MSE Quiz and Practice Test Questions

Q: The Argentinian revolutionary who took part in Cuba's "26th of July Movement" was A. Fidel Castro B. Che Guevara C. Cesar Chavez D. Fulgencio Batista (MSE Quiz 12: World History)

A. Che Guevara Guevara joined Fidel Castro to overthrow Cuban dictator Batista in 1959. Guevara joined other Marxist revolutionary movements, most notable in the Congo and Bolivia where he was killed in 1967. Choice C is incorrect - Cesar Chavez was the Mexican-American activist who formed the unions that eventually became United Farm Workers, which worked for fair economic conditions for migrant farm workers and others.

Q: Which of the following sentences use conventional punctuation? A. Jean yelled, "Stop it!" B. Jean yelled "Stop it!" C. Jean yelled: "Stop it!" D. Jean yelled. "Stop it!" (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A. Jean yelled, "Stop it!" When indicating a direct quotation, use a comma to set off what is being said. Use quotation marks to enclose the speaker's language - in this case, "Stop it!" Also, remember to use the proper punctuation at the end of the speaker's utterance. In the sentences above, we know that Jean was yelling, which calls for an exclamation point directly before the closing quotation marks.

Q: The aphorism "Man is born free but everywhere he is in chains" is attributed to A. Voltaire B. Rousseau C. Leibniz D. Descartes (MSE Quiz 12: World History)

A. Rousseau One of the leading thinkers of the Enlightenment, Rousseau saw humans as basically good but corrupted by society. His ideas greatly influenced the French Revolution. Voltaire and Descartes are also thinkers associated with the Enlightenment.

Q: Which of the following sentences is correct? A. Out of 145 student's, 122 were girls. B. Kim wasn't like other students; she always wore the schools colors with pride. C. The student-faculty football game wasn't always like this. D. The students are always on time - they're commitment is strong. (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A. The student- faculty football game wasn't always like this. Each of the other choices has grammatical problems: choice A uses an unnecessary possessive apostrophe after "students." Choice B fails to include the possessive apostrophe after "schools." Choice D mistakenly uses "they're" for "their".

Q: After adding this affix to the end of a word it forms an adjective that means "capable and worthy of." What is the affix? A. "-ize" B. "-ism" C. "-able" D. "-ation" (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A: "-able" The suffix -able comes from the Latin suffix -ability, which means "capable or worthy of." It forms an adjective when it is added to a word; for example, "charitable," as in "capable of charity"

Q: Which of the following amendments extended voting rights? A. 15th B. 19th C. 22nd D. 26th (MSE Quiz 14: Civics/Government & Economics)

A: 15th The 15th Amendment extended the right to vote to all men, regardless of race. The 19th Amendment established federal voting rights for women. The 22nd Amendment limits the number of terms the President of the United States may serve. The 26th Amendment lowed the voting age to 18 years from 21 years.

Q: Read the following poem: I met a traveler from an antique land Who said: Two vast and trunkless legs of stone Stand in the desert ... Near them, on the sand, Half sunk, a shattered visage lies, whose frown, And wrinkled lip, and sneer of cold command, Tell that its sculptor well those passions read Which yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things, The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed: And on the pedestal these words appear: "My name is Ozymandias, King of Kings: Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair!" Nothing beside remains. Round the decay Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare The lone and level sands stretch far away. Ozymandias is generally agreed to be the great Pharoah Ramses II. In using this name, the writer is employing which literary element? A. Symbolism B. Allusion C. Figurative language D. Dialogue (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A: Allusion In using the name of a Pharoah, the author is alluding to the power and majesty of the Egyptian culture, as well as eventual downfall and relegation of that empire to ancient history. While the sonnet does employ other choices, the use of Ozymandias is a classic example of using allusion to evoke images of power, empire, and the transitory nature of both.

Q: Which of the following three major American historic evens are listed in the correct chronological order? A. Boston Tea Party, French and Indian War, President Lincoln assassinated B. D-Day inaction at Normandy, Pearl Harbor attacked by Japan, Martin Luther King, Jr. assassinated C. Battle at Gettysburg, Spanish-American War, American astronauts landed on the moon D. President Nixon resigned, Battle of the Alamo, Charles Lindbergh flew across the Atlantic Ocean (MSE Quiz 15: Geography & Reasoning Skills)

A: Battle at Gettysburg, Spanish-American War, American astronauts landed on the moon In this array of various events in American history, only the Battle of Gettysburg (1863), Spanish-American War (1898), and American astronauts landing on the moon (1969) are in correct chronological order. In choice A, the French and Indian War occurs first. In choice B, the attack on Pearl Harbor occurs before D-Day. In choice D, Nixon's resignation is the final event.

Q: The Constitution of the United States gives the President the power to veto legislation and allows for Congress to override a Presidential veto. These are both examples of what political philosophy? A. Separation of powers B. Federalism C. Veto powers D. Checks and balances (MSE Quiz 14: Civics/Government & Economics)

A: Checks and balances Checks and balances ensure that no single branch of the United States government obtains too much control by intentional overlapping of responsibilities. Separation of powers is the independence of the legislative, judicial, and executive branches of government, so that they are not infringing upon each others' rights and duties.

Q: Which writing assignment would most benefit from having the students complete a Venn diagram before writing the first draft? A. Persuasive argument agains a school rule B. Comparison of Japanese and American schools C. Interpretation of a haiku poem D. Narrative about a wedding ceremony (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: Comparison of Japanese and American schools The Venn diagram is a great way to organize information for comparing and contrasting two subjects. For choice D, some students may find it useful to complete a Venn diagram for the bride and groom in a wedding ceremony, helping them structure their narrative around the different attitudes, statements, and appearance of the "bride's side" and the "groom's side." However, choice B explicitly calls for comparison, and is therefore the best answer choice.

Q: What effects do non-native plants have on the Florida Everglades? A. Increase bird migration B. Contribute to the killing off of native plants C. Aid in the reduction of pollution D. Contribute to the growth of the crocodile population (MSE Quiz 15: Geography & Reasoning Skills)

A: Contribute to the killing off of native plants Non-native plants have a negative effect on the ecosystem of the Florida Everglades. Over 25% of plants, such s the Melaleuca, are not native to the area. This plant was introduced in an effort to dry up the region for development; however, with no natural enemies the tree is expanding at a rate of fifty acres per day. The rapid expansion threatens plant life, bird migration and endangered species.

Q: Demography is the study of human populations. Which of the following indexes might give a demographer misleading information? A. Crude death rate per 1,000 people B. Crude birth rate per 1,000 people C. Infant mortality rate D. Total fertility rate (MSE Quiz 15: Geography & Reasoning Skills)

A: Crude death rate per 1,000 people Crude death rates can be misleading because the number of deaths per 1,000 people can be higher for developed nations than in less-developed countries, despite standards of health being better in developed countries. Developed countries can have a higher relative number of older people, who are more likely to die in a given year, so that the overall mortality rate can be higher even if the mortality rate at any given age is lower.

Q: When the U.S. Constitution established the House of Representatives (Article II) and stated that it shall be composed of members chosen every second year by the people of the several states, this established what form of government? A. Monarchy B. Oligarchy C. Aristocracy D. Democracy (MSE Quiz 14: Civics/Government & Economics)

A: Democracy Article II established a representative democracy wherein voters choose, via elections, representative to act in their interests, but not as a proxy for them. State decisions are exercised directly or indirectly through elections by the citizens.

Q: In the writing process, which of the following activities should come last? A. Brainstorming B. Editing C. Revising D. Rough draft (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: Editing Editing and revising are often confused. Revising is improving the piece overall, with a focus on the organization and content of the writing. Editing is polishing a work, fixing errors, and getting it ready for publishing. Both revising and editing must come after ideas have been brainstormed and a rough draft has been written.

Q: Which World War II figure was known as "Desert Fox"? A. Erwin Rommel B. Man Fred non Richthofen C. Leni Riefenstahl D. Paul von Hindenburg (MSE Quiz 12: World History)

A: Erwin Rommel Erwin Rommel led the 7th Panzer tank division for the German army during WWII. His military acumen and successes in Northern Africa earned him the nickname "the Desert Fox." Choices B, C, and D are also famous Germans. World War I ace Manfred von Richthofen is known as the Red Baron; Riefenstahl was Adolf Hitler's personal filmmaker; and Paul von Hindenburg was Germany's president from 1925 through 1934.

Q: The Civil Rights Act of1964 desegregated public facilities, desegregated public education, and A. Established the Commission on Equal Employment Opportunity B. Passed a federal holiday for Martin Luther King, Jr. C. Required that the National Guard assist in the desegregation of schools D. Established the government policy of affirmative action (MSE Quiz 13: United States History)

A: Established the Commission on Equal Employment Opportunity The Civil Rights Act of 1964 officially established the Commission on Equal Opportunity. Congress enacted the Martin Luther King, Jr. federal holiday in 1983. In 1957, the National Guard was sent into Little Rock by Arkansas Governor Orville Faubus for the purpose of keeping nine African Americans from entering Central High School, thus maintaining what the Governor referred to as "social order." Affirmative action is a term first used by President Kennedy when he issued Executive Order 10952 in 1961, but was not an official government policy.

Q: The Age of Enlightenment is a period that saw great political and economic change. Which of the following was not a casual factor of these changes? A. European governments' effort to create unity, peace, and justice B. Voyages of discovery to China and the New World C. The development of modern capitalism D. An expansion of the understanding of the universe (MSE Quiz 12: World History)

A: European governments' effort to create unity, peace, and justice The Age of Enlightenment occurred independently of any country or body of countries. The Enlightenment was actually led by intellectual free thinkers such as Descartes, Voltaire, and Rousseau who challenged traditional beliefs of old institutions and set the stage or revolutions to come.

Q: What role did Cesar Chavez play in the struggle to extend equal rights to all Americans? A. Freed slave who went on to become a leading anti-slave advocate B. Secretary of State during the Kennedy administration C. Founded unions to fight for migrant workers D. Mexican immigrant imprisoned in the United States for entering illegally (MSE Quiz 14: Civics/Government & Economics)

A: Founded unions to fight for migrant workers Cesar Chavez was born in Texas in 1927 and went on to become a leader in the tradition of Martin Luther King, Jr. and Mahatma Gandhi. During the 1960s-1980s, Chavez played a central role in advancing rights for migrant farm workers to help them have higher wages and better working conditions. He organized the workers into unions (which eventually became United Farm Workers) so that they could have a more powerful voice in fighting for change.

Q: Eighteenth-century economist Adam Smith's idea of the "invisible hand" means that A. Free markets inevitably supply enough food for societies B. Free markets will produce the right amount and variety of goods C. Free markets are guided by divine intervention D. Free markets provide helping "hands" to innovators (MSE Quiz 14: Civics/Government & Economics)

A: Free markets will produce the right amount and variety of goods. A staunch opponent of economic regulation by the state, Smith countered claims that free markets were chaotic and unpredictable by claiming that these markets were guided by "an invisible hand." Smith believed that if everyone worked for their own best interest, this arrangement would actually produce the right amount of goods and services to benefit society as a whole.

Q: Which of the following Civil War battles was fought in a Union state? A. Shiloh B. Gettysburg C. Manassas D. Vicksburg (MSE Quiz 13: United States History)

A: Gettysburg The battle of Gettysburg was fought in Pennsylvania, a Union State. The Confederacy lost this battle partly because they were a considerable distance from their resource. The other battles took place in Tennessee (Shiloh), Virginia (Manassas or Bull Run), and Mississippi (Vicksburg).

Q: Which of the following is an economic advantage of specialization? A. Lower wage paid B. Higher individual output C. Shorter work hours D. Higher labor costs (MSE Quiz 14: Civics/Government & Economics)

A: Higher individual output When workers specialize in one aspect of production, they achieve a higher output of production. For example, if three workers specialize in different phases of the construction of a peanut butter and jelly sandwich (spreading peanut butter/spreading jelly/ cutting the sandwich in half), they can produce more sandwiches than one person doing those three tasks.

Q: Which of the following sentences illustrates correct noun-pronoun agreement and word order? A. Rico gave a gift to his grandfather, which was very expensive. B. After reading about dance marathons, Amy wanted to be one. C. If you have a candy bar and pass a homeless shelter, you should share with them. D. I ate all the black jellybeans, but found myself wanting more. (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: I ate all the black jellybeans, but found myself wanting more. The sentence in choice A implies that Rico's grandfather was very expensive, but the author meant to indicate that the gift was very expensive. In choice B, it appears that Amy wants to be a dance marathon. There is no plural antecedent in answer choice C for "them." Though the reader may understand that the word "them" refers to the inhabitants of the homeless shelter, those inhabitants are never mentioned.

Q: Which of the following sentences is punctuated incorrectly? A. James studied Greek at the University of Michigan B. In Ann Arbor, James bought a victorian settee. C. He matriculated in the spring. D. He then went to work for Superintendent Poltz. (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: In Ann Arbor, James bought a victorian settee. The "v" in the word Victorian should be capitalized as it is an adjective built from a proper noun (Queen Victoria). Moreover, historic periods, such as the Renaissance, the Victorian period, and the Antebellum South should be capitalized.

Q: Knowing an annual percentage rate (APR) is advantageous because A. It allows lenders to compare borrowers B. It allows borrowers to compare lenders C. It allows the simple interest rate to be lowered by the lender D. It allows the simple interest rate to be lowered by the borrower (MSE Quiz 14: Civics/Government & Economics)

A: It allows the borrowers to compare lenders Typically, lenders are required to disclose the APR before the loan is enacted. People wanting to borrow money are faced with a wide array of lending organizations, and the APR is far from infallible; however, it does create a starting point for borrowers to begin comparing loan mechanisms.

Q: Which of the following is an example of a comma splice? A. John and Bobby waited in line for three hours, they began to get angry. B. John and Bobby waited in line for three hours. They began to get angry. C. John and Bobby waited in line for three hours, and they began to get angry. D. John and Bobby waited in line for three hours; they began to get angry. (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: John and Bobby waited in line for three hours, they began to get angry. A comma splice is made when two independent clauses are incorrectly joined with only a comma. In this case the two independent clauses are "John and Bobby waited in line for three hours" and "They began to get angry." Choices B, C, and D indicate correct ways to join the two independent clauses.

Q: Tensions between New England colonists and Native Americans erupted into what conflict in 1675? A. King Phillip's War B. First Anglo-Dutch War C. Boston Tea Party D. 100 Day War (MSE Quiz 13: United States History)

A: King Phillip's War This event was an Indian uprising that resulted from tensions over colonists' expansionist activities. The war was fought along the Connecticut River valley in Massachusetts and the Plymouth and Rhode Island colonies. Over 600 English colonials and 3,000 Native Americans were killed. King Phillip is the nickname ofChief Metacomet of the Wampanoagas. He was hunted down and killed on August 12, 1676 in a swamp in Rhode Island, ending the war and the independent power of Native Americans there.

Q: Unlike the Nile River with its predictable flow, the violent and sporadic floods of the Tigris and Euphrates Rivers left which region below with greater political instability? A. Phoenicia B. China C. Mesopotamia D. Persia (MSE Quiz 12: World History)

A: Mesopotamia The Tigris and Euphrates Rivers in Mesopotamia flooded at irregular intervals and created instability in harvests, which then led to political unrest. The regular flooding of the Nile River provided the Pharaohs with a ritual that contributed to their divinity as they appeared to control nature, solidifying their political power.

Q: When a city decides to build a hospital on land that it owns instead of doing something else with the land and building funds, the alternative that has been passed u is referred to as ______ economics? A. Market price B. Economics of scale C. Opportunity cost D. Scarcity (MSE Quiz 14: Civics/Government & Economics)

A: Opportunity cost Opportunity cost is the term used to represent the cost of the best alternative that is not chosen. The opportunity cost of the hospital could be a youth center or a downtown parking lot. Opportunity cost does not always have to be calculated in terms of money; the opportunity cost of a night on the town could be several hours of studying for an exam.

Q: Which of the following was an important development in Renaissance Italy? A. Counting slaves as three-fifths of a free person for the purposes of representation B. The Magna Carta, which established the rights of barons C. Origins of modern diplomacy among Italian city-states D. Painter Diego Garcia and his students being the Modernismo movement in art (MSE Quiz 12: World History)

A: Origins of modern diplomacy among Italian city-states As the interactions among Italian city-states increased, ambassadors-in-residence found homes within the host state in order to gain the local perspective, observe developments, and serve as representative voices for their state of origin. Eventually the idea of diplomacy caught on in the rest of Europe, where political and religious differences made diplomacy an important hedge, though not prevention, against wars in Renaissance Europe.

Q: Which of the following disciplines studies oral conversations? A. Morphology B. Pragmatics C. Phonology D. Semantics (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: Pragmatics A discipline within linguistics, pragmatics analyzes elements of face-to-face speech interactions or conversations. Unlike morphology (study of word structures), phonology (the study of language sounds), and semantics (study of meaning), pragmatics sees each conversational utterance as having two features: the informative intent and the communicative intent.

Q: "Elaboration" is a study skill that calls on students to A. Repeat material in order to remember it B. Use acronyms to enhance recall C. Put studied materials in their own words D. Pair up with another student (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: Put studied material in their own words Elaboration helps students remember and relate to new material by encouraging them to pt things in their own words and connect to their own past experiences. Choices A, B, and D all describe different study techniques.

Q: William Penn, the founder of the Province of Pennsylvania and later the state of Pennsylvania, was better known for his religious beliefs. He brought over people from England who were members of the Religious Society of Friends. The members believed in obeying their inner light, which they believed came from God, and refused to bow to the authority of the king. By what name was this group's religion commonly known? A. Congregationalists B. Quakers C. Methodists D. Shakers (MSE Quiz 13: United States History)

A: Quakers The Religious Society of Friends, known as the Quakers or Friends, is a religious community that was founded in England in the 17th century. They are a "peace church," a Christian group that believes in peace. This is the opposition to the use of force to settle disagreements or engage in warfare.

Q: Which of the following ruler(s) is/are most associated with the Spanish Inquisition and its removal of Jews and Muslims from Spain during early modern times? A. King Louis XVII B. Queen Isabella and King Ferdinand C. King Henry VIII D. John II of Aragon (MSE Quiz 12: World History)

A: Queen Isabella and King Ferdinand The Spanish Church became concerned with the reports of the heresy of Jews who had supposedly converted to Christianity during the mid-15th century. Isabella and Ferdinand then implemented the Inquisition for reasons of both religion and power. The Inquisition lasted for nearly 400 years, driving out Moors and Jews, along with other non-Catholics.

Q: Which of the following is the least effective study skill strategy? A. Map out a concept web B. Paraphrase material C. Rewrite material D. Outline material (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: Rewrite material Rewriting material could be too much information, and simply rewriting takes the least amount of cognition. Creating a concept web, paraphrasing material, and outlining material all require thinking about the material, which is the critical part of studying.

Q: In reading several magazine articles for a mention of President Clinton, which method would be most effective? A. Skimming B. Scanning C. Re-reading D. Outlining (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A: Scanning Scanning means looking quickly over a text to locate specific words or groups of words. Skimming is reading quickly to locate general ideas, themes, or main ideas. Both choices C and D would be counter-effective in terms of finding the location quickly.

Q: Which tactic did Union general Sherman employ in his "March to the Sea"? A. Scorched earth policy B. Frontal assault C. Flanking maneuver D. Economy of force (MSE Quiz 13: United States History)

A: Scorched earth policy Sherman employed a scorched earth policy against Georgia in late 1864, destroying a sixty-mile wide swath of land from Atlanta to Savannah. The Union army burned crops, destroyed homes, and demolished rail lines in an effort to demoralize and decimate the war efforts of the South. Choices B, C, and D are also military tactics that Sherman may have employed, but the "March to the Sea" is forever linked to the idea of the scorched earth policy.

Q: In the 3rd century BCE, what trade route forged between Han China and the Parthian Empire spread ideas, technologies, and trade across the Old World, eventually connecting Europe to Asia? A. Silk Road B. Royal Road C. Appian Way D. Indian Ocean Littoral (MSE Quiz 12: World History)

A: Silk Road The Chinese Emperor seeking the "Celestial Horses" of Persia and Central Asia inadvertently created the main land route through which ideas like Greek philosophy and Buddhist religion encountered one another. The Silk Road also allowed world empires like Rome and Gupta India to enrich themselves. The Appian Way was one of the most famous Roman roads.

Q: In the general sense, "republicanism" means A. That political power is vested in the people B. That social power is vested in the elite C. That political power is vested in the elite D. That economic power is spread evenly throughout a hierarchical society (MSE Quiz 14: Civics/Government & Economics)

A: That political power is vested in the people In its broadest definition, republicanism refers to a state or country where the people hold the political power. This is in contrast to other systems, such as a monarchy (rule by a king or queen), totalitarianism (the state controls all power), and other political schemes.

Q: The series of wars initiated by Christians to win back their holy lands from Muslims in the late 11th century were known as what? A. The Crusades B. The Spanish Inquisition C. The Reformation D. The Hussite Wars (MSE Quiz 12: World History)

A: The Crusades The Crusades were a series of wars initiated by Christians to win back their holy lands rom Muslims. Islam had spread far from its birthplace, Saudi Arabia, and by 1095 it included land where Jesus Christ lived. Christian warriors of the era believed Christians, not Muslims, should control these holy lands.

Q: Which prominent symbol ofAmerica is engraved with the poem "The New Colossus"? A. Liberty Bell B. Washington Monument C. The White House D. The Statue of Liberty (MSE Quiz 14: Civics/Government & Economics)

A: The Statue of Liberty Emma Lazarus's poem ends famously with the lines: "Give me your tired, your poor, / Your huddled masses yearning to breathe free, / The wretched refuse of your teeming shore. / Send these, the homeless, tempest-tost to me, / I lift my lamp beside the golden door!" Lazarus's colossus was modeled on the Colossus of Rhodes; this statue oft he god Helios rested on the Greek island of Rhodes and was one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World.

Q: Why was the William Howard Taft presidency's foreign policy known as "Dollar Diplomacy"? A. The U.S. pulled money from abroad to bolster domestic economic growth B. The U.S. used money to stabilize commercial interests abroad C. The Mexican peso was extremely strong against the dollar D. Taft famously burnt a dollar bill on the floor of the Senate (MSE Quiz 13: United States History)

A: The U.S. used money to stabilize commercial interests abroad The "Dollar Diplomacy" foreign policy was the belief that the United States should promote stability in foreign countries in order to benefit American commercial interests. America bought British debt in Honduras in 1909, helped (along with European countries) bankroll the Hukuang Railroad in China in 1910, and refinanced Haiti's national debt in 1909.

Q: In 1995, a NASA geophysicist published findings revealing that the growing preponderance of dams and reservoirs in the Northern Hemisphere has had what effect? A. Speedboat sales have quadrupled since 1980 since so many more places to boat are available B. U.S. Navy recruiters report that the number of recruits with better than average swimming skills increases by 1.7% each year C. The temperature of the earth's mantle beneath major reservoirs has cooled an average of 10 degrees Celsius since 1960 D. The artificial accumulation of the world's freshwater supply has speeded u the earth's rate of rotation (MSE Quiz 15: Geography & Reasoning Skills)

A: The artificial accumulation of the world's freshwater supply has speeded up the earth's rate of rotation In addition to making the world spin faster, the accumulation of freshwater stores in the Northern Hemisphere has also altered the planet's magnetic field. Incidentally, the scientific term for such changes is "anthropogenic impacts on geodynamics."

Q: The term fin de siecle denotes A. A sense of hope B. The end of the 19th century C. The final act of a political ruler D. A sense of fruitfulness (MSE Quiz 15: Geography & Reasoning Skills)

A: The end of the 19th century The term fin de siecle (French for "end of the century") is most often used to refer to the close of the 19th century, and especially the arts and intellectual movements of that era. It is also used to connote decadence or a sense of sweeping change, both qualities evinced by the last years of the 1800s.

Q: Which of the following is a provision guaranteed by the U.S. Constitution ratified in 1790? A. The national government shall be allowed to veto state laws. B. Representation in both houses of Congress would be based on population. C. The federal government has the sole power to regulate interstate and foreign trade. D. Congress could easily establish post offices in all areas of the country. (MSE Quiz 13: United States History)

A: The federal government has the sole power to regulate interstate and foreign trade. Original discussions at the convention centered on the role the federal government should play in governing the country and also the states. Governor Randolph of Virginia and others did propose to allow the national government to veto state laws and to populate both houses ofCongress based on population, but these were stoutly opposed by smaller states and eventually abandoned. Congress was never granted the right to establish post offices, though it was discussed.

Q: Which of the following statements weakens the credibility of the speaker? A. In May 1970, tensions at Kent State resulted in the shooting deaths of four students by National Guardsmen. B. The Kent State demonstration was but one of many protests across the country in response to the U.S. bombing of Cambodia in April, 1970. C. The hippies didn't have the courage to fight the Viet Congress, but they had no problem lashing out against their own country. D. William Schroeder, one of the four students killed at Kent Stat, was a member of the school's ROTC program. (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: The hippies didn't have the courage to fight the Viet Cong, but they had no problem lashing out against their own country. The term "hippies" and the speaker's value judgement about their courage betray hostility toward the demonstrators. The assertion that the demonstrators were "lashing out agains their own country" is commonly leveled against those who protest actions and policies carried out by the government.

Q: In late 2004, a tsunami devastated whole communities along the Indian Ocean coast of Southern Asia. What caused that tsunami, and what other historic natural disaster had occurred near the epicenter of the 2004 event? A. Underwater earthquake near Gibraltar; eruption of Mt. Vesuvius in AD 79 B. Underwater earthquake near Sumatra; eruption of Krakatoa in 1883 C. Meteor impact near the Yucatán Peninsula; New Madrid earthquake of 1811-1812 D. Earthquake near Lisbon; tsunami strike at Portugal, Spain, and Morocco in 1755 (MSE Quiz 15: Geography & Reasoning Skills)

A: Underwater earthquake near Sumatra; eruption of Krakatoa in 1883 The tiny island of Krakatoa, located near Sumatra, erupted in 1883. This eruption, referred to as "the day the world exploded," deposited enough ash into the atmosphere to affect weather patterns all over the globe for several years. The 2004 tsunami was one of the deadliest natural disasters known to mankind, killing an estimated 240,000 to 300,00 people, including one as far away as South Africa - some 5,000 miles west of the epicenter.

Q: Which of the following best describes causes of the Great Depression during the 1930s? A. Accumulated debt caused by American involvement in World War I B. Unstable, over-inflated stock market and the "crash" of 1929 C. President Hoover's domestic policy of nationally funded social programs D. Congressional passage of tariffs to aid farmers and international trade (MSE Quiz 13: United States History)

A: Unstable, over-inflated stock market and the "crash" of 1929 America had little or no debt from World War I prior to the Great Depression. President Hoover's domestic policy did not include social programs. Although Congress did pass high tariffs, they helped American businesses and were not helpful to farmers and international trade. Most historians believe that an unstable and artificially inflated stock market led to the Stock Market Crash of 1929 and ultimately to the Great Depression of the 1930s.

Q: Read the primary source below and use your knowledge of history to answer the following question: To gain the sympathy and cooperation of the various elements comprising the white South was Mr. Washington's first task; and this, at the time Tuskegee was founded, seemed, for a black man, well-nigh impossible. Who is the author? A. Booker T. Washington B. Frederick Douglass C. W.E.B. DuBois D. Dred Scott (MSE Quiz 15: Geography & Reasoning Skills)

A: W.E.B. DuBois The correct answer relies on some knowledge of history and the ability to rule it other answers. For example, Tuskegee University was founded by Booker T. Washington, which makes choice A incorrect. The quotation above concerns Booker T. Washington, who lived from 1856 to 1915; these dates rule out abolitionist Frederick Douglass and Dred Scott, who were both historical figures closely associated with Civil War-era America. W.E.B. DuBois was a contemporary of Washington's and was the author of many texts concerning the struggle for African-American equality.

Q: Which of the following choices below is a pre-writing strategy? A. Publishing B. Revising C. Summarizing D. Webbing (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: Webbing Pre-writing strategies are a series of different methods writers use to generate and organize ideas. Webbing is a graphic device that allows students to develop ideas and related thoughts to guide their exploration of the given topic. During the pre-writing phase, the student should be thinking about what they know, what they want to know, and how the text will be organized.

Q: How did World War II affect the ethos of the American workplace? A. Economic models began to reflect military terminology B. Women worked in munitions factories C. Unions memberships plummeted D. It became acceptable for businesses to relocate to suburban settings (MSE Quiz 15: Geography & Reasoning Skills)

A: Women worked in munitions factories Millions of women stepped into the manufacturing vacuum created by men leaving to fight in World War II. Factory work, long associated with en, became the new domain or women working to create war materials; this was typified by J. Howard Miller's "Rosie the Riveter" poster for Westinghouse.

Q: How is the word mass used in the following sentence? The large ice mass appeared in our backyard pool after the winter storm. A. A collection of similar things B. A body of matter that does not have a definite shape C. A celebration in the Roman Catholic Church D. The property of a body that causes it to have weight in a gravitational field (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A: a body of matter that does not have a definite shape In this sentence, mass is used to refer to a chunk of ice in the pool. The ice mass is referred to as a body of matter that does not have a definite shape or form. None of the other definitions fits the usage of mass in this context.

Q: Chilean leader Salvador Allende was removed from power by A. A coup d'etat B. The advent of hyperinflation C. US economic pressure D. A coup de grace (MSE Quiz 12: World History)

A: a coup d'etat With U.S. backing, Marxist reformer Salvador Allende was removed from power on September 11, 1973. August Pinochet replaced Allende and led Chile until 1990. Choice B is incorrect, although Chile did experience skyrocketing inflation prior to Allende's death. Coup de grace refers to a final and decisive blow and does not have the political connotations of a coup d'etat.

Q: The affix -I've usually indicates that the word is a A. Gerund B. Correlative conjunction C. Adjective D. Past participle (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: adjective The suffix -I've means "performing or tending toward a specified action." Morphological, this suffix turns words into adjectives; for example, a "connotative definition;" an "active imagination," or a "substantive argument."

Q: Read the following sentence: Washington, D.C. is the capital of America, but Austin is the capital of Texas. Which of the following best describes the type of sentence above? A. Complex sentence B. Simple sentence C. Compound sentence D. Fragment (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: compound sentence This is a compound sentence because it contains two independent clauses joined by the conjunction "but". A simple sentence contains only one independent clause. A complex sentence contains an independent clause and at least one dependent clause.

Q: The following excerpt would come from which reference source? (Gives British and US pronunciations of low five) A. Thesaurus B. Dictionary C. Glossary D. Web page (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A: dictionary Dictionaries typically provide pronunciation keys like the one above with each entry. Some, like the Oxford English Dictionary (cited above), also give the reader a brief synopsis of a word's origin - the part in the brackets above. Choice A is incorrect as the entry does not include the thesaurus' main feature, synonyms. Glossaries, while providing definitions like dictionaries, do not provide a word's origin or pronunciation.

Q: Leon's parents used to joke that it took five giant storks to deliver him to his parents, and that he weighed fifty pounds a week later. This is an example of A. Alliteration B. Personification C. Metaphor D. Hyperbole (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A: hyperbole Hyperbole is a figure of speech using much exaggeration, though not for deception. It is highly unlikely that it took five storks to deliver Leon to his parents, since we know that is not how children arrive in the world, and just as unlikely that he weighed fifty pounds a week later. Personification is giving person-like qualities to non-people, either objects or animals.

Q: In the earliest days of American trade, a trade triangle developed among Africa, the Caribbean, and New England. What were the three main goods traded among these regions? A. Cotton, paper, linen B. Slaves, sugar, rum C. Tobacco, paper, cigarettes D. Slaves, cotton, tobacco (MSE Quiz 13: United States History)

A: slaves, sugar, rum Sugar cane was cut and ground by slaves in the Caribbean. The molasses by-product was shipped to New England, where it was distilled into rum. Rum was shipped to Africa, where it was traded for slaves, who were then shipped to the Caribbean to work in the sugar fields. Though cotton plantations are most commonly associated with slavery in the United States, it was Whitney's cotton gin that fueled that trade, and that wasn't developed until the very end of the eighteenth century. Also, both cotton and tobacco are products from the southern United States, not New England.

Q: The literary term "register" refers to A. The timbre of the narrator's voice B. A specific collection of literary works C. A type of genre D. The appropriateness of style for a given work (MSE Quiz 11: Oral & Written Language Development)

A: the appropriateness of style for a given work Register refers to the specific language that writers and speakers use for specific situations. For example, a technical medical manual would shy away from slang, and a casual conversation in the elevator would have an informal tone.

Q: During the Industrial Revolution, the U.S. federal government A. Took a laissez-faire approach to regulation B. Enforced labor regulations C. Enacted child labor laws D. Established labor-management dialogues (MSE Quiz 13: United States History)

A: took a laissez-faire approach to regulation During the time of the Industrial Revolution, the federal government was unwilling to impose or enforce regulations on industrial activity. The often violent quarrels between labor groups and businesses and the vivid exposes by muckrakers finally began to improve the lives of industrial workers after the turn of the twentieth-century.

Q: Which statement is true? A. 4 liters=1 gallon B. 50 Celsius=80 Fahrenheit C. 50 kilograms=200 pounds D. 1 meter=60 inches (MSE Quiz 2: Geometry & Measurement)

A: 4 liters = 1 gallon Four liters is 1.05 gallons. The remaining choices are not true: 50 Celsius is 122 degrees Fahrenheit; 50 kilograms is equal to 110 pounds; and 1 meter is about 40 inches.

Q: Solve the following system of linear equations. 4x+y=24 2x-3y=-2 A. (4,5) B. (5,4) C. (4,3) D. (3.4) (MSE Quiz 1: Number Sense, Algebra & Functions)

A. (5,4) There is more than one way for solving this system by substitution. One way is to first solve for y (from 4x+y=24) to find that y=24-4x. Substitute 24-4x for y in 2x-3y=-2 to get 2x-3(24-4x)=-2. From there: 2x-3(24-4x)=-2 2x-72+12x=-2 14x-72=-2 14x=70 X=5 Then substitute 5 for x in either equation to find that y=4. The ordered pair where the two lines intersect is therefore (5,4).

Q: Imagine two boxes - box #1 containing a white kitten and box #2 containing a white and a black kitten. You reach in and take one kitten out of box #1 and place it in box #2. Then, without peeking, you then reach back into box #2 and remove a kitten. What is the probability that the kitten that you just picked up is a white kitten? A. 66% B. 50% C. 33% D. 90% (MSE Quiz 4: Mathematical Reasoning & Problem Solving)

A. 66% At the end of this process, you're reaching into a box with two white kittens and one black kitten; therefore, your chances of picking up a white kitten are 66%.

Q: The term pressure can best be defined as A. Force of attraction between massive particles due to their weight B. Application of concentrated force to a given surface C. What changes the velocity of a material body D. The building blocks of all other materials (MSE Quiz 7: Physical Science)

A. Application of concentrated once to a given surface Pressure is when a force is being placed on another object. If you press your hand against a desk, you will not damage it because the pressure is not especially concentrated. But if you press a smaller object like a tack agains the desk, it will cause damage because the point concentrates the force in a smaller area.

Q: An object with so much mass that nothing can escape its gravitational field is called a A. Quasar B. pulsar C. Supernova D. Black hole (MSE Quiz 6: Earth & Space Science)

A. Black hole The misnomer "black hole" is commonly used to refer to these celestial phenomena whose mass is so great that it exceeds the escape velocity of even light. Due to this mass, the object. Is invisible, or "black". Choices A, B, and C are also deep-space objects, usually observed with the help of radio telescopes (telescopes that "see" relatively long wavelengths).

Which of the following statements about civilizations is analogous to the hierarchical relationship among cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems? A. Ranchers have historically fought farmers, nomads, and native predator species B. Factory workers have historically sided with farmers, artists, and musicians C. Governments support military campaigns that result in labor shortages that result in inflation and threaten the stability of the government D. Miners extract iron ore from the ground, heavy industry forms iron ingots from with light industry makes consumer goods, and service workers sell the goods (MSE Quiz 5: Life Science)

A. Choice D The hierarchical relationship refers tot the fact that "teams" of cells work together as tissues, "teams" of tissues work together as organs, and "teams" of organs work together as systems, such as the digestive, reproductive, and respiratory systems.

Q: Which of the following is a crucial skill for fluency? A. Expression B. Decoding C. Segmenting D. Comprehension (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A. Decoding Decoding is the bedrock skill of fluency; students who are at ease with decoding will develop greater fluency. Choice A is incorrect - expression is a component of fluency. Comprehension is an outgrowth of fluency, not a prior skill.

Q: Systematic phonics instruction is A. Based on a digraph's ability to represent phonemes B. Secondary to implicit phonics instruction C. Explicit in its approach D. Likely to initially inhibit traditional spelling (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A. Explicit in its approach Systematic phonics instruction is clear and organized in its approach to teaching students phenomena. Choice A is incorrect - a digraphs does represent a phoneme, but this is not the basis for systematic phonics instruction. Choice B is incorrect because studies have shown that implicit phonics instruction is actually inferior to explicit phonics instruction. Choice D is also incorrect; semantic phonics instruction promotes good spelling in kindergarten and first grade.

Q: Sara is regarded by her fourth-grade classmates as the best reader because she reads aloud very quickly. Why might you need to provide corrective feedback to Sara? A. Fluency is as much about expression as it is about speed B. Leveling readers is crucial to class cohesion C. Decoding quickly reduces comprehension D. It may be necessary to further her automaticity (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A. Fluency is as much about expression as it is about speed Fluency includes the melody of speech, the rises and falls that convey shades of meaning to the words being spoken, and reading with expression. When a student reads too quickly, it is not apparent that the student actually understands what she is reading. Choice C is not necessarily correct, and Sara's automaticity (ability to identify words effortlessly) is not an issue as she is reading quickly.

Q: In one of the Amelia Bedelia book, Amelia takes out paper and draws a picture of drapes when she is told to "draw the drapes." The word "draw" in this sense is a A. Synonym B. Antonym C. Homonym D. Palindrome (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A. Homonym Homonyms have the same sound, but different meanings. A subcategory of homonyms is homographs, which indicates that the two words are spelled the same but have different meanings. Synonyms have the same meaning, antonyms have opposite meaning, and palindromes are spelled the same forwards and backwards.

Q: When demonstrating the use of a solvent in the classroom, the teacher should make sure to store it in A. A locked plastic cabinet B. In a corner of the classroom, away from students C. In a metal cabinet D. In a wooden cabinet (MSE Quiz 8: Scientific Investigation Skills)

A. In a metal cabinet Because solvents pose a fire hazard, they should be stored in a fire-resistant container, such as a metal cabinet. Choice B would not protect students or the classroom from a potential fire. Choices A and D are better options, but would not contain a fire if the solvent evaporated and created the possibility of a fire.

Q: What type of chemical bond is formed when one atom loses or gains an electron from a different atom? A. Covalent B. Ionic C. Hydrogen D. Metallic (MSE Quiz 7: Physical Science)

A. Ionic An ionic bond forms an anion and a cation which are oppositely charged and, therefore, attracted to each other. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons, rather than the giving up or gaining of electrons.

Q: Studies find that fluency instruction based on "repeated reading" A. Is inferior to independent silent reading B. Is a better method than silent reading C. Inhibits automaticity D. Works best in a round-robin setting (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A. Is a better method than silent reading Research indicates that repeated reading improves students' fluency and automaticity. Reading and re-reading texts with the proper feedback also improves word recognition. Choice D is incorrect as round-robin reading usually only allows a particular student to read a small block of text, often only one time during the exercise.

Q: Which of the following temperature scales is used by scientists to determine the lowest possible temperature of anything in the universe and is also referred to as the absolute temperature scale? A. Celsius B. Fahrenheit C. Kelvin D. Planck (MSE Quiz 7: Physical Science)

A. Kelvin The Kelvin temperature scale (K) was developed by Lord Kelvin in the mid-1800s. The zero point of this scale is equivalent to -273.16 Celsius on the Celsius scale. This zero point is considered the lowest possible temperature of anything in the universe. Therefore, the Kelvin scale is also known as the absolute temperature scale.

Q: In scientific experimental design, which of the following predicts that the independent variable. Will not have an effect on the dependent variable, as a means of eliminating bias? A. Null hypothesis B. Alternative hypothesis C. Controlled variable D. Hawthorne effect (MSE Quiz 8: Scientific Investigation Skills)

A. Null hypothesis The NULL hypothesis predicts that the independent variable, which is manipulated during the experiment, will not have an effect on the dependent variable, which is what is being measured. The NULL hypothesis is presumed to hold true until experimental results disprove it. At that time, an alternative hypothesis would probably be proposed and tested.

Q: Which of the following is least likely to be useful in gaining knowledge on a specific scientific topic? A. Reading the results and conclusions of prior experiments on the topic B. Communicating ideas with other people investigating the topic C. Performing the same experiment multiple times with a different hypothesis D. Proving a hypothesis on the given topic to be true or false (MSE Quiz 8: Scientific Investigation Skills)

A. Performing the same experiment multiple times with a different hypothesis If the same experiment is performed multiple times, without any change in any of the variables, the same results are likely to occur. Once those results have been recognized, different or varied experiments need to be conducted to learn more. Knowledge can also be gained by reading about prior results, communicating with others, and proving a hypothesis to be true.

Q: This illustration best exemplifies what key scientific concept in data gathering and observation? (Shows a target with 7 rings and a bullseye with 3 dots in a cluster 5th to 6th ring.) A. Precision B. Accuracy C. Error D. Precise accuracy (MSE Quiz 8: Scientific Investigation Skills)

A. Precision Precision refers to how close multiple measurements of the same question are to each other. In other words, precision gets at how repeatable an experiment is, since with no changes in variables, the same results should occur. Accuracy is how close to the actual value, represented by the center of the target, an experiment or question obtains.

Q: "Twentieth-century America," "in a small hotel room," and "the dead of the night" are all examples of which literary element? A. Plot B. Mood C. Setting D. Historical (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A. Setting A story's setting takes into account the physical location of the events as well as their general time frame. Choice A (plot) refers to the events of the story themselves. Choice B (mood) is the story's overall emotional affect, and Choice D is not a literary element.

Q: Which of the following pieces of background information would be most relevant to reading a non-fiction book about planetary movement in space? A. An understanding of the job functions of astronauts B. That the author is a former NASA scientist C. That there is no gravity in space D. The date the United States first landed on the moon (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A. That there is no gravity in space The lack of gravity in outer space is the most relevant piece of background information in this instance. The other responses provide interesting supporting information but are not critical to the comprehension of the text selection.

Q: In a unit on spelling conventions, a teacher chooses to work on the word get before the word gem. This is because A. Get features an invoiced consonant B. The "g" in get is a more common usage C. /t/ is easier than /m/ D. Get has only two phonemes (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A. The "g" in get is a more common usage The phoneme /g/ is a more common sound when presented with the graphemes "g;" the /j/ phoneme that begins gem occurs with less frequency. Choice A, while true, would have no bearing on learning about spelling conventions. This same is true of choice C. Choice D is incorrect as get has three phonemes, just like gem.

Q: In a study of exposed strata, you find a think layer of limestone resting on bedrock. Which of the following inferences could you logically make, based on that finding? The area had been A. The site of a shallow sea many, many years ago B. Settled by early hominids C. Formed by volcanic activity D. A lush forest of prehistoric ferns (MSE Quiz 8: Scientific Investigation Skills)

A. The site of a shallow sea many, many years ago Limestone is sedimentary rock formed from the shells, bones and waste deposits of sea life. Often, indentations of shells are readily evident in limestone, even without digging.

Q: Sir Isaac Newton (1642-1727) is credited with formulating: A. Three laws of motion B. The field of astronomy C. Theory of natural selection D. Theory of relativity (MSE Quiz 8: Scientific Investigation Skills)

A. Three laws of motion Newton was a mathematician, physicist, and one of the foremost intellectuals of modern times. He is responsible for many great discoveries and scientific advances including the invention of the telescope, calculus, and laws of motion and gravity. The first law of motion deals with the concept of inertia; the second law of motion explains acceleration; the third law of motion states that every action has an equal and opposite reaction.

Q: After reading a non-fiction text selection to the class, why is it important to summarize the events and ideas contained in the book? A. To provide students with a clear explanation of the book's overall themes B. To provide background context C. To ensure students understand the details of the book D. To provide students with related concepts not found in the book (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A. To provide students with a clear explanation of the book's overall themes Students benefit from a summary description after a read-aloud. Summarizing not only weaves together what was just read, but it also gives the teacher an opportunity to touch on key points found earlier in the book that may have been forgotten. Additionally, it is an ideal time for students to ask follow-up questions to extend learning.

Q: There is a one-in-twenty chance that a senior in Ms. Sibley's Honors English class will be this year's valedictorian. How would you express each student's valedictory chances as a percentage? (MSE Quiz 3: Statistics, Data & Probability)

A: 5% The ratio 1:20 is the same as 1 divided by 20, which equals 0.05. Five one-hundredths is the same as 5%.

Q: Sounds that consist of a blend of two separate vowel sounds such as /oi/ in oil or /oy/ in toy are A. Vowel digraphs B. Vowel diphthongs C. Consonant-influenced vowels D. consonant blends (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A. Vowel diphthongs A vowel diphthong is a complex sound that slides from one vowel to a second vowel sound in t he same syllable. Vowel digraphs are a blend of two separate vowel sounds. Consonant-influenced vowels occur when any vowel letter is followed by a consonant and changes the sound of the preceding vowel.

Q: Which of the following represents separation of a mixture? A. Electrolysis of water B. Burning of paper C. Digestion of food D. Rinsing salty sand (MSE Quiz 7: Physical Science)

A. rinsing salty sand Rinsing salty sand results in the physical separation of the sand from the salt. Though the salt is now dissolved in the water, it can be retrieved through evaporation without affecting the chemical properties of the salt. The electrolysis of water breaks chemical bonds. The processes of food digestion and burning paper change the chemical properties of the constituent ingredients.

Q: Jonah Miller takes home $3,000 a month from his teaching job. According to the following budget how much does he pay each month in rent? (Table says he spends 25% of his monthly budget on rent.) (MSE Quiz 1: Number Sense, Algebra & Functions)

A: $750 First look at the budget to find out what fraction of his earnings goes to his rent. Using mental math, rather than pencil and paper, cut $3,000 in half to get 50% which gives you $1,500. Then cut that in half again to get 25% of the budget; half of $1,500 is $750.

Q: In conducting a poll on the popularity of a Democratic City Council member, which sample set would produce the most accurate results? A. 1,000 registered Democrats in the city chosen at random B. 1,000 registered Republicans in the city chosen at random C. 10 people chosen randomly at the mall D. 1.000 registered voters chosen at random (MSE Quiz 3: Statistics, Data & Probability)

A: 1,000 registered voters chosen at random Choices A and B, only Democrats or Republicans, would be biased samples. A sample set of only 10 people is too small to give valid results. Choosing 1,000 registered voters at random and calling them would give the best results as it provides a large enough random sample to yield valid results.

Q: What is the mode or the given data set? 12, 91, 103, 51, 7, 12, 77, 82, 112, 91, 63, 107, 12, 34 (MSE Quiz 3: Statistics, Data & Probability)

A: 12 The mode is the number that occurs most often in a data set. There can be more than one mode if multiple pieces of data occur in the set the maximum number of times. There is no mode if all the data appear in the set the same number of times.

Q: Consider the number sequence below. 1, 8, 3, 10, 5, 12, 7, 14, 9, ... What will be the twelfth number in this sequence? (MSE Quiz 4: Mathematical Reasoning & Problem Solving)

A: 18 The pattern shows an increase by 7 from the first to second number, and then a decrease by 5 from the second to third number, and then the pattern returns to add 7 again. The three missing numbers are 16, 11, and 18. The question asked for the third number in the pattern.

Q: Which of the following is the correct mixed number after converting the improper fraction 75/35? (MSE Quiz 1: Number Sense, Algebra & Functions)

A: 2 1/7 75 divided by 35 equals 2 with a remainder of 5. Use the whole number 2 and create a fraction with 5 as the numerator and 35 as the denominator. Then reduce 5/35 by dividing the numerator and denominator by 5, to finally get 2 1/7.

Q: Write the number 219 in scientific notation. (MSE Quiz 4: Mathematical Reasoning & Problem Solving)

A: 2.19 x 10^2 To convert the number 219 into scientific notation, first move the decimal to write it as a number between 1 and 10. In this case, 219 becomes 2.19. In order to get back t o a value of 219, 2.19 would have to multiplied by 100. In scientific notation, the second number is always written as a power of 10. 100 is equivalent to 10^2. Finally, combine the two parts to write 219 as 2.19 x 10^2 in scientific notation.

Q: Sam has the following cards face down on a table: King of diamonds Queen of hearts Jack of hearts Jack of diamonds Nine of diamonds Ace of spades The first card that is chosen is the ace of spades. What is the probability of the next card chosen being a jack if the first card is not replaced? (MSE Quiz 3: Statistics, Data & Probability)

A: 2/5 The fist card is drawn and not replaced, so when the next card is chosen, there are only 5 cards remaining. There will be 2 favorable outcomes since there are 2 jacks remaining in the group of cards. The probability of drawing a jack is 2/5 or 40%.

Q: Ms. Tamari has 28 students in her first-grade class. She wants each student to build a long house after the fashion of the Iroquois. The students will be using 20 tongue depressors each, except for Missy and Eric, whose parents have asked that they be given an alternative assignment. Which of the following expressions could Ms. Tamari use to determine the number of tongue depressors she'll need for the class? A. 28(20-2) B. 20(28-2) C. (28x20)-2 D. (28x2)-20 (MSE Quiz 1: Number Sense, Algebra & Functions)

A: 20(28-2) In order to find the correct number of tongue depressors for this project, Ms. Tamari needs to multiply the number of tongue depressors required for each child (20) by the number of children participating in this project (28-2=26). Doing so will yield a total of 520 tongue depressors. The other answer choices yield different totals.

Q: What is the surface area of the rectangular prism below? (Prism has length of 9m on long faces; length of 4m on short faces; height of 6m) (MSE Quiz 2: Geometry & Measurement)

A: 228 m2 Surface area is the sum of the areas of each face of the solid. In this case, for a rectangular prism, the formula is SA=2lw+2lh+2wh. SA= 2(6x4) + 2(6x9) +2(4x9) SA = 48 + 108 + 72 SA = 228 m2

Q: Jim is planning a trip to Europe and wants to visit four countries, but he doesn't know the order in which he'd like to visit those countries. How many unique itineraries can Jim develop, such that each one tours the countries in a different order? (MSE Quiz 3: Statistics, Data & Probability)

A: 24 The number of permutations possible with n elements is the product of all natural numbers from 1 to n; this is represented by the factorial notation ! In visiting four countries, the order of Jim's visit can vary in 24 ways, as 4!=24 permutations. (4x3x2x1=24)

Q: Jan painted a mural of her dog using the scale of 5:1. If, in her painting, the dog is 15 feet tall, how tall is her actual dog? (MSE Quiz 2: Geometry & Measurement)

A: 3 ft Use a proportion to solve the problem 5/1=15/d, where d is the height of the dog. Cross-multiply or use logic to get 5d=15 ft. Therefore, d=3 ft. The mural is 5 times the size of the actual dog.

Q: A runner has an average speed of 6 miles/hour. How long will it take for her to run 5 miles? A. 40 minutes B. 50 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 100 minutes (MSE Quiz 7: Physical Science)

A: 50 minutes Use the formula off-rot; distance equals rate multiplied by time. Therefore: 5 miles=6 miles/hr*t. Solve for t by dividing both sides by 6, to find that t=5/6 hour. 5/6 hour is 50 minutes.

Q: Calculate 12,690/23.5. (MSE Quiz 1: Number Sense, Algebra & Functions)

A: 540 12,690/23.5=540. When dividing by decimals by hand, move the decimal in the divisor (23.5) to the right until it is a whole number. In this case, that is one place. Move the decimal the same number of places in the dividend, so that the division problem is now 126,900/235. Then divide as you normally would.

Q: Bill can throw a yo-yo 100 times in half an hour. Beth can throw a yo-yo 48 times in twice the length of time. How many times can Bill and Beth throw a yo-yo in 15 minutes? (MSE Quiz 4: Mathematical Reasoning & Problem Solving)

A: 62 In Bill's case, he can throw a yo-yo 50 times in 15 minutes (100/30=50/15). Beth can only throw a yo-yo 12 times in 15 minutes (48/60=12/15). So, 50 throws for Bill and 12 throws for Beth equals 62 throws in 15 minutes.

Q: What is 25% of 250,000? (MSE Quiz 1: Number Sense, Algebra & Functions)

A: 62,500 To find the percent of a number, change the percent into a decimal (0.25) and multiply it by the other number: 250,000(0.25)=62,500. Or to find 25% of a number, just divide that number by 4.

Q: What is the length of line AB? (Line is a horizontal line plotted at y=3. A is plotted at x=-3 and B is plotted at x=4) (MSE Quiz 2: Geometry & Measurement)

A: 7 The length of a horizontal line segment is the difference between the x-coordinates. The y-coordinates are the same. The equation used to determine the length of line segment AB would be 4-(-3)=7.

Q: During a field trip, students look out the bus window and see the sun's rays refracting on falling rain. What phenomenon are the students observing? (MSE Quiz 8: Scientific Investigation Skills)

A: A rainbow Rainbows are created when sunlight rays pass through water. The arc of colors is caused by the refraction, or bending of light. Students learn about rainbows at an early age. By second or third grade, students will likely be able to explain what causes a rainbow.

Q: Antibiotics are used to combat which of the following health problems? A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Fungal infections D. Lysozyme (MSE Quiz 5: Life Science)

A: Bacteria British scientist Alexander Fleming is credited with discovering the sanative effects of he fungus penicillium. Antibiotics (such as penicillin) work on bacteria. Choices A and C are incorrect - antibiotics have no effect on viral illnesses or fungi. Choice D is an enzyme that also has bacteria-killing effects.

Q: Which of the following words contains four phonemes? A. Tan B. Bright C. Straight D. Fake (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A: Bright A phoneme is separable, individual sound. "Bright" can be broken down phonetically into the four phonemes /b/, /r/, /i/, and /t/. Tan and fake have three phonemes, and straight has five.

Q: The symbol CO2 represents which common compound? A. Carbon dioxide B. Water C. Salt D. Iron oxide (MSE Quiz 7: Physical Science)

A: Carbon dioxide Carbon and two oxygen atoms (hence the subscript 2 next to the "O"0 make up the common compound carbon dioxide. Water is composed of hydrogen and oxygen (H2O). Salt consists of sodium and chloride (NaCl), while iron oxide (Fe2O3) is another name for rust.

Q: Which of the following formulas can help your students know how much fat to eat each day, given that each fat gram carries 9 calories and about 30% of a child's daily calories should be from fat? A. Multiply total daily calories by 30%, (e.g., 1800x0.030=540 fat calories/day). Divide fat calories by 9 to get fat grams, (e.g., 540/9=60 fat grams/day). B. Divide the total number of calories in each serving, as indicated on the label, by the number of fat grams. Eat enough of that food to get one third of your calories from fat. C. Such complicated math and dietary computations are better left to experts. D. Multiply total weekly calories by 30%, (e.g., 12,600x0.030=3,780 fat calories/week). Divide by 9 to get fat grams, (e.g., 3,780/9=420 fat grams/day). (MSE Quiz 4: Mathematical Reasoning & Problem Solving)

A: Choice A Students would need to calculate how many fat calories per day to consume, and then convert fat calories into fat grams since that is what is labeled on foods packaging. Choice D makes the error of beginning with fat calories per week and then forgetting to divide by 7 to get the amount per day.

Q: Which of the following statements about expository texts is incorrect? A. Written to inform, explain, present information, or to persuade B. Structural organization is dependent upon the form of the genre C. Combine dialogue and narrative with other facts and information D. Text is generally written in a subject-oriented manner (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A: Combine dialogue and narrative with other facts and information Expository text is written to inform, and it does not contain much dialogue or a narrative, both of which are hallmarks of fiction writing. There are seven basic structures that are recommended to teachers to start teaching expository text at the paragraph level. These are definition, description, process, classification, comparison, analysis, and persuasion.

Q: What can be a limiting factor to population size? A. mutualism B. Competition C. Conservationism D. Commensalism (MSE Quiz 5: Life Science)

A: Competition Competitive relationships are harmful to one competitor, and so they can limit the population size. Mutualism benefits both parties, and commensalism benefits one party and neither benefits not harms the other.

Q: Which of the following words describes the emotional associations of a word, which go beyond the word's basic meaning to express the feelings, thoughts, and images the word evokes? A. Connotation B. Denotation C. Metaphor D. Synonym (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A: Connotation The connotative definition of a word involves the emotional meaning attached to the word, in addition to the dictionary meaning of the word. The denotative meaning is the meaning of a word from the dictionary. A word like "home" tends to have connotative meanings beyond its denotative meaning of "a place where people live." A metaphor is a literary device that uses multiple word meanings to make comparisons, while a synonym is a word having the same or nearly the same meaning as another word or other words.

Q: What type of cloud forms thunderstorms? A. Cumulonimbus B. Cumulus C. Altostratus D. Cirrostratus (MSE Quiz 6: Earth & Space Science)

A: Cumulonimbus Cumulonimbus clouds are towering clouds often associated with thunderstorms. The puffy, white, fair weather cumulus clouds can develop into cumulonimbus clouds under some conditions. Nimbostratus clouds look like a grey sheet and bring rain. Cirrostratus clouds are thing, high-even clouds. Anything with "bimbo" in it refers to rain.

Q: Which of the following is a source of potential energy? A. Ball rolling across the floor B. Drawn bow C. Bike going downhill D. Rubber band sprung from a finger (MSE Quiz 7: Physical Science)

A: Drawn bow Potential energy is the energy stored in an object due to its position. Before the bow is released, it has potential energy. Once the bow is released, the arrow has kinetic energy. Objects in motion have kinetic energy, as exemplified by the other answer choices.

Q: What is the correct sequence in a butterfly life cycle? A. Egg, larva, pupa, adult B. Egg, pupa, larva, adult C. Pupa, larva, egg, adult D. Larva, pupa, egg, adult (MSE Quiz 5: Life Science)

A: Egg, larva, pupa, adult The egg hatches to reveal a larva. The larva makes a covering, a cocoon, to form a pupa. The pupa changes inside the covering and becomes an adult butterfly, ready to mate and begin the cycle again.

Q: Portuguese sailors discovered a flightless bird on the island of Mauritius in 159, which was called the dodo. By 1681, the dodo was extinct. Which of the following is an unlikely reason or the dodo becoming extinct? A. Extreme weather conditions B. Human hunters C. Being a flightless bird D. Carnivores (MSE Quiz 5: Life Science)

A: Extreme weather conditions Extreme weather conditions did not play any part of the dodo becoming extinct. The dodo became extinct due to human hunters and carnivores sucks as dogs. If the dodo had been able to fly, it would have had a chance of survival, but being flightless made it easy for predators to kill.

Q: Read the following passage: Sneezing and coughing, Grace felt warm and her head hurt. School would be no fun today, she thought. Which of the following choices is a fact-based inference? A. Grace is sick B. Grace has a test at school that day C. Grace did not get a good night's sleep D. Grace wants to stay home from school (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A: Grace is sick The reader can infer from these statements that Grace is sick. Although choices B, C, and D could be correct, the passage doesn't provide nay factual basis for them. However, it is directly stated that Grace is sneezing and coughing, her head hurts, and she feels warm all over-all facts supporting that she is sick.

Q: Which of the following analogy pairs is similar to skeletal joint type? A. Hinge joint: flip phone B. Suture joint: water faucet handle C. Sliding joint: refrigerator door D. Ball and socket joint: crowbar (MSE Quiz 5: Life Science)

A: Hinge joint: flip phone Also, hinges on most types of doors, including refrigerator doors (choice c), are like skeletal hinge joints. Examples of skeletal hinge joints include knees and elbows. A water faucet handle (choice b) is an example of a pivot joint.

Q: Students have measured several trees in a city park. They want to compare numbers of trees that are from 0 to 4.9 meters high, from 5 to 9.9 meters, from 10 to 14.9 meters, and 15 or more meters. If the students want to show how many trees are in each class of heights, which type of graph would be best? A. Histogram B. Bar graph C. Scatter plot D. Circle graph (MSE Quiz 3: Statistics, Data & Probability)

A: Histogram Histograms act as a type of sorting "bin". You have one variable, and you sort data by this variable by placing them into bins. Then you count how many pieces of data are in each bin. In a histogram, the bins are always a range of numerical values that have no overlap. The other answer choices are not suitable or particulars within a category.

Q: Which of the following types of rock is a crystalline solid that forms directly from the cooling of magma? A. Igneous rock B. Sediment rock C. Clastic rock D. Metamorphic rock (MSE Quiz 6: Earth & Space Science)

A: Igneous Rock When melted rock (magma) cools and solidifies, igneous rocks are created. Different rates of cooling and different compositions of the magma create a variety of igneous rocks. Some examples of igneous rocks include granite, obsidian, and basalt. Igneous rocks make up the largest portion of the earth's structure.

Q: Which of the following is an example of something that could harm or reduce the benefits of biodiversity found on earth? A. Increased crop assortment B. Decreased foliage consumption C. Increased extinction rates D. Decreased erosion rates (MSE Quiz 5: Life Science)

A: Increased extinction rates Biodiversity is variability among living organisms on the earth. It includes variability within and between species and ecosystems. Only choice C limits this type of diversity. Increased crop assortment would increase biodiversity. The effects of erosion and foliage consumption are unknown.

Q: In a scientific experiment on obesity, the scientists chose to regulate the percentage of monounsaturated fat for the individuals being studied. When scientists do this, they are controlling what factor in an experiment? A. Dependent variable B. Independent variable C. Constant variable D. Controlled variable (MSE Quiz 8: Scientific Investigation Skills)

A: Independent variable An independent variable is the one that is manipulated in an experiment or study, by possibly its presence or degree, and it determines the change in the dependent variable, which is what is being measured. In this case, the amount of monounsaturated fat is the independent variable and the weight of the individuals is the dependent variable.

Q: A triangle with two equal sides can best be described as A. Scalene B. Parallelogram C. Isosceles D. Equilateral (MSE Quiz 2: Geometry & Measurement)

A: Isosceles An isosceles triangle is a triangle with two equal sides. A triangle with all equal sides is an equilateral triangle and a scalene triangle has no sides that are equal. A parallelogram has four sides, so it is not a triangle.

Q: If the dimensions of a rectangle are doubled, what happens to its area? (MSE Quiz 1: Number Sense, Algebra & Functions)

A: It increases by a factor of 4. The area of a rectangle is length times width, and when the sides are doubled, it is (2l) times (2w). After multiplying those values together, the answer is 4lw. Any time all the dimensions are doubled in a shape, the area quadruples.

Q: The geologic era that was 248 million to 65 million years ago was made up of3 periods: Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous. What is this time period named? A. Precambrian B. Paleozoic C. Mesozoic D. Cenozoic (MSE Quiz 6: Earth & Space Science)

A: Mesozoic The Mesozoic era was from approximately 146-65 million years ago and divided into 3 periods: Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous. Mesozoic means "middle animals". Dinosaurs evolved during the Triassic period, became quite diverse during the Jurassic period, and died out at the end of the Cretaceous period, except for birds.

Q: Given two years' worth of spending data, which of the following applications would you use to figure a household's monthly expenditures for groceries? A. Microsoft Excel B. Microsoft Word C. Windows calculator D. Adobe FrameMaker (MSE Quiz 4: Mathematical Reasoning & Problem Solving)

A: Microsoft Excel MS Excel's spreadsheet organization allows the user to create and execute complex formulas quickly. While choice C (a PC-based calculator) would also work, it would take significantly more work to accomplish the given task.

Q: What is the processor of non-reproductive cell division called? (MSE Quiz 5: Life Science)

A: Mitosis Mitosis is the processor nuclear division in living cells by which chromosomes are exactly replicated and the copies distributed to identical daughter nuclei. In mitosis, a present cell divides into two identical daughter cells with a full set of chromosomes. Meiosis only occurs with sperms cells and egg cells, so that there are half the chromosomes in them. This allows sperm and egg cells to join for reproduction and have a full complement of chromosomes.

Q: A second grade science experiment involves the dyeing of flowers based on the hypothesis that flowers will change colors when food dye is mixed with the water that is feeding them. One student suggests trying all three different colors separately instead of one. Is adding more colors a way to make this experiment any more valid? (MSE Quiz 8: Scientific Investigation Skills)

A: No, the experiment is about whether it is possible to change colors. Adding colors would not make the experiment more scientifically valid. The experiment is merely to discover whether it is a possibility to change a flower's color with dye. Adding or changing the color would not affect the outcome of the experiment. However, since the hypothesis is about flowers in general, it would be useful to attempt the color experiment on several kinds of flowers.

Q: What is the difference between a vascular plant and a non-vascular plant? (MSE Quiz 5: Life Science)

A: Non-vascular plants do not contain vessels and vascular plants do contain vessels Vascular and non-vascular are the two major divisions of plants. The plants in both groups contain chlorophyll, the molecule that absorbs sunlight. The difference between the two categories of plants is that vascular varieties contain vessels which allow them to produce flowers. Non-vascular plants, by definition, do not contain vessels.

Q: Which of the following answers means "the written letters or symbols of a language? A. Morphology B. Orthography C. Orthology D. Etymology (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A: Orthography Orthography pertains to the set of rules of how to write correctly in a given language. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: morphology is the study of word structure, and etymology is the study of the history of words.

Q: One theory in plate tectonics states that all of the continents were once connected and formed a supercontinent before the tectonic plates shifted. This supercontinent is called (MSE Quiz 6: Earth & Space Science)

A: Pangea Alfred Wegener, a German meteorologist used the fit of the continents, the distribution of fossils, similar sequences of rocks at numerous locations, and ancient climates to support his idea of a supercontinent which he called Pangea. The mantle is a layer of Earth, and Atlantis is the name of the mythic underwater city.

Q: When items are chosen from a population in such a way that every item in that population has an equal opportunity to be in the sample, this is what kind of sampling? A. Systematic B. Cluster C. Random D. Availability (MSE Quiz 3: Statistics, Data & Probability)

A: Random A random sample means that all items in the population have the same chance to be a part of the sample. All of the other choices create groups within sample populations, so they do not all for equal opportunity of all population members.

Q: The Thompson family buys a car for $10,000. They make a down payment of $400 and will pay the rest of the cost of the car in equal monthly payments over the period of 4 years. Assuming that the interest rate on their loan is 8%, what is the first step in determining their monthly payment? A. Multiply .08 by $400 B. Subtract $10,000 from $400 C. Calculate 8% of $400 D. Subtract $400 from $10,000 (MSE Quiz 4: Mathematical Reasoning & Problem Solving)

A: Subtract $400 from $10,000 Breaking down complex problems like this one is crucial to arriving at the correct calculations. Before determining monthly payments or the effect of the interest rate, first subtract the family's down payment ($400) from the total cost of the car ($10,000). Only then can you begin making the calculations that determine the family's monthly payment.

Q: Why is the temperature usually cooler in the mountains? A. There is more wind in the mountains B. The atmosphere and the air are thinner in the mountains C. The atmosphere and air are thicker in the mountains D. Air in the mountains is made up of different kinds of molecules (MSE Quiz 6: Earth & Space Science)

A: The atmosphere and the air are thinner in the mountains When the atmosphere is thinner, there are fewer molecules to absorb heat. The air is still made up of the same types of molecules, but they are less densely packed due to decreased atmospheric pressure at higher elevations.

Q: Two 1-6 number cubes are rolled together 50 times. After each roll, the numbers face up on the cubes are added together and recorded. Which line plot below would be most likely to show the results of this probability experiment? (Several line plots given, one with only numbers 1-6 plotted, one with numbers 1-12, and two with numbers 2-12. Can't roll a 1 when using two dice. Of the 2-12, one has the shape of a pyramid with the middle numbers being the highest and the other appears to be pretty random with the number of rolls for each number - with no noticeable pattern.) (MSE Quiz 3: Statistics, Data & Probability)

A: The line plot that looks more like a pyramid. When two dice are rolled, the sums that occur most often are the ones closest to the middle because there are more combinations to make those sums. For example, there are 6 different ways to make a sum of 7 on two dice, which means that 7 is theoretically the most likely sum to roll. On the other end of the spectrum, there is only one way to get a sum of 2 and one way to get a sum of 12.

Q: Eric's grandfather passed away, leaving him a collection of bottle caps from the 1970s and a sport utility vehicle. As a memorial to his late grandfather, Eric wants to glue a "racing stripe" of bottle caps all the way around the perimeter of the truck. The bottle caps are about one inch in diameter. The truck is about 7 feet wide and 18 feet long. What, if anything else, is needed to determine whether Eric has enough bottle caps? A. Nothing; all the necessary information is given B. The number of bottle caps in the collection C. The number of inches in the perimeter of the truck D. The number of inches in the height of the truck (MSE Quiz 4: Mathematical Reasoning & Problem Solving)

A: The number of bottle caps in the collection The number of bottle caps needed would be about 600. In order to determine whether Eric has enough bottle caps, you would need to know how many he has. If the number of caps in the collections exceeds 600, then Eric can tackle this project.

Q: Which of the following reservoirs of carbon contains the largest pool of carbon near the surface of the Earth? A. Ocean B. Atmosphere C. Land D. Fresh water (MSE Quiz 5: Life Science)

A: The oceans are the largest reservoirs of carbon near the surface of the Earth. Carbon is exchanged between reservoirs because of various chemical, physical, geological, and biological processes.

Q: In the fable "The Lion and The Mouse," the mouse pleads with the lion not to eat him by promising he would return the favor to the lion. Amused by the mouse's suggestion, the lion lets the mouse go. Later the lion is caught in a hunter's net, and the mouse comes to his rescue by gnawing a hole in the net and setting the lion free. What is the author's message in this fable? A. Might makes right B. The powerful should be munificent C. Self-help is the best help D. The small can make mighty contributions (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A: The small can make mighty contributions The underlying themes of fables are moral instructions, frequently presented by animal characters. Here, the great and small are contrasted using the lion and the mouse to show that the mighty and powerful lion can still be aided by the tiny mouse. While other themes can be drawn from this fable as well, choice D is the best one presented in the choices above.

Q: A quadrilateral with exactly one pair of opposite parallel sides is a A. Rectangle B. Rhombus C. Parallelogram D. Trapezoid (MSE Quiz 2: Geometry & Measurement)

A: Trapezoid A trapezoid has exactly one pair of opposite parallel sides. The parallel sides are not the same length. The other two sides cannot be parallel, since they have to connect the sides of unequal length. The other answer choices all have two pairs of parallel sides. Rectangles and rhombuses are types of parallelograms.

Q: In contrast to compound microscopes, stereo microscopes have A. Audio earpieces B. Two eyepieces C. The ability to produce two-dimensional images D. A diminished depth of field (MSE Quiz 8: Scientific Investigation Skills)

A: Two eyepieces Stereo microscopes use two eyepieces to produce a three-dimensional visualization of the image being studied. Stereo microscopes do not feature any audio component, and actually have a superior depth of field when compared to the more traditional compound microscope.

Q: A performance assessment indicates that a first grade student struggles to recognize grade-level sight words. Which of the following activities is likely to be most beneficial to this student? A. Sending home sight-word flash cards as homework B. Daily spelling tests of sight words C. Reading books containing high-frequency words D. Working together using letter manipulatives to build sight words (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A: Working together using letter manipulatives to build sight words Using manipulatives can be helpful in a variety of content areas. In this instance, the movement of letter blocks to build sight words in an effective learning tool for the student given the assessment results. Reading books that deal with high-frequency words would be an appropriate extension activity.

Q: Which of the following comes next in the pattern AiYnAiYnAi...? (MSE Quiz 1: Number Sense, Algebra & Functions)

A: Yn This repeating pattern contains four elements: A, i, Y, and n. Specifically the elements of the pattern are consistently either upper case or lower case letters. The stem of the pattern ends with a lower-case i. The following elements should be an upper-case Y and a lower-case n.

Q: In mathematics, a method of proof which proceeds by stating a proposition and then showing that it results in a contradiction is called A. Terra incognita B. An indirect proof C. A logical fallacy D. A direct proof (MSE Quiz 4: Mathematical Reasoning & Problem Solving)

A: an indirect proof An indirect proof is one of the standard arguments in math and philosophy. In addition to its widespread use in mathematics, philosophers, including Aristotle, have employed it since antiquity. The rhetorician uses the argument to refute his opponent's claim by carrying it to extreme and absurd ends. It is also knows as "proof by contradiction".

Q: Given the two sets of parallel lines as pictured below, which of the following statements is true? (Parallel lines intersect lines AB and CD. Intersect line AB with interior angles r on one parallel line and s on the other. Intersect line CD with interior angle x closest to C-end of line (opposite interior angle to r) and interior angle y on other parallel line). A. Angle r + angle s = 90 degrees B. Angle x + angle s =180 degrees C. Angle r is roughly = to angle s D. Angle x and angle s are complementary (MSE Quiz 2: Geometry & Measurement)

A: angle x + angle s =180 degrees Angles x and r are alternate interior angles (and are therefore congruent) so angle x = angle r. Angles r and s are same-side interior angles and are therefore supplementary, so angle r + angle s = 180 degrees. According to the substitution property, angle x + angle s =180 degrees.

Q: Which of the following is a giant ball of rock and ice that does not generate light on its own as it orbits the sun? A. Comet B. Quasar C. Meteorite D. Nebula (MSE Quiz 6: Earth & Space Science)

A: comet Comets are sometimes compared to dirty snowballs, although they also have a tail that makes them distinctive in the night sky. Quasars, meteorites, and nebulae are not composed primarily of ice. A planet could possibly fit the description above, but is not a choice.

Q: Water moves between the oceans and lands through the process of A. Condensation and evaporation B. Gravitation and precipitation C. Precipitation and condensation D. Gravitation and condensation (MSE Quiz 6: Earth & Space Science)

A: condensation and evaporation The transformation of a liquid into gaseous form is called evaporation. Conversely, condensation occurs when gas turns into a liquid. The continual cycle between these two processes is the force behind the Earth's water movement.

Q: A pair of consonant letters that work together to represent a single consonant sound is called a A. Vowel digraph B. Consonant digraph C. Consonant blends D. Syllable (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A: consonant digraph Digraphs are the pairs of letters that operate together to form a single sound; there are both vowel digraphs and consonant digraphs. Consonant blends such as /ch/, /th/, and /sh/ are consonant digraphs that represent a single sound.

Q: Which statement about the periodic table of elements is true? A. The columns of the periodic table are called periods B. Elements are placed in the table based on atomic number C. Elements in a column have the same number of electrons in their outer orbital D. In the middle of the table are the transposed elements (MSE Quiz 7: Physical Science)

A: elements are placed in the table based on atomic number The atomic number affects the characteristics of the elements. Columns are actually called groups, and elements in the same column generally have similar configurations of outer shell electrons. The rows are named periods, which categorize elements depending on their number of electron shells. The elements in the middle of the table are transition elements.

Q: Which two forms of literature are described below? One is usually a short narrative making an educational point - the other is a traditional, yet unverifiable story passed down through generations. A. Fantasy and fable B. Myth and fairy tale C. Fable and legend D. Myth and fable (MSE Quiz 10: Comprehension of Texts)

A: fable and legend A fable is typically a short moral story that frequently contains speaking animals as characters. Its purpose is to teach, often a moral lesson, A legend is a story about a supposed historical event often involving a mythical or supernatural being, such as the story of Robin Hood.

Q: What is one of the first things that young students need to learn in order to read any text? A. Letter-to-sound correlations B. How print moves across and down the page C. That words are made up of separate letters D. That punctuation separates sentences (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A: how print moves across and down the page By the time students arrive in kindergarten, they should already be familiar with how English print moves from left to right and top to bottom on a page. Familiarity with print is critical or students in order for the rest of reading instruction to make sense.

Q: A second-grade student is reluctant to read independently. Which of the following steps should the teacher consider next to encourage the student to read? A. Set natural consequences for not reading B. Involve the librarian to adjust the text level C. Have the student read aloud to the class D. Interview the student about her interests and hobbies (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A: interview the student about her interests and hobbies The result of such an interview with the student-the student's interest inventory-can help the teacher guide the student to books that may be of interest to her. Involving the librarian may be helpful, but only after the teacher has assessed the student's interests.

Q: Radio telescopes search or A. Tiny wavelengths B. Large wavelengths C. Light sources D. Medium wavelengths (MSE Quiz 6: Earth & Space Science)

A: large wavelengths Radio waves exist toward the large end o the electromagnetic spectrum. In contrast to optical telescopes, which search for light waves (relatively tiny in comparison), radio telescopes can detect quasar, pulsars, and other celestial phenomena in deep space.

Q: Building fluency through classroom practice should include A. Oral, round-robin style readings B. Scaffolded silent readings C. Lengthy, guided oral readings D. Paired silent readings (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A: lengthy, guided oral readings Extensive oral reading is most helpful to students in developing fluency, especially if the teacher is providing corrective feedback. This method also allows the teacher to model fluency (expression, observation of punctuation, speed). Choice A will not offer enough text to each student to promote fluency; choices B and D feature silent readings, which may reinforce fluency but do little to build it.

Q: The graph of distance versus time for an object displaying positive acceleration would be a A. Horizontal line B. Straight line with an upward slope C. Line curving upward D. Vertical line (MSE Quiz 7: Physical Science)

A: line curving upward A straight line with an upward slope (choice B) shows an object at a constant velocity, whereas an accelerating object is covering an increased distance in the same amount of time, creating a curve. A horizontal line (choice A) shows no increase in distance over time, and a vertical line (choice D) is not possible for this. Saturation since distance increases while time does not.

Q: During a tsunami, people in a boat several miles off shore in deep water may A. Not notice the event B. Be swept to the coastline C. Be swept miles inland D. Experience 50 to 100 foot swells (MSE Quiz 6: Earth & Space Science)

A: not notice the event Typically caused by catastrophic undersea events (landslides, earthquake, volcanic activity), tsunamis are characterized by fast-traveling waves, which may not be noticeable offshore. However, when the waves pile up on one another closer to the coastline, they gain height and power. Tsunamis push water miles inland and are one of the most destructive of natural disasters.

Q: The alphabetic principle is best described as A. The written form of the smallest sound segment of a word B. The association of sounds with letters C. The idea that morphology influences thought D. The clue used to help identify an unknown word in a sentence (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A: the association of sounds with letters In its most basic form, the alphabetic principle is the idea that there is a systematic correspondence between letters and the sounds of language. Choice A is incorrect (it describes a phoneme), and choice C is incorrect - morphology is the study of word structure.

Q: Based on the triangles below (triangle abc and triangle def), you can assume the following: AB=DE, AC=DF, and angle A is approximately equal to angle D. A. Angle A is approximately 81 degrees B. Triangle acb is approximately equal to triangle fde C. AB=DF D. Angle A + Angle B = 180 (MSE Quiz 2: Geometry & Measurement)

A: triangle acb is approximately equal to triangle fde The two triangles are congruent. According to the side-angle-side theorem, two triangles are congruent if a pair of corresponding sides and the included angle are equal.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about the word hungry? It contains A. Two syllables and six phonemes B. Two syllables and three phonemes C. Three syllables and six phonemes D. Three syllables and three phonemes (MSE Quiz 9: Alphabetics & Fluency)

A: two syllables and six phonemes A phoneme is the atom of the sound world, the smallest unit of sound that can be distinguished from other sounds. There can be multiple phonemes in a single syllable, such as the /h/, /u/, and /n/ in the first syllable of hungry. Sometimes, however, two or more letters many form a single sound, such as the digraph sh, which constitutes only one phoneme, /sh/.

Q: During a change in state, heat energy is removed when A. Ice melts B. water evaporates C. Butter melts D. Water freezes (MSE Quiz 7: Physical Science)

A: water freezes Heat energy is removed when a gas condenses to form a liquid or when a liquid becomes a solid, as when water freezes to make ice. Heat is added when a solid changes to a liquid or a liquid changes to a gas. Ice melting and water evaporating are examples of water changing state and heat energy being added.

Q: Hannah is y years old. Write an expression for her age 8 years ago. (MSE Quiz 1: Number Sense, Algebra & Functions)

A: y-8 The present age of Hannah is y years. To find out how old she was 8 years ago, you must subtract 8 years from her persent age, which is y-8.

Q: What is the equation of the following line? (Line intersects y at 4 and x and 4) A. Y=x+4 B. Y=x-4 C. Y=-x+4 D. Y=-x-4 (MSE Quiz 2: Geometry & Measurement)

A: y=-x+4 The line crosses the y-axis at positive 4, so the y-intercept is 4. The slope is -1; slope is the amount of "rise" (vertical change) divided by the run (horizontal change). In the form of=max+b where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept, the equation for his line is y=-x+4.

Q: Which of the following lines is parallel to y=1/2x+3 A. Y=1/2x+6 B. Y=-1/2x+6 C. Y=2x+3 D. Y+-2x+3 (MSE Quiz 2: Geometry & Measurement)

A: y=1/2x+6 Parallel lines always have the same slope because they remain the same distance apart forever. Choice A is the only choice with the same slope as the line in the question.