable liquids, and grease. May be constructed of low-carbon steel, polyethylene, cardboard, stainless steel, nickel, or other materials.
superficial (first-degree) burns
Burns that affect only the epidermis, characterized by skin that is red by not blistered or actually burned through.
neurotoxins
Biologic agents that are the most deadly substances known to humans they include botulinum toxin and ricin.
Melena/hematochezia
Black, foul-smelling, tarry stool containing digested blood.
hemorrhage
Bleeding
subarachnoid hemorrhage
Bleeding into the subarachnoid space, where the cerebrospinal fluid circulates. sudden headache
intracerebral hematoma
Bleeding within the brain tissue (parenchyma) itself; also referred to as an intraparenchymal hematoma. occurs following the penetration injury to the ehad with rapid deceleration forces
vesicants
Blister agents; the primary route of entry for this agent is through the skin.
hematuria
Blood in the urine.
What is the pediatric assessment triangle?
Brief visual and auditory observation of child's overall (1) appearance, (2) work of breathing, (3) circulation rapid way to form the general impression.
Battle sign
Bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture.
Blunt myocardial injury
Bruising of the heart muscle 2. Blunt trauma may injure the heart itself, making it unable to maintain adequate blood pressure.
myocardial contusion
Bruising of the heart muscle.
raccoon eyes
Bruising under the eyes that may indicate a skull fracture.
thermal burns, what does the severity of the burn correlate directly with?
Burns caused by heat above 111F. the greater the heat the deeper the wound. - temp - concentration - amount of heat energy possessed by the object - duration of exposure.
full-thickness (third-degree) burns
Burns that affect all skin layers and may affect the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, and internal organs, leaving the area dry, leathery, and white, dark brown, or charred.
primary blast injury
Injuries caused by an explosive pressure wave on the hollow organs of the body.
If a child is showing signs of shock how do you alter your primary assessment?
CAB instead of ABC's
always assume abdominal pain can be pregancy when coming from a female at reproductive age.
Call police if there was an assault
palliative care (comfort care)
Care designed not to treat an illness but to provide physical and emotional comfort to a dying patient and support and guidance to his or her family.
preschool-age
Children between age 3 to 6 years.
cataracts
Clouding of the lens of the eye or its surrounding transparent membranes.
cardiac tamponade (pericardial tamponade) w/ S/S
Compression of the heart as a result of the buildup of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cardiac output and decreases systemic blood flow Resulting in a decrease in systemic blood flow with a decrease in cardiac output o Becks Triad § JVD § Narrowing pulse pressure § Muffles heart sounds o Altered mental state
What is the mnemonic use for Tracheostomy tubes?
DOPE - recognize the cuases of obstruction D- displacement, dislodge, or damage O - obstruction of the tube P - pneumothorax E- equipment failure
frostbite and S/S
Damage to tissues as the result of exposure to cold; frozen or partially frozen body parts. necrosis hard/wazy feel frozen sblister and swelling
sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
Death of an infant or young child that remains unexplained after a complete autopsy.
What organs are in the LLQ
Descending colon, left transverse colon
anemic
Describes a condition in which the patient has too few red blood cells, resulting in a decreased ability to transport oxygen throughout the body via the bloodstream.
persistency
Describes how long a chemical agent will stay on a surface before it evaporates.
gestational diabetes
Diabetes that develops during pregnancy in women who did not have diabetes before pregnancy.
ecchymosis
Discoloration associated with a closed wound; signifies bleeding.
dislocation
Disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are no longer in contact.
When preforming an extrication what are the different roles and respoonsibilities for EMS personall, rescue team, fire rescue and law enforcement ?
EMS - medical care -triage -assessment -transport Rescue - secure and stabilize vehicle - provide Fire -extiguish -scene safety -removing spilled fuel Law - control traffic - maintin order - estabilish perimeters
What is the difference between a duodenal and gastric ulcer?
Duodenal Ulcur - Pain when the stomach is empty - Pain at night - High stress occupations or situations Gastric Ulcer - Greater then 50 years old - Employed in positions that require physical activity - Pain after eating or when stomach is full - Usually no pain at night
medical emergencies
Emergencies that are non caused by an outside force; illnesses or conditions.
trauma emergencies
Emergencies that are the result of physical forces applied to the body; injuries.
ionizing radiation
Energy that is emitted in the form of rays, or particles.
buboes
Enlarged lymph nodes (up to the size of a tennis ball) that are characteristic in people infected with the bubonic plague.
complex access
Entry that requires special tools and training and includes the use of force.
miosis
Excessively constricted pupil; often bilateral after exposure to nerve agents.
points of distribution (PODs)
Existing facilities used as mass distribution sites for antibiotics, antidotes, vaccinations, and other medications and supplies during an emergency.
Braxton Hicks contractions
False labor contractions, sporadic in nature, do not increase in length or intensity. Alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions
meconium
Fetal stool. When appearing as a dark green material in the amniotic fluid, it can indicate distress or disease in the newborn; it can be aspirated into the fetus's lungs during delivery.
air ambulances
Fixed-wing and rotary-wing (known as helicopters) aircrafts that have been modified for medical care; use to evacuate and transport patients with life-threatening injuries to treatment facilities.
ascites
Fluid in the abdomen.
access
Gaining entry to an enclosed area and reaching a patient.
What are types of anxiety disorders?
Generalized anxiety disorder Panic disorder Social anxiety disorder Post traumatic stress disorder Obsessive-compulsive disorder
viruses
Germs that require a living host to multiply and survive.
carboys
Glass, plastic, or steel containers, ranging in volume from 5 to 15 gallons (19 to 57 L).
conductive hearing loss
Hearing loss caused by a faulty transmission of sound waves.
behavior
How a person functions or acts in response to his or her environment. - reactions to stress that are acute and those that devellope over time can create a crisis
volatility
How long a chemical agent will stay on a surface before it evaporates.
perineum
In a female, the area between the vagina and the anus.
rescue supervisor
In incident command, the person appointed to determine the type of equipment and resources needed for a situation involving extrication or special rescue; also called the extrication officer.
extrication supervisor
In incident command, the person appointed to determine the type of equipment and resources needed for a situation involving extrication or special rescue; also called the rescue officer.
triage supervisor
In incident command, the person in charge of the incident command triage sector who directs the sorting of patients into triage categories in a mass-casualty incident.
transportation supervisor
In incident command, the person in charge of the transportation sector in a mass-casualty incident who assigns patients from the treatment area to awaiting ambulances in the transportation area.
rehabilitation supervisor
In incident command, the person who establishes an area that provides protection for responders from the elements and the situation.
public information officer (PIO)
In incident command, the person who keeps the public informed and related any information to the media.
staging supervisor
In incident command, the person who locates an area to stage equipment and personnel and tracks unit arrival and deployment from the staging area.
safety officer
In incident command, the person who monitors the scene for conditions or operation that may present a hazard to responders and patients; he or she may stop an operation when responder safety is an issue.
liaison officer
In incident command, the person who relays information, concerns, and requests among responding agencies.
morgue supervisor
In incident command, the person who works with area medical examiners, coroners, and law enforcement agencies to coordinate the disposition of dead victims.
treatment supervisor
In incident command, the person, usually a physician, who is in charge of and directs EMS providers at the treatment area in a mass-casualty incident.
finance
In incident command, the position in an incident responsible for accounting of all expenses.
operations
In incident command, the position that carries out the orders of the commander to help resolve the incident.
logistics
In incident command, the position that helps procure and stockpile equipment and supplies during an incident.
command
In incident command, the position that oversees the incident, establishes the objectives and the priorities, and develops a response plan.
planning
In incident command, the position that ultimately produces a plan to resolve any incident.
span of control
In incident command, the subordinate positions under the commander's direction to which the workload is distributed; the idea supervisor/worker ratio is one supervisor for three to seven workers.
anterograde (posttraumatic) amnesia
Inability to remember events after an injury.
tachypnea
Increased respiratory rate.
toxicity levels
Indicates the risk that a hazardous material poses to the health of an individual who comes into contact with it.
closed injuries and what are some characteristics?
Injuries in which damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface of the skin remains intact. history of blunt trauma pain at the side of injury swelling beneath the skin dsicoloration contusion or hematoma
axial loading injuries
Injuries in which load is applied along the vertical or longitudinal axis of the spine, which results in load being transmitted along the entire length of the vertebral column; for example, falling from a height and landing on the feet in an upright position.
burns
Injuries in which soft-tissues damage occurs as a results of thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation.
open injuries
Injuries in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or the mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination.
penetrating trauma
Injury caused by objects, such as knives and bullets, that pierce the surface of the body and damage internal tissues or organs.
closed head injury
Injury in which the brain has been injured but the skin has not been broken and there is no obvious bleeding.
pulmonary contusion
Injury or bruising of lung tissue that results in hemorrhage. - pulmonary alveoli become filled with blood leading to hypoxia - positive pressure vent Always be suspected in a patient with a flail chest
open head injury
Injury to the head often caused by a penetrating object in which there may be bleeding and exposed brain tissue.
labia minora
Inner fleshy lips devoid of public hair that protect the vagina.
developmental disability
Insufficient development of the brain, resulting in some level of dysfunction or impairment. include: intellectual, hearing, and vision
guarding
Involuntary muscle contractions (spasm) of the abdominal wall to minimize the pain of movement and protect the inflamed abdomen; a sign of peritonitis.
nystagmus
Involuntary rapid eye movements
What is blunt trauma? What are the most common MOIs
It is an impact on the body by objects that cause injury without penetrating soft tissues or internal organs or cavities. - vehicle crashes and falls
cushion of safety
Keeping a safe distance between your vehicle and any vehicles around you.
What organs are in the RLQ?
Large and Small intestine and appendix
turbinates
Layers of bone within the nasal cavity.
At what weight do you need to transport the child in a carseat?
Less than 40lbs
plasma
Liquid part of blood
What organs are in the RUQ?
Liver, gall bladder, duodenum, pancrease
traction
Longitudinal force applied to a structure.
breath-holding syncope
Loss of consciousness caused by a decreased breathing stimulus.
abrasion
Loss or damage of the superficial layer of skins as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface. do not commonly completely penetrate through the dermis
medivac
Medical evacuation of a patient by helicopter.
bacteria
Microorganisms that reproduce by binary fission. These single-cell creatures reproduce rapidly. Some can form spores (encysted variants) when environmental conditions are harsh.
false motion
Movement that occurs in a bone at a point where there is no joint. indicating a fracture; also called free movement.
What is the ambulance designs based on?
NFPA 1917 standard for automotive ambulance
In a penetrating Trauma should you remove the object?
No, do not attemped to move or remove the object.If you do make sure that you have a direct order from medical control.
Are all patients with a mental health disorder dangerous, violent, or unmanageable?
No, only a small % are, however, EMTs may be exposed to a higher proportion of these patients because these people are going to be the people in a behavioral crisis. You just need to develope a level of trust and be able to predict volence. Avoid disparaging statements.
abruptio placenta
Premature separation of the placenta from the walls of the uterus.
impaled objects
Objects that penetrate the skin but remain in place.
cross-contamination
Occurs when a person is contaminated by an agent as a result of coming into contact with another contaminated person.
hydroplaning
Occurs when the tires of a vehicle are lifted off the road surface as a result of water "piling up" underneath them, making the vehicle feel as though it is floating.
V agent (VX)
One of the G agents; it is a clear, oily agent that has no odor and looks like baby oil; more than 100 times more lethal than sarin and is extremely persistent.
labia majora
Outer fleshy lips covered with pubic hair that protect the vagina.
heat cramps
Painful muscle spasms usually associated with vigorous activity in a hot environment.
What filiment covers the lungs?
Pleura
cylinders
Portable, compressed gas containers used to hold liquids and gases such as nitrogen, argon, helium, and oxygen. they have a range of sizes and internal pressures.
What is the purpose of splinting?
Prevent the motion of the broken bone ends. Prevents further damage to muscles, blood vessels by preventing motion of broken bone ends. reduces pain
personal protective equipment (PPE) levels
Protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or a hazardous material.
what is the general treatment for strains and sprains?
RICES rest, ice, compress, elevate, splint
neglect
Refusal or failure on the part of the parent or caregiver to provide life necessities.
extrication
Removal of a patient from entrapment or a dangerous situation or position such as removal from a wrecked vehicle, industrial incident, or collapsed building.
drag
Resistance that slows a projectile, such as air.
self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
Respirator with independent air supply used by firefighters to enter toxic and otherwise dangerous atmospheres.
positional asphyxia
Restriction of chest wall movements and/or airway obstruction; can rapidly lead to sudden death.
synovial fluid
Secretion of synovial membranes that lubricates joints and nourishes articular cartilage( which allow the bones to move easiliy)
febrile seizures
Seizures that result from sudden high fevers, particularly in children. occurs with children 6month - 6years
retinal detachment
Separation of the retina from its attachments at the back of the eye. causes blindness
eclampsia
Sever hypertension in a pregnant woman., resulting in seizures (convulsions).
rape
Sexual intercourse forcible inflicted on another person, against that person's will.
intermodal tanks
Shipping and storage vessels that can be either pressurized or nonpressurized.
dyspnea
Shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
placards
Signage required to be placed on all four sides of highway transport vehicles, railroad tank cards, and other forms of hazardous materials transportation; the sign identifies the hazardous contents of the vehicle, using a standardization system with 10 3/4 inch diamond-shaped indicators.
What does START stand for in START triage? what are the two step
Simple traiage amd rapid treatment 1. call for all walking wounded and direct them to a landmark 2. directed to nonwalking patients -- assess the RR, hemodynamic status, and nerologic status
bradypnea
Slow respirator rate; in a child it is an ominous sign that indicates impending respirator arrest.
Special Atomic Demolition Munitions (SADM)
Small suitcase-sized nuclear weapons that were designed to destroy individual targets, such as important buildings, bridges, tunnels and large ships.
decubitus ulcers
Sores caused by the pressure of skin against a surface for long periods; can range from a pink discoloration of the skin to a deep wound that may invade into bone or organs; also known as bedsores.
first-responder vehicles
Specialized vehicles used to transport EMT equipment and personnel to the scenes of medical emergencies.
What organs are tin the LUQ?
Stomach and spleen
strain
Stretching or tearing of a muscle; also called a muscle pull. pain swelling bruising
hollow organs
Structures through which materials pass, such as the stomach, small intestines, large intestines, ureters, and urinary bladder.
cerebral edema
Swelling of the brain.
compartment syndrome
Swelling within a confined anatomic compartment that produces dangerous pressure, characterized by extreme pain, decreased pain sensation, pain on stretching of affected muscles, and excess bleding, decreased power. typically developes in 6 - 12 hours after injury
organic brain syndrome and what is it caused by
Temporary or permanent dysfunction of the brain, caused by a disturbance in the physical or physiologic functioning of brain tissue. traumatic brain injury (TBI), seizure disorder, drugs and alcohol, abuse, overdose, withdrawl, and disease of the brain, hyoiglycemia, hypoxia, impaired cerebral blood flow and hyper/hypothermia
point tenderness
Tenderness that is sharply localized at the site of the injury, found by gently palpating along the bone with the tip of one finger.
Most people experience an emotional crisis, what does this not mean?
That everyone developes a mental illness
peritoneal cavity
The abdominal cavity.
turgor
The ability of the skin to resist deformation; tested by gently pinching skin on the forehead or back of the hand.
hemopneumothorax
The accumulation of blood and air in the pleural space of the chest.
secondary (indirect) injury
The after effects of the primary injury; includes abnormal processes such as cerebral edema, increased intracranial pressure, cerebral ischemia and hypoxia, and infection; onset is often delayed following the primary brain injury.
crowning
The appearance of the fetus's head at the vaginal opening during labor.
hot zone
The area immediately surrounding a hazardous materials spill or incident site that endangers life and health. All responders working in this zone must wear appropriate protective clothing and equipment. Entry requires approval by the incident commander or other designated officer.
transportation area
The area in a mass-casualty incident where ambulances and crews are organized to transport patients from the treatment area to receiving hospitals.
warm zone
The area located between the hot zone and the cold zone at a hazardous materials incident. The decontamination corridor is located in this zone.
zone of injury
The area of potentially damaged soft tissue, adjacent nerves, and blood vessels surrounding an injury to a bone or joint.
rehabilitation area
The area that provides protection and treatment to firefighters and other responders working at an emergency. Here, workers are medically monitored and receive and needed care as they enter and leave the scene.
geriatrics
The assessment and treatment of disease in someone who is 65 years or older.
activities of daily living
The basic activities a person usually accomplishes during a normal day, such as eating, dressing, and bathing.
tourniquet
The bleeding control method used when a wound continues to bleed despite the use of direct pressure; useful if a patient is bleeding severely from a partial or complete amputation. Want to tighten until you can not palpate a distal pulse
veins
The blood vessels that carry blood from the tissues to the heart. this is were the gas exhchange occurs
pupil
The circular opening in the middle of the iris that admits light to the back of the eye.
perfusion
The circulation of oxygenated blood through body tissues and vessels to meet the celss oxygen, nutreints, and waste removal needs
evisceration
The displacement of organs outside the body.
fundus
The dome-shaped top of the uterus.
external auditory canal
The ear canal; leads to the tympanic membrane.
tympanic membrane and tympatic membrane rupture cause by
The eardrum, which lies between the external and middle ear. sudden change in pressure created by a blast wave, severe ear pain, diffculty hearing and ringing in the ear
tympanic membrane
The eardrum; a thin, semitransparent membrane in the middle ear that transmits sound vibrations to the internal ear by means of auditory ossicles.
embryo
The early stage of development after the fertilization of the egg (first 10 weeks).
evaporation
The conversion of water or another fluid from a liquid to a gas.
hemoptysis
The coughing up of blood.
weaponization
The creation of a weapon from a biologic agent generally found in nature and that causes disease; the agent is cultivated, synthesized, and/or mutated to maximize the target population's exposure to the germ.
intervertebral disk
The cushion that lies between two vertebrate. which are connected by ligaments
conjunctiva
The delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surface of the eye.
decontamination area
The designated area in a hazardous materials incident where all patients and responders musts be decontaminated before going to another area.
fetus
The developing, unborn infant inside the uterus, from 10 weeks after fertilization until birth.
nares
The external openings of the nostrils. A single nostril opening is called a naris.
pinna
The external, visible part of the ear.
globe
The eyeball.
fascia
The fiberlike connective tissue that covers arteries, veins, tendons, and ligaments.
pericardium
The fibrous sac that surrounds the heart.
chlorine (Cl)
The first chemical agent ever used in warfare. It has a distinct odor of bleach and creates a green haze when released as a gas. Initially it produces upper airway irritation and a choking sensation.
infancy
The first year of life.
amniotic sac
The fluid-filled, baglike membrane in which the fetus develops. helps insulate and protect the fetus
mechanism of injury (MOI)
The forces, or energy transmission, applied to the body that cause injury.
deep venous thrombosis
The formation of a blood clot within the larger veins of an extremity, typically following a period of prolonged immobilization.
coagulation
The formation of a clot to plug an opening in an injured blood vessel and stop bleeding.
lacrimal glands
The glands that produce fluids to keep the eye moist; also called tear glands.
retina
The light-sensitive area of the eye where images are projected; a layer of cells at the back of the eye that changes the light image into electric impulses, which are carried by optic nerve to the brain. if detached causes blindness
endometrium
The lining of the inside of the uterus.
mucous membranes
The linings of the body cavities and passages that are in direct or indirect contact with the outside environment.
treatment area
The location in a mass-casualty incident where patients are brought after being triaged and assigned a priority; where they are reassessed, treated, and monitored until transport to the hospital.
command post
The location of the incident commander at the scene of an emergency and where command, coordination, control, and communication are centralized.
convection
The loss of body heat caused by air movement (eg, a breeze blowing across the body).
conduction
The loss of heat by direct contact (eg, when a body part comes into contact with a colder object).
cervix
The lower third, or neck, of the uterus; it is the narrowest portion of the uterus and opens into the vagina.
aorta
The main artery leaving the left side of the heart, which receives blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body.
sciatic nerve
The major nerve to the lower extremities; controls much of muscle function in the leg and sensation in most of the leg and foot.
route of exposure
The manner by which a toxic substance enters the body.
syndromic surveillance
The monitoring usually by local or state health departments, of patients presenting to emergency departments and alternative care facilities, the recording of EMS call volume, and the use of over-the counter medications.
paradoxical motion what is a treatment for this
The motion of the portion of the chest wall that is detached in a flail chest; the motion--in during inhalation, out during exhalation--is exactly the opposite of normal chest wall motion during breathing. positive-pressure ventilations
lightening
The movement of the fetus down into the pelvis late in pregnancy.
iris
The muscle and surrounding tissue behind the cornea that dilate and constrict the pupil, regulating the amount of light that enters the eye; pigment in this tissue gives the eye its color.
sternocleidomastoid muscles
The muscles on either side of the neck that allow movement of the head. from the cranium to the collarbone and sternum. originate fromt he mastoid process
uterus
The muscular organs where the fetus grows, also called the womb; responsible for contractions during labor.
vasoconstriction
The narrowing of a blood vessel, such as with hypoperfusion or cold extremities.
size-up
The ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics to manage an emergency.
fibula
The outer and smaller bone of the two bones of the lower leg.
epidermis
The outer layer of skin, which is made up of cells that are sealed together to form a watertight protective covering for the body.
vagina
The outermost cavity of a women's reproductive tract that connects the uterus with the vulva (the external femail genitalia); the lower part of the birth canal.
incubation
The period of time between a person being exposed to an agent to the first time when symptoms appear.
respiration
The physiologic process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide, or, in the context of environmental emergencies, the loss of body heat as warm air in the lungs is exhaled into the atmosphere and cooler air is inhaled.
joint
The place where two bones come into contact.
behavioral crisis / psychiatric emergency
The point at which a person's reactions to events interfere with activities of daily living; this becomes a psychiatric emergency when it causes a major life interruption, such as attempted suicide. These are patients that exhibit agitation (restless and irregular physcial activity), violent, or uncoperative behavior or who are dangerout to themselves or others.
presentation
The position in which an infant is born; defined by the part of the body that appears first.
air embolism
The presence of air in the veins, which can lead to cardiac arrest if it enters the heart. typically caused by penetrating trauma may occur dudring an ascent emergancy.
contamination
The presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body; also, the presence of foreign bodies such as dirt, gravel, or metal.
intracranial pressure (ICP)
The pressure within the cranial vault. commonly caused by sweeling of the brain or increased fluid
ovaries
The primary female reproductive organs that produce sex hormones and an ovum, or egg, that, if fertilized, will develop into a fetus.
off-gassing
The release of an agent after exposure, for example from a person's clothes that have been exposed to the agent.
tibia
The shinbone; the larger of the two bones of the lower leg, responsible for supporting the major weight-bearing surface of the knee and the ankle.
freight bills
The shipping papers used for transport of chemicals along roads and highways; also referred to as bills of lading.
bills of lading
The shipping papers used for transport of chemicals over roads and highways also referred to as freight bills.
Star of Life
The six-pointed star emblem that identifies vehicles that meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances.
dementia
The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function; this condition is generally chronic and irreversible.
deceleration
The slowing of an object.
diving reflex
The slowing of the heart rate cause by submersion in cold water.
tragus
The small, rounded, fleshy bulge that lies immediately anterior to the ear canal.
arterioles
The smallest branches of arteries leading to the vast network of capillaries.
retroperitoneal space
The space between the abdominal cavity and the posterior abdominal wall, containing the kidneys, certain large vessels, and parts of the gastrointestinal tract.
miscarriage
The spontaneous passage of the fetus and placenta before 20 weeks; also called spontaneous abortion.
LD50
The standard measure of the dose amount of an agent or substances that will kill 50% of a population who are exposed to this level.
umbilical cord
The structure that connects the pregnant woman to the fetus via the placenta; contains two arteries and one vein.
meninges
Three distinct layers of tissue that surround and protect the brain and the spinal cord within the skull and the spinal canal. -outlayer tough fiberous layer (dura mater) - inner (arachinoid mater and pia mater) contain the blood vessels van not be regenerated
lymph nodes
Tiny, oval-shaped structures located in various places along the lymph vessels that filter lymph.
entrapment
To be caught (trapped) within a vehicle, room, or container with no way out or to have a limb or other body part trapped.
decontaminate
To remove or neutralize radiation, chemical, or other hazardous material from clothing, equipment, vehicles, and personnel.
reduce
To return a dislocated join or fractured bone to its normal position; to set.
blanch
To turn white.
multisystem trauma
Trauma that affects more than one body system.
shunts
Tubes that drain excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the brain to another part of the body outside of the brain, such as the abdomen; lowers pressure in the brain.
basilar skull fractures
Usually occur following diffuse impact to the had (such as falls, motor vehicle crashes); generally result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph. signs are CFS, raccon and battle
hematemesis
Vomited blood.
advance directive
Written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient be unable to make decisions, also called a living will or health care directive.
epiphyseal fracture
a break at the location of the growth plate, which can affect growth of the bone
cushing triad, what are the signs
a herrniation where pressure is so great that it forces the brain stem and mid brain through the forman magnum increase BP (hypertension) - decreased heart rate - irregular respirations (cheyne-stokes respirations or biot respirations) - CPAP You want to preform controlled hyperventilation your patient
How long does an abnormal or disturbing pattern need to persist to be considered a behavioral crisis?
a month or more
What is Chronic depression?
a persistent feeling of sadness and despair, may be a symptom of a mental health disorder
What is the difference between an pneumothorax, simple pneumothorax and tension pneumothorax??
a regular pneumothroax is a result of a penetrating or puncture trauma while the simple is fromm a blunt force and does not restuls in a major change to the patiens cardiac physiocology Tension - ongoing air accumulation it eh pleural spalce increaseing the pressure. resulting in a decrease in cardic output and a increases risk for shock.
Delirium
a sudden change in metnal status, conciousness, or cognative processes. marked by the inability to focus, think logically and maintain attention
Vagus nerve simulators
a surgicaly implanted decise that stimulates the vagus nerve to prevent seizure activity
tension pneumothorax
a type of pneumothorax in which air that enters the chest cavity is prevented from escaping and can put pressure on the heart
Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below: a) 95°F (35°C). b) 88°F (31°C). c) 90°F (32°C). d) 98°F (37°C).
a) 95°F (35°C).
In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? a) If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain b) When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent c) If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes d) If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity
a) If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain
Which of the following statements regarding autism is correct? a) Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age. b) Autism affects females four times greater than males. c) Impairment of motor activity is a classic sign of autism. d) The majority of patients with autism do not speak at all.
a) Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age.
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? a) Pelvic fracture with hypotension b) Nondisplaced long bone fractures c) An amputated extremity d) Bilateral femur fractures
a) Pelvic fracture with hypotension
In which of the following situations would the EMTs MOST likely utilize a police escort? a) The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area. b) The weather is treacherous and there are numerous roads washed out. c) The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress. d) The EMTs are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic.
a) The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area.
Which of the following would be the MOST practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located? a) Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions b) Contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter c) Attempting to use body language to determine the problem d) Using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear
a) Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions
The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to: a) allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child. b) determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits. c) facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only. d) gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child.
a) allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child.
Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: a) antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. b) chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. c) chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled. d) weapons of mass destruction are distributed.
a) antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.
You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: a) assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed. b) remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one. c) carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside. d) remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one.
a) assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.
While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: a) assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients. b) evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category. c) apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging. d) quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging.
a) assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients.
After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: a) assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen. b) position him supine and elevate his legs. c) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. d) request a paramedic to administer atropine.
a) assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen.
A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should: a) assist the patient's ventilations. b) apply a nonrebreathing mask. c) perform a secondary assessment. d) obtain baseline vital signs.
a) assist the patient's ventilations.
Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler: a) at the feet. b) in the ambulance. c) at the head. d) en route to the hospital.
a) at the feet.
You are assessing a 440-lb man who complains of shortness of breath and lower back pain. The patient is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 148/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 beats/min. Your MOST immediate action should be to: a) avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen. b) perform a secondary assessment, focusing on his respiratory system and back. c) notify the receiving facility and advise them of the patient's weight and status. d) ask a member of your team to locate the best route to move him to the ambulance.
a) avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen.
Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should _______. a) be objective and factual b) be subjective and summarize the crime c) include your opinion of the nature of the incident d) describe the status of the suspect(s)
a) be objective and factual
Pale skin in a child indicates that the: a) blood vessels near the skin are constricted. b) child is in severe decompensated shock. c) oxygen content in the blood is decreased. d) child's core body temperature is elevated.
a) blood vessels near the skin are constricted.
Everyone exhibits some signs and symptoms of mental illness at some point in life ____________. a) but that does not mean a person is mentally ill b) and needs medication administered to control them c) because mental illness affects everyone d) and should be physically restrained for their own safety and the safety of the EMT
a) but that does not mean a person is mentally ill
seperation anxiety
an infant's distress when a familiar caregiver leaves, most obvious between 6 - 12 months
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: a) cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. b) coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. c) cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar. d) thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral.
a) cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.
You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should: a) closely monitor him and reassess him frequently. b) forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition. c) perform a comprehensive secondary assessment. d) begin documenting the call on the patient care form.
a) closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.
A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing: a) conjunctivitis. b) acute retinitis. c) a corneal abrasion. d) a detached retina.
a) conjunctivitis.
A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: a) control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing. b) gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates. c) assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. d) manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury.
a) control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should: a) cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital. b) place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever. c) suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once. d) allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital.
a) cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital.
Signs of excited delirium include: a) diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations. b) subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts. c) slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever. d) pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils.
a) diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.
A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the mechanical ventilator is malfunctioning and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should: a) disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar. b) place a call to the home health agency treating this patient. c) reset the ventilator by unplugging it for 30 to 60 seconds. d) attempt to troubleshoot the mechanical ventilator problem.
a) disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar.
A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: a) distal humerus. b) proximal radius. c) radial head. d) olecranon process.
a) distal humerus.
All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, EXCEPT: a) frostbite. b) immersion foot. c) trench foot. d) frostnip.
a) frostbite.
Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) hot, dry skin. b) nausea. c) tachycardia. d) headache.
a) hot, dry skin.
Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) hyperglycemia. b) electrolyte imbalances. c) poisonings or ingestion. d) infection.
a) hyperglycemia.
You are assessing a 70-year-old female who complains of intense thirst, frequent urination, and dizziness. She has a history of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout. Her blood glucose reads "high." She is conscious, but confused. Her blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min and shallow. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: a) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome. b) hyperglycemia with moderate dehydration. c) diabetic ketoacidosis. d) acute renal failure with associated hyperglycemia.
a) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome.
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: a) immediately request additional resources. b) request law enforcement for traffic control. c) call medical control for further direction. d) begin triage to determine injury severity.
a) immediately request additional resources.
The amniotic fluid serves to: a) insulate and protect the fetus. b) assist in fetal development. c) transfer oxygen to the fetus. d) remove viruses from the fetus.
a) insulate and protect the fetus.
When a light is shone into the pupil: a) it should become smaller in size. b) the opposite pupil should dilate. c) both pupils should dilate together. d) it should become larger in size.
a) it should become smaller in size.
As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: a) know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. b) ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news. c) check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats. d) ascertain the current situation overseas with regard to the number of casualties.
a) know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security.
Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during: a) lateral collisions. b) rear-end collisions. c) frontal collisions. d) rollover collisions.
a) lateral collisions.
As a triage supervisor, you: a) must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged. b) should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities. c) must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area. d) are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients.
a) must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged.
Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster: a) often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. b) usually does not require the incident command system process. c) is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower. d) exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients.
a) often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.
When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: a) osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position. b) any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma. c) bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls. d) elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury.
a) osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.
Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: a) perform a primary assessment. b) allow extrication to commence. c) administer high-flow oxygen. d) begin treating his or her injuries.
a) perform a primary assessment.
When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: a) peritonitis may not develop for several hours. b) it commonly protrudes through the injury site. c) the abdomen will become instantly distended. d) it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock.
a) peritonitis may not develop for several hours.
When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: a) position the ambulance upwind. b) ask the driver to exit the vehicle. c) quickly gain access to the patient. d) park downhill from the scene.
a) position the ambulance upwind.
The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by: a) possible spinal injury. b) an air embolism. c) alcohol intoxication. d) cold-water immersion.
a) possible spinal injury.
The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: a) prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain. b) divert excess cerebrospinal fluid to the ventricles of the brain. c) remove fluid from the abdomen of patients with right-sided heart failure. d) monitor pressure within the skull in patients with a head injury.
a) prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain.
A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: a) proximal femur. b) pelvic girdle. c) femoral shaft. d) pubic symphysis.
a) proximal femur.
Blood levels of medications may rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is MOST likely due to: a) renal insufficiency. b) intentional overdose. c) splenic dysfunction. d) pancreatic failure.
a) renal insufficiency.
Some women experience ___________ during ovulation. a) slight cramping b) hypotension c) severe bleeding d) severe abdominal pain
a) slight cramping
Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically: a) superficial. b) third-degree. c) full-thickness. d) partial-thickness.
a) superficial.
When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: a) talk to the child, not just the caregiver. b) rely solely on the parent for information. c) refrain from taking a blood pressure. d) use a toe-to-head assessment approach.
a) talk to the child, not just the caregiver.
Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that: a) the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released. b) the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better bleeding control. c) you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first. d) bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding.
a) the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released.
If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of ________. a) vomiting b) GI trauma c) hypotension d) altered LOC
a) vomiting
An open pneumothorax occurs when: a. air enters the pleural space from outside the body b. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung c. a fractured rib penetrated the tissue of the lung d. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture
a. air enters the pleural space from outside the body
A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximaetly 18 hours. the outside temp is 30 F. He is immediately place in the warm ambulnce, wher you preform a primary assessment. he is unreponsive, pale, and apneic. You should: a. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds b. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm c. open his iarway and give him two rescue breaths d. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae
a. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds
By the 20th week of pregnacy, the uterus is typically ar or above the livel of the mothers a. belly button b. superior diaphrgm c. pubic bone d. xiphoid process
a. belly button
A simple pneumothorax a. is commly caused by blunt chest trauma b. is caused by penetrating chest trauma c. heals on its own withouth any treatment d. often has a nontraumatic cause
a. is commly caused by blunt chest trauma
Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: a. may decrease the amount of blood that is returning to the heart b. often causes hypotension secondary to cardia compression c. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort d. results in spontaneous urinary incontince if the bladder is full.
a. may decrease the amount of blood that is returning to the heart
While triaging patients at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash, you encounter a 5-year-old child who is unresponsive and apneic. After positioning his airway, you should: a. palpate for a carotid pulse b. categorize him as deceased c. categorize im as immediate d. deliver 5 rescue breaths
a. palpate for a carotid pulse
hydrocephalus
accumulation of fluid in the spaces of the brain
What is the GEMS diamond? How can it facilitate your overall care of an older patient? What do the letters sand for?
acryonm for issues to be considered when asssessimg every old patient. G - geriatic patient E - Environmental assessment M - medical assessment S - Social Assessment (activities during daily life)
What are traction splints used for?
act of puling on a bond structure in the direction of its normal alignment
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
acts as a shock absorber, approximately 125 to 150 mL of CSF
What are the three types of ionizing radiation burns?
alpha - little penetrating energy easily stopped bu skin beta - greater penetrationg power but blocked by simple protective clothing gamma - very penetrating; easily passes through the body and solid material
What does APGAR stand for? what is a perfect score?
appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration. 10
how long do you have to resusiate someone after a drowning episode?
at least 1 hour
When applying direct pressure to an injury how long should you hold it there without movement?
at least 5 minutes to allowe for coagulation
From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least: a) 1 week. b) 1 month. c) 3 weeks. d) 2 weeks.
b) 1 month.
A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: a) 10 hours. b) 16 hours. c) 8 hours. d) 4 hours.
b) 16 hours.
A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA. a) 45% b) 18% c) 36% d) 27%
b) 18%
The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: a) 72 hours. b) 21 days. c) 1 week. d) 6 months.
b) 21 days.
In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. a) 48-hour b) 72-hour c) 24-hour d) 96-hour
b) 72-hour
If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at: a) 8:00. b) 7:57. c) 7:53. d) 7:59.
b) 7:57.
In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? a) A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest b) A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back c) An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen d) A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye
b) A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back
Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding? a) Cardboard splint b) Air splint c) Vacuum splint d) Sling and swathe
b) Air splint
If direct pressure fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: a) a splint and elevate the extremity. b) a tourniquet proximal to the injury. c) additional sterile dressings. d) digital pressure to a proximal artery.
b) a tourniquet proximal to the injury.
You are assessing a 45-year-old female who is severely depressed. She states that it seems as though her entire world is crashing down around her. She further states that she has had frequent thoughts of suicide, but is not sure if she can actually go through with it. How should you manage this situation? a) Have law enforcement place her in protective custody. b) Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan. c) Encourage the patient to remain quiet during transport. d) Leave the scene and have a neighbor check in on her.
b) Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan.
Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? a) With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity. b) Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. c) Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body. d) Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal.
b) Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours.
Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse? a) An unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injury b) Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver c) Burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution d) Evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene
b) Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver
You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unresponsive. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do? a) Remain where you are and perform a visual assessment of the patient. b) Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team. c) Cover your face with your shirt and quickly extricate the injured driver. d) Realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering.
b) Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team.
What is the most common misconception surrounding mental illness? a) All persons with mental disorders are physically violent and dangerous. b) Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick." c) Many mental illnesses stem from drug or alcohol abuse. d) Everyone has some form of mental illness.
b) Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick."
Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain? a) Pelvic inflammatory disease b) Gonorrhea c) Bacterial vaginosis d) Chlamydia
b) Gonorrhea
Compression injury is most likely due to which of the following? a) Hollow-organ rupture b) Improperly placed lab belt c) Ejection of unrestrained driver d) Stabbing
b) Improperly placed lab belt
When should you visually inspect the external genitalia on your patient? a) Anytime the patient agrees to treatment and transport b) Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury c) Always during the secondary assessment d) Only when ordered by medical direction
b) Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury
Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65-year-old patient? a) Full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA b) Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA c) Second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA d) Superficial burn to 30% of the BSA
b) Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA
Patient complaints of pain during intercourse, lower abdominal discomfort, and nausea may be indicative of which of the following? a) Gonorrhea b) Pelvic inflammatory disease c) Bacterial vaginosis d) Chlamydia
b) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? a) Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes. b) Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase. c) Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles. d) The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion.
b) Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase.
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? a) Sensory b) Somatic c) Central d) Autonomic
b) Somatic
Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? a) Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect. b) The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. c) A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living. d) The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.
b) The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater.
Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? a) Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma. b) The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced. c) The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced. d) High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries.
b) The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.
Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? a) They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. b) They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly. c) They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx. d) They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control.
b) They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly.
You should suspect a kidney injury anytime the patient presents with _______. a) abdominal distention b) a hematoma in the flank region c) dyspnea d) nausea
b) a hematoma in the flank region
Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) decerebrate posturing. b) a rapid, thready pulse. c) CSF leakage from the ears. d) widening pulse pressure.
b) a rapid, thready pulse.
When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: a) is not affected. b) quadruples. c) triples. d) doubles.
b) quadruples.
A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: a) tell the patient that you want to help. b) calmly identify yourself to the patient. c) quickly tend to the bleeding wound. d) approach the patient with caution.
b) calmly identify yourself to the patient.
When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: a) assume that minimal force was applied to the back. b) carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. c) apply rigid board splints across the chest and back. d) recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening.
b) carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.
Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured: a) spleen. b) diaphragm. c) aorta. d) stomach.
b) diaphragm.
A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should: a) obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once. b) direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance. c) stabilize her legs with long board splints. d) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
b) direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: a) tell the witnesses that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist. b) ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. c) carefully document the witnesses' statements and report them immediately. d) take standard precautions and begin searching for critically injured patients.
b) ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building.
Most cases of anthrax begin with: a) signs of shock. b) flu-like symptoms. c) respiratory distress. d) pulmonary edema.
b) flu-like symptoms.
You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: a) limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only. b) grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety. c) perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety. d) treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place.
b) grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.
When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should: a) encourage the child to urinate and take a shower. b) have a female EMT remain with her if possible. c) carefully examine the genitalia for signs of injury. d) immediately report your suspicions to the parents.
b) have a female EMT remain with her if possible.
The upper jawbones are called the: a) mandible. b) maxillae. c) mastoid. d) zygoma.
b) maxillae.
Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: a) carefully assess the mechanism of injury. b) observe the scene for safety hazards. c) quickly gain access to the patient. d) determine if additional units are needed.
b) observe the scene for safety hazards.
When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: a) on her left side with the right leg elevated. b) on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches. c) in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12 inches. d) in a supine position with her legs spread.
b) on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches.
The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: a) pressure that is generated from the explosion itself. b) patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion. c) type of material used to manufacture the device. d) size of the structure that was involved in the explosion.
b) patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion.
Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: a) pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood. b) pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass. c) most burns in children are the result of child abuse. d) pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia.
b) pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass.
A 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing a seizure. Her husband tells you that her blood pressure has been high and that she had been complaining of a headache for the past few days. You should: a) elevate her legs to improve brain perfusion and keep her warm. b) place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport. c) insert an oral airway and ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. d) administer oral glucose for presumed hypoglycemia and transport.
b) place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport.
Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: a) carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord. b) placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated. c) placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting. d) gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery.
b) placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.
The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: a) prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. b) prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. c) facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. d) educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks.
b) prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.
When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: a) dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle. b) pupillary constriction. c) shunting of blood to vital organs. d) increase in heart rate.
b) pupillary constriction.
At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should _________. a) stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone b) remain outside the danger (hot) zone c) enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only d) relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient
b) remain outside the danger (hot) zone
Extrication is defined as: a) using heavy equipment to access a patient. b) removal from a dangerous situation or position. c) dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. d) immobilizing a patient before moving him or her.
b) removal from a dangerous situation or position.
Common complications associated with central venous catheters include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) bleeding around the line. b) rupture of a central vein. c) clotting of the line. d)a local infection.
b) rupture of a central vein.
All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: a) lewisite. b) sarin. c) phosgene oxime. d) sulfur mustard.
b) sarin.
The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: a) allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance. b) signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. c) is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital. d) legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way.
b) signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.
Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n): a) basilar skull fracture. b) spinal column injury. c) airway obstruction. d) displaced mandible.
b) spinal column injury.
A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: a) administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. b) stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment. c) assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. d) apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs.
b) stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that: a) lights and siren are effective in redirecting the patient's behavior. b) sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled. c) excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs. d) most patients will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia.
b) sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled.
A 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: a) elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin. b) supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting. c) applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly. d) transporting only with close, continuous monitoring.
b) supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.
At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: a) other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. b) terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. c) the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile. d) all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for.
b) terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb.
The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: a) an expected finding in full-term infants. b) that the baby's airway may be obstructed. c) that full newborn resuscitation will be needed. d) that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature.
b) that the baby's airway may be obstructed.
Hypovolemic shock occurs when: a) the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. b) the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss. c) at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost. d) the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced.
b) the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.
The Adam's apple is: a) the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. b) the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. c) the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. d) below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.
b) the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.
A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: a) thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline. b) transport her to the emergency department. c) remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab. d) use tweezers to try to remove the object.
b) transport her to the emergency department.
A medical transport helicopter is incoming and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should: a) ask bystanders to stand at all four corners of the LZ. b) use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ. c) use yellow caution tape to mark of the LZ perimeter. d) place four flares 100 feet apart in an "X" pattern.
b) use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ.
In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding may be: a) diaphoresis and pale skin. b) weakness or dizziness. c) a low blood pressure. d) a heart rate over 120 beats/min.
b) weakness or dizziness.
When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT's immediate priority should be to: a) manually stabilize the patient's head. b) wear gloves and facial protection. c) closely assess the patient's airway. d) consider the mechanism of injury.
b) wear gloves and facial protection.
Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death? a. myocardial contusion b. aortic rupture c. pulmoary contusion d. aortic dissection
b. aortic rupture
Closed chest injuries are typically caused by _______. a. high-velocity weapons b. blunt trauma c. flying debris d. penetration trauma
b. blunt trauma
The contrast to Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain potten fever a. may be confused with rheumatoid arthritis b. can cause paralysis, and cardiorespiratory collapse c. causes painful joint swelling after a few days or weeks d. presents with flu-like sympotoms and bull's eye rash
b. can cause paralysis, and cardiorespiratory collapse
Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: a. scalding water in a bathtube b. entrapment in a structral fire c. exposure to caustic chemicals d. hot items on the stove top
b. entrapment in a structral fire
Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: a. evaluate her legs 6 to 8 inches and cover her with a blanket b. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion c. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina d. place her legs together and positive her on her left side
b. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion
You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: a. perform a focused secondary assessment b. immediately request ALS support c. insert an oropharyngeal airway d. obtain a set of baseline vital signs
b. immediately request ALS support
You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask, and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should: a. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min b. insert an airway adjust if he will tolerate it begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM c. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status d. Perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed
b. insert an airway adjust if he will tolerate it begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM
You arrive at the scene of a major moto vehicle crash. The patient a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her stat shwas she was not wearing a seatbelt. the patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breathe sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be most suspicious that this patient has experienced a: a. tension pneumothroax b. laceration of the aorta c. pericardial tamponade d. massive hemothorax
b. laceration of the aorta
In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: a. flail chest b. pneumothorax c. cardia tamponade d. myocardial contusion
b. pneumothorax
Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. thorough drying with a towel b. possitive-pressure ventilations c. some form of tactile stimulation d. suction of the upper airway
b. possitive-pressure ventilations
Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______. a. Scene size-up b. primary assessment c. patient history d. secondary assessment
b. primary assessment
intracranial hemorrhage
bleeding inside the skull between the skull and dura mater, beneath the dura mater but outside the brain, or within ghte tissue of the brain
A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the rifht side of the chest. the patient is experiencing respiratory distress and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breathing sounds are equal and bilaterial and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: a. traumtic asphixia b. pulmoary contusion c. tension pneumothorax d. massive hemothorax
b. pulmoary contusion
Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia? a. the core body temperature exceeds 99.5 F b. the body is exposed to more heat than it can lose c. heat evaporation is significant amount of body water d. the body elimiated more heat than it can generate
b. the body is exposed to more heat than it can lose
why are pediatrics more prone to stress fractures?
because they have open growth plates, which allow the bones to grow but results in them being softer and more flexible.
greenstick fracture (incomplete fracture)
bending and incomplete break of a bone; most often seen in children
What can looking into the eyes of a person with an expected behavioral crisis help you deteremine? based on the gaze
blank gaze or rapidity moving eyes could mean central nervous stystem dysfunction
hemorrhage
bleeding
hyphema
blood in the anterior chamber of the eye, commonly cause by blunt trauma and obsures all or part of the iris
choroid
blood vessels that nourish the retina
what does the brachial and lumbosacral plexus control. What part of the nervous system are they?
brachial - controls the arms lumbosacral - controls the legs peripheral
how do you treat a patient with chemical burns?
brush off the skin and clothing for dry chemcials before flushing liquids begin flushing with water for at least 15 - 20 minutes
Force acting over a distance is the definition of: a) potential energy. b) latent energy. c) work. d) kinetic energy.
c
When a psychiatric emergency arises, a patient is most likely to exhibit which of the following behaviors? a) Disruptions to activities of daily living b) Visual or auditory hallucinations c) Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others d) Any behaviors unacceptable to the patient, family, or community
c) Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others
According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min? a) Triage the patient as delayed. b) Assess his or her neurologic status. c) Assess for bilateral radial pulses. d) Administer high-flow oxygen.
c) Assess for bilateral radial pulses.
Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is correct? a) The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy. b) SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection. c) Death as a result of SIDS can occur at any time of the day or night. d) Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable.
c) Death as a result of SIDS can occur at any time of the day or night.
Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? a) Oral glucose b) Vacuum splint c) DuoDote Auto-Injector d) Inhaled bronchodilator
c) DuoDote Auto-Injector
You receive a call for a domestic dispute. When you arrive at the scene, you find a young male standing on the front porch of his house. You notice that an adjacent window is broken. The patient has a large body, is clenching his fists, and is yelling obscenities at you. Which of the following findings is LEAST predictive of this patient's potential for violence? a) His shouting of obscenities b) His clenched fists c) His large body size d) The broken window
c) His large body size
Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? a) General weakness and diaphoresis b) Syncope and bleeding at distal sites c) Local swelling and ecchymosis d) Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion
c) Local swelling and ecchymosis
When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: a) carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise. b) approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors. c) Never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. d) remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5 to 6 feet from the ground.
c) Never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.
Which of the following terms applies to a state of delusion in which the patient is out of touch with reality? a) Agitated delirium b) Schizophrenia c) Psychosis d) Suicidal
c) Psychosis
Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood? a) Left b) Ventricles c) Right d) Atria
c) Right
Which of the following drugs is commonly referred to as "roofies"? a) MDMA b) Ketamine c) Rohypnol d) GHB
c) Rohypnol
Which of the following findings would be the MOST significant when assessing a patient with possible internal bleeding? a) The patient has not eaten in 24 hours. b) The patient has a history of hypertension. c) The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto). d) The patient had a stroke 5 years prior.
c) The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto).
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? a) Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. b) Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration. c) The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. d) The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss.
c) The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence initially? a) Do you know what substance was ingested? b) What time did the ingestion occur? c) Why did your child ingest the poison? d) Have you noticed any signs or symptoms?
c) Why did your child ingest the poison?
Spina bifida is defined as: a) chronic pressure on the brain caused by excess cerebrospinal fluid. b) congenital inflammation of the spinal cord, usually in the neck. c) a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column. d) a birth defect in which the child is born without spinal vertebrae.
c) a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column.
Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: a) a ruptured eyeball. b) a lacerated globe. c) a blowout fracture. d) optic vessel compression.
c) a blowout fracture.
During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in: a) air-trapping within the alveoli. b) baseline respiratory distress. c) a decreased ability to cough. d) an increased risk of COPD.
c) a decreased ability to cough.
The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have: a) skin that is cherry red and hot. b) an abnormally slow pulse rate. c) a normal pulse oximetry reading. d) an abnormally slow respiratory rate.
c) a normal pulse oximetry reading.
An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: a) acute unilateral paralysis following the injury. b) a progressively lowering blood pressure. c) a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. d) an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate.
c) a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because: a) weather conditions may change quickly. b)bystanders may destroy the evidence. c) a secondary explosive device may detonate. d) terrorists are often at the scene after an attack.
c) a secondary explosive device may detonate.
An 84-year-old male fell a week ago and has been bedridden since then. Today, he presents with an altered mental status. His skin is pale and cold and his respirations are rapid and shallow. The EMT should suspect: a) acute hyperglycemia. b) hypovolemic shock. c) a systemic infection. d) a subdural hematoma.
c) a systemic infection.
A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should: a) assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask, place one sterile dressing into her vagina, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport. b) administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport. c) administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay. d) administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly.
c) administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay.
A specific legal document that directs relatives and caregivers regarding the medical treatment that may be given to patients who cannot speak for themselves is called a(n): a) statute of care. b) physician directive. c) advance directive. d) power of attorney.
c) advance directive.
The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: a) mandibular immobility. b) damage to the eyes. c) airway compromise. d) cervical spine injury.
c) airway compromise.
In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: a) a spinal fracture. b) nerve fiber damage. c) an air embolism. d) an ischemic stroke.
c) an air embolism.
You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should: a) focus your initial treatment efforts on the patients who are conscious because the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest. b) recognize that the patients who are conscious are at high risk for developing cardiac arrest and quickly assess them for potentially life-threatening injuries. c) assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible. d) immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after 5 minutes of treatment.
c) assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible.
In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: a) sheds and is expelled externally. b) diverts blood flow to the vagina. c) becomes engorged with blood. d) thins and begins to separate.
c) becomes engorged with blood.
You arrive at an accident scene to find an alternative-fuel vehicle leaking an unknown substance. You should immediately _________. a) apply retardant to the leaking fuel b) search the vehicle for occupants c) call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle d) disconnect the car battery
c) call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: a) high-level disinfection. b) sterilization. c) cleaning. d) disinfection.
c) cleaning.
When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: a) convection. b) evaporation. c) conduction. d) radiation.
c) conduction.
You are attending to a 23-year-old female patient who is 16 weeks pregnant with her second child. The patient has apparently fallen and sustained an injury to her upper right arm. When you ask about the incident history, the patient is reluctant to explain what happened and becomes very quiet. Based on this information, you should: a) contact police and remain at the scene until they arrive and escort you to the hospital. b) immediately remove the patient from the environment and transport. c) continue your care in a private area, document any details regarding the scene and the incident, and reassure her as you provide care. d) ask more detailed questions and press the issue until you have a more detailed understanding of the incident.
c) continue your care in a private area, document any details regarding the scene and the incident, and reassure her as you provide care.
Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: a) arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. b) visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings. c) control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. d) allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport.
c) control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.
A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should: a) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport. b) fully immobilize her spine, irrigate her empty tooth sockets, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, and transport. c) fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. d) assist ventilations with a BVM device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport.
c) fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport.
A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: a) intrathoracic hemorrhaging. b) acute appendicitis. c) gastrointestinal bleeding. d) an aortic aneurysm.
c) gastrointestinal bleeding.
A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: a) the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor. b) the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. c) it interferes with your assessment of the airway. d) the patient must be placed onto a long backboard.
c) it interferes with your assessment of the airway.
In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: a) often presents with acute pain. b) is typically not as severe. c) may be relatively painless. d) can be controlled in the field.
c) may be relatively painless.
While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: a) open abdominal trauma. b) blunt trauma to the head. c) neck and facial injuries. d) lower extremity fractures.
c) neck and facial injuries.
As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should: a) assess his pulse for rate, regularity, and quality. b) perform an immediate head-to-toe assessment. c) open his airway and assess his breathing status. d) apply high-flow oxygen and assess his injuries.
c) open his airway and assess his breathing status.
A 43-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. Preferred treatment for this patient includes: a) packing both nostrils with gauze pads until the bleeding stops. b) placing a rolled 4² × 4² dressing between his lower lip and gum. c) pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward. d) having the patient pinch his own nostrils and then lie supine.
c) pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward.
When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to: a) secure the patient's head before the torso. b) use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll. c) place blankets behind the patient's head. d) force the head into a neutral alignment.
c) place blankets behind the patient's head.
The development of an incident action plan is the responsibility of the: a) operations section. b) logistics section. c) planning section. d) finance section.
c) planning section.
Crepitus and false motion are: a) indicators of a severe sprain. b) most common with dislocations. c) positive indicators of a fracture. d) only seen with open fractures.
c) positive indicators of a fracture.
Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: a) vital signs should be monitored frequently. b) the abdomen must be vigorously palpated. c) prompt transport to the hospital is essential. d) the EMT must perform a thorough exam.
c) prompt transport to the hospital is essential.
You are transporting a 28-year-old man with a frostbitten foot. The patient's vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries or symptoms. The weather is treacherous and your transport time to the hospital is approximately 45 minutes. During transport, you should: a) cover his foot with chemical heat compresses. b) rewarm his foot in 102°F to 104°F (38.9°C to 40°C) water. c) protect the affected part from further injury. d) administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
c) protect the affected part from further injury.
A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to: a) try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the vampires too. b) approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder. c) restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries. d) request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital.
c) restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.
When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: a) a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure. b) significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater. c) rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head. d) fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma.
c) rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.
When a child is struck by a car, the area of greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the: a) age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her. b) height of the child and the speed at which the car was traveling. c) size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. d) speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred.
c) size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact.
You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is: a) irregular. b) weak. c) slow. d) rapid.
c) slow.
A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: a) inspect the helmet for cracks. b) obtain baseline vital signs. c) stabilize her entire spine. d) leave her bicycle helmet on.
c) stabilize her entire spine.
During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: a) perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. b) defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. c) stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine. d) log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once.
c) stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.
The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is _________. a) controlled directly by the patient b) severe enough to warrant transport c) taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation d) not caused by traumatic injury
c) taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation
Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the _________. a) transfer phase b) support phase c) termination phase d) hazard-control phase
c) termination phase
In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure (BP) upon standing because: a) the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume. b) any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain. c) the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes. d) their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate.
c) the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes.
An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: a) a bullet shatters the underlying bone. b) bone ends protrude through the skin. c) the overlying skin is no longer intact. d) a large laceration overlies the fracture.
c) the overlying skin is no longer intact.
When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: a) most patients with facial trauma will need surgery. b) they must make arrangements for an ICU bed. c) they may need to call a specialist to see the patient. d) it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital.
c) they may need to call a specialist to see the patient.
Most of the serious injuries associated with scuba diving are caused by: a) cold water temperature. b) alcohol consumption. c) too rapid of an ascent. d) too rapid of a descent.
c) too rapid of an ascent.
A 70-year-old male complains of shortness of breath. During your assessment, you note that he has bilateral hearing aids. When you ask him questions related to his chief complaint, he does not answer you. You can hear a whistling sound coming from his hearing aids. You should: a) remove his hearing aids, turn up the volume, and replace them in his ears. b) remove both of his hearing aids and use pencil and paper to communicate. c) try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume. d) recognize that the batteries in his hearing aids are probably depleted.
c) try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume.
The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________. a) assist in the search on foot b) assume medical command c) wait at the staging area until the patient is located d) direct other incoming EMS units
c) wait at the staging area until the patient is located
In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: a) the location type. b) victim's statements. c) weather conditions. d) the type of call.
c) weather conditions.
A 5-year-old child has had severe vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which of the following assessments findings would be most indivative of decompensated shock? a. respiratory rate of 30 breaths per min b. pulse rate greater than 120/min c. blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg d. Capillary refil time of 4 seconds
c. blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg
A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): a. disruption in the midshaft of a bone b. abnormality in the structure of a bone c. break in the continuity of the bone d. total loss of sunction in the bone
c. break in the continuity of the bone
Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? a. diminished breath sounds b. widening pulse pressure c. engorged jugular veins d. a rapid, irregular pulse
c. engorged jugular veins
Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidney? a. the kidneys are not well protected b. kidney injuries are rarely caused y blunt trauma c. injury to the kidney usaully indicates injury to other organs d. only minimal force is needt to damage the kidneys
c. injury to the kidney usaully indicates injury to other organs
In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are a. less lekely to bleed when injured b. more preotected by the thorax in comparison to adults c. large in proportion to the abdomen d. smaller in proportion to the abdomen
c. large in proportion to the abdomen
you recieve a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year-ld diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he was been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3-horus. the patient is confused and has host, moist ski. His pulse is weak and thready, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. You should: a. adminider one tubeof oral glucose and reases his metal status b. place him in a sitting position and have him drink a 1L of water c. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions d. perform a head-to toe assessment and look for signs of trauma
c. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions
A spinal cord injury a tthe level of C7 would most likely resutls in: a. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles b. paralysis of the diaphragm c. paralysis of the intercostal muscles d. immediate cardiac arrest
c. paralysis of the intercostal muscles
You heave sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your ressessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You shoud: a. begin rapid transportation at once b. call for a paramedic abulance c. partically remove the dressing
c. partically remove the dressing
A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alter and complains of sever chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providdng supplemental oxygen, you should: a. apply an AED and assess his BP b. determine if he heas cardiact problems c. prepare for immediate pransport d. apply bulky sreassing to the sternum
c. prepare for immediate pransport
Central venous catheter, what are common complication?
catheter with its ti[ plac in vena cava to provide venous access - broke lines - infection about the lines - clotting of lines - bleeding around the line or from the tubing attached to the line
Burns to the throat can burns to the chest can Circumferential extermity burns can
cause the mucus to swell and lead to complete obstruction can compromise breathing lad to neurovascular compromise and irreversible damage
What does the parasympathetic nervous system do?
causes blood vesels to dilate decrease the heart rate relax the muscles shunt the blood to the digrestive tract
who are greatest risk for heat illnesses?
children, geriatric, heart disease, COPD, diabetes, dehydration, and obsesity
Smooth muscles purpose is to?
contract and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within tubular structures. Part of the involuntary
Skeletal muscles. where do cross, what type of muscle are they, and whats their purpose?
cross at least one joint volunatry movement, posture
Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin? a) Soles of the feet b) Back c) Scalp d) Ears
d) Ears
Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes? a) "When are you due?" b) "Is this your first baby?" c) "Do you feel the need to push?" d) "Have you had a sonogram?"
d) "Have you had a sonogram?"
While the ages can vary, women typically experience menstruation from approximately _________ to ____________ years of age. a) 20; 60 b) 10; 40 c) 10; 70 d) 11; 50
d) 11; 50
The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. a) 6; 70 lb b) 7; 90 lb c) 5; 50 lb d) 8; 100 lb
d) 8; 100 lb
You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? a) A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities b) A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities c) A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse d) A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing
d) A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing
Which of the following destinations is most appropriate for a 41-year-old male patient who was involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each is equal? a) A Level IV or Level III trauma center b) Any designated trauma center is acceptable c) Only a Level I trauma center d) A Level I or Level II trauma center
d) A Level I or Level II trauma center
A behavioral crisis interferes with which of the following? a) Activities of daily living b) Behavior that is unacceptable to the community c) Dressing, eating, or bathing d) All of these answers are correct.
d) All of these answers are correct.
Causes of vaginal bleeding include which of the following? a) Ectopic pregnancy b) Vaginal trauma c) Spontaneous abortion d) All of these answers are correct.
d) All of these answers are correct.
During gynecologic emergencies, in addition to the standard SAMPLE questions, the EMT should attempt to determine which of the following? a) The amount of time since the patient's last menstrual cycle b) The possibility that the patient may be pregnant c) If the patient is sexually active d) All of these answers are correct.
d) All of these answers are correct.
In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do which of the following? a) Immediately write down your observations of the scene before assessing the patient. b) Call for a female EMT or ALS care provider. c) Discuss with law enforcement any suspicions that you may have about the perpetrator. d) All of these answers are correct.
d) All of these answers are correct.
Which of the following is considered an organic brain syndrome? a) Anxiety conditions b) Schizophrenia c) Depression d) Alzheimer's disease
d) Alzheimer's disease
During your visual inspection of a 25-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? a) Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord. b) Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately. c) Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers. d) Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.
d) Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.
Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used? a) To permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles b) To reduce ventricular pumping force in patients with aortic aneurysms c) To ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate d) As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located
d) As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located
Which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct? a) Before performing an assessment of the patient's ABCs, the EMT should ask the caregiver about the patient's medical condition. b) In most cases, it is more appropriate for the EMT to contact medical control prior to speaking with the patient's primary caregiver. c) In general, the EMT should only speak with a certified home health care provider because he or she is the expert on the patient's illness. d) Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.
d) Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.
Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? a) Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis. b) Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. c) In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. d) Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.
d) Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.
Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? a) Intrusion into the vehicle b) Dismounted seats c) Steering wheel deformity d) Deployment of the air bag
d) Deployment of the air bag
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? a) Hairline fracture b) Severe strain c) Moderate sprain d) Displaced fracture
d) Displaced fracture
Why might EMTs encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large? a) EMTs have to restrain patients. b) EMTs respond with law enforcement. c) It is a common misperception; EMTs do NOT encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large. d) EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency.
d) EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency.
A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? a) Lateral impact to the spine b) Secondary fall after the initial impact c) Direct trauma to the spinal column d) Energy transmission to the spine
d) Energy transmission to the spine
__________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. a) Neutron b) Alpha c) Beta d) Gamma
d) Gamma
Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure? a) Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time b) Slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea c) Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath d) Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea
d) Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea
Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured? a) Stomach b) Bladder c) Intestine d) Liver
d) Liver
Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? a) Approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia. b) Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets. c) Hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting. d) Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously.
d) Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously.
Which of the following statements regarding patients with intellectual disabilities is correct? a) Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands. b) Most patients with intellectual disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features. c) An intellectual disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality. d) Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.
d) Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.
Which portion of the blood carries oxygen to and wastes away from body tissues? a) Plasma b) White blood cells c) Platelets d) Red blood cells
d) Red blood cells
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy? a) Type 2 diabetes b) Brain tumors c) Paralysis d) Seizure disorder
d) Seizure disorder
Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process? a) The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection. b) The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound. c) White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow. d) The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling.
d) The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling.
From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? a) Vagina b) Perineum c) Cervix d) Uterus
d) Uterus
Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: a) in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft. b) as directed by the EMS system's medical director. c) based on recommendations of the health department. d) according to the urgency and frequency of their use.
d) according to the urgency and frequency of their use.
A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should: a) apply ice to the hematoma. b) palpate his radial pulses. c) perform a neurologic exam. d) administer high-flow oxygen.
d) administer high-flow oxygen.
You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: a) quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards. b) have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. c) proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. d) advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.
d) advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.
Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) chronic medical conditions. b) alcohol abuse and dependence. c) prescription medication use. d) an acute onset of dementia.
d) an acute onset of dementia.
During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: a) carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints. b) splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. c) make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow. d) apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.
d) apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.
You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: a) request the rescue team to extricate him. b) break the window and unlock the door. c) use a pry bar to attempt to open the door. d) ask the patient if he can unlock the door.
d) ask the patient if he can unlock the door.
A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then: a) obtain baseline vital signs. b) apply a cervical collar. c) auscultate bowel sounds. d) assess for an exit wound.
d) assess for an exit wound.
When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should: a) use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical. b) deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution. c) quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water. d) brush away the chemical before flushing with water.
d) brush away the chemical before flushing with water.
If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: a) have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene. b) don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process. c) remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. d) check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.
d) check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.
A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n): a) intestinal shunt. b) gastrostomy. c) gastric stoma. d) colostomy.
d) colostomy.
The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________. a) incident management b) vehicle stabilization c) simple access d) complex access
d) complex access
During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to: a) reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates. b) reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. c) complete the run form before arrival at the hospital. d) converse with the patient and provide reassurance.
d) converse with the patient and provide reassurance.
The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: a) weaponization. b) aerosolization. c) incubation. d) dissemination.
d) dissemination.
The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: a) ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash. b) allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. c) allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication. d) ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene.
d) ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene.
It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: a) lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours. b) have a false positive home pregnancy test result. c) become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide. d) experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.
d) experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.
The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent, and often inefficient, decisions regarding an incident is called: a) single command. b) logistical chaos. c) Undermining. d) freelancing.
d) freelancing.
Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: a) broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive. b) provide specific information about the chemical being carried. c) advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures. d) give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.
d) give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.
You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: a) regularly sees a family physician. b) noticed the change during a meal. c) is allergic to any medications. d) has a history of eye surgeries.
d) has a history of eye surgeries.
A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her: a) should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing. b) should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out. c) is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks. d) has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.
d) has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.
In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: a) does not cause pressure within the skull. b) results from a laceration to the brain tissue. c) usually does not cause a loss of consciousness. d) involves physical injury to the brain tissue.
d) involves physical injury to the brain tissue.
An abdominal aortic aneurysm: a) is usually not repairable, even if discovered early. b) causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders. c) can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area. d) is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis.
d) is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis.
The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: a) performed in the presence of at least two police officers. b) as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented. c) deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician. d) limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.
d) limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.
Talking about an elderly patient in front of him or her to other members of the family: a) often causes the patient to become paranoid and untrusting of your help. b) will anger the patient and result in his or her refusal to accept care or transport. c) is usually beneficial because the patient's cognitive skills are typically impaired. d) may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions.
d) may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions.
The first month of life after birth is referred to as the: a) start of infancy. b) premature phase. c) toddler period. d) neonatal period.
d) neonatal period.
The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: a) cardiovascular system. b) renal system. c) respiratory system. d) nervous system.
d) nervous system.
While triaging patients at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash, you encounter a 5-year-old child who is unresponsive and apneic. After positioning his airway, you should: a) categorize him as deceased. b) categorize him as immediate. c) deliver 5 rescue breaths. d) palpate for a carotid pulse.
d) palpate for a carotid pulse.
Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should _________. a) assist with the rescue operation b) park as close to the incident as possible c) determine if rescuers are operating safely d) park at least 500 feet from the incident
d) park at least 500 feet from the incident
Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' oxygen, nutritional, and waste-removal needs is termed _______. a) coagulation b) hypoperfusion c) hemorrhage d) perfusion
d) perfusion
When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: a) advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes. b) allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. c) ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her. d) place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.
d) place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.
Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: a) ischemic stroke. b) heart failure. c) osteoporosis. d) pneumonia.
d) pneumonia.
When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: a) solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. b) primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious. c) secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious. d) primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.
d) primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.
Three days after delivering her baby, a 30-year-old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: a) acute pulmonary edema. b) intrauterine bleeding. c) spontaneous pneumothorax. d) pulmonary embolism.
d) pulmonary embolism.
General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) avoiding one-way streets whenever possible. b) avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion. c) assuming that other drivers will not see you. d) regularly using the siren as much as possible.
d) regularly using the siren as much as possible.
While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should _________. a) assess firefighters for signs of fatigue b) stay with the incident commander c) locate the safety officer d) remain with the ambulance
d) remain with the ambulance
A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should: a) thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing. b) carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial. c) carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing. d) replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing.
d) replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing.
During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a: a) handgun. b) .357 magnum. c) .22-caliber pistol. d) shotgun.
d) shotgun.
The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: a) just anterior to the tragus. b) at the angle of the jaw. c) over the mastoid process. d) slightly above the ear.
d) slightly above the ear.a) just anterior to the tragus.
All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the: a) ureters. b) stomach. c) bladder. d) spleen.
d) spleen.
Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year-old female complains of diffuse abdominal pain and pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the: a) liver. b) pancreas. c) gallbladder. d) spleen.
d) spleen.
When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: a) start of one to the end of the next. b) end of one to the start of the next. c) end of one to the end of the next. d) start of one to the start of the next.
d) start of one to the start of the next.
While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: a) pass the bus only after all the children have exited. b) slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. c) back up and take an alternate route to the scene. d) stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.
d) stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.
You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: a) suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber. b) position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-valve mask, and contact medical control for further guidance. c) place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department. d) suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.
d) suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.
During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: a) assist his ventilations with a BVM. b) immobilize his spine and transport immediately. c) pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood. d) suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.
d) suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.
The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: a) clinical signs and symptoms. b) the mechanism of injury. c) poor general appearance. d) systolic blood pressure.
d) systolic blood pressure.
The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: a) swelling of the lower extremities and weakness. b) jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. c) fever and a cough that produces green sputum. d) tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
d) tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: a) leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney. b) stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. c) allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. d) tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.
d) tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.
The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: a) the use of a scoop stretcher. b) the direct patient carry. c) the clothes drag. d) the four-person log roll.
d) the four-person log roll.
When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: a) an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. b) the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. c) the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. d) the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
d) the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: a) deformity and swelling are present. b) transport time is less than 15 minutes. c) the patient is in severe pain. d) the patient is clinically unstable.
d) the patient is clinically unstable.
A 77-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. Her son is present and advises that she has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. He further advises that she takes numerous medications and that she is normally alert. When you assess this patient, it is important to note that: a) because of her age and medical history, you should suspect Alzheimer's disease. b) her mental status is likely the result of hypoglycemia and you should give her sugar. c) dementia typically presents as an acute onset of deterioration of cognitive function. d) the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem.
d) the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem.
According to the Association of Air Medical Services, you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: a) ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries. b) he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor. c) the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away. d) traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.
d) traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.
A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: a) covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings. b) administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. c) requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication. d)applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.
d)applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.
You and your partner are both male and are attending to a 28-year-old female patient complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. The patient is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. The patient refuses to allow you to examine her, and her husband informs you that their culture does not allow males to examine or care for pregnant women. You should: a) call for the police to ensure that patient assessment is carried out. b) insist that the patient requires proper care and that requires an adequate physical assessment and that you cannot be responsible for the outcome. c) inform the patient that by calling for an ambulance, she is agreeing to the care provided and continue with your assessment and managements d)respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient.
d)respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient.
When jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. he is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest you should a. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. b. circumferentially tape a dressing oround his chest c. recognize that he needs a needle decompression d. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital
d. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital
With regards to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: a. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted b. area of abvious defomity over the site of impact c. part of the body that susianed secondary injure d. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury
d. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury
Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: a. extreme restlessness b. skin that is cool and dry c. acute respiratory distress d. drooling and congestion
d. drooling and congestion
A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should: a. gently straighten he knee and apply a padded board splint b. flex her knee slighly more and assess for distal circulation c. make one attempt to return the patellla to its normal position d. keep her knee fixed and secure it with padded board splints
d. keep her knee fixed and secure it with padded board splints
What is the most severe outcome of prolonged agitation of a psychotic patient?
death due to medabolic acidosis or cardiac arrest
How will a decrease in tidal volume affect the respirtory rate?
decrease RR
Astigmatism
defective curvature of the cornea or lens of the eye
What does DCAP-BTLS stand for
deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures, burns, tenderness, lacerations, swelling
what are the signs of bronchiolitis?
dehrdation, shorness of breath and fever
what are the principal layers of the skin?
epidermis: tough external layer dermis: inner layer
For an eletrical burn what is larger the enteerance or exit wound
exit
If you have a pediatric patient with a fracture below the elbow or knee, be on the lookout for these signs/symptoms:
extreme pain decreases pain sensation pain on stretching or affected muscles decreases power
What controls ovulation and menstration
female hormones
what are the bones in the lower extemities and where are they located?
femur, patella, tibia (shin - big toe), fibula (little toe)
What is completed in the postrun-phase?
file addiitonal written reports - inform dispatch of status - perform routine inspections -refuel
what is a pressure dressing?
firmly appling a self adhearing roller bandage around a wound using a 4 x 4 sterial gauxe pags or a univeral dressing. ensure you can still palpate a dital pulse. do not remove the dressing until a physical has evaluated the patient.
How should you treat small soft tissues wounds?
flush small wound surfaces with sterile saline prior to apply a dressing.
Colles fracture
fracture of the distal radius at the wrist
Abdominal distension is often a result of?
free fluid, blood, organ contents spilling into the peritoneal cavity.
How should you approach a helicoper?
from the front
what should you do while delivering the head to reduce the risk of perineal tearing?
gently apply pressure across the perineum with a sterile gaze
What guns are considered high and low velocity?
high - high power rifles and handguns low - small caliber handgus and shotguns
pediatric brains require ... compared to adults
higher cerebral blood flow, oxygen, glucose
Adhesive tapes
holds small dressing in place and helps to secure larger dressings
what are hymenoptera stings?
honeybees, wasps, hornets, yellow jackets, fire ants and harvester ants
What are the bones in the upper extemities and where are they located?
humerus, elbow, radius (thumb), ulna (pinky)
What are some symptoms of date rape drugs?
hypotenstion bradycradia abdominal complaints difficulty breathing seizure coma and even death
glaucoma
increased intraocular pressure results in damage to the retina and optic nerve with loss of vision
what are common trade names for activated charcol? How do you determine the dosage?
insta-char, actidose, and liqui-char 1g / kg if bodyweight Children (12.5g - 25g)
how can gastric distension be a problem for a child v an adult
interfers with movement of the diaphram and lead to hypoventilation
What is someones behavior?
is a persons response to the environment: his or her actions.
reflux arc.
is a sensory nerve in this arc dtects an irritating stimuls it bypasses the brain and send the mesage directly to the motor nerve. how we respond to pain so quickly.
vitreous humor Aqueous humor
jellylike substance found behind the lens in the posterior cavity of the eye that maintains its shape fluid in from of the lens this will leak in penetrating injuries
A nuchal cord is defines as an umbilical cord that:
is wrapped around the babies neck
cricothriod membrane
lies between the thyroid cartilage and the cricoid cartilage and is the soft depression in the midline of the neck
Who needs to approve medical restaints?
medical control and ems agency. however the police can restain someone and they are than in the polices custody.
immobilization of a standing patient
long back board
why do older individuals have a harder time keeping warm?
loss of subcutanious insulation and coor circulation
damage to a cornea will result in what kind of appearance
loss of the wet smooth look do not remove anything if it is stuck to the cornea
What is the orbit of the eye composed of
lower edge of the frontal bone of the skull zygoma maxilla nasal bone
What does the thoracic cage extend from. What to what in the body?
lower end of the neck to the diaphram
spinal cord
made up of fibers that extend from the brain nerves cells carries messages between the brain and the body via the grey and white matter of the spinsl cord
Who needs to approve the use of restraints?
med control and EMS agency
What is the difference between mild, moderate, and severe lighting injuries?
mild - LOC, amnesia, confusion, tingling, superficial burns moderate - seizrues, respirtory asrrest, superficial burns Severe - cardiopulmonary arrest
how should you treat external gynocologic lacerations?
moist sterile compresses, localized pressur
what causes the disformities during a proximal femur fracture
muscle spazzums and shortening of the limb
What are the 6 major bones in the face
nasal zygomas x2 maxillae x2 mandible
What are commons S/S for a child with a head injury?
nausea and vommiting expecially after a trauma
light burns to the eyes are?
non painful but can leave lasted vision impairment
what are the four major bones of the cranium?
occiput, temples, parietal regions, and frontal regions
What type of bandage is good for bandaging penetrating injuires?
occulsive dressing with 3 sides taped down, leaving one open.
oblique fracture
occurs at an angle across the bone
transverse fracture
occurs straight across the bone
crush syndrome
occurs when a body part has been trapped for longer than 4 hours. Significant metabolic derangement that develops when crushed extremities or body parts remain trapped for prolonged periods. This can lead to renal failure and death.
hyperosmolar hyperglycermic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) & S/S
occurs with type 2 diabetes. furrowed tongue warm flushed skin
What is the most accurate way to get a temperature from infants and toddlers?
rectal
What is the menarche? When does it occur?
onset of menstruation, 11 - 16 years of old
What color are high voltage wires typically?
orange
refered pain
pain felt in a part of the body other than its actual source
Capillaries
pass among all the cells and link arterioles and venules
Which type of fracture to the humerus is more common anterior or posterior?
posterior. when either occur considers using a traction
A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant aount of blood before showing signs of shock becuase?
pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume
What is the difference between primary, secondary, tertiary, and Quaternary blast injuries?
primary - injuried due to the blast wave itself (pressure wave) secondary - injuiries due to missles being propelled by the blast force (flying debris) tertiary - injuried due to impact with another object. (being thrown) - quaternary - colleral injuried such as burns, crush injuries, and toxic inhalation
when is primary and secondary triage preformed?
primary - on the scene secondary - is done as the patiens are brough tto the treatment area
what are the two broad categoried of brain injuries
primary - results instantaneously from impact to the head secondary - increases the severity of the primary injury
Osteoarthritis
progressive disease if the joints that destorys cartilage, promotes the formation of bone spurs and least to joint stiffness
how do you assess general temperature?
pull back glove and place your hnad on the back of your hand on the patients abdomen
What should you consider if a women that just delivered has a sudden complaint of difficulty breathing or shortness of breath following delivery?
pulmonary embolism. results from a clot that travels through the bloodstream and becomes ledged in the pulmonary circulation.
rotation-flexion injuries of the spine are a result from?
rapid acceleration forces
What position do you put a patient if they are seizing and vomiting?
recovery
signs and symptoms of larynx injuries
respiratory distress, hoarseness, pain, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) cyanosis, pale skin, sputum in the wound, subcutaneous emphysema, bruising on the neck, hematoma or bleeding
Brainstem
responsible for automatic survival functions
platelates
responsible for forming clots
red blood cells
responsible for the transportation of oxygen to the cells and carbon dioxide away from the cells of the lungs
white blood cells (leukocytes)
responsile for fighting infections
If a patient has right or left shoulder pain what internal organ may be injuried?
right - liver injury left - spleen injury
How does blood flow from oxygen poor to oxygen rich?
right superior vena cavia recieved oxygen poor blood from upper body and the right inferior vena cavia recived oxygen poor blood from the lower parts of the body --> to into right atrium --> right ventricle -> left pulmonary arerty --> lungs --> left pulmonary veins back to heart with oxygen rich blood --> left atrium -- left ventricle --> aortia
Seatbelts and air bags are effective at preventing which of the three collisions at occur during an accident?
second collsion. person against car - Airbags decrease the severity of deceeration injuries
what is diazepam (valium, diatat) used for?
seizures
What are the two types of peripheral nerves
sensory - carry information from the body to the brain cia the spinal cord motor - one for each muscle carry information from the CNS to the muscles
What are air splints?
sfot splints or pressure splints that can beused to control interla and external bleeeding associated with sever injuries addititionally they can immobilize fractures and act as a pressure dressing
Plueral Surface damage S/S
sharo sticking pain
imobilization of a sitting patient
short back board
S/S of a dislocation
shortening of leg, abnormal rotation, can't move extremity, pain
What are the S/S of left sided heart failure?
shortness of breath pulmonary edema hypoxia with crackling in lungs
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND). What is it caused by?
shortness of breath that occurs suddenly during sleep or in a reclining position. fluid accumulation in the lungs
if someone has a fluid reservoir what medical condition should that indicate to you? where is it located?
shoudl allert you to the presense of a shunt device is benest skin on side of head, behind the ear.
What is the difference between simple and complex access when it comes to extrication?
simple - does not involve the use of any tools; opening the foor or rolling down the window complex- requires the use of special trainig and includes breaking windows and other forcible entries
how should you transport someone with a gastrostomy tube that is having difficulty breathing?
sitting or laying on thier right side with head elevated 30 degress
What do beta blockers do to the heart ?
slow heart rate, slow A-V conduction, and decrease the force of the contraction
What is the treatment for someone with compartment syndrome
splint and keep at the level of the heart - transport - asses neurovascular status freq
What is the purpose of the skeleton
structure, protection, movement, produce blood cells
pulmonary embolism (PE) and S/S
sudden blockage of an artery by a venous clot. present with shortness of breath and chest pain Tachycardia sudden onset of dyspnea should, back or chest pain cough syncopy anxiety low-grade fever hemoptysis leg pain pedal edema fatique
What is a left ventricular assist device and when is it use?
takes over the fnction of wither one or both heart ventricles typically used as a bridge to hear transplation, provides support measure snad basic care.
What attaches skeletal muscles to the bone?
tendons
What is the most common misconception when it comes to Psychiatric emergancies?
that if you are feeling bad or depressred you must be sick.
What does it mean if there is a target or haloshaped stain on a dessing with blood in the center?
the blood drainage contained cerebrospinal fluid as well
Burns occur when?
the body receives more radiant energy than it can absorb. The transfer of radiation, thermal, or electrical energy
Intellectual disability
the inability to learn and socially adapt at a normal developemental rate
What is the first thing you should assess for a patient with a penetrating trauma?
the number of penetrating injuires
what does ones body do to try and reduce bleeding.
the vessels begin to narrow (vasoconstriction) and the blood begins to cougulate
Strong central pulses for children indicate?
they are not hypotensive
How are febrile seizures characterized?
tonic clonic actiivity
what is the purpose of cranial nerves (12 pairs)
transmit information directlt to or from the brain - preform sight, smell taste, hearing, and facial expressions
is a women is experiancing Braxton-Hicks contractins you should
transport her
What is the leading cause of death for people younger than 44 years old
traumatic injuries are the leading cause of death in the US
What are the hallmark signs of epiglottis
tripod and drooling
during a structural fire what are the fire fighters wearing?
turn out gear and SCBA
What are the differences between the 3 types of ambulace
type 1 - conential, truck cab chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a new chassis as neede d Type 2 - standard van, foward control integral cab body ambulance Type 3 - specialty cab with a modular ambulance body that is mounted on a cut away can chassis
what is the leadinf cause of death in the first trimester for mothers?
uinternal bleeding due to an eptopic pregnacy .
Where should the ambulance be parked in respect to a crash scene?
uphill and wind. 100 feet away whhile leaving lights on
If a patient has an upper air way burn what is that often associated with? if the patient has a lower airway burn what is that often associated with?
upper- inhaliation of superheated gasses lower - inhalation of chemicals and paticulate matter Place a cold pack on the throat to reduce swelling place an airway in.
When are apnea monitors typically used
used for infants that are 2weeks to 2 monts - are preme and have sever gastroesphageal reflux -family history of SIDs - experiences a life-threatening event.
what is the blow-by technique?
used if patient cannot tolerate mask treatment, aerosol is directed from aerosol from nebulizer towards the patients nose and mouth from a distance of several inches from the face. 6L/min will administer 21% O2
What is SLUDGEM AND DUMBELS used for and what do they stand for?
used to assess for nerve agents salivation, lacimation, urination, defication, gastric upset, emesis, muscle twitching diarreah, urination, miosis (pinpoint pupils) muscle weakenes, emesis, lacrimation, seizures, salivation and sweating
What type of chemical agent is. Name a chemical iwith it vesicants respiratory nerve metabolic
v - blistering (mustard gas, lewisites, phosgene oxime) R - chocking (Cl, phosgene) Nerve (tabun, sarin, soman, vagent) M - cyandides
what do the umbilical veins and arteries carry?
veinns carry oxygeninated blood from the placenta to the fetus while arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta
What technique should you use before physically restaining a patient?
verbal de-escalation techiques. - as the family to assist you in calming the patient, be honest ans straighforward, and talk in a friently tone
terrorism
volient acts or acts dangerous to human life that violate federal or state law and appears to be intended to intimiate or coerce a civiliam population. influence the poliy or gov. - affect the conduct of a government by mass destruction
what is the splash effect?
when an individual is struck when standing near an object that has been struck by lightning, such as a tree
when is a senerio that you would need to call ALS when handeling a patient with excited delirium?
when the patients agitation continues, ao chemcial restaints can be considered.
When will bleeding stop when applying a pressure dressing?
when the pressure from the dressing esceeds artierial pressure.
what are descent emergancies? what does it affect?
when there is a sudden increase in pressure as the eprson dives deeper into the water lungs, sinus cavities, middle ear, teeth, face
