N10-008 Practice questions

On which of the following frequencies does 802.11ac operate? 5.0 GHz 3.0 GHz 900 MHz 2.4 GHz

5.0 GHz 802.11ac operates only on the 5 GHz frequency. 802.11n operates on both 5 GHz and 2.4 GHz.

At which of the following OSI model layers is encryption part of the communication process? 5 6 1 4 2 3

6 Encryption is considered to be part of the presentation layer of the OSI model, which is layer 6.

Which of the following may be used to terminate runs of cabling for an analog telephone system? 66 block DB-25 25 block 110 block

66 block A 66 block is commonly used to terminate a number of runs of cabling for an analog telephone system.

Which of the following layers of the OSI model does Telnet operate at? 6 5 7 3 2 4

7 Telnet is an application layer protocol, which is layer 7 of the OSI model.

Which of the following IEEE standards is the only one that uses both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz spectrum? 802.11g 802.11n 802.11ac 802.11a

802.11n 802.11n is the only Wi-Fi IEEE standard currently in use that makes use of both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz spectrum.

Which of the following is a system of notation that uses base 16 rather than base 10? A. Hex B. Octal C. Binary D. CIDR

A. Hex

How many D channels are used in a BRI ISDN connection? 2 24 23 1

1 In a BRI ISDN connection, there are two bearer (B) channels along with one delta (D) channel which is used for control.

Which of the following layers of the OSI model is a hub considered to operate at? 4 3 1 5 2 6

1 Unlike a switch, a hub does not examine the headers and contents of any of the data that is transmitted through it. It is more like a simple repeater that takes the incoming data and relays it out all of the other ports. It is considered to be part of the physical layer, or layer 1, of the OSI model.

Which of the following is the approximate speed of a T1 expressed in megabits per second? 2 1.5 3.25 1

1.5 A T1 is approximately 1.5 megabits per second.

Which of the following is the speed at which OC-3 operates? 155.52 Mbps 466.56 Mbps 622.08 Mbps 51.84 Mbps

155.52 Mbps The speeds from lowest to highest listed as options for this question are for OC-1, OC-3, OC-9, and OC-12. OC-3 operates at 155.52 Mbps.

Jack has configured a server with the IP address 192.168.1.201, subnet mask of 255.255.255.240, and default gateway of 192.168.1.129. He gets an error message and realizes that he has typed in the incorrect default gateway. If the default gateway should be the first usable IP address within the server's subnet, which of the following IP addresses should he use for the default gateway on the server? 192.168.1.193 192.168.0.1 192.168.1.161 192.168.1.200

192.168.1.193 Using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240, we know that each subnet has 16 total IP addresses. The range for this subnet would be 192.168.1.192 through 192.168.1.207. The 192.168.1.192 address would be the subnet ID, so the first usable IP address is 192.168.1.193.

Which of the following is the first usable IP address in the subnet containing the IP address 192.168.15.45 when using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240? 192.168.15.33 192.168.15.0 192.168.15.1 192.168.15.32

192.168.15.33 When using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240, there are 16 IP addresses per subnet. The subnet containing this IP address has a range of 192.168.15.32 through 192.168.15.47. Since the 32 is reserved for the subnet ID, we cannot use that IP address. That makes the first usable IP address in that range 192.168.15.33.

Which of the following is the broadcast address that would be used for the host configured with 192.168.16.3/26? 192.168.3.65 192.168.3.64 192.168.3.0 192.168.3.63

192.168.3.63 A /26 is the same thing as using the subnet mask 255.255.255.192. In this configuration, we know that there are 64 IP addresses per subnetwork. This makes the range of this subnet 192.168.3.0 through 192.168.3.63. The broadcast address is always the last address of the range, which means that the address used by this host to send and receive broadcasts on the subnet is 192.168.3.63.

Which of the following layers of the OSI model is an unmanaged switch considered to operate at? 4 6 5 3 1 2

2 An unmanaged switch does not have a management interface to configure extra features that managed switches have. As such, it cannot be a multi-layer switch. Thus, an unmanaged switch will always be a layer 2 switch that operates at the data link layer of the OSI model.

Brandon sees an address written on a sticky note attached to one of the workstations in the IT department as follows: 00:00:74:2C:F3:71. Which of the following layers of the OSI model uses addresses in this type of format? 1 4 5 2 3 6

2 The address shown is an example of a MAC address, which operates on layer 2, or the data link layer, of the OSI model.

Which of the following ports are used for FTP? 22 20 21 23

20 and 21 FTP uses port 20 for data transfer and port 21 for the control channel. Port 22 is used by SSH. Port 23 is used by Telnet.

Which of the following ports are used for SFTP? 23 21 20 22

22 Secure File Transfer Protocol, or SFTP, works over SSH on port 22. Ports 20 and 21 are used for FTP and port 23 is used for Telnet.

How many B channels are used in a PRI ISDN connection? 23 2 24 1

23 There are 23 bearer channels used in a PRI ISDN connection.

Which of the following layers of the OSI model is a router considered to operate on? 5 3 6 4 1 2

3 A router is used to route data between two different networks using IP addresses. It is considered to operate at the network layer of the OSI model which is layer 3.

Which of the following is a valid public IP address? 169.254.101.3 3.192.172.10 192.168.15.20 10.206.199.3

3.192.172.10 Addresses that begin with 169.254 are known as APIPA, or automatic private IP addresses. Addresses that begin with 10 are class A private IP addresses. Addresses that begin with 192.168 are private class C addresses. The IP address 3.192.172.10 is a valid public IP address.

Which of the following is the approximate speed of an E3 expressed in megabits per second? 34.4 1.5 44.7 3

34.4 The speed of an E3 is approximately 34.368 Mbps, which rounds to 34.4.

25. Question Frank has just implemented LDAP at the small business he works for in order to support future growth with centralized administration best practices. Which of the following ports should he ensure is open on the firewall between any clients on the network and the LDAP server? 53 389 161 69

389 LDAP uses port 389. DNS uses port 53. TFTP uses port 69. SNMP uses port 161.

Which of the following layers of the OSI model do TCP and UDP operate on? 3 6 7 4 2 5

4 Transmission Control Protocol and User Datagram Protocol both work on layer 4 of the OSI model, also known as the transport layer.

Fictional Corp has implemented a wireless network within their headquarters that will verify an employee's username and password before allowing them access to the Wi-Fi network, as using a pre-shared key with a large number of employees could become burdensome. Which of the following is Fictional Corp most likely using? 802.1X 802.3af WPS WEP

802.1x 802.1x is a method by which the wireless access points can send an authentication request to an authentication server using something like RADIUS to verify the user's credentials before allowing or denying access. 802.3af defines power over ethernet. Wi-Fi protected setup is a method of joining devices to a network that allows the connecting device and WAP to create their own PIN and is extremely weak. WEP is a method of encrypting data for a WiFi connection that is irrelevant to the method of authentication used, but is also extremely weak and should not be used.

Evan is wanting to install a new security camera outside the front door of his company's office. Unfortunately, there is not an easy way to run power to the location that will not turn off when the lights turn off during the daytime without calling an electrician. However, he has the ability to run an ethernet cable to the location and has found that there is a technology that allows him to send power and data over the same cable. Which of the following IEEE standards defines the technology that would allow for this? 802.3an 802.1q 802.11ac 802.3at

802.3at IEEE standard 802.3at defines power over ethernet plus, or POE+, which allows for both power and data to be sent over an ethernet cable.

Which of the following protocols do MOST MITM attacks utilize? A. ARP B. SIP C. FTP D. SCP

A. ARP An ARP spoofing, also known as ARP poisoning, is a Man in the Middle (MitM) attack that allows attackers to intercept communication between network devices. The attack works as follows: The attacker must have access to the network. They scan the network to determine the IP addresses of at least two devices⁠—let's say these are a workstation and a router. The attacker uses a spoofing tool, such as Arpspoof or Driftnet, to send out forged ARP responses. The forged responses advertise that the correct MAC address for both IP addresses, belonging to the router and workstation, is the attacker's MAC address. This fools both router and workstation to connect to the attacker's machine, instead of to each other. The two devices update their ARP cache entries and from that point onwards, communicate with the attacker instead of directly with each other. The attacker is now secretly in the middle of all communications.

A disgruntled employee executes a man-in-the-middle attack on the company network. Layer 2 traffic destined for the gateway is redirected to the employee's computer. This type of attack is an example of: A. ARP cache poisoning B. IP spoofing C. amplified DNS attack D. evil twin

A. ARP cache poisoning ARP cache poisoning is the most correct answer. MITM attacks often use ARP poisoning to intercept and/or alter outbound packets. An ARP table is injected with a spoofed IP to MAC mapping to divert packets. IP spoofing is incorrect. While it may be a part of this process, the key is Layer 2 traffic, which ARP poisoning meets better. Amplified DNS attack is incorrect; this is a denial of service method that exploits a DNS resolver to bombard a network with response pings. Evil twin is incorrect. An evil twin is an outside AP designed to bait users into connecting to it to gather password and other valuable information, or directing them to a malicious resource or page.

Employees want the ability to use personal devices on the guest network while working out at the company gym. In order to meet the request, which of the following policies requires employee adherence? A. AUP B. SLA C. NDA D. MOU

A. AUP Stands for "Acceptable Use Policy." An AUP is list of rules you must follow in order to use a website or Internet service. It is similar to a software license agreement (SLA), but is used specifically for Internet services.

To replace a defective UPS, the network administrator must take the switch offline. The administrator wants to be able to perform maintenance UPS in the future without affecting the availability of the attached switch. Which of the following would BEST allow this to happen? A. Add a redundant power supply to the switch B. Implement stacking on the switches in the rack C. Add a second UPS into the rack D. Install a power converter for the switch

A. Add a redundant power supply to the switch A redundant power supply is when a single piece of networking equipment operates using two or more physical power supplies. Each of the power supplies will have the capacity to run the device on its own. This makes sure that the device could operate normally even if one power supply fails. A is the correct answer.

A network administrator wants to increase the confidentiality of the system by hardening the authentication process. Currently, the users log in using usernames and passwords to access the systemWhich of the following will increase the authentication factor to three? A. Adding a fingerprint reader to each workstation and providing a RSA authentication token B. Adding a fingerprint reader and retina scanner C. Using a smart card and RSA token D. Enforcing a stronger password policy and using a hand geometry scan

A. Adding a fingerprint reader to each workstation and providing a RSA authentication token There are three common factors used for authentication: Something you know (such as a password) Something you have (such as a smart card) Something you are (such as a fingerprint or other biometric method)

A network engineer is designing a new IDF in an old building. The engineer determines the equipment will fit in a two-post rack, and there is power available for this equipment. Which of the following would be the FIRST issue to remediate? A. Air flow and cooling B. UPS capability C. Circuit labeling D. Power redundancy

A. Air flow and cooling

A company finds that many desktops are being reported as missing or lost. Which of the following would BEST assist in recovering these devices? A. Asset tracking tags B. Motion detectors C. Security guards D. Computer locks

A. Asset tracking tags Asset tracking tags : In this scenario, the desktops are already missing or lost, the locks won't do anything for recovery. However, asset tracking tags (if they had been applied) could aid in the identification and recovery.

A network administrator is setting up a web-based application that needs to be continually accessible to the end users. Which of the following concepts would BEST ensure this requirement? A. High availability B. Snapshots C. NIC teaming D. Cold site

A. High availability Key words "continually accessible" This makes option A most appropriate.

Which of the following lights on a NIC would indicate that data is transmitting over a particular ethernet port? ACT LNK CON VAR

ACT Many network cards have an activity LED light labeled ACT that light up to indicate that data is transmitting over that port.

Which of the following should current network performance be compared against to determine network anomalies? A. Baseline B. Traffic analysis C. Packet capture D. Logs

A. Baseline Network baselining is the act of measuring and rating the performance of a network in real-time situations. Providing a network baseline requires testing and reporting of the physical connectivity, normal network utilization, protocol usage, peak network utilization, and average throughput of the network usage. Such in-depth network analysis is required to identify problems with speed and accessibility, and to find vulnerabilities and other problems within the network. Once a network baseline has been established, this information is then used by companies and organizations to determine both present and future network upgrade needs as well as assist in making changes to ensure their current network is optimized for peak performance.

A technician is investigating a server performance issue. The technician has gathered the server utilization statistics. Which of the following should the technician use to determine which statistics are not in the normal range? A. Baseline review B. Vulnerability scan C. System life-cycle report D. Archiving logs

A. Baseline review service performance means baseline that it.

Ann, a network technician, has just installed a fiber switch in a datacenter. To run the fiber cabling, Ann plans the cable route over the top of the rack using the cable trays, down to the switch, coiling up any excess cable. As Ann configures the switch, she notices several messages in the logging buffer stating the receive signal of the SFP is too weak. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the errors in the logging buffer? A. Bend radius exceeded B. Fiber cable mismatch C. Fiber type mismatch D. Bad fiber switch

A. Bend radius exceeded Light will reflect upon too much bending of cable

Which of the following communication media can carry many voice, data, and video channels simultaneously over multiple frequencies? A. Broadband B. Baseband C. Analog modem D. CSMA

A. Broadband Broadband technologies divide the bandwidth available on a medium (for example, copper or fibre-optic cabling) into different channels.

A technician discovers that multiple switches require a major update. Which of the following policies should be followed? A. Change management policy B. Remote access policy C. Acceptable use policy D. Memorandum of understanding

A. Change management policy

A systems administrator has recently purchased and installed a large electronic signage screen for the company's parking garage. The screen's management software was installed on a server with a public IP address to allow remote management. The systems administrator is now troubleshooting an issue with the screen displaying unknown, random, and inappropriate messages.Which of the following is MOST effective in resolving this issue? A. Changing the management software's default credentials B. Disabling unnecessary services from the server and management software C. Changing the management software's default port D. Replacing the management software's self-signed certificate with a valid certificate

A. Changing the management software's default credentials

A network technician is building a network for a small office. The office currently has cable TV and now requires access to the Internet without adding any cabling other than what is already in place. Which of the following solutions should the technician install to meet these requirements? A. DOCSIS modem B. Wireless router C. DSL modem D. Access point

A. DOCSIS modem DOCSIS stands for ​Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification. It is an international telecommunications standard the addition of high-bandwidth data transfer to an existing coaxial cable TV system. This is an important feature to know because it influences which modem you get for a cable Internet connection.

Users are reporting their network is extremely slow. The technician discovers pings to external host have excessive response times. However, internal pings to printers and other PCs have acceptable response times. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT? A. Determine if any network equipment was replaced recently B. Verify malware has not disabled the users' PC firewalls C. Replace users' network cables with known-good network cables D. Power cycle the web server

A. Determine if any network equipment was replaced recently

A network administrator receives a call from the sales department requesting ports 20 and 21 be opened on the company's firewall to allow customers to retrieve a large file. Which of the following should the administrator perform BEFORE making the needed changes? (Choose two.) A. Document the reason for the request B. Scan the file for malware to protect the sales department's computers C. Follow the company's approval process for the implementation D. Install a TFTP server for the customers to use for the transfer E. Create a honeypot to store the file on for the customers to use F. Write the SLA for the sales department authorizing the change

A. Document the reason for the request C. Follow the company's approval process for the implementation If you arent allowed to change them without approval you will have to ask someone higher up meaning you have give reason and follow the appropriate procedures.

A network technician is deploying mobile phones for a company's sales staff. Salespeople frequently travel nationally and internationally to meet with clients, and often have to roam or switch cellular providers. Which of the following standards is the BEST option to fit the requirements? A. GSM B. TDM C. CDMA D. PSTN E. MIMO

A. GSM The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) is a standard developed by the European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI) to describe the protocols for second-generation (2G) digital cellular networks used by mobile devices such as mobile phones and tablets. It was first deployed in Finland in December 1991. By the mid-2010s, it became a global standard for mobile communications achieving over 90% market share, and operating in over 193 countries and territories.

A network engineer is configuring wireless access for guests at an organization. Access to other areas in the organization should not be accessible to guests. Which of the following represents the MOST secure method to configure guest access to the wireless network? A. Guests should log into a separate wireless network using a captive portal B. Guests should log into the current wireless network using credentials obtained upon entering the facility C. The existing wireless network should be configured to allow guest access D. An additional wireless network should be configured to allow guest access

A. Guests should log into a separate wireless network using a captive portal A captive portal is a Web page that the user of a public-access network is obliged to view and interact with before access is granted.

A network technician receives a call from a user in the accounting department stating that Internet connectivity has been lost after receiving a new workstation. No other users in accounting are reporting similar issues. The network technician is able to ping the machine from the accounting department's router, but is not able to ping the machine from the IT network.Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. Incorrect default gateway B. Duplicate IP address C. Misconfigured OSPF D. Improper VLAN assignment

A. Incorrect default gateway Remember that LAN traffic uses MAC addresses, so as long as both the router and the PC are in the same network, they will both communicate. This scenario represents a problem in which TCP/IP configuration is done manually in which errors like configuring the default gateway as 192.168.0.11 instead of 192.168.0.1 can happen. If you ping the Router from the PC, you will get connectivity, but when the PC wants to communicate outside the LAN, there will be no communication because of the wrong default gateway.

A technician is installing a new wireless badging system on a hospital network. The requirements of the badging system are for it to have its own SSID and low power levels. The badging system has to cover 99.9% of the hospital.Which of the following is the BEST action to take to meet the system requirements? A. Install additional WAPs B. Install external antennas C. Move the WAPs closer to the more populated area D. Change the antenna types

A. Install additional WAPs

A company has hundreds of nodes on a single subnet and has decided to implement VLANs. Which of the following BEST describes the benefit of this approach? A. It segments broadcast domains in the network infrastructure B. It provides a faster port to all servers C. It provides multiple collision domains on one switchport D. It provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain

A. It segments broadcast domains in the network infrastructure Here are the definitions for Broadcast Domain and Collision Domain. Broadcast Domain: A broadcast domain refers to the set of all devices on a network segment that hear all the broadcasts sent on that segment. Collision Domain: The term collision domain is an Ethernet term that refers to a particular network scenario wherein one device sends a packet out on a network segment and thereby forces every other device on that same physical network segment to pay attention to it.

A technician is diagnosing an issue with a new T1 connection. The router is configured, the cable is connected, but the T1 is down. To verify the configuration of the router, which of the following tools should the technician use? A. Loopback adapter B. Cable tester C. Tone generator D. Multimeter

A. Loopback adapter A loopback adapter is required if you are installing on a non-networked computer to connect the computer to a network after the installation. When you install a loopback adapter, the loopback adapter assigns a local IP address for your computer.

Which of the following would allow a device to maintain the same IP address lease based on the physical address of the network card? A. MAC address reservation B. Static IP address C. IP address exclusion D. Custom DNS server entry

A. MAC address reservation Question says the 'physical address' and physical address is another word for MAC address. Launch CMD in windows and type 'ipconfig/all' next to physical address you will find the MAC address of your device.

Which of the following DNS records needs to be configured for SMTP traffic? A. MX B. CNAME C. AAAA D. PTR

A. MX MX is the most correct answer. MX records are for mail exchangers. CNAME is the canonical name record, which maps one domain to another. AAAA records are for human names to IPv6 domains or hosts. PTR records are for pointers, which give the hostname for an IP address (reverse lookup).

A user reports difficulties connecting a PC to a wired network. The PC connects to an IP phone, which is working correctly. A network technician can verify that other devices successfully connect to the phone. At which of the following layers of the OSI model is the problem MOST likely located? A. Network B. Physical C. Transport D. Application

A. Network

A penetration tester has been tasked with reconnaissance to determine which ports are open on the network. Which of the following tasks should be done FIRST? (Choose two.) A. Network scan B. Banner grab C. Tracert D. DHCP server check E. Brute-force attack

A. Network scan C. Tracert The answer is A and C because the question is asking what they should do FIRST. Banner Grab is done AFTER you determine what systems have open ports.

As part of a transition from a static to a dynamic routing protocol on an organization's internal network, the routing protocol must support IPv4 and VLSM. Based on those requirements, which of the following should the network administrator use? (Choose two.) A. OSPF B. IS-IS C. RIPv1 D. BGP E. VRRP

A. OSPF B. IS-IS OSPF and IS-IS are the most correct answers. Open Shortest Path First is a link state interior gateway protocol designed to find the fastest route through a network. Intermediate System to Intermediate System is an interior gateway protocol designed for efficient movement of information. RIPv1 is incorrect; RIPv1 does not support VLSM. Border Gateway Protocol is incorrect; while it can be used internally, it is mainly for exterior routing and WAN links. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol is incorrect; each VRRP instance will only work on a single subnet. The requirement implies multiple subnet masks will be in use, so VRRP would not be as effective here.

A technician is troubleshooting a point-to-point fiber-optic connection. The technician is at a remote site and has no connectivity to the main site. The technician confirms the switch and the send-and-receive light levels are within acceptable range. Both fiber SFPs are confirmed as working.Which of the following should the technician use to reveal the location of the fault? A. OTDR B. Light meter C. Tone generator D. CSU/DSU

A. OTDR An Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) is an important instrument used by organizations to certify the performance of new fiber optics links and detect problems with existing fiber links.

A single PRI can deliver multiple voice calls simultaneously using which of the following Layer 1 technologies? A. Time division multiplexing B. Analog circuit switching C. CSMA/CD D. Time division spread spectrum

A. Time division multiplexing A PRI is a digital, end-to-end connections that allows for multiple, simultaneous voice, data, or video transmissions. This is achieved through a physical line or circuit. The physical circuit, a cable containing two pairs of copper wires, provides 23 channels for data and or voice

A network engineer is designing a new network for a remote site. The remote site consists of ten desktop computers, ten VoIP phones, and two network printers. In addition, two of the desktop computers at the remote site will be used by managers who should be on a separate network from the other eight computers. Which of the following represents the BEST configuration for the remote site? A. One router connected to one 24-port switch configured with three VLANs: one for the manager's computers and printer, one for the other computers and printer, and one for the VoIP phones. B. Two routers with each router connected to a 12-port switch, with a firewall connected to the switch connected to the manager's desktop computers, VoIP phones, and printer. C. One router connected to one 12-port switch configured for the manager's computers, phones, and printer, and one 12-port switch configured for the other computers, VoIP phones, and printer. D. One router connected to one 24-port switch configured with two VLANS: one for the manager's computers, VoIP phones, and printer, and one for the other computers, VoIP phones, and printer.

A. One router connected to one 24-port switch configured with three VLANs: one for the manager's computers and printer, one for the other computers and printer, and one for the VoIP phones. One 24-port router and 3 VLANs is the most correct solution. Remote site hosts 22 devices so 24 ports are needed. Management gets one VLAN, remaining users get another, and phones also get another. Getting two routers is incorrect as this is not cost effective. Connecting a firewall only to one router is not feasible for security. This setup also does not split each group by network. Single 12-port router for each group is incorrect; this is neither efficient nor cost effective. 24-port router with two VLANs is incorrect; there are not enough VLANs to properly separate hosts.

A network technician is diagnosing a time-out issue generated from an end user's web browser. The web browser issues standard HTTP get and post commands to interact with the website. Given this information, the technician would like to analyze the entire TCP handshake of the HTTP requests offline. Which of the following tools would allow the technician to view the handshake? A. Packet analyzer B. Port analyzer C. SNMP traps D. Spectrum analyzer

A. Packet analyzer A protocol analyzer or packet analyzer (like Wireshark) has the capability to capture the handshake and display it for analysis. A packet sniffer, though, will only capture the handshake. Neither a spectrum analyzer or a tone generator would be helpful in this situation.

A contractor is setting up and configuring conference rooms for a convention. The contractor sets up each room in the conference center to allow wired Internet access going to individual tables. The contractor measured the distance between the hotel's patch panel to the jack, and the distance is within Cat 5e specifications. The contractor is concerned that the room will be out of specification if cables are run in each room from the wall jacks. Which of the following actions should the contractor take to ensure the cable runs meet specifications and the network functions properly? A. Place a switch at the hotel's patch panel for connecting each room's cables B. Place a switch on each table to ensure strong connectivity C. Place repeaters between the patch panel and the rooms D. place a switch at the wall jack and run the cables in the room from there

A. Place a switch at the hotel's patch panel for connecting each room's cables

The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has noticed the corporate wireless signal is available in the parking lot. Management requests that the wireless network be changed so it is no longer accessible in public areas, without affecting the availability inside the building.Which of the following should be changed on the network? A. Power levels B. Overcapacity C. Distance limitations D. Channel overlap

A. Power levels

A company has completed construction of a new datacenter, and the IT staff is now planning to relocate all server and network equipment from the old site to the new site. Which of the following should the IT staff reference to determine the location of the equipment being moved? A. Rack diagrams B. Network topology C. Standard operating procedures D. Wiring documentation

A. Rack diagrams It asked for "reference to determine the location of the equipment being moved". Keyword is the physical location, you need the rack diagrams to determine the space and the positions of the servers/network equipment.

A network administrator has a monitoring system in place that is currently polling hundreds of network devices at regular intervals. The continuous polling is causing high CPU utilization on the server. Which of the following tasks should the administrator perform to resolve the CPU issue while maintaining full monitoring capabilities? A. Remove SNMP polling and configure SNMP traps on each network device B. Remove SNMP polling and implement snmpwalk on each network device C. Upgrade SNMP to the latest version to mitigate vulnerabilities D. Modify SNMP polling to poll only during business hours

A. Remove SNMP polling and configure SNMP traps on each network device The data flow is as follows: MDF <-> IDF (where patch panel is located) <-> Wall Jack <-> Tables. The question states that patch panel to wall jack is within spec, but if you then run a cable to a table, that's adding distance. Neither the patch panel in the IDF nor the wall jacks amplify/boost the signal, so that signal has basically attenuated throughout the trip between MDF <-> IDF <-> wall jack <-> table. IDF <-> wall jack may be in spec, but the total distance may not be. A switch re-transmits the signal (ie. resets the max distance). Placing a repeater between the switch and each wall jack would work, but you'd lose all the other benefits of having a switch. While a repeater may be a good option, a switch is more effective in this case since there are so many cables and repeaters usually only work for an individual cable. Switch has other benefits aside from boosting the signal, so it is a better option than putting repeaters all over the place behind walls.

A network technician receives a call from a user who is experiencing network connectivity issues. The network technician questions the user and learns the user brought in a personal wired router to use multiple computers and connect to the network. Which of the following has the user MOST likely introduced to the network? A. Rogue DHCP server B. Evil twin C. VLAN mismatch D. Honeypot

A. Rogue DHCP server Rogue DHCP server is the most correct answer. The user's router is distributing its own DHCP leases to the hosts, causing conflict when these devices try to access the network. Evil twin is incorrect. Evil twin is an AP placed outside a network disguised as a legitimate network point to gather sensitive information from baited users. VLAN mismatch is incorrect, though the hosts past the user's router may not be able to gather VLAN data because of the router. Honeypot is incorrect; a honeypot is deployed by a network to bait attackers into wasting time in a false network environment instead of the real one.

A network technician is considering opening ports on the firewall for an upcoming VoIP PBX implementation. Which of the following protocols is the technician MOST likely to consider? (Choose three.) A. SIP B. NTP C. H.323 D. SMB E. ICMP F. RTP

A. SIP C. H.323 F. RTP SIP, H.323, and RTP are the most correct answers. Session Initiation Protocol is used for multimedia communication sessions. H.323 is used to define how real-time audio, video and data information is transmitted. It provides signaling, multimedia and bandwidth control mechanisms over RTP. Real-time Transport Protocol is a packet-formatting standard for delivering audio and video over the Internet, and is popularly implemented for VoIP solutions. NTP is incorrect; Network Time Protocol's functions are not relevant to a VoIP PBX. SMB is incorrect; Server Message Block is a Windows protocol for sharing access to files and printers between hosts. ICMP is incorrect; Internet Control Message Protocol is not relevant to the functions of a PBX. IPsec is incorrect; IP security is not relevant to the function of the PBX. RDP is incorrect; Remote Desktop Protocol features are not relevant to the function of the PBX.

A network technician wants to remotely and securely access the desktop of a Linux workstation. The desktop is running remote control software without encryption.Which of the following should the technician use to secure the connection? A. SSH in tunnel mode B. RDP set to console connection C. EAP-PEAP D. SFTP

A. SSH in tunnel mode Secure Shell (SSH) for Linux-based machines Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) for Windows-based machines ( A ) Is the correct answer

A network technician is troubleshooting wireless network issues in a crowded office complex and suspects there is interference from nearby wireless networks. Which of the following should the technician perform to discover possible interference? A. Site survey B. Vulnerability scanning C. Wardriving D. Checking logical diagram E. Bandwidth test

A. Site survey The site survey will allow us to see the overlap of networks, being able to pinpoint where the interference is coming from.

A network technician has just configured NAC for connections using Cat 6 cables. However, none of the Windows clients can connect to the network. Which of the following components should the technician check on the Windows workstations? (Choose two.) A. Start the Wired AutoConfig service in the Services console B. Enable IEEE 802.1q Authentication in Network Interface Card Properties C. Enable IEEE 802.1x Authentication in Network Interface Card Properties D. Start the Wireless AutoConfig service in the Services console E. Enable IEEE 802.3 Ethernet IPv6 in Network Interface Card Properties

A. Start the Wired AutoConfig service in the Services console C. Enable IEEE 802.1x Authentication in Network Interface Card Properties "A" - NAC = Network Access Control. The process of restricting unauthorized users and devices from gaining access to a corporate or private network. "C" - 802.1x = IEEE 802.1X is an IEEE Standard for port-based Network Access Control. It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or WLAN. — "B" - 802.1q = IEEE 802.1Q, often referred to as Dot1q, is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs on an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet network. It's not "D" cuz "D" talks about wireless. 802.3 = IEEE 802.3: This was the original standard given for 10BASE-5. It used a thick single coaxial cable into which a connection can be tapped by drilling into the cable to the core.

Which of the following security mechanisms dynamically assigns a Layer 2 address and restricts traffic only to that Layer 2 address? A. Sticky MAC B. 802.1x C. ACL D. NAC

A. Sticky MAC Persistent MAC learning, also known as Sticky MAC, is a port security feature that enables an interface to retain dynamically learned MAC addresses when the switch is restarted or if the interface goes down and is brought back online. This is a security feature that can be used to prevent someone from unplugging their office computer and connecting their own laptop to the network jack without permission since the switch port connected to that network jack would only allow the computer with the original MAC address to gain connectivity using Sticky MAC.

A technician is planning a remote-access strategy to manage routers and switches on a dedicated management network. The management network is segregated from the production network and uses site-to-site VPN connections. Some of the equipment does not support encryption. Which of the following should the technician choose that all the equipment would support? A. Telnet B. SSL C. SSH D. IPSec

A. Telnet The goal here is to plan a "remote-access strategy." VPN is already enabled for both sites meaning that IPSec is currently in use. From here, SSL and IPSec should be eliminated from the answer choices leaving you with SSH and TELNET. Since "some of the equipment does not support encryption", then the common denominator would be TELNET.

A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and has established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following steps should the network technician take NEXT? A. Test the possible solution B. Question the users C. Determine what has changed D. Document the theory

A. Test the possible solution A good mnemonic for the CompTia troubleshooting steps is "I Eat Tacos Every Valentines Day" 1. Identify the problem. 2. Establish a theory of probably cause. (Question the obvious) 3. Test the theory to determine cause. 4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. 5. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures. 6. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

A computer lab on a campus network was recently reconfigured using recycled network cables. One of the 24 computers in the lab is unable to connect to the network after the upgrade. A network technician successfully uses the cable in question to connect directly to another computer.Which of the following is MOST likely the issue with the cable? A. The cable is a crossover cable B. The cable is a rollover cable C. The cable has bent pins D. The cable is a Cat 5 cable

A. The cable is a crossover cable "One of the 24 computers in the lab is unable to connect to the network after the upgrade". This statement tells me that the network technician probably connected said computer to a switch in which he/she would be using a STRAIGHT THROUGH cable. If the tech figured out a solution and connected the cable "directly to another computer", then how is using a CROSS OVER cable the issue if that fixed the problem? My notes state that crossover cables are used to connect similar devices...so "to connect directly to ANOTHER computer" would mean that a crossover cable is the solution.

Which of the following may be used by a router to block certain networks from transmitting information to other networks? Certificates ACLs LDAP TACACS+

ACLs An access control list can be applied to the interface of a router to allow or deny traffic based upon source or destination IP address or logical port that the traffic is being sent from or to.

A network technician is troubleshooting an end-user connectivity problem. The network technician goes to the appropriate IDF but is unable to identify the appropriate cable due to poor labelling. Which of the following should the network technician use to help identify the appropriate cable? A. Tone generator B. Multimeter C. OTDR D. Loopback adapter

A. Tone generator Tone generator is the most correct answer. A tone generator sends a signal through a cable so a technician can find its termination easier. A multimeter checks and measures electrical signals and is incorrect. An OTDR is incorrect as it would not help the technician identify the cable termination. A loopback adapter is incorrect as this only allows testing of the local host device.

A network technician notices the site-to-site VPN and Internet connection have not come back up at a branch office after a recent power outage. Which of the following is an out-of-band method the technician would MOST likely utilize to check the branch office's router status? A. Use a modem to console into the router B. Walk a user through troubleshooting the connection C. Travel to the branch office D. Hire a contractor to go on-site

A. Use a modem to console into the router A is the correct answer. Out-of-band provides a secure dedicated alternate access method into an IT network infrastructure to administer connected devices and IT assets without using the corporate LAN. The other answer choices require someone to be physically present onsite.

Which of the following BEST describes the differences between VLAN hopping and session hijacking? A. VLAN hopping involves the unauthorized transition from one VLAN to another to gain additional access. Session hijacking involves overriding a user's web connection to execute commands B. VLAN hopping is a brute force attack executed to gain additional access. Session hijacking involves physically disrupting a network connection C. VLAN hopping involves overriding a user network connection to execute malicious commands. Session hijacking involves compromising a host to elevate privileges D. VLAN hopping is the act of exploiting poor VLAN tagging. Session hijacking is a web-based attack aimed at privilege escalation

A. VLAN hopping involves the unauthorized transition from one VLAN to another to gain additional access. Session hijacking involves overriding a user's web connection to execute commands

Which of the following provides the ability to deploy consistent access point configurations from a central location? A. Wireless controller B. AAA server C. WiFi-protected setup D. Proxy server E. VPN concentrator

A. Wireless controller What Is a Wireless LAN Controller? A wireless LAN controller, or WLAN controller, monitors and manages wireless access points in bulk and allows wireless devices to connect to WLAN, a wireless network architecture. As a centralized device in the network, the wireless LAN controller is usually located at the data center, to which all the wireless APs on the network are directly or indirectly connected. How a Wireless LAN Controller Functions? The wireless access controller takes the bandwidth produced coming from a router and stretches it to fit the network needs. Similar to an amplifier in a stereo system, the wireless controller allows devices from farther distances to connect. Besides, it enables the network administrators to check all the data related to the network and is able to detect rogue access points and recent traps generated by the access points.

A user reports that a laptop cannot connect to the Internet despite the fact the wireless Internet was functioning on it yesterday. The user did not modify the laptop in any way, and the wireless Internet is functional on other users' laptops. Which of the following issues should be reviewed to help the user to connect to the wireless network? A. Wireless switch toggled off B. WAP settings C. WLAN IP address out of scope D. Wireless controller misconfiguration

A. Wireless switch toggled off You're thinking slightly too logically. They want us to assume that the user turned on airplane mode, thus disabling wifi. The average user won't even investigate much themselves, they'll simply put in a ticket and wait for support to fix the "problem", except the real problem is in the chair.

A network administrator would like to collect information from several networking devices using SNMP. Which of the following SNMP options should a network administrator use to ensure the data transferred is confidential? A. authpriv B. SHA C. MD5 D. Authentication passphrase

A. authpriv AuthPriv is the most correct answer. SNMPv3 defines communication with authentication and privacy (AuthPriv) as one of three mechanisms available. It uses MD5 and SHA for authentication and either DES or AES for privacy. While both SHA and MD5 are used in the solution, they are insufficient on their own. A passphrase would be insufficient to sustain confidentiality of the data.

A technician must determine if a web page user's visits are connecting to a suspicious website's IP address in the background. Which of the following tools would provide the information on TCP connections? A. netstat B. tracert C. arp D. ipconfig E. route

A. netstat netstat is the most correct answer. Netstat displays inbound and outbound TCP connections, along with routing tables, interface, and network protocol stats. tracert is incorrect; this command traces the network path between the host and a target address. arp is incorrect; this command correlates to the IP to Physical address translation tables used by ARP. ipconfig is incorrect; this only shows local interface details and IP addresses. route is incorrect; this only allows viewing and manipulation of the host's IP routing table.

The process of attempting to exploit a weakness in a network after being given permission by the company is known as: A. penetration testing B. vulnerability scanning C. reconnaissance D. social engineering

A. penetration testing

Users are reporting Internet connectivity issues. The network administrator wants to determine if the issues are internal to the company network or if there is an issue with the ISP. Which of the following tools should be used to BEST determine where the outage is occurring? A. traceroute B. ping C. nslookup D. netstat

A. traceroute Answer is traceroute for two reasons. 1) It doesn't matter whether it's written as tracert or traceroute. What matters is what it DOES. 2) Using traceroute, you can see where the connection drops and determine whether that specific point is located within your network or on the way to the ISP.

Dan needs to set up a DNS record so that IPv6 users trying to access his company's website can do so by using the FQDN. Which of the following types of records does he need to create? A CNAME PTR AAAA

AAAA The AAAA record is created on DNS servers to resolve a name to an IPv6 address. An A record is only for IPv4.

Which of the following terms can be used to describe the IP address 169.254.172.16? Public default gateway Class C APIPA

APIPA The 169.254 address space is reserved for APIPA, or automatic private IP addressing. This is used when there is not a DHCP server on a network or the DHCP server cannot be contacted if there is one.

Which of the following can be used as part of a man-in-the-middle attack? logic bomb ARP poisoning ransomware phishing

ARP poisoning ARP poisoning is when an attacker is able to convince a computer to change the MAC address to IP address associateion in its ARP cache to point to their own MAC address. They can then relay the traffic to the appropriate device back and forth and thus be a man-in-the-middle.

Which of the following layer 2 technologies uses cell switching that provides an exact size of 53 bytes per frame? T1 OC-3 MPLS ATM

ATM Asyncrhonous transfer mode, or ATM, is a layer 2 technology that uses cell switching with fixed lengths of 53 bytes per cell.

Every new employee at Fictional Corp is required to sign an agreement stating that they understand what they are allowed to do and what they are not allowed to do on company owned systems and equipment. Which of the following is the term associated with this agreement? AUP NDA SLA AAA

AUP An acceptable usage policy, or AUP, is an agreement that many organizations require new employees to sign stating that they understand what is allowed and what is not allowed in regards to the usage of company owned systems and devices. The other three options non-disclosure agreement; authentication, authorization, and accounting; and service-level agreement are not relevant.

Which of the following is the number of broadcast domain that are created when using an unmanaged 12- port switch? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 6 E. 12

B. 1 The switch creates 12 collision domains and 1 broadcast domain. A switch creates a single broadcast domain, not separate broadcast domains so any answer with 12 broadcast domains is incorrect. A switch creates separate collision domains for each port, not a single collision domain for the entire switch.

A junior network technician is setting up a new email server on the company network. Which of the following default ports should the technician ensure is open on the firewall so the new email server can relay email? A. 23 B. 25 C. 110 D. 143

B. 25 POP (110) and IMAP (143) are used in receiving and retrieving emails, respectively. The question clearly asks which port is to be left open so the server can relay/send emails. This is clearly the function of SMTP (25).

Which of the following protocols can be both connection-oriented and connectionless? A. 20 FTP B. 53 DNS C. 67 DHCP D. 80 HTTP

B. 53 DNS DNS uses TCP for Zone transfer and UDP for name, and queries either regular (primary) or reverse. UDP can be used to exchange small information whereas TCP must be used to exchange information larger than 512 bytes.

Which of the following wireless connection types utilize MIMO on non-overlapping channels? (Choose two.) A. 802.11a B. 802.11ac C. 802.11b D. 802.11g E. 802.11n

B. 802.11ac E. 802.11n Mu mimo Supports devices that use 5GHz so 802.11ac and 802.11n are correct though typically 802.11n is dual band and seen only as mimo. A,G,B dont support mimo.

A network technician configures a firewall's ACL to allow outgoing traffic for several popular services such as email and web browsing. However, after the firewall's deployment, users are still unable to retrieve their emails. Which of the following would BEST resolve this issue? A. Allow the firewall to accept inbound traffic to ports 25, 67, 179, and 3389 B. Allow the firewall to accept inbound traffic to ports 80, 110, 143, and 443 C. Set the firewall to operate in transparent mode D. Allow the firewall to accept inbound traffic to ports 21, 53, 69, and 123

B. Allow the firewall to accept inbound traffic to ports 80, 110, 143, and 443 portc443, it's opened as well which means connectivity will not have a problem in case if port 80 failed, but the problem here is to retrieve emails. the need is to have POP3 or IMAP opened.

A company has contracted with an outside vendor to perform a service that will provide hardware, software, and procedures in case of a catastrophic failure of the primary datacenter. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is concerned because this contract does not include a long-term strategy for extended outages. Which of the following should the CIO complete? A. Disaster recovery plan B. Business continuity plan C. Service level agreement D. First responder training

B. Business continuity plan A business continuity plan (BCP) is a document that outlines how a business will continue operating during an unplanned disruption in service. ... Plans may provide detailed strategies on how business operations can be maintained for both short-term and long-term outages

A technician attempts to replace a switch with a new one of similar model from the same vendor. When the technician moves the fiber and SFP plug, the switch does not completely boot up. Considering that the config files are the same, which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the failure? A. Damaged fiber B. Corrupted operating system C. VLAN mismatch D. Bad port

B. Corrupted operating system If the switch doesn't boot up, it's likely due to the operating system, not the configuration of the switch itself. Even with a vlan mismatch, the switch should completely boot up.

A technician is upgrading the firmware on an older KVM switch. The specifications call for a serial port to connect to the computer on one side, and an Ethernet jack to connect to the switch on the other side.Which of the following connectors does the technician need for this cable? (Choose two.) A. RG-9 B. DB-9 C. RJ-11 D. DB-25 E. RJ-45 F. BNC

B. DB-9 E. RJ-45 db9 to connect to the serial port on the computer, rj-45 to connect to the console port on the router

Which of the following should a technician investigate when using a network baseline to troubleshoot? A. Tracing a network wire connectivity issue from the datacenter to a host. B. Determining if the server performance is degraded. C. Changes that have been made to the network configuration. D. Location of networking equipment in a rack.

B. Determining if the server performance is degraded. The only way to know when a problem is brewing on your network is to know how things perform when all's well with the network. Part of any proper performance monitor is the facility to create a baseline: a log of performance indicators such as CPU usage, network utilization, and other values to give you a picture of your network and servers when they are working correctly. A major change in these values can point to problems on a server or the network as a whole.

An ISP technician gets a call from a business that just changed equipment but can no longer connect to the Internet. The technician checks the ARP table on the ISP switch, and there is no corresponding MAC address present. Instead, the entry is "Incomplete". Which of the following could cause this condition? A. VLAN mismatch B. Duplex/Speed mismatch C. Duplicate IP address D. TX/RX reverse

B. Duplex/Speed mismatch The answer is B because the speed must be identical on both sides, and if not there will be no connection, duplex mismatch will manifest in slow performance. Tx/Rx mismatch is a problem often find in fiber optic, and although it's a connection between an ISP and a client there is no mention of it being used.

A network technician has discovered a rogue access point placed under an empty cubicle desk. Which of the following should the technician perform to ensure another cannot be placed on the network? A. Disable unused ports on switches B. Enable DHCP guard to detect rogue servers C. Configure WPA2 on all access points D. Use TACACS+ authentication

B. Enable DHCP guard to detect rogue servers DHCP guarding which only allows authorized DHCP servers to offer leases to other devices on the network.

A technician needs to upgrade a SOHO wireless router's firmware. The technician resets the router to factory settings and installs the new firmware. The technician enters the DHCP information and sets the SSID. Which of the following configurations would provide the MOST protection from advance hackers? A. Disable the broadcasting of the SSID. B. Enable WPA2 authentication for all hosts. C. Use private addressing for the DHCP scope. D. Install unidirectional antennas.

B. Enable WPA2 authentication for all hosts. good point, but a key part of the question is "advanced hacker" WPA2 is crackable but only by brute force. so it won't stop an advanced hacker 100% but it will slow them down significantly.

A technician logs onto a system using Telnet because SSH is unavailable. SSH is enabled on the target device, and access is allowed from all subnets. The technician discovers a critical step was missed.Which of the following would allow SSH to function properly? A. Perform file hashing B. Generate new keys C. Update firmware D. Change default credentials

B. Generate new keys

Which of the following is a vulnerable system designed to detect and log unauthorized access? A. SIEM B. Honeypot C. DMZ D. Proxy server

B. Honeypot In computer terminology, a honeypot is a computer security mechanism set to detect, deflect, or, in some manner, counteract attempts at unauthorized use of information systems. Honeypots are vulnerable by design, SIEM is a monitoring tool, not a vulnerable system.

Client PCs are unable to receive addressing information from a newly configured interface on a router. Which of the following should be added to allow the clients to connect? A. DHCP lease time B. IP helper C. TTL D. DNS record type

B. IP helper

The security manager reports that individual systems involved in policy or security violations or incidents cannot be located quickly. The security manager notices the hostnames all appear to be randomly generated characters. Which of the following would BEST assist the security manager identifying systems involved in security incidents? A. Enforce port security to require system authentication B. Implement a standardized UNC C. Label existing systems with current hostnames D. Forward the DHCP logs to the security manager every day

B. Implement a standardized UNC A Universal Naming Convention (UNC) format name defines the location of files and other resources that exist on a network. UNC provides a format so that each shared resource can be identified with a unique address. That relates to file shares. I do not think this would help administrator to identify the system. I think answer is C

According to the OSI model, at which of the following layers is data encapsulated into a packet? A. Layer 2 B. Layer 3 C. Layer 4 D. Layer 5 E. Layer 6

B. Layer 3 Start at layer four and work down: Some — Segments -> Layer 4 People — Packets -> Layer 3 Fear — Frames -> Layer 2 Birthdays -Bits -> Layer 1

A network engineer wants to segment the network into multiple broadcast domains. Which of the following devices would allow for communication between the segments? A. Layer 2 switch B. Layer 3 switch C. Bridge D. Load balancer

B. Layer 3 switch A network engineer wants to a segment the network into multiple broadcast domains. Which of the following devices would allow for communication between the segments? L3 switch because L3 switch will acts as a switch to connect devices that are on the same subnet or virtual LAN into multiple broadcast domain (router).

A company has a web-based application that is used by many different departments. The company has experienced some overload of resources on the database server. The network administrator implements a network device in between the servers and the database.Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this device? A. Content filtering and network analysis B. Load balancing and providing high availability C. Port sniffing and protocol analysis D. Clustering and NIC teaming

B. Load balancing and providing high availability Load balancing can also happen on the client traffic, that being that each client connecting only get a portion instead of the traffic being one open pipe

Which of the following is a reason why a business may be hesitant to move sensitive data to a SaaS cloud service? A. Decreased performance of internal network B. Loss of full control over data resources C. Increased malware exposure D. Incompatibility with the current network

B. Loss of full control over data resources

A company recently upgraded all of its printers to networked multifunction devices. Users can print to the new devices, but they would also like the ability to scan and fax files from their computers. Which of the following should the technician update to allow this functionality? A. Device software B. Printer drivers C. Printer firmware D. NIC drivers

C. Printer firmware

A Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to move some IT services to a cloud service offering. However, the network administrator still wants to be able to control some parts of the cloud service's networking components. Which of the following should be leveraged to complete this task? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. DaaS

B. PaaS " However, the network administrator still wants to be able to control some parts of the cloud service's networking components."...IaaS is NOT the answer since this is stated on the question and IaaS is "being fully managed by the service provider. PaaS as being the correct answer is from the point of view of it being 'scaleable'. In this aspect, the admin can technically 'control' the network behind the platform.

Which of the following should be performed to verify that unnecessary services are disabled on all switches in an environment? A. Packet capturing B. Port scanning C. Log scanning D. Baseline review

B. Port scanning

A technician has racked a new access switch and has run multimode fiber to a new location. After installing an extended-range 10Gb SFP in the core switch, the technician installed a 10Gb SFP in the access switch and connected the port to the new extension with a fiber jumper. However, the link does not display, and the technician cannot see light emitting from the core switch.Which of the following solutions is MOST likely to resolve the problem? A. Swap the fiber pairs in one of the SFPs B. Replace the jumpers with single-mode fiber C. Set the correct MTU on the new interface D. Install an optic that matches the fiber type

B. Replace the jumpers with single-mode fiber The SFP Extender doesn't work with Multimode, only singlemode fibre. When it says its an SFP extended that lets us know that it should be using single mode fibre.

Which of the following MUST be implemented to share metrics between routing protocols within the same router? A. Routing loop B. Routing table C. Route redistribution D. Dynamic routes

B. Routing table Route redistribution is the term used for translating from one routing protocol into another. An example would be where you have an old router running RIP but you have an EIGRP network. You can run route redistribution on one router to translate the RIP routes into EIGRP.

Which of the following VPN protocols establishes a secure session that can be initiated using a browser? A. IPSec B. SSL VPN C. PTP D. PPTP

B. SSL VPN

A network technician is installing a new network switch is looking for an appropriate fiber optic patch cable. The fiber optic patch panel uses a twist-style connector. The switch uses a SFP module. Which of the following connector types should the fiber patch cable have? A. LC B. ST C. SC D. MTRJ E. MTP

B. ST

Which of the following WAN technologies provides a guaranteed throughput rate? A. DSL B. T-1 C. Cable broadband D. Dial-up

B. T-1 The 1.5Mbps offered by T1 line providers is usually guaranteed, i.e. any time you access the connection, you always get the same bandwidth. Most T1 line providers offer an uptime of 99.9% making the service suitable for mission critical applications such as connecting email and web servers.

A network administrator wishes to ensure there are no unnecessary open communication paths into a server. Using a port scanner, the administrator finds that ports are reported as closed. Which of the following BEST explains this response? A. The ports belong to an active system and are denying requests B. The ports are associated with deprecated services. C. The ports do not belong to a live system D. The ports replied with a SYN/ACK response

B. The ports are associated with deprecated services.

A network administrator is testing connectivity at a new corporate site. The site has a wireless guest as well as a wired employee network. After verifying connectivity, the administrator checks link speeds by using a speed testing website. The speed testing website shows lower download and upload speeds for the wired network than the wireless network. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation? A. There is less local congestion on the wireless network B. The testing server for the wired network was farther away C. The firewall is configured to throttle traffic to specific websites D. The wireless access points were misconfigured

B. The testing server for the wired network was farther away

A network technician is configuring a wireless network at a branch office. Users at this office work with large files and must be able to access their files on the server quickly. Which of the following 802.11 standards provides the MOST bandwidth? A. a B. ac C. g D. n

B. ac 802.11a is 54mbps 802.11g is also 54mbps 802.11n is >100mbps 802.11ac is 3.46gbps

Which of the following datacenter security methodologies is MOST likely to remain usable during a network outage? A. biometric scanners B. door locks C. video surveillance D. motion detectors

B. door locks Door locks is the most correct answer. No level of network outage will ever impact a traditional door and lock. All other answers may rely on network resources or reporting mechanisms that could be compromised or delayed in the event of a network outage.

Which of the following BEST describes the BGP routing protocol? A. distance vector B. hybrid C. static D. link state

B. hybrid

A technician notices clients are receiving a 169.254.x.x IP address following the upgrade of a server. Which of the following ports should the technician check on the local server firewall? A. ports 20 and 21 B. ports 67 and 68 C. ports 80 and 443 D. port 123 and 8080

B. ports 67 and 68 An IP address that starts with 169 means that the host failed to obtain a dynamic IP from a DHCP server. Ports 67 and 68 are the port numbers for DHCP server, DHCP client so yeah answer is B.

A technician has installed a Linux server in the tax office. The server can access most of the resources on the network, but it cannot connect to another server that has a share for backup. The technician learns that the target server is on a different subnet. Which of the following tools should the technician use to ensure the Linux server can reach the backup location? A. netstat B. traceroute C. route D. dig E. ifconfig

B. traceroute A traceroute is a network tool used to show the route taken by packets across an IP network. The Traceroute tool will show you each hop sequentially, and total hops required. For each hop, it will display the hop #, roundtrip times, best time (ms), IP address, TTL, and country.

Which of the following technologies would prevent someone from plugging in a switch and connecting an ethernet cable to a standard wall outlet where the switch would then effect the spanning tree architecture of the network? flood guard root guard honeynet BPDU guard

BPDU guard BPDU guard is a configuration setting on a switch that tells it that only end user devices should be connected to a particular port, so it will ignore any messages that switches use to communicate with each other, such as those used to determine the spanning tree configuration.

Fictional Corp has provided smartphones to its sales staff knowing that they have a defined businss need for being able to call their customers while they are out in the field. After requests from several other employees to also receive a company smartphone, management has decided to simply let those who have a personal smartphone join it to the company's network for e-mail and accessing other applications, but the company will not pay for the smartphone nor the mobile plan with their carriers. Which of the following terms describes the scenario that management is putting into place? MTTR MTBF DRP BYOD

BYOD BYOD is known as bring your own device. (Some people may jokingly refer to it as bring your own disaster.) This is a setup where users are allowed to bring their personally owned phones that they pay for as well as their own calling plan and join it to the company's mobile device management platform so that they can access certain internal resources such as e-mail. A DRP is a disaster recovery plan. MTTR is mean time to recovery. MTBF is mean time between failures. None of these other three options are relevant to BYOD.

A technician is setting up a branch office on a point-to-point connection. Which of the following IP network blocks is the MOST efficient use of IP address space for the router connections between the two sites? A. /24 B. /25 C. /30 D. /32

C. /30 /30 means that 30 bits is allotted to the Network portion which leaves us to just 2 host bits. Now since the question requires a point to point connection and with efficiency meaning no excess address. Since 2 bits are left in the host portion 2^2 = 4, 1 will be for the Network ID, 1 for broadcast ID and 2 left for the usable addresses that will cater the point to point connection.

Which of the following would be the MOST efficient subnet mask for a point-to-point link? A. /28 B. /29 C. /31 D. /32

C. /31 RFC 3021 was introduced to allow the use of /31 subnets specifically for point-to-point links that don't require a local broadcast. In these networks, any packet sent by one node must be intended for the other node, as there are no other possibilities

Based on networks 10.8.16.0/22 and 10.8.31.0/21, which of the following is the BEST summarized CIDR notation? A. 10.8.0.0/16 B. 10.8.0.0/19 C. 10.8.0.0/20 D. 10.0.0.0/24

C. 10.8.0.0/20 00001010.00001000.00010000.00000000 (10.8.16.0) 00001010.00001000.00011111.00000000 (10.8.31.0) The last bit that they have in common is the 3rd octet 4th bit. (bit 20) It would normally be a /21 but the best choice of the ones given is /20

Which of the following is the correct port number for NTP? A. 25 B. 69 C. 123 D. 161

C. 123 NTP uses UDP port 123 and is the most correct answer. SMTP uses TCP port 25. TFTP uses UDP port 69. SNMP uses UDP port 161.

An office network consists of one two-port router connected to a 12-port switch. A four-port hub is also connected to the switch. On this particular network, which of the following is the number of collision domains that exist? A. 3 B. 12 C. 13 D. 14 E. 15

C. 13 The correct answer is C. Each port on the router is a collision domain (2). Each port on the switch is considered a collision domain (12). Lastly, the hub is considered (1) collision domain. 12 + 2 + 1 = 15 MINUS 2 (the connection between the router and the switch and the connection between the switch and the hub). Leaving 13 collision domains.

A network administrator has been given a network of 172.16.85.0/21 and wants to know the usable range of IP addresses on that subnet. Which of the following indicates the correct IP address range? A. 172.16.80.0-172.16.85.254 B. 172.16.80.0-172.16.88.255 C. 172.16.80.1-172.16.87.254 D. 172.16.80.1-172.16.85.255

C. 172.16.80.1-172.16.87.254 Find your block size. A /21 will have a block size of 8 due to having to borrow 5 bits. Divide your block size by the octet you borrowed from (3rd octet) and do not worry about remainders. 8 will do into 84 at least 10 times. Multiply that answer by the block size and you get 80. This is the start of your subnet. Your block size is 8 so your next sub net is 88. The first IP (80.0) is the network address so no host can use it and the last (broadcast) is 87.255 and can not be used by a host also. It is x.x.80.1-x.x.87.254

A technician is trying to determine the IP address of a customer's router. The customer has an IP address of 192.168.1.55/24. Which of the following is the address of the customer's router? A. 192.168.0.55 B. 192.168.1.0 C. 192.168.1.1 D. 192.168.5.5 E. 255.255.255.0

C. 192.168.1.1 The subnet mask is /24 which means that this is a classfull ip address so traditionally the router would be the first IP address in the node space which is 192.168.1.1. The broadcast address would be the last IP in the node space which is 192.168.1.255. The nodes on the subnet which would be devices would populate the 192.168.1.2 - 192.168.1.254 space.

Which of the following is the SHORTEST way to write 2001:0000:0d58:0000:0000:0095:7565:0001 in proper IPv6 shorthand? A. 2001::d58::95:7565:1 B. 2001:0:d58:0:0:95:7565:1 C. 2001:0:d58::95:7565:1 D. 2001:0:0d58::95:7565:1

C. 2001:0:d58::95:7565:1 For anyone wondering, it's C and not A because you can't use the :: twice

Which of the following policies would Joe, a user, have to agree to when he brings in his personal tablet to connect to the company's guest wireless Internet? A. NDA B. IRP C. BYOD D. SLA

C. BYOD In the real world, we don't think that BYOD would apply to someone bringing their tablet to connect to the wifi. Really should be AUP. But BYOD is the best answer on the list.

A network security technician observes multiple attempts to scan network hosts and devices. All the attempts originate from a single host on the network. Which of the following threats is MOST likely involved? A. Smurf attack B. Rogue AP C. Compromised system D. Unintentional DoS

C. Compromised system

In which of the following ways does a DDoS attack differ from a spoofing attack? A. DDoS attacks target multiple networks B. Spoofing attacks originate from a single host C. DDoS attacks are launched from multiple hosts D. Spoofing attacks require physical presence

C. DDoS attacks are launched from multiple hosts

The backup server connects to a NAS device using block-level storage over Ethernet. The performance is very slow, however, and the network technician suspects the performance issues are network related. Which of the following should the technician do to improve performance? A. Utilize UDP to eliminate packet overhead B. Turn off MDIX settings on the NAS and server switchports C. Enable jumbo frames on the NAS and server D. Encapsulate the storage traffic in a GRE tunnel

C. Enable jumbo frames on the NAS and server iSCSI storage benefits from jumbo frames. If jumbo frames are used, data is less likely to be fragmented into smaller 1500-byte frames. When packet fragmentation occurs, the higher-level protocol of IP at layer 3 must reassemble the fragments. The reassembly of these fragmented packets causes latency and higher CPU utilization. Latency is the enemy of SANs

A UTM is deployed on the external edge of the main corporate office. The office connects to the WAN port of the edge router. The edge router at the main office connects to the remote offices using GRE IPSec tunnels. A network administrator notices that a worm that was not detected by the UTM has spread from the remote sites into the corporate network. The UTM currently has traffic rules applied that should block the port used by the worm.Which of the following steps would MOST likely correct this issue? A. Move the UTM onto the LAN side of the network B. Enable TLS inspection on the UTM C. Enable stateful inspection on the UTM D. Configure the UTM to deny encrypted files from being transferred

C. Enable stateful inspection on the UTM Stateful-inspection firewalls: Unlike packet-filtering firewalls, stateful-inspection firewalls can track and "understand" when a TCP connection has occurred. This allows for reply traffic to be allowed through the firewall without the need for explicit rules. As a result, stateful-inspection firewalls make configuration easier, but can add a bit more inspection overhead and slow down traffic slightly more than packet-filtering firewalls. Therefore, C could be the correct answer

A technician is sent to a remote office to set up a device to connect to the Internet. The company standards document requires stateful inspection. Which of the following should the technician install? A. Router B. Multiplayer switch C. Firewall D. Bridge

C. Firewall "stateful inspection" = firewall.

A small business developed an in-house application that is very sensitive to network latency when a communicating between servers. Due to a lack of funds, the business had to build its own network for workstations and servers. Now a network administrator must redesign the network due to performance issues with the application. Which of the following would be the MOST cost effective for the administrator to recommend? A. Create Ethernet VLANs B. Disable autonegotiation on the servers C. Install 10Gb Ethernet NICs in the servers D. Install Fibre Channel for the server network

C. Install 10Gb Ethernet NICs in the servers

A technician is replacing a switch at a branch office and discovers the existing backbone cable does not fit in the new switch. The fiber patch panel has circular connections. The new switch has a transceiver that accepts a smaller square adapter of two strands.Which of the following patch cables would the technician need to complete the installation? A. LC to SC B. SC to ST C. LC to ST D. ST to ST E. SC to SC

C. LC to ST LC to ST is correct. Local Connectors are two-pronged square fiber connectors. This matches the transceiver at the switch which calls for a square two-strand adapter. Straight Tip connectors are round with the fiber tip extruding out. This corresponds to the circular connections in the patch panel. Square Connector (SC) is square but only has one fiber end at each connector. This does not satisfy either media requirement.

When enabling jumbo frames on a network device, which of the following parameters is being adjusted? A. Speed B. Duplex C. MTU D. TTL

C. MTU MTU is the most correct answer. The maximum transmission unit is the largest protocol data unit (PDU) that can be sent over a single network layer transaction. Speed is incorrect; network speed has no bearing on jumbo frames. Duplex is incorrect; duplexing has no bearing on jumbo frames but instead defines when communication can occur. TTL is incorrect; the time to live or hop count of data defines how long data can persist in a network. Once this limit is met, the data is discarded.

When choosing a type of storage that integrates with the existing network infrastructure, the storage must be easily configurable to share files and can communicate with all existing clients over TCP/IP. Which of the following is the BEST technology for the network administrator to implement? A. iSCSI B. Fibre Channel C. NAS D. DAS

C. NAS

In a service provider network, a company has an existing IP address scheme. Company A's network currently uses the following scheme:Subnet 1: 192.168.1.0/26Subnet 2: 192.168.1.65/26Company b uses the following scheme:Subnet 1: 192.168.1.50/28The network administrator cannot force the customer to update its IP scheme. Considering this, which of the following is the BEST way for the company to connect these networks? A. DMZ B. PAT C. NAT D. VLAN

C. NAT When you are at home on your private network your devices have a private Ip normally in the 192.168.1.0/24 range. These devices use their assigned private ip's to communicate locally however when a private ip needs to talk to a website like amazon, NAT will assigns/masks/translates (however you want to say it) that private IP to your public IP. Your public ip is provided by your ISP. NAT was created to address the ever depleting usable IPv4 address

Users are reporting issues with slow connection speeds and a loss of connectivity on the newly installed wireless network. The issues are intermittent but seem to occur most often around midday. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. There is interference from small appliances B. The signal coverage area is too small C. Not enough DHCP addresses have been allotted D. The DNS cache on the users' computers has become corrupt

C. Not enough DHCP addresses have been allotted

Users have been experiencing slow network response times, and management has asked the network technician to provide evidence of network improvement. After optimizing the network, which of the following would be required? A. IDF/MDF documentation B. Change management C. Performance baseline D. Physical diagram

C. Performance baseline C is the correct answer because network baselining is the act of measuring and rating the performance of a network in real-time situations. Providing a network baseline requires testing and reporting of the physical connectivity, normal network utilization, protocol usage, peak network utilization, and average throughput of the network usage

A typical cell tower will have microwave and cellular antennas. Which of the following network topologies do these represent? (Choose two.) A. Point-to-multipoint B. Bus C. Point-to-point D. Mesh E. Peer-peer F. Ring

C. Point-to-point D. Mesh microwave=point-to-point , cellular=mesh

Which of the following physical security controls is MOST likely to be susceptible to a false positive? A. Identification card B. Biometric device C. Proximity reader D. Video camera

C. Proximity reader why C is the correct answer is because a proximity reader will grant access to a user with proximity card that it recognizes. It doesn't need to know if the user is legitimate or not.

A network technician is able to connect the switches between two offices, but the offices cannot communicate with each other, as each office uses a different IP addressing scheme. Which of the following devices needs to be installed between the switches to allow communication? A. Bridge B. Access point C. Router D. Range extender

C. Router if switches are already connected MDF-IDF setup then 802.1Q (aka Dot1q)is needed so l3 device is required base on answers pick router to be correct.

A network technician is working on a proposal for email migration from an on-premises email system to a vendor-hosted email in the cloud. The technician needs to explain to management what type of cloud model will be utilized with the cloud-hosted email. Which of the following cloud models should the technician identify in the proposal? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. MaaS

C. SaaS SaaS (software as a service) allows users to connect to cloud-based apps such as email, calendars, and other office-type automation tools. The question indicates the technician's proposal is for "vendor-hosted email in the cloud." Vendor-hosted email in the cloud is considered a SaaS.

A forensic first responder arrives at the scene where an employee is suspected to have committed a computer-based crime. Which of the following should the first responder do FIRST? A. Document the scene B. Take pictures upon arrival C. Secure the area D. Implement chain of custody

C. Secure the area From Mike Meyer's book: In general, when you are in a situation where you are the first responder, you need to • Secure the area • Document the scene • Collect evidence • Interface with authorities

Which of the following WAN technologies is MOST preferred when developing a VoIP system with 23 concurrent channels? A. DSL B. POTS C. T1 D. DOCSIS

C. T1 A T1 can transmit 24 telephone calls at a time because it uses a digital carrier signal (DS-1). DS-1 is a communications protocol for multiplexing the bit streams of up to 24 telephone calls simultaneously. The T1's maximum data transmission rate is 1.544 Mbps. DOCSIS is the standard for a cable modem. DSL is a Digital Subscriber Line which has variable speeds from 256 Kbps and up. POTS is the Plain Old Telephone System, and provides only a single phone connection at a time. Out of these options, the T1 is the BEST to ensure you can reliably provide 23 simultaneous phone connections.

A network administrator configures a router with the following IP address information: Gigabit Ethernet 1 Interface: 10.10.0.1/24 Serial 0 Interface: 10.10.0.253/30 Clients are connected to a switch on the gigabit Ethernet interface; the ISP is connected to the Serial 0 interface. When the router configuration is complete and client devices are reconfigured, all clients report that they are unable to connect to the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason? A. The router was configured with an incorrect IP address B. The router was configured with an incorrect default gateway C. The router was configured with an incorrect subnet mask D. The router was configured with an incorrect loopback address

C. The router was configured with an incorrect subnet mask Both IP addresses are private IP, the subnetting will change the Subnet mask value. Changing the internal subnet mask into a /25 would fix the issue since that would divide the 10.10.0.x network into two, avoiding a collision of address space with .252 - .255

The IT manager at a small firm is in the process of renegotiating an SLA with the organization's ISP. As part of the agreement, the organization will agree to a dynamic bandwidth plan to provide 150Mbps of bandwidth. However, if the ISP determines that a host on the organization's internal network produces malicious traffic, the ISP reserves the right to reduce available bandwidth to 1.5 Mbps. Which of the following policies is being agreed to in the SLA? A. Session hijacking B. Blocking C. Throttling D. Data usage limits E. Bandwidth quotas

C. Throttling Throttling: is the intentional slowing or speeding network (internet service)

A technician replaces a failed router with a spare that has been in inventory for some time. After attempting to enable HTTPS on the spare router, the technician discovers the feature is unavailable. The support office was able to connect to the previous router. Which of the following actions should the technician perform to enable HTTPS access for the support team? A. Reboot the router B. Enable HTTP on the router C. Update the firmware of the spare router D. Perform a factory reset on the router

C. Update the firmware of the spare router "A technician replaces a failed router" *A few seconds later*: "The support office was able to connect to the previous router" Okay so does the old router work or not? Unless you meant that they were able to connect to the router before it failed. In which case you should put that part in the sentence. Who is writing these questions, the chef from the Muppets?

Which of the following devices, if implemented, would result in decreased administration time of an 802.11 network running centralized authentication services? (Choose two.) A. VPN concentrator B. Proxy server C. Wireless controller D. RADIUS server E. Multilayer switch

C. Wireless controller D. RADIUS server

A user checks an IP address using an external website. The address is different than the one the user sees when opening a command prompt and typing inipconfig/all. The user does not understand why the two tools show different IP addresses. This is BEST explained by the interworking of: A. network devices B. packet flow C. public/private networks D. traffic-routing protocols

C. public/private networks It's simple. Private Network = 192.168.1.1 Public Network = 193.1.2.5 This is an example of Network Address Translation (NAT).

Fictional Corp has 5 buildings that have been built right next to each other. Users need to be able to access file servers located in other buildings as well as to easily carry their laptop between buildings for meetings and be able to continue working. Which of the following architectures would best fit their needs? LAN MAN CAN WAN

CAN A campus area network is ideal for large companies, colleges, universities, and other organizations that have multiple buildings situated within close proximity to each other.

Which of the following is an AES based form of encryption used with wireless networks that includes message authentication codes and cipher block chaining? CCMP MD5 SHA TKIP

CCMP CCMP has three components to its 9 word phrase: CM (counter-mode), CBC (cipher-block-chaining), and MAC (message authentication code).

Andrew has previously set up a mail server with the A record of mail.bestexamprep.com. He wants it to also be accessible via smtp.bestexamprep.com, webmail.bestexamprep.com, and imap.examprep.com. In the event that the mail services move to a different IP address, he wants to ensure that he only needs to change one entry in the record for this domain. Which of the following types of records should he create for these other names? A AAAA MX CNAME

CNAME A CNAME record simply points a name to another name. In this scenario, if the mail server is moved to a different IP address and the other entries use CNAMEs, he would only need to change the entry for mail.bestexamprep.com and all of the others would automatically go to the new IP address.

Terri is wanting to connect a router to the T1 line that has just been installed at one of her company's branch offices. Which of the following devices might she need to make this connection? MPLS SIP trunk Frame Relay CSU/DSU

CSU/DSU A channel service unit / data service unit (CSU/DSU) is a device that can be used to connect a router to a T1 line.

Several non-profit agencies have offered to help with providing support and services to an area that has recently been hit by a major hurricane. In order to coordinate resources between them to ensure that one area doesn't receive too many resources while others are neglected, they decide to set up a cloud solution for this effort as well as future efforts where they may work together. Which of the following best describes the type of cloud they are looking at implementing? Community Public Private Hybrid

Community A community cloud is a cloud that is shared by multiple organizations, such as what is described in this scenario.

Which of the following tools might a technician use to put an RJ-45 plug onto a Cat 6a cable? punchdown tool crimper OTDR multimeter

Crimper A crimper can be used to crimp an RJ-45 connector onto twisted pair cabling such as Cat 6a.

A network technician is creating a new subnet for 488 host machines. The technician is told to use a class B address scheme when making the subnet and is instructed to leave as much room as possible for additional subnets of the same size. Which of the following subnets would fulfill these requirements? A. 10.5.4.0/22 B. 10.233.2.0/23 C. 172.16.0.0/22 D. 172.18.0.0/23 E. 192.168.25.0/24

D. 172.18.0.0/23 Since the question states that 488 machines or host will need a new subnet, the easy way to determine which particular subnet is to find the number of host bits that is near or greater than 488. 2^9 = 512, which completely covers 1 address for the network ID plus 1 address for the broadcast and 488 more and some excess for the machines. Since we already used 9 bits for the host, we only have 32 - 9 = 23 bits or /23 for the Network or subnet but there are two /23 in the choices. Then go back to the question they need a Class 'B' between B & D, D falls in the Class B category. So answer is D.

A network technician has created a network that consists of a router, a firewall, a switch, and several PCs. Which of the following physical network topologies was created? A. Star B. Mesh C. Ring D. Bus

D. Bus Remember that one characteristic of star topology is that it has 1 point-of-failure, bus has multiple. Also there is no centralized device, by using the elimination method, the one that's left is "Option D - Bus" In an Ethernet bus topology, a single connection failure brings down the entire network. If you lose connection from one workstation to switch, everything else still operates. If router, firewall and switch are connected in-line, you have combination of star topology and bus topology (assuming direct connection between router and firewall) which makes it hybrid.

A network engineer arrives at work and discovers that many users are having problems when attempting to connect to the company network shared drives. The network operations center (NOC) technician just completed server upgrades the night before. To which of the following documents should the NOC technician refer to determine what potentially caused the connectivity problem? A. Network maps B. Cable management C. Release notes D. Change management

D. Change management

A technician is connecting a router directly to a PC using the G1/0/1 interface. Without the use of autosensing ports, which of the following cables should be used? A. Straight-through B. Console C. Rollover D. Crossover

D. Crossover The answer is D (Crossover). In simplest terms, a PC and a router and SIMILAR in that they are both NETWORKING DEVICES. Therefore, the answer is D. Straight through cables would apply if auto-sensing ports were used. There is no switch/hub involved, which would eliminate the possibility of using straight through.

An end-user device requires a specific IP address every time it connects to the corporate network; however, corporate policy does not allow the use of static IP addresses. Which of the following will allow the request to be fulfilled without breaking the corporate policy? A. DHCP relay B. DHCP exclusion C. DHCP option D. DHCP reservation

D. DHCP reservation DHCP Servers support something called a "DHCP Reservation", which essentially allows you to provide a pre-set IP address to a specific client based on it's physical MAC address. This means that the device will always get the same IP address and it will never change (whereas they typically do on occasion.

Which of the following is used to classify network data for the purpose of providing QoS? A. STP B. VLANs C. SIP D. DSCP

D. DSCP DSCP is correct. The differentiated services code point is a 6-bit entry in an 8-bit differentiated services field in an IP header. This is used to classify data and help manage QoS in a network. STP is incorrect; Spanning Tree Protocol is used to provide loop avoidance. VLANs is incorrect; Virtual LANs classify and break up a network into distinct broadcast domains but do not classify the data. SIP is incorrect; Session Initiation Protocol is used to construct and deconstruct multimedia sessions.

Which of the following devices should a network administrator configure on the outermost part of the network? A. Media converter B. Switch C. Modem D. Firewall

D. Firewall Remember Outermost key word for firewall in CompTIA Network+

The server team has just installed an application across three different servers. They are asking that all requests to the application are spread evenly across the three servers. Which of the following should the network team implement to fulfil the request? A. Proxy server B. UTM appliance C. Content filter D. Load balancer

D. Load balancer Load balancing refers to the process of distributing a set of tasks over a set of resources, with the aim of making their overall processing more efficient. Load balancing can optimize the response time and avoid unevenly overloading some compute nodes while other compute nodes are left idle.

A network technician is implementing a solution on the network to hide the workstation internal IP addresses across a WAN. Which of the following is the technician configuring? A. QoS B. DMZ C. RIP D. NAT

D. NAT Network address translation (NAT), don't forget it makes private IP's into a pubic one (personal network to the internet). While Port address translation does very similar things, making private IP's into public IP's but with the help of ports.

An administrator is moving to a new office. There will be several network runs through the ceiling area of the office. Which of the following is the BEST to utilize in these areas? A. Single-mode fiber-optic cabling B. Cat 5e-rated cabling C. Cat 6-rated cabling D. Plenum-rated cabling

D. Plenum-rated cabling Plenum helps reduce the chances of people dying from toxic fumes when a building is burning down. If its going into the walls, use plenum.

A technician wants to prevent an unauthorized host from connecting to the network via Ethernet. Which of the following is a Layer 2 access control the technician should implement? A. Access control lists B. Captive portal C. WPA2 D. Port security

D. Port security Access control lists (ACLs) are used to prevent an unauthorized host from connecting to the network via Ethernet. Anyone can hook up their laptop to an open Ethernet port. Port Security (Layer 2) would only allow certain computers to connect via a given port. ACL is associated with Layer 3 of the OSI model. Therefore, answer is D.

An employee wishes to use a personal cell phone for work-related purposes, including storage of sensitive company data, during long business trips. Which of the following is needed to protect BOTH the employee and the company? A. An NDA ensuring work data stored on the personal phone remains confidential B. An AUP covering how a personal phone may be used for work matters C. A consent to monitoring policy covering company audits of the personal phone D. Real-time remote monitoring of the phone's activity and usage

D. Real-time remote monitoring of the phone's activity and usage Real-Time Remote Monitoring does NOT protect the employee nor the employer from how the personal phone is being 'used'. Furthermore, RTRM is NOT IN WRITING. The answer is B. An AUP covering how a personal phone may be used for work matters.

A network administrator needs to transmit traffic to geographically diverse sites to improve performance. Which of the following devices would BEST direct traffic to the remote sites? A. Hub B. Bridge C. Switch D. Router

D. Router

A network administrator configures an email server to use secure protocols. When the upgrade is completed, which of the following ports on the firewall should be configured to allow for connectivity? (Choose three.) A. TCP 25 B. TCP 110 C. TCP 143 D. TCP 995 E. TCP 587 F. TCP 993

D. TCP 995 E. TCP 587 F. TCP 993 995 is POP3 over SSL 587 is SMTP 993 is IMAP over SSL

A technician is trying to configure a previously owned WAP. The technician successfully logs into the administrative console and attempts to input the IP address on the WAP. However, the WAP is not accepting the command. Which of the following is causing the problem? A. The WAP antenna is damaged B. The WAP transmitter light is dim C. The terminal emulation software is misconfigured D. The LWAPP image is installed on the WAP

D. The LWAPP image is installed on the WAP When the LWAPP firmware is installed the only way for manage the AP is with Controller.

A small town is attempting to attract tourists who visit larger nearby cities. A network engineer is asked to implement a network encompassing the five-block town center and nearby businesses. The inclusion of smartphones and portable devices is crucial to the plan. Which of the following is the network engineer being asked to implement? A. LAN B. PAN C. MAN D. WAN

D. WAN LAN stands for local area network. It is a group of network devices that allow communication between various connected devices. Private ownership has control over the local area network rather than the public. LAN has a short propagation delay than MAN as well as WAN. It covers the smallest area such as colleges, schools, hospitals, and so on. MAN stands for metropolitan area network. It covers the largest area than LAN such as small towns, cities, etc. MAN connects two or more computers that reside within the same or completely different cities. MAN is expensive and should or might not be owned by one organization. WAN stands for wide area network. It covers a large area than LAN as well as a MAN such as country/continent etc. WAN is expensive and should or might not be owned by one organization. PSTN or satellite medium is used for wide area networks.

A customer is reporting difficulty connecting some devices after replacing a wireless router with a new wireless 802.11ac router. The SSID, encryption and password are the same as the previous router. A technician goes on-site and notices the devices that are no longer connecting appear to be several years ago. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A. the password needs to be re-entered. B. there is a security type mismatch. C. there is insufficient antenna power. D. there is a frequency mismatch. E. the channel has changed.

D. there is a frequency mismatch. Letter D cause 802.11ac utilizes 5 GHz and since it is already 'several' years. The devices that are connected to the replaced WAP are probably 802.11b/g compliant devices.

Bree has received a notification from one of the monitoring systems her company uses that one of the Internet interfaces is receiving a sudden influx of ICMP echo replies from a large number of external IP addresses. Which of the following is her company most likely facing? evil twin DDoS DNS poisoning ransomware

DDoS A Distributed Denial of Service, or DDoS, is a type of reflective attack where a large amount of traffic is targeted at a host or endpoint that tries to fill up the amount of bandwidth available on that interface. It can also be lesser amounts of traffic, but trying to fill up the available number of sessions for a particular service such as FTP where the server may only allow a given number of open connections at any given time.

Yvette wants to set up a wireless network for guests visiting her coffee shop. She doesn't want customers to have to manually configure their own IP addresses when joining the network. Which of the following options should she make use of on her wireless router? DHCP MIMO TTL STP

DHCP The dynamic host configuration protocol can be used to dynamically assign IP addresses to customers upon joining her wireless network.

Which of the following WAN technologies utilizes the concept of virtual circuits and point-multipoint connections? A. ISDN B. MPLS C. PRI D. Broadband cable E. Frame relay

E. Frame relay Answer is fram relay, remember to answer what comptia wants you to hear. When they talk about MPLS they will mention labels

Divya has just set up a new network segment with a dedicated subnet for a new department that is being created at her company. However, she wants to use an existing DHCP server to provide configuration information to the clients on this new subnet. Which of the following will she need to configure on the router in order to ensure that clients on the new network segment can be assigned an IP address by a DHCP server on a different network? DHCP Pool TTL DHCP Relay Reservations

DHCP Relay DHCP broadcasts only stay within a subnet or network when they are sent out, unless the router is configured with a DHCP relay setting to tell it to forward DHCP messages to another network or subnet. On Cisco devices, this is the IP helper-address.

Craig is looking for a piece of software that will scan outgoing e-mails to ensure that certain types of sensitive information are not being sent by employees to others outside of the organization. Which of the following might he include in his search terms when looking for an application capable of performing this task? DNS DAS DDN DLP

DLP Data Loss Prevention software can include a number of different features, including the ability to scan outgoing e-mails to ensure that sensitive data such as social security or credit card numbers are not being sent outside of the organization.

A network administrator wants to ensure sensitive data is not exfiltrated from the system electronically. Which of the following should be implemented? A. DLP B. AUP C. NDA D. SLA

DLP is the most correct solution. Data Loss Prevention can be a hardware or software solution that actively combs outbound traffic, including email, for sensitive data and stops any violating traffic. AUP is incorrect; while an acceptable use policy would strongly deter would-be leakers, it does not do so outright. NDA is incorrect. A non-disclosure agreement would legally prohibit internal staff from divulging sensitive information it does not do so outright, legal interventions aside. SLA is incorrect. A service level agreement is a contract between a service provider and client on what each party expects from the other (money for Internet access and tech support, mean time between failures, expected downtime, etc.)

Fictional Corp has a VPN that connects multiple branch offices to their main headquarters building in Atlanta to provide for encrypted communications between them. It is looking at implementing a configuration that would tell the branch office in Seattle, Washington to communicate directly with the branch office in Portland, Oregon rather than route all of the traffic through HQ. Which of the following technologies are they looking at implementing? PPPoE DMVPN 3 Point VPN VPNR

DMVPN A dynamic multipoint virtual private network can be used to tell two remote offices to establish a direct link between themselves rather than routing all of the traffic through one location.

Kay has just created a lightly protected network that is situated between the Internet and her company's internal network for the e-mail and web servers that should be accessible by both internal and external users. Which of the following terms describe this new network? honeynet VLAN social network DMZ

DMZ A DMZ, or demilitarized zone, is a lightly protected network or subnet that is situated between the Internet and a company's internal network. It can communicate with devices on either side of it and allow limited amounts of traffic through both firewalls to the internal network only when necessary.

Henry is a network administrator at Fictional Corp. He has implemented a separate lightly protected subnet located at the perimeter of the company's network in which he has placed the company's web and e-mail servers. Which of the following terms best describes this separate network? DAS NAT DNS DMZ

DMZ A DMZ, or demilitarized zone, is a lightly protected subnet located at the edge of the company's network that is lightly protected for systems that need to be able to communicate directly with the Internet and other internal systems.

Brittany tries to open her company's intranet site in her web browser but gets an error message instead of being able to visit the site. She then puts the site's IP address into the browser and it comes up fine. Which of the following is most likely the issue causing her to not be able to pull up the intranet site? STP DNS NTP ARP

DNS DNS, or the domain name system, is used to resolve a domain name to an IP address. If she has an invalid DNS server configured or the DNS server is currently having issues, then a web browser would display an error message instead of the website that she is trying to reach.

Sidney is receiving reports that users are having trouble connecting to her company's FTP server. She verifies that she is unable to connect as well and decides to open up a packet sniffer to determine what is going on. She sees a number of packets going to the FTP server where the SYN flag is set and a number of replies from that server where the SYN and ACK flags have been set. However, she doesn't see a final ACK being sent by the original source IP address. Which of the following describes the situation that Sidney has discovered? spoofing DoS evil twin man-in-the-midde attack

DoS Sarah has most likely discovered a denial of service attack in progress. In this case, the attacker is taking advantage of the process by which the 3-way handshake is made for TCP connections. The SYN flag is set on the original packet sent by the attacker, which the server acknowledges by setting the SYN and ACK flags for the response. In a normal connection, the client will then set the ACK flag to acknowledge that it received the server's acknowledgement and they will then begin communicating. In this form of denial of service attack, the third part of the handshake is never sent, which means the connection will be left half-open on the server's end until it times out waiting for the acknowledgement.

Which of the following is the last step in the CompTIA troubleshooting model? Document findings, actions, and outcomes Identify the problem. Implement the solution Verify full system functionality

Document findings, actions, and outcomes After a problem has been corrected and full system functionality has been tested to ensure that there are no remaining issues, a technician should always document what they found and what actioins they took to resolve the issue.

An engineer is reviewing the implementation requirements for an upcoming project. The basic requirements identified by the customer include the following: WLAN architecture supporting speeds in excess of 150 Mbps Clientless remote network access Port-based network access controlWhich of the following solution sets properly addresses all of the identified requirements? A. 802.11a, IPSec VPN, 802.1x B. 802.11ac, MPLS, 802.3 C. 802.11b, PPTP, 802.1x D. 802.11g, MS-CHAP, 802.16 E. 802.11n, SSL-VPN, 802.1x

E. 802.11n, SSL-VPN, 802.1x Key phrase "clientless remote network access". SSL-VPN can be done through a browser whereas VPN with IPSEC requires a VPN client to be installed on the computer

An analyst is developing a proof of concept of a wireless-based attack as part of a penetration test against an organization's network. As part of the attack, the analyst launches a fake access point matching the SSID of the organization's guest access network. When a user connects to the fake access point, the analyst allows the traffic to flow through the access point to the legitimate site while the data traversing the network is logged for latest analysis and exploitation. Which of the following attacks has the analyst successfully performed in this scenario? A. Bluesnarfing B. Session hijacking C. MAC spoofing D. VLAN hopping E. Man-in-the-middle

E. Man-in-the-middle The analyst also created an Evil Twin

Theo needs to run an ethernet cable through the basement of the building past the elevator. Which of the following might be a reason that he would choose to use STP for this run? RFI Crosstalk Attenuation EMI

EMI If the elevator has strong magnets as part of the motors that make it work, then those motors could be creating electromagnetic interference, or EMI. In order to reduce the amount of EMI, Theo may choose to use shielded twisted pair for this run of cabling.

Evan has just identified a problem in his company's network. According to the troubleshooting model, which of the following should he do next? Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects Verify full system functionality Establish a theory of probable cause Implement the solution

Establish a theory of probable cause The CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting model contains seven steps. After identifying the problem, Evan should establish a theory of probable cause to consider what might be causing the problem that he has identified.

Which of the following is the type of connector that would be used on the coaxial cable that should screw onto the cable modem? RJ-11 F RJ-45 LC

F An F connector can come in screw on or push on formats and is used on coaxial cables from the cable company to connect to a cable modem.

Barry is wanting to implement a method by which remote sales representatives for his company can upload documents related to the customers that they are placing orders for. He needs the connection to be encrypted and secure and wants to use certificates to do so. Which of the following technologies might he implement? Telnet TFTP FTPS FTP

FTPS File Transfer Protocol Secured makes use of certificates with SSL/TLS to encrypt traffic between an end user and the server. FTP and TFTP are file transfer protocols that are not encrypted. Telnet is a remote terminal protocol and is not used to transfer files, nor is it secure.

Which of the following technologies uses packet switching to deliver traffic between various endpoints in wide area networks? EIGRP RIPv2 Frame Relay ATM

Frame Relay Frame relay is a packet switching technology that can be used to deliver packets between endpoints in a WAN. ATM is a cell switching technology, and the other two options are interior routing protocols.

Britt is responsible for managing a system that has a web application for its management interface. Which of the following methods should she use to connect to this management application? SSH HTTP HTTPS RDP

HTTPS Since the scenario mentions that this is a web application, we know that she needs to use either HTTP or HTTPS. Since this is a management application, there is most likely a form of authentication that she will need to go through in order to use the application and thus would need to use HTTPS to securely transmit her credentials.

Jake has just come back from a security conference where he learned about a technology where he could deploy multiple devices around the network that would analyze communications and alert administrators if suspicious traffic is found. Unfortunately, it would not attempt to stop the suspicious traffic. Which of the following types of devices describes the technology that he learned about? VoIP gateway VPN Concentrator IDS IPS

IDS An intrusion detection system will detect suspicious traffic that may be an intrusion, log the event, and alert the administrators. However, it will not attempt to stop the traffic.

Danielle wants to install a device on her company's network that will detect a possible breach and attempt to stop the breach so that the attacker cannot do any more damage. Which of the following devices might she be looking to install? IPS IDS load balancer proxy server

IPS An intrustion prevention system (also known as an intrusion protection system) will detect intrusions, log the event, alert administrators, and attempt to stop the suspicious traffic.

Eva works in the support department and has received a ticket that indicates that a user may have a virus. She pulls up a search engine to determine how best to deal with the user's issue, as the organization lacks any sort of policy defining the steps that she should take. Which of the following might the organization want to consider implementing so that there is a uniform process by which the support team can deal with these cases? UDP NTP DRP IRP

IRP An incident response policy would define how a variety of different types of incidents can be handled and dealt with when they occur and is a good idea to have in place within organizations that have an IT department. A disaster recovery plan is also a good idea, but a virus is typically considered an incident, not a disaster.

Fictional Corp wants to migrate some of the servers in their data center to virtual machines residing on a cloud service provider. Which of the following services are they looking to use? PaaS DRaaS IaaS SaaS

IaaS Infrastructure as a Service is where the cloud service provider allows customers to provision hardware resources for use by virtual machines where the customer has complete control over the operating system, patches, and software installed on them.

Which of the following is the first step in the CompTIA troubleshooting model? Identify the problem Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects Implement the solution Establish a theory of probable cause

Identify the problem The first step in the CompTIA troubleshooting model is to identify the problem. During this step, you should gather information, try to duplicate the problem, question users, identify the symptooms, determine if anything has changed, and approach multiple problems individually.

Which of the following technologies is used for a data interconnect between various systems that is commonly used in supercomputers and features very high throughput with very low latency? PRI Infiniband Smart jack Jumbo Frame

Infiniband Infiniband is a communications standard that provides very high throughput and very low latency. It can be used as an interconnect between storage systems or between storage systems and servers. It is commonly used in the supercomputer world.

A network technician has implemented ACLs to limit access to cloud-based file storage. Which of the following security mechanisms has the technician enforced? A. DLP B. IDS C. WAF D. WPA E. TPM

It is WAF because the technician wants to limit access to the cloud which is possible by using WAF since it can decrypt whats going out and permit/deny the packets.

Which of the following might be a problem with installing only one UTM on a network? It cannot scan e-mails. It is a single point of failure. It lacks antivirus capabilities. If it is not open source, it cannot be trusted.

It is a single point of failure. If there is only one unified threat management device on a network, and all traffic must pass through this device, it would be a single point of failure. In other workds, if this device stops working, then no traffic would be able to go from one side of it to the other and vice versa.

Jan is trying to access her e-mail through her web browser while she is out of town at an industry conference. Which of the following ports is her computer most likely using for this connection? 110 443 80 143 25

Jan should be using HTTPS to access her e-mail through a web browser, which uses port 443. Port 25 is used by SMTP to send e-mail when using an e-mail client installed on a computer. Ports 110 and 143 are used by POP3 and IMAP to retrieve e-mail by an e-mail client installed on a computer. Port 80 is used by HTTP in the web browser, but is not encrypted and secure. Because she is accessing e-mail which requires logging in with a username and password and that could contain confidential and proprietary information, she should be using HTTPS for the website to access her e-mail.

Which of the following describes a layer 2 PDU that can have a maximum size of 9000 bytes? giant frame baby giant frame jumbo frame baby jumbo frame

Jumbo Frame A jumbo frame is generally considered to be a frame with a payload of up to 9,000 bytes. Super jumbo frames can have a payload size over 9,000 bytes.

Which of the following protocols uses a ticket granting ticket as part of the authentication process? Kerberos RADIUS TACACS+ Certificates

Kerberos Kerberos uses a series of tickets to authenticate and validate users on a network rather than sending a password over the network.

A network technician is connecting two switches together. Which of the following protocols should the technician use to increase speed and fault tolerance? A. SIP B. BGP C. LACP D. LLDP

LACP is the most correct answer. Link Aggregation Control Protocol can combine multiple physical ports together to make a single local channel. It allows for both redundancy and load balancing. SIP is incorrect; Session Initiation Protocol is for establishing multimedia connections and would have no impact on speed or fault tolerance. BGP is incorrect; Border Gateway Protocol is meant for linking routers and would be inappropriate to resolve the needs outlined here. LLDP is incorrect; Link Layer Discovery Protocol is used in local Ethernet networks for advertising device identity, capability, and neighbours, defined in 802.1AB.

Fictional Corp wants to install a physical security device that will require an employee to use the something you have authentication factor. Which of the following might they choose to implement? (Choose two.) handprint geometry scanner locks retinal scanner key fobs

Locks and key fobs A lock on the door would require someone to have a key, while key fobs would be used with a proximity reader to determine which employee is attempting to gain access. Both the handprint geometry scanner and retinal scanner are considered part of the something you are authentication factor.

Which of the following terms can be used to describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? Class C Public Loopback APIPA

Loopback The IP address 127.0.0.1 is used for a loopback interface on devices and is not publicly accessible.

Penny wants to ensure that only certain devices are allowed on her company's wireless network. She makes a list of all of the hardware device addresses and adds them to a whitelist on the wireless access point. Which of the following has Penny implemented? LDAP SSO kerberos MAC filtering

MAC filtering A MAC (media access control) address is a 48 bit hardware address that is burned into the chipset of a network device. MAC filtering is the idea that you can create a list of addresses that are allowed and all other addresses (and thus network devices) will be denied and blocked.

Grant is a network administrator for a cellular phone company. He has implemented a service offering from a local ISP that is able to connect all of the retail stores in the city area where he works as a trial before expanding to other major cities. Which of the following types of networks has he implemented? CAN WAN MAN LAN

MAN A metropolitan area network can connect multiple offices in a city or metropolitan area together through a service provider's network so that they all appear to be on the same network.

Helen has been asked to go to the room in the corporate office where the cabling comes in from the service provider and is connected to the rest of the internal network. Which of the following is the term that might describe this room? IDF OOF NDF MDF

MDF The main distribution frame, or MDF, is a room where the outside cabling from a service provider connects to the rest of the equipment for an internal network.

Which of the following is used with SNMP to define the list of capabilities or objects of a device managed by the protocol? MIB COOP SLA DRP

MIB According to Cisco, "A management information base is a collection of definitions of the properties of each managed object within a managed device. Each managed device keeps a corresponding database of values for each of the definitions written in the MIB."

Which of the following terms describes a technology that can be implemented on wireless routers by using multiple antennas? CDMA GSM TDMA MIMO

MIMO MIMO, or multiple-input and multiple-output, is a technology that makes use of multiple antennas to exploit multipath propagation.

Curly is reviewing reports about the various components in his organization to determine how often they are failing and requiring replacement. Which of the following might tell him the average amount of time that elapses between incidents? ARP TCO MTTR MTBF

MTBF The mean time between failures is the average amount of time between incidents where a component fails. The mean time to recovery describes the average amount of time that it takes to recover from an incident. The total cost of ownership is how much a particular device or service costs to deliver inclusive of licenses and support costs. The address resolution protocol resolves an IPv4 address to a MAC address.

Which of the following are types of fiber connectors? (Choose all that apply) MTRJ DB-9 LC ST DB-25 RJ-45

MTRJ, LC, ST MTRJ is a mechanical transfer registered jack. LC is Lucent Connector, Little Connector, or Local Connector. ST is Straight Tip. These are the three valid types of fiber optic connectors.

Talia is analyzing some of the metrics that her company uses to determine whether they are operating within their SLAs. One of the terms she sees describes the average amount of time that it should take to have a system fully operational after a failure. Which of the following terms did she most likely see? MTTR TCO ARP MTBF

MTTR Mean time to recovery (or mean time to repair) is the average amount of time it takes to repair or restore a system to operation after a failure. Mean time between failures is the average amount of time between failures of a component. Total cost of ownership is the total cost of a system including any licensing, equipment, software, or other ancillary costs. The address resolution protocol resolves an IP address to a MAC address.

Andrew has set up a secondary e-mail server for his organization. He needs to create a record with a higher priority value than the existing servers. Which of the following types of records does he need to create? CNAME MX A AAAA

MX A mail exchanger, or MX, record uses a priority field to determine the order or priority of mail servers to use.

Mary has configured a new technology on her network where a computer will use an installed agent to check that the patch level of the computer is up to date. If the computer is not up to date, it will be quarantined to a separate network until it has updated to the required patch level. Which of the following has Mary implemented? MAC NAC NTP DRP

NAC Network Access Control is a technology that will require health checks to be run by using an agent on computers within an organization. If certain requirements are not met, such as not having the latest patches or antivirus definitions installed, the computer will be put onto a separate VLAN or subnet where it can download and install the necessary updates.

Natalie is looking to implement a storage solution for a branch office at her company and has found a device that contains four hard drives and will connect directly to the network that appears to meet the requirements. Which of the following is she most likely looking at purchasing? SaaS NAS DAS SAN

NAS Network Attached Storage describes a device that provides storage capabilities that can be attached directly to a network, allowing users to store and share files easily.

Fictional Corp is a startup company that is currently seeking venture capital. Because they have developed a proprietary methodology and algorithm that is the core of their product, they have asked potential investors to sign which of the following before discussing the details of how their product works? AUP SLA NDA AAA

NDA A non-disclosure agreement is a document that companies may require employees or business partners to sign stating that they will not disclose any confidential or proprietary information that they learn while doing business with the company to others outside of the organization.

Kevin is installing a new device in front of the company's web server that will provide capabilities such as deep packet inspection and has the capabilities of inspecting TLS/SSL encrypted traffic. Which of the following is Kevin installing? UTM NGFW VPN Concentrator ILE

NGFW A next generation firewall, or NGFW, is a device that can provide advanced filtering to better protect systems from a variety of types of attacks.

Harold wants to ensure that all of the servers within the data center have the exact same time. Which of the following might he want to implement? NTP TTL STP FTP

NTP The network time protocol can be used to synchronize time between devices on a network.

Patricia notices that the time on her desk phone and on her computer are off by a couple of minutes from each other. Which of the following services might be blocked by a firewall causing this isssue? DNS STP NTP ARP

NTP The network time protocol is used to sync the time between various devices. If it is being blocked at the firewall in front of one of the VoIP-related servers, it is possible that the phones may show a different time than the computers as the phones will not sync to whatever time server they should.

Which of the following is an example of a link-state routing protocol that a company might use for its internal routers? OSPF EIGRP BGP RIP

OSPF OSPF, or Open Shortest Path First, is a link-state routing protocol that can be used on routers to be able to share and update their routing tables with information about other networks handled by other routers within the organization. BGP, or the Border Gateway Protocol, is an exterior protocol so we can eliminate that one. RIP is a distance-vector routing protocol and EIGRP is a hybrid or advanced distance-vector routing protocol.

Penny works for a major telecom and has received word that one of the fiber runs between two locations appears to have just gone down. Which of the following tools might she use to determine approximately how far down the fiber there might be a cut or a break? multimeter OTDR crimper punchdown tool

OTDR An optical time domain reflectometer can be used to shoot a laser down a strand of fiber and analyze how far the light is able to travel before reaching a cut or break in the cable.

Mary is about to start working from home. Which of the following will allow her to use multiple devices or computers on her home network without requiring more than one IP address from her Internet service provider? SIP PPP STP PAT

PAT Port address translation is typically used on home and SOHO routers where only one IP address is assigned by the Internet service provider. It is able to translate between multiple internal IP addresses and the single external IP address assigned by the ISP.

A firewall administrator is implementing a rule that directs HTTP traffic to an internal server listening on a non-standard socket. Which of the following types of rules is the administrator implementing? A. NAT B. PAT C. STP D. SNAT E. ARP

PAT Static Network Address Translation (SNAT) would be used to translate from one address to another. The question asks how to convert from one port to another; this is called Port Address Translation (PAT)

Which of the following technologies is commonly used by DSL? PPPoE SLIP SIP MPLS

PPPoE Point to Point Protocol over Ethernet is commonly used by DSL to provide Internet access by local telephone companies.

Perry's favorite coffee shop has the Wi-Fi network password posted beneath the cash register so that customers can use the Internet while sitting down and enjoying their beverages and snacks. Which of the following is the coffee shop using as part of their configuration? WPS SHA PSK CCMP

PSK If the Wi-Fi password is the same for everyone, the coffee shop is using a pre-shared key, or PSK, for the configuration of their wireless network.

Thomas is developing a new application and needs a database for the backend. He doesn't want to manage the patching of the operating system. Which of the following cloud service types might he choose? IaaS SaaS MaaS PaaS

PaaS Platform as a Service can be used to provision a database without having the responsibility of managing the database server itself.

oe is comparing multiple cloud service providers to determine which of them would be best to host the company's new web server at using shared hardware. Which of the following describes the cloud service model that she is looking at using for this scenario? Hybrid Public Private Community

Public A public cloud is available for multiple customers to use by sharing hardware and other resources between its customers.

Tony has recently examined the bandwidth usage at his company after receiving reports that during times of heavy usage some of the VoIP traffic is getting dropped. Which of the following technologies might he consider implementing in order to try and resolve the issue? QoS UDP POE TCP

QoS Quality of Service can help prioritize certain types of traffic over others so that the more important traffic that relies on real-time communications, such as voice over IP, can arrive in a timely manner.

Which of the following common authentication protocols may be used as part of 802.1x in a WPA2-enterprise configuration? TACACS+ RADIUS SSO TLS

RADIUS RADIUS is commonly used in wireless networks as part of an 802.1x configuration to authenticate users against a centralized authentication system or user directory.

Emily has been tasked with deploying Wi-Fi throughout her company's office. She knows that using a pre-shared key wouldn't make much sense for the number of users expected and has decided to use WPA2-Enterprise. Which of the following protocols might she use to communicate with the authentication server to authenticate a user's identity? RADIUS UTM SIP NTP

RADIUS The remote authentication dial-in user service, or RADIUS, protocol provides a method by which Emily can implement authentication when using WPA2-Enterprise mode, or 802.1x, on a wireless router or access point.

Rachel wants to connect to one of the Windows servers at her company to install a new piece of software. Which of the following methods is she most likely to use to perform this task? SSH Telnet RDP SFTP

RDP Microsoft's Remote Desktop Protocol is a commonly used secure protocol for Windows servers to connect and administer them remotely. SSH is typically used with Linux and UNIX servers and provides encryption, which makes it secure as well. Telnet has largely been replaced by SSH as the Telnet protocol does not provide any encryption. SFTP can be used to transfer files, but would not allow Rachel to install anything. As well, she would most likely use a different method of copying the files to the server than SFTP which is more commonly used with Linux and UNIX servers.

Which of the following protocols runs on port 3389? SNMP TFTP RDP FTPS

RDP Microsoft's Remote Desktop Protocol runs on port 3389. SNMP runs on port 161, TFTP on 69, and FTPS on 989 and 990.

Gary has installed a new system in the company's warehouse that requires tags to be attached to all of the pallets of products coming in so that inventory can be easily tracked within the warehouse as well as when it leaves to go to one of the company's many stores. Which of the following technologies did Gary most likely implement? MAN IR NFC RFID

RFID RFID tags are commonly used in big warehouses to track inventory and products as they come in and leave.

Which of the following would be considered multifactor authentication? facial recognition and fingerprint reader RFID badge and PIN PIN and password key fob and smart card

RFID badge and PIN Multifactor authentication is when you are using at least one form of two or more different factors of authentication. In this case, an RFID badge is something you have and a PIN is something you know.

Which of the following is a type of coaxial cable that might be run from the demarcation point outside of a building to where the cable modem is located? Category 6a BNC STP RG-6

RG-6 RG-6 is a type of coaxial cable that is used with F connectors on the ends to connect a cable modem to the demarcation point and then from the demarcation point to the tap of the cable system.

A device operating at Layer 3 of the OSI model uses which of the following protocols to determine the path to a different network? A. STP B. RTP C. RIP D. NTP E. SIP

RIP RIP is the most correct answer. Routing Information Protocol is used at the Network layer to determine the next hop for a travelling packet. STP is incorrect; Spanning Tree Protocol is a Data Link layer protocol. RTP is incorrect; Remote Desktop Protocol is an Application layer protocol and has no bearing on where data routes to. NTP is incorrect; Network Time Protocol is not relevant to routing in this context. SIP is incorrect; Session Initiation Protocol is an Application layer protocol designed to establish connections for multimedia communication sessions.

Which of the following is the type of connector that would be used on a standard telephone line to connect to a DSL modem? RJ-45 BNC RJ-11 LC

RJ-11 An RJ-11 connector is used on standard telephone lines and is what would plug into a DSL modem.

Which of the following is the type of connector that would be used on a gigabit ethernet cable? LC BNC RJ-11 RJ-45

RJ-45 An RJ-45 connector is used on gigabit and other modern ethernet cables.

Carrie has just installed a new intranet server at her company and has configured it to use DHCP. However, she wants the server to always receive the same IP address. Which of the following can she configure on the DHCP server to make sure this happens? DHCP Pool DHCP Relay TTL Reservation

Reservation A reservation can be configured on a DHCP server with the server's MAC address so that any request for an IP address from a client with that MAC address (which should only be that server) will always be assigned whatever the IP address is that it should receive.

Jill is setting up a new storage solution at her company using Fibre Channel along with host bus adapters. Which of the following is the most likely storage solution that she is installing? SAN DAS NAS SaaS

SAN A storage area network can be designed using multiple technologies. One of these is Fibre Channel using host bus adapters to connect to the network.

Which of the following is a tool that can be used to transfer files securely to a Linux server over the SSH protocol? SFTP RDP FTPS TFTP

SFTP The secure file transfer protocol, or SFTP, works over SSH on port 22. While FTPS is a secure method of transferring files, it works with SSL/TLS instead of over SSH. TFTP is insecure, and while RDP will allow you to transfer files to the remote system, it does not do so over SSH.

Janet wants to ensure that a file she downloaded was transmitted successfully without any errors. Which of the following could she use to verify this? (Choose two.) AES TLS MD5 SHA

SHA and MD5 SHA and MD5 are hashing algorithms. She could use a program to create a hash of the file on the remote system (or some websites will list the hash if it's posted publicly) and then use a program to create a hash of the file she downloaded. If the hashes match, it's likely that the file transmitted successfully without any errors.

Dima has just returned from a security conference where he learned about a platform that can collect logs, analyze them, and alert him to security related issues and data breaches. Which of the following terms might he use in a search engine to look for more products of this type? SAN cluster MIB SIEM

SIEM A security information and event management platform can collect log files from various sources, analyze and correlate events, and alert administrators to potential data breaches or intrusions.

Breanna is developing a new system and needs to ensure that it adheres to a list of guarantees that the company is providing to its customers. Which of the following describes the document she is most likely referencing? ISO SLA NDA HIPPA

SLA A service-level agreement, or SLA, is a document that outlines the level of service that a service provider is guaranteeing to its customers, whether internal or external. ISO is the International Organization for Standardization, not a document or guarantee. HIPPA is the health insurance portability and accountability act which guarantees the privacy of patient data in the health care systems in the US. A non-disclosure agreement, or NDA, is an agreement signed by employees or business associates stating that they will not divulge confidential or proprietary informaton they learn about in their dealings with a company outside of the organization.

Terrance is using a Wi-Fi analyzer to perform a site survey of his company's office. While in an area close to some industrial equipment, he notices there appears to be a metric that is affected by some interference presumably from that equipment. Which of the following metrics is he most likely looking at? TTL SNR STP DNS

SNR The signal-to-noise ratio is expressed as a number that describes the signal level compared to any noise in that particular frequency that can interfere with the signal. As there is more noise within a frequency, the signal gets harder to detect and can result in slow speeds or disconnections.

Teddy has been assigned a new responsibility that used to belong to someone else. He is given a document with a list of instructions on how to operate the service and what needs to be done on a regular basis to maintain it. Which of the following might be the best term to describe the type of document he was given? SLA NDA OLA SOP

SOP Standard operating procedures, or SOP, are instructions on the processes necessary to deliver and maintain a service or system within an organization. It should include step-by-step instructions to be followed to properly perform whatever tasks are necessary.

Paris needs to securely log into one of the Linux machines that is running as a virtual machine on the cloud provider that her company uses. Which of the following might she use to do this? RDP Telnet SSH TFTP

SSH SSH is the only option that provides encryption and is used with the Linux operating system. RDP includes encryption as well, but is a Microsoft protocol used with the Windows operating system.

Sheila has configured one of the wireless networks with her office to not broadcast the name of the network, which means that it must be manually typed in to any devices in order for them to join that network. Which of the following fields does she need to configure on those devices? VLAN ID SSID CCMP TKIP

SSID The service set idenifier, or SSID, is the name of a network and can be set to broadcast so that clients can easily find it or not broadcast so that clients have to manually type it into their devices.

Carl wants to implement a form of authentication in a new web application that he is developing that will detect which user is logged into the computer attempting to access it rather than having to store usernames and passwords for individual users. Which of te following could this be considered? SSO TACACS+ STP LDAP

SSO Single sign-on, or SSO, is when a user only needs to log in one time in order to access a number of different resources. Those resources rely on the primary or initial login to verify the user and trust that it has verified the user correctly.

Which of the following types of copper ethernet cabling might a technician use for a run that goes past several large industrial motors? UTP coaxial STP Multimode fiber

STP Shielded Twisted Pair is used in scenarios where there may be EMI, or electromagnetic interference, such as what may be emitted from the strong magnets used in industrial electrical motors.

Amir has connected two ethernet cables between two of the switches in his organization in an attempt to double the bandwidth between the switches. However, he has not yet configured an etherchannel or port aggregation on the switches so that they know that the two cables should be bonded together to work as one. Which of the following will prevent broadcast frames from being bounced back and forth between the two switches and causing traffic to come to a crawl or a halt? OSPF RIP TTL STP

STP The spanning tree protocol is used in layer 2 switching to prevent switching loops. Switches do not use the TTL (time-to-liive) field of packets to prevent an infinite loop. They also do not make use of the RIP or OSPF routing protocols.

Greg has plugged two ethernet cables into one switch and the other ends of those two cables into another switch with the goal of increasing the amount of traffic that can be sent between the two switches. However, he doesn't configure any technologies that would allow them to work together and finds that only one of the cables is currently transmitting data after reviewing the status of the ports on the switches. Which of the following has most likely been implemented on the switch in order to prevent switching loops? SSH DMZ PPP STP

STP The spanning tree protocol, or STP, is used to prevent switching loops so that a frame cannnot indefinitely be sent around a network. Remember that switches do not use the TTL field to count down the number of hops like routers do.

Fictional Corp is looking to outsource their e-mail to a cloud provider where their users will be able to access their e-mail through a web browser. Which of the following describes the type of service which they are looking at using? IaaS SaaS PaaS MaaS

SaaS Since the question describes a service that will be accessed through the web browser, this is Software as a Service.

Which of the following data services provides a speed of 44.7 Mbps? T3 T1 E3 E1

T3 A T3 has an approximate speed of 44.736 Mbps, which rounds down to 44.7.

Which of the following is the wiring standard that is ordered as follows from pin 1 through 8: orange-white, orange, green-white, blue, blue-white, green, brown-white, brown? STP T568A UTP T568B

T568B T568B is the wiring standard defined by the TIA/EIA that describes the ordered colors as given. STP is shielded twisted pair and UTP is unshielded twisted pair, which the standard can be used with, but they are not the actual standard that is asked for in the question.

Which of the following is a protocol developed by Cisco that may be used for validating credentials between routers and switches on a network? RIP OSPF TACACS+ RADIUS

TACACS+ TACACS+ is a Cisco developed protocol that is used for authentication between network devices. RADIUS is an authentication protocol, but was not developed by Cisco. OSPF and RIP are routing protocols.

Grant manages a VoIP system that downloads the image to be used on a VoIP desk phone from an image server using UDP. Which of the following is the most common method used in this implementation? FTP TFTP SFTP FTPS

TFTP TFTP is commonly used in VoIP systems for desk phones to download an image to use for the device and is the only option listed that uses UDP transmissions.

Which of the following is an RC4 based form of encryption used with wireless networks? SHA TKIP MD5 CCMP

TKIP TKIP, or the temporal key integrity protocol, uses RC4 for its encryption. CCMP is an AES-based encryption method. MD5 and SHA are both hashing algorithms.

Which of the following protocols should rarely, if ever, be used anymore due to security concerns? RDP Telnet SSH SFTP

Telnet Telnet is the only option listed that does not include encryption among its features and has been largely deprecated within the IT community. While at one time it served its purpose, security should be included as part of the design of systems and not regarded as an afterthought.

Allie has received a trouble ticket about an issue that a user is having. She establishes a theory of what the cause might be. Which of the following is the next thing Allie should do according to the CompTIA troubleshooting model? Test the theory to determine the cause Identify the problem Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects Implement the solution

Test the theory to determine the cause Once you have established a theory of probable cause, the next step in the CompTIA troubleshooting model is to test the theory to determine the cause. After that, you should establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, implement the solution or escalate as necessary, verify full system functionality, and then document the findings.

Joy is attempting to access one of her favorite websites, but upon trying to go to the site she gets a bright red warning message in the browser stating that the site cannot be trusted due to the security certificate. Which of the following is most likely the cause? The SSL/TLS certificate has expired The SSL/TLS certificate was not registered with IANA. The SSL/TLS certificate has reached the maximum number of allowed connections. The SSL/TLS certificate has been installed on too many servers.

The SSL/TLS certificate has expired SSL/TLS certificates have two date fields that define when the certificate is valid from and when the certificate is valid through. If the current date is outside of that range, users attempting to access a site using that certificate will get a warning message that the site cannot be trusted. Certificates do not have a maximum number of connections or servers they can be installed on, nor are they registered with IANA.

Fictional Corp uses a web-based application as a tool to manage its internal projects. A user calls the support desk reporting an error message stating that no more users are allowed to log in. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this error? The bandwidth usage to that server has reached capacity. The DNS entries for the server have been corrupted. There are not enough licenses for more users to log in concurrently. The NIC on the server has failed.

There are not enough licenses for more users to log in concurrently. If the bandwidth was saturated, DNS entries were corrupted, or the NIC had failed, the users would not be receiving an error message from the application. Instead, they would get error messages that the server cannot be reached. If the application has no more licenses available because the maximum number of concurrent users have logged in already, it is likely that any further attempts to log in will result in an error message stating that nobody else is allowed to log in.

Fictional Corp performs a test once per month to ensure that the backup generators kick in if power is lost to one of their new buildings. When the test is performed, the building loses power for several seconds before the generator starts providing power. Which of the following components might they have forgotten to include in their design? UPS POP PPP MTBF

UPS Generators can take several seconds to start providing power in the event of a power failure from the grid. In situations where you need continuous power, an uninterruptible power supply, or UPS, is necessary to provide power during the gap from power loss to the generator providing backup power.

Grace has just returned from a security conference where she learned about a device that can provide a number of security related tasks for her organization such as spam filtering, antivirus, firewall, and IPS capabilities. Which of the following most likely describes the device she leaned about? bridge WAP UTM proxy server

UTM A UTM, or unified threat management, device can be installed on a network to provide multiple security features in a single solution.

Which of the following is a valid type of cabling that can be used with 1000Base-T? coaxial single-mode fiber UTP multimode fiber

UTP The T in 1000Base-T describes the type of media used. T is used for twisted pairs of copper, while F is used for fiber. There are also a few other designations for specific types of fiber.

Sergei notices that the HR and Customer Service departments are all on the same subnetwork without any controls between them. He decides that he wants to split the two departments into two separate subnets to improve upon the network's security design. Which of the following could Sergei implement in order to make this happen? VLAN BPDU guard honeynet DMZ

VLAN A virtual local area network, or VLAN, is a method of splitting up a network into two separate virtual networks and allows packets on those separate networks to communicate across the same network switch while remaining separate. When using VLANs, packets have a header field containing the VLAN ID that distinguishes them from each other and the switch knows which ports are on which VLANS so that devices on one VLAN cannot communicate with devices on another VLAN without a router or layer 3 switch.

Which of the following is a cross-platform graphical tool that can be used to administer computers remotely? SSH RDP VNC Telnet

VNC Virtual Network Computing, or VNC, can be used on a variety of platforms to connect to a computer with a graphical user interface and allow administration and maintenance tasks to be performed. Microsoft's Remote Desktop Protocol, or RDP, does have a client for other platforms to use to connect to WIndows systems, but does not allow users to connect to other platforms besides Windows with it. The other two options - SSH and Telnet - are both terminal (command-line) options that do not have a GUI.

Theo has been tasked with installing a new device in his company's data center that can handle large volumes of VPN connections and will allow a number of people to start telecommuting and working from home. Which of the following has he been asked to install? VPN Aggregator VPN Endpoint VPN Terminal VPN Concentrator

VPN Concentrator A VPN concentrator is a device that can handle a large number of VPN connections and is typically installed in a data center or office where there is plenty of available bandwidth to be able to support the necessary number of connections.

Robby is working on converting the company's telephone system to use Voice over IP. Which of the following devices will connect to both the IP network as well as the PSTN? VoIP concentrator VoIP gateway VoIP proxy server VoIP PBX

VoIP gateway A VoIP gateway connects to both the IP network for data communications as well as to the public switched telephone network, or PSTN.

Which of the following types of devices can be used to provide wireless access to an existing ethernet network? bridge modem repeater WAP

WAP A wireless access point typically has one ethernet port and is used to connect to an existing wired network. It then provides wireless access to the wired network.

Which of the following is a legacy method of encryption for wireless networks that should no longer be used if at all possible? WPA WPS WPA2 WEP

WEP WEP (Wired Equivalent for Privacy) is the first method of encryption developed for Wi-Fi networks when they were first becoming popular. However, because of its weak initialization vector, it is highly recommended that you do not use WEP anymore and instead use WPA2.

Which of the following is the strongest form of encryption that can be used on WiFi networks to allow a device to communicate on it? WPS WPA2 WEP WPA

WPA2 WPA2 uses CCMP to protect the communications being sent over RF between a client and the wireless access point. It is the strongest form of encryption publicly available on the market at the time of this writing. WEP is an outdated legacy protocol that is very weak and should no longer be used in a WiFi network. WPA is an improvement, but still not as strong as WPA2. WiFi Protected Setup also has an extremely weak form of protection and should be disabled.

Jeffrey is developing a plan to deal with the lifecycle of the servers in the company's datacenter. Which of the following might be part of this plan? password policy remote access policy NDA asset disposal

asset disposal Asset disposal is something that every organization should think about when planning for the lifecycle of the equipment in their inventory. If a hard drive or other storage device contains proprietary information, it is up to the administrators and management to ensure that it is disposed of properly and does not fall into the wrong hands.

Jared has been tasked wih re-vamping the company's inventory system, which currently consists of a spreadsheet of serial numbers from the equipment manufacturer. Which of the following might aid him in making the equipment and device inventory system a bit more efficient? asset tracking tags RADIUS Diameter video surveillance

asset tracking tags Asset tracking tags are typically barcode or QR code stickers that are affixed to the computers and other pieces of equipment in an organization so that they can quickly be scanned with a barcode or QR code scanner. Diameter and RADIUS are used with AAA and are not relevant. Video surveillance is great for catching people committing crimes, such as theft, but is not very useful for inventory and asset management.

Which of the following terms can be used to describe the characteristic of a signal to degrade as it travels over a longer and longer distance? jitter crosstalk attenuation EMI

attenuation Attenuation is the term used to describe a signal becoming weaker and degrading as it travels over longer distances. This is why as you're driving out of a major city that a radio station may start to turn to static and fade.

Which of the following are the three components of AAA? accounting, aggregation, auditing aggregation, authentication, authorization authorization, auditing, accounting authentication, authorization, accounting

authentication, authorization, accounting AAA is composed of authentication, authorization, and accounting.

Jorge has received quotes from three ISPs that can offer Internet service to his company. He sees the downstream and upstream speeds measured in Mbps. Which of the following does this refer to? availability bandwidth fault tolerance resilience

bandwidth Bandwidth is the amount of throughput, or speed, that a given network connection has and is usually measured in bits per second, kilobits per second, megabits per second, or gigabits per second.

Boris has been called in as a consultant to troubleshoot slow speeds at a small business office that his friend works for. He finds that the 10 workstations are all connected to a hub. Which of the following describes the logical topology being used for this network? ring star bus mesh

bus A hub may provide a physical star topology for a network, but since it merely takes an incoming piece of data and retransmits it on all of the other ports, it is considered to be a logical bus network.

Which of the following tools may be used to verify whether a new patch cord has been wired to the correct pins? cable tester crimper punchdown tool OTDR

cable tester A cable tester can be used to verify whether a twisted pair ethernet cable has been wired correctly on both ends.

Jacob is traveling for work at the moment. After checking into his hotel, he attempts to join the wireless network and is prompted to enter his last name and room number. Which of the following has the hotel implemented? RADIUS LDAP captive portal SSO

captive portal A captive portal is a webpage that typically pops up when joining certain public wireles networks. They may ask users to simply agree to a set of terms and conditions, verify who the user is (such as being a valid hotel guest), or they may even be used to charge for Internet access (such as some airlines use to charge for in-flight Internet service).

Which of the following terms can be used to describe a method that would result in increased throughput between two devices on a wireless network? NFC 802.11a channel bonding omnidirectional

channel bonding Channel bonding can be used to combine two adjacent channels within a frequency band to increase throughput between two devices.

Trey has recently been put in charge of disaster recovery planning and operations at his company. He knows that having a single data center can be a risk and wants to plan for worst case scenario in case a major disaster was to occur at the data center. He doesn't have a large budget to work with, but knows that real estate leasing and utility upgrading or installation can take a lot of time, so he decides to find an empty building somewhere that they can lease and have the proper utility hookups ready to go in case they need to resort to another data center. Which of the following describes the type of site that he plans on using? hot site warm site mobile site cold site

cold site A cold site may be nothing more than an empty building with power and Internet connections. It might take a 2 to 4 weeks or more to fully recover to a cold site. A warm site may be partially built out, but still take several days to a week to become fully operational. A hot site can typically become fully operational anywhere from immediately to a day. A mobile site example may be portable cellular phone towers that can quickly be erected if something happens to an existing tower or if they need to provide extra coverage for a large event where there are a lot more people in the area than normal.

Yancey has a rack of routers and switches that he needs to manage remotely out-of-band. Which of the following might he install at that location to be able to do this? console switch console bridge console hub console router

console router A console router can be used with an octal cable that has a single connector on one end and 8 RJ-45 connectors on the opposite that can plug into the console port of multiple devices. The console router can be on a separate out-of-band network that would allow Yancey to manage these devices remotely via the console ports.

Ana is troubleshooting a network connection in the conference room and finds that one of the conference room chairs has been rolling back and forth over the cable. Which of the following is most likely the problem with the ethernet cable in question? jitter crosstalk latency attenuation

crosstalk Crosstalk is when a signal from one pair of wires in an ethernet cable interfere with another pair of wires within the cable. When a chair wheel rolls back and forth over the cable, it is likely that the thin plastic coating on individual wires may crack and thus fail to provide insulation from other wires within the cable.

Which of the following types of attacks may be used if an attacker wants to sniff the packets involved in a WPA 4-way handshake for a user that has already connected to the network? de-authentication attack man-in-the-middle attack phishing attack spoofing attack

de-authentication attack A de-authentication attack can be used to disconnect a user from a wireless network so that they must re-authenticate to connect. When the user attempts to re-connect and re-authenticate, the attacker can sniff the packets involved in the 4-way handshake and then use brute force to attempt to crack the password being used.

Which of the following describes the point at which the service provider's responsibility ends and the customer's responsibility begins for Internet service wiring? hypervisor demarcation point smart jack SIP trunk

demarcation point The demarcation point is typically a box on the outside of a building where the service provider's responsibility for the wiring ends and the customer's responsbility for inside wiring begins.

Brian is planning the backup schedule to be implemented for the new CRM at his organization. He plans to schedule a complete backup every Sunday morning at 1 am. Every day after that, anything that has changed since Sunday will be backed up. Each hour throughout the day, anything that has changed since the last backup of any kind will be backed up. Which of the following describes the backup that will run every day except for Sunday? differential backup full backup incremental backup partial backup

differential backup A differential backup is comprised of any data that has changed since the last full backup. An incremental backup is comprised of any data that has changed since the last backup of any kind. A full backup is comprised of all data. The term partial backup is not commonly used.

Greta has been asked by her manager to plan for how the company is going to start incorporating IPv6 into their existing IPv4 network. Which of the following is the best choice that would allow them to upgrade devices and addressing schemes on an as-needed basis? MAN dual stack EIGRP Z-Wave

dual stack A dual stack architecture would allow Greta's organization to use both IPv4 and IPv6 at the same time.

During which of the following might an employee be asked to sign an AUP and NDP? during the off-boarding process during their first performance review during the on-boarding process during an annual review

during the on-boarding process An on-boarding process occurs when a new employee is hired. As part of their initial paperwork, they may be asked to sign an acceptable use policy as well as a non-disclosure agreement. You should never wait until the employee is leaving (such as the off-boarding process) to get these signed, as there may be no recourse should they refuse to sign them at that point.

Jerry is reviewing the results of a recent site survey that he has performed by walking around the building and looking for wireless access points, the SSID that they use, and the power level in various locations. He filters the results to only show the SSID that his company uses but notices that one of the devices has a different OUI. He knows that his company has standardized the equipment they use. Which of the following appears to describe what Jerry has found? rogue access point ARP poisoning man-in-the-midde attack evil twin

evil twin An evil twin is a type of a rogue access point, but goes a step further in that it is a malicious device that attempts to get users to join it instead of the real WAPs that are used by an organization. It typically uses the same SSID as the organization so that the user devices will automatically think that they have found the right network when they connect to it.

Carlos is designing the next generation of his company's network infrastructure and needs to meet a requirement from the management team that there cannot be any downtime whatsoever. Which of the following terms describes what Carlos has been charged with incorporating into the design? redundancy fault tolerance high availability resiliency

fault tolerance Fault tolerance describes the ability of a system to continue operation even when one of the components fails so that there is no downtime. High availability is similar, but simply describes that a system should be available as much as possible, though there may be some minimal downtime. Resiliency is the ability to recover quickly in the event of a failure. Redundancy simply mean that there is more than one system operating so that in the event of a failure, another device may take over the load. However, there can be some downtime during the failover period depending on the technology and how it is implemented.

Brandon has noticed that several users are using FTP to connect to servers outside of his organization for purposes that do not appear to be work related. Which of the following devices might he choose to implement to stop this traffic? firewall hub modem switch

firewall A firewall can be used to allow or deny traffic based on a number of factors such as source and destination IP address or port number.

Greta is connecting two routers together but seems to be having issues with the connection not establishing. She finds an error message stating that there is a duplex mismatch. Which of the following could be set on the two routers that would cause this issue? half and auto half and half full and full full and half

full and half If there is a duplex mismatch, that means that one device is operating at full duplex and the other device is operating at half duplex. Both devices must be operating at either half dplex or full duplex. Auto should automatically detect and negotiate duplex settings based upon the other device's capabilities.

Brian is planning the backup schedule to be implemented for the new CRM at his organization. He plans to schedule a complete backup every Sunday morning at 1 am. Every day after that, anything that has changed since Sunday will be backed up. Each hour throughout the day, anything that has changed since the last backup of any kind will be backed up. Which of the following describes the backup that will run every every Sunday at 1 am? partial backup differential backup incremental backup full backup

full backup A differential backup is comprised of any data that has changed since the last full backup. An incremental backup is comprised of any data that has changed since the last backup of any kind. A full backup is comprised of all data. The term partial backup is not commonly used.

One of the administrators at Fictional Corp has just resigned and left the company to go work for a competitor. The administrators at Fictional Corp connect to several of the Linux servers without needing to use a password. Which of the following should be done immediately? update the firmware disable unnecessary services on the Linux servers patch the kernel generate new keys for the root account

generate new keys for the root account Linux servers allow accounts to connect and log in by using either a password or a public/private key pair. In this case, since the password option has been disabled, a new set of keys should be generated immediately so that the former employee can no longer log in to the servers.

Fictional Corp is a large e-commerce retailer with delivery drivers that have pre-defined areas in which they deliver packages. Which of the following could alert Fictional Corp if one of their drivers ventures outside of their normal delivery area? bollards geofencing k-rated fencing proximity badges

geofencing Geofencing technologies can allow companies to track devices and send an alert to an administrator if it goes outside of a particular boundary. It can also devices to only work within a certain geographically defined boundary.

Joe's manager informs him that the new sales reporting system needs to be up and online 99.99 percent of the time. Which of the following describes the requirement given to Joe for this new application? fault tolerance high availability resiliency redundancy

high availability High availability is the idea that a system should be available as much as possible, or at a certain minimum as defined by customer requirements or a service-level agreement (SLA). Fault tolerance describes a system that can continue to operate even in the event of a failure so that there should be zero downtime whatsoever. Resiliency is the ability to recover quickly in the event of a failure. Redundancy is having more than one of a component so that the system can fail over to it in case of a failure.

James has just returned from a security conference where he learned about a technique that some companies use in order to distract attackers. It consists of a small group of servers that contain fake information and are used to lure the attacker to spend their time trying to exploit those servers rather than the actual servers containing confidenial and proprietary information. Which of the following best describes the technique that James learned about? DMZ honeynet rogue access point evil twin

honeynet A honeynet is a group of honeypots on a network and is used to lure an attacker towards them instead of the real infrastructure within an organization. They may also be used to watch the methods that the attackers are using as part of research into new attack vectors and techniques.

Javier has just installed a new server on his company's network that is meant to act as a decoy. In the event that an attacker is able to gain access to his company's network, the decoy should attract the attacker and alert administrators that there is activity so that they can watch the methods that the attacker is using to try to gain access. They may also want to keep the attacker busy with that system so the attacker doesn't try and compromise or exploit other systems while they work on blocking the traffic from the attacker's IP address. Which of the following has Javier installed? DMZ evil twin rogue access point honeypot

honeypot A honeypot is a device or system that is installed on a network as a decoy. It should have real functionality, but fake data so that if the attacker is able to gain access to it, real confidential data is not compromised.

A large multinational company has recently been reviewing their disaster recovery and continuity of operations plans to ensure that they are able to serve their customers as best as possible with minimal downtime in the event of a disaster. They want to ensure that in the case of a disaster at their main data center, that another data center can go live within an hour. Which of the following describes the type of solution that would best suit their needs? hot site cold site mobile site warm site

hot site A cold site may be nothing more than an empty building with power and Internet connections. It might take a 2 to 4 weeks or more to fully recover to a cold site. A warm site may be partially built out, but still take several days to a week to become fully operational. A hot site can typically become fully operational anywhere from immediately to a day. A mobile site example may be portable cellular phone towers that can quickly be erected if something happens to an existing tower or if they need to provide extra coverage for a large event where there are a lot more people in the area than normal.

Which of the following networking devices could be described as a piece of hardware that is nothing more than a repeater that acts as a logical bus network? hub modem switch router

hub A hub is essentially a devices that takes an incoming piece of data and forwards it out every other port in the fashion of a bus network, even though it is physically a star.

Matthew is wanting to start learning the Linux operating system. Which of the following would allow him to install Linux as a virtual machine on his current laptop so that he doesn't have to replace its existing operating system altogether? NAS hypervisor VTP virtual router

hypervisor A hypervisor is a type of application that allows you to create and run virtual machines on top of an existing operating system.

Trey wants to implement a SAN using older Ethernet switches. Which of the following could he use to do this? iSCSI Infiniband Fibre Channel FCoE

iSCSI The iSCSI method of connecting a SAN can take advantage of older Ethernet switches, whereas FCoE requires lossless switches.

Which of the following command-line tools can be used on a Linux workstation to view the IP address that has been assigned by DHCP? dig ipconfig netstat ifconfig

ifconfig On Linux systems, the ifconfig command can be used to view the IP address assigned by DHCP or set a static IP address.

Brian is planning the backup schedule to be implemented for the new CRM at his organization. He plans to schedule a complete backup every Sunday morning at 1 am. Every day after that, anything that has changed since Sunday will be backed up. Each hour throughout the day, anything that has changed since the last backup of any kind will be backed up. Which of the following describes the backup that will run every hour except for the daily backups at 1 am? differential backup partial backup full backup incremental backup

incremental backup A differential backup is comprised of any data that has changed since the last full backup. An incremental backup is comprised of any data that has changed since the last backup of any kind. A full backup is comprised of all data. The term partial backup is not commonly used.

Helen has just installed a WAP at a small business so their employees can use their laptops on the network without having to plug an ethernet cable into their computers. Which of the following modes describes how she should configure it so that she can perform centralized authentication of clients joining the wireless network? mesh mode ad hoc mode bus mode infrastructure mode

infrastructure mode Infrastructure mode is when a wireless access point or wireless router is acting as a centralized device that authenticates users onto the wireless network and communicates individually with those clients. Clients do not relay messages to other clients.

Randy has found a device plugged into the back of one of the printers that has two ethernet ports and a microSD memory card. He places a hidden camera pointing at the printer and later finds that one of the janitorial staff comes by late in the evenings to change out the memory card. Which of the following would this be considered? rogue access point phishing social engineering insider threat

insider threat An insider threat can be an employee, contractor, temporary worker, or even a business partner that has access to certain resources and decides to take advantage of having access to do something malicious such as copy data from the system or destroy data on a system.

Peggy just returned to the office from the coffee shop where she had connected to the wireless network and it appears that her Windows laptop still has the IP address that it was using for the connection there. Which of the following command-line tools could she use to release and renew her IP address that was assigned using DHCP? ifconfig netstat dig ipconfig

ipconfig On Windows computers, the ipconfig command can be used to release and renew the IP address assigned via DHCP.

Barry is performing some analysis on the company's Internet connection after getting reports from users that their VoIP phones appear to be having issues with audio quality at times. He finds that the amount of delay is fluctuating up and down fairly rapidly. Which of the following terms can be used to describe this finding? crosstalk attenuation jitter latency

jitter While the latency, or delay, is what is being measured, the fluctuation of latency is what is known as jitter.

Peter is testing a Voice over IP solution that would save his company quite a bit of money on their international communications. One of his concerns is that it can take a longer period of time for a packet to travel to certain parts of the world and a reply packet to return. Which of the following terms best describes Peter's concern? crosstalk latency attenuation jitter

latency Latency is the delay or time that it takes for a packet to travel from one endpoint to another. Because of the design and distance spanned by the world's global network infrastructure, overseas communications to some countries can have a much higher latency than communications between others. This may mean a multiple second delay between someone speaking into a telephone handset and the person on the other end hearing the audio.

Ferris is examining the traffic to the company's web server and sees that it is constantly spiking to 80 percent CPU multiple times per day. The company is about to launch a new marketing campaign that they are expecting to go viral and drive 10 times as much traffic to the site. He knows that he needs to add more web servers to help handle the traffic. What else might he need to implement? IPS load balancer IDS proxy server

load balancer A load balancer can be used to split the incoming traffic between a number of front-end web servers so that the amount of expected incoming traffic will not overwhelm and crash the single current web server.

Robbie has built multiple web servers that contain the same content to serve the company's new web application offering. How might he best split the traffic between the servers so that they can all respond to the large volume of requests coming in? load balancer NIC teaming port aggregation firewall

load balancer A load balancer can be used to split traffic among several servers so that they can all respond to incoming HTTP requests.

An administrator is going through the scheduled jobs on a Linux server that are supposed to run at predefined intervals and sees a script being run daily that he's not familiar with. Upon examining the contents of the script, he sees that it is checking to ensure that one of the other system administrators accounts exists, and if it doesn't it will delete all of the files on that server. Which of the following has the other system administrator created? ARP poisoning rogue access point logic bomb ransomware

logic bomb A logic bomb is a script, program, or other configuration that is waiting for a particular event to occur before launching its payload. In this case, the administrator was potentially setting the company up for a revenge scheme in the case that he was ever fired in that his script would delete all of the files on the server should his account ever be removed.

Jason has been given a network diagram that lists the management IP address and subnet mask for all of the switches in the corporate headquarters building along with which routers they connect to. Which of the following types of diagrams was he given? physical management logical theoretical

logical A logical network diagram may only have the IP address and logical network information for how things are connected on a network. It will not list any physical locations as to where the equipment is physically situated. That information would be on a physical network diagram.

Henry wants to test a network card to ensure that it can both send and receive data. Which of the following might allow him to run that type of test on the network card? crimper punchdown tool OTDR loopback adapter

loopback adapter A loopback adapter connects the transmit (TX) pins on a network interface card to the receive (RX) pins so that tests can be run where a packet that is sent out over the transmit pins is immediately received on the receive pins.

Thomas has installed two devices on opposite sides of a large warehouse that need to communicate with each other. Each of the devices has an ethernet port, but the distance is too far to be served by a single twisted pair ethernet cable. Which of the following types of devices might he use in order to be able to run fiber between them? hub media converter switch router

media converter A media converter can be used to convert between different types of media. In this case, he could plug a twisted pair ethernet cable into the device and the other end into an ethernet to fiber media converter and then connect the media converters with each other using a fiber optic cable.

Bob has just installed four 48 port switches in the new building that his company is about to move into. He wants to ensure as much redundancy as possible by running a cable from each switch to all of the other switches. Which of the following describes the physical topology for the switch to switch configuration of this network? bus mesh star ring

mesh In a mesh network, each device connects to every other device on the network. In this case, we're only looking at the connection between the switches, which is a mesh network. If we were looking at the overall network, it would be a hybrid of star (with the switch acting as the centralized device) and mesh.

A large cellular phone provider needs to plan for outages in Florida due to an occasional cell phone tower being destroyed by a hurricane. Which of the following types of sites would best help them to quickly recover services in an area in the case that this happens? hot site cold site warm site mobile site

mobile site Cellular providers commonly make use of mobile sites that can be deployed in the event of a major disaster. Two common names they use for these are a Cell On Light Truck (COLT) or a Cell On Wheels (COW).

Which of the following types of devices can be used to transform a piece of digital information and send it over an analog media where it is then converted back into digital form? bridge WAP repeater modem

modem Modem stands for modulation/demodulation. The digital signal is modulated to be sent over an analog media and then is demodulated at the other end to be turned back into the digital data.

Fictional Corp wants to install a lighting system in the hallways that will automatically turn out when nobody is present. Which of the following might be used in conjunction with the lighting system to provide this capability? RADIUS Diameter asset tracking tags motion detection

motion detection Motion detection can be used to trigger lights to turn on with a timer that will automatically cut them off after there has been no motion for a set period of time. Asset tracking tags can be used for inventory tracking of equipment. RADIUS and Diameter are both protocols that are related to AAA.

Which of the following is class D IP address space used for? broadcast unicast multicast anycast

multicast Class D is reserved for multicast traffic. Unicast and broadcast traffic can be sent over classes A, B, and C. Anycast is an IPv6 technology and does not fall into the IPv4 classes.

Which of the following terms might best describe the technology used to implement a webcast where a number of participants may be viewing the stream at any given time? broadcast multicast anycast unicast

multicast Multicasting is great for situations where multiple devices need to receive a copy of outgoing traffic. A good example of this is webcasting or streaming of events online where a single packet can be sent to save on outgoing bandwidth and any device that has joined the multicast group can receive a copy of the packet.

Cary wants to implement a device on her company's network that will provide both switching as well as simple routing capabilities. Which of the following types of devices might she choose? load balancer IPS bridge multilayer switch

multilayer switch A multilayer switch will communicate and work at both layers 2 and 3 of the OSI model. Thus, it can handle the normal switch capabilities as well as some basic routing functions for such things as allowing certain types of traffic to pass between two or more VLANs.

Tyrone wants to test a power outlet to determine whether it is providing the correct amount of voltage before plugging a new device in. Which of the following tools could he use to verify this? cable tester spectrum analyzer punchdown tool multimeter

multimeter A multimeter will typically allow you to measure both AC and DC voltage. A spectrum analyzer is used with RF (radio frequency), not electricity. A punchdown tool is used to connect wires to a patch panel, 66 block, or 110 block. A cable tester is used to validate that wiring is correct between certain pins on an ethernet cable.

Teri wants to perform a port scan from one of her Linux servers to determine which services are responding to requests from her Windows servers. Which of the following command-line tools can she use to do this? netstat route nmap dig

nmap The nmap command-line tool can be used to perform a port scan on an IP address (or IP address range) or host name (or FQDN).

Which of the following command-line tools can be used on a Linux system in order to query a DNS server to examine the records for a given domain name? netstat tcpdump nslookup dig

nslookup and dig The nslookup and dig commands are both valid on a Linux system and can be used to query a DNS server to view the various records associated with a domain name.

Brendan is attempting to connect over the network through a VPN tunnel to the core router at one of his branch office locations to troubleshoot connectivity issues. However, it appears that that the Internet connection at that location is down. He is able to dial-up using a modem to connect to the router as a backup. What is this method of connection known as? out-of-band management behind-the-scenes management congruent management differential management

out-of-band management Some network administrators will connect an analog telephone line to critical routers located in remote locations so that if something happens to the Internet connection serving that location, they can still connect by dialing in using an analog modem. This is known as out-of-band management.

Reid has installed a new antenna at the corner of his company's building to provide better coverage for employees in that part of the building. However, he takes an analyzer outside to the parkiing lot and finds that it is picking up a fairly strong signal. Which of the following types of antennas should Reid have installed to limit how much signal can propagte out to the parking lot? omnidirectional parabolic OTDR crimper

parabolic A parabolic antenna is a type of directional antenna that would have directed the signal towards the inside of the building. An omnidirectional antenna sends signals out all 360 degrees.

Tommy has found that the cause of a recent data breach was that multiple user accounts had been compromised. Which of the following should Tommy review to ensure that it is strict enough and that it has been implemented on all of those systems? password policy NDA AUP remote access policy

password policy If a password policy is not strict enough, it may mean users choose passwords that are too easy to guess or crack with a dictionary or other attack. As well, the policy needs to be implemented on all of the systems where users log in to ensure that they are forced to set their own password with a minimum level of difficulty.

Dean has been hired by an organization to scan their network, find any weaknesses that may exist, and attempt to exploit those vulnerabilities to determine whether an actual attacker could pose a real threat to the organization. Which of the following terms best describe what Dean has been hired to do? penetration testing vulnerability scanning device hardening file integrity monitoring

penetration testing Penetration testing is when someone not only scans the network for vulnerabilities, but also attempts to exploit those vulnerabilities to determine the extent of harm that could be done if an attack was to take place.

Derek receives an e-mail stating that his bank has detected fraudulent activity in his account. The e-mail contains a link that Derek clicks and it takes him to a page that looks like it is his bank. The page is asking for his username, password, social security number, and date of birth. Which of the following is this an example of? ransomware vishing phishing man-in-the-midde attack

phishing Phishing is an attack carried out through e-mail where the attacker is attempting to get the user to disclose certain types of PII, or personally identifiable information. In this case, the attacker is using a fake website that is a clone of a popular bank's website and added fields for social security number and date of birth in an effort to collect as much information as possible from the victim. Vishing is very similar, but is a voice-based attack where the attacker calls the victim and asks for the information over the phone.

Michael has been asked to go check the status lights on one of the switches on his company's network. Which of the following might he refer to in order to figure out which IDF the switch is located in? logical diagram MSDS physical diagram SOP

physical diagram A physical network diagram should show where components and devices on a network are located within a building and how they are interconnected. A logical network diagram only shows how they are interconnected as well as network, IP address, and other relevant types of configuration information. Standard Operating Procedures and Materials Safety Data Sheets would not be applicable to physically locating a switch within a building.

Patti wants to ensure that one of her servers is still online by sending an ICMP echo request to the server, which should respond with an ICMP echo reply. Which of the following tools can she use to do this? tcpdump arp dig ping

ping The ping command sends an ICMP echo request to the destination, which should reply with an ICMP echo reply.

Moe has been analyzing the traffic on his company's network and has found that there is a high utilization on one of the links between two switches. Which of the following might he use to help accommodate the amount of traffic that is being transmitted and received between those two switches? port aggregation fault tolerance port duplication clustering

port aggregation Port aggregation is a technology that will allow you to combine two or more ports on a network switch to work as one, thus increasing the available bandwidth. It must be used in the same proportions between both switches to create a link with a combined higher bandwidth.

Allen has installed a new device that is used to detect intrusions on his company's network. In order to detect intrusions, it needs to receive a copy of all of the traffic that is sent into and out of a switch. Which of the following could he configure to ensure that the new intrusion detection system is able to perform its job correctly? trunking port mirroring port scanning VLANs

port mirroring Port mirroring is a configuration option available on managed switches that tells a switch to send a copy of all traffic for some or all of the ports to a specific designated port. This will allow the intrusion detection system to receive a copy of that traffic to analyze for potential unauthorized intrusiions.

Jay has recently installed a new server from scratch. He believes he has hardened the server by shutting down services that are unnecessary, but wants to confirm that there are no other services responding to network requests. Which of the following would be the best method that Jay can use to verify what other services may be responding to network requests on this server? firewall log review baseline analysis penetration test port scan

port scan Jay may want to use a port scanner to determine what other services may be responding to network requests on this server. Since this is a new server, he may also want to create a baseline after the server has been fully hardened, but would not have a previous baseline to make any comparisons to. A penetration test may also be more time consuming and a bit over the top for what he needs. The firewall logs may not show any traffic to this server since it is brand new, and probably wouldn't have any traffic going to services he's not aware of on it. The best option is to perform a port scan on the server which should go through and try every port and report back with a list of the ports that responded as being open.

Which of the following is a technology that can be configured on switches to only allow the first device connected to a switchport to communicate on that port? local authentication single sign-on port security kerberos

port security Port security is a feature of managed switches that allows an administrator to configure a specific MAC address or list of MAC addresses allowed to communicate on a particular switchport. There may also be a sticky option that allows the switch to learn the MAC address of the first device connected so that it will only then allow that device to communicate on that switchport until the switch is rebooted or loses power.

Johnny has just been promoted to senior systems engineer at the organization that he works for. As such, he will have access to the list of root passwords for the systems that his group is responsible for. Which of the following might he be required to sign before gaining access to these passwords? non-disclosure agreement privileged user agreement BYOD acceptable usage policy

privileged user agreement A privileged user agreement typically states that the user agrees to abide by whatever is outlined in the policy before being given higher level access to their own individual account or being given access to the root, administrator, or superuser accounts. This typically includes a statement that the user will not share these passwords or access with others within an organization. A non-disclosure agreement typically is an agreement that a user will not share conidential information with others outisde of the organization, although in some cases it might state that you are not allowed to share information with others within your own organization. An AUP, or acceptable use policy, typically outlines what users are allowed to do and not allowed to do with company owned devices and sytems. A bring your own device, or BYOD, policy would not be applicable to this scenario either. The best choice would be the privileged user agreement, even though there are two other options that were thrown in as distractors.

Olivia has noticed that a number of users in her organization spend a decent amount of time on a news organization's website during their breaks and lunch breaks throughout the day. She thinks about the number of duplicate requests for the same content that happen many times per day and wonders if perhaps there is a caching solution that she might be able to use in order to limit the amount of external bandwidth being used for browsing this site. Which of the following solutions might you recommend that Olivia implement? IPS proxy server UTM IDS

proxy server A proxy server can be used to cache data from an external source for users on a network.

Which of the following tools may be used with a 66 or 110 block to attach the individual wires from a Cat 6 cable? loopback adapter crimper OTDR punchdown tool

punchdown tool A punchdown tool can be used to push individual wires down into a V-shaped groove on a 66 or 110 block.

Sarah comes into the office and turns her computer on, only to find a message on the screen that the contents of the hard drive have been encrypted. In order to decrypt her files, the attacker is demanding payment in cryptocurrency within the next 24 hours or else her data will be lost forever. Which of the following types of attacks has Sarah become a victim of? man-in-the-midde attack phishing vishing ransomware

ransomware Ransomware is a type of malware that may get installed on a computer by accident or negligence. It typically encrypts the contents of the computer's hard drive and demands a ransom payment to retrieve the key, or password, necessary to decrypt the drive. Typically this payment is demanded in a form of cryptocurrency (like bitcoin) in order to avoid being tracked.

Larry has installed a new rack full of servers in his company's data center. Each of the servers has two power supplies. He wants to ensure that none of the servers will lose power in the case that one of the breakers gets tripped due to overloading. Which of the following might he ensure is in place for this rack? backup generator redundant power circuits redundant switch redundant hard drives

redundant power circuits In cases where services provided are more critical, it may be necessary to ensure that two or more circuits serve a single rack. If each server has two power supplies, one power supply may be plugged into one circuit while the other power supply is plugged into the other circuit. Then if power is lost on one circuit, the server should still be receiving power on the other circuit.

While auditing the logs of the e-mail server, Carissa has found that some of the hourly employees are accessing their e-mail from outside of the company's network outside of normal business hours. She doesn't believe they are on the clock during this time, which means they may be performing work that is unpaid and violates her state's labor laws. Which of the following needs to be reviewed immediately? remote access policy lifecycle policy password policy acceptable usage policy

remote access policy The company's remote access policy should be modified to only allow remote access to salaried employees or hourly employees who are on the clock to adhere to her state's labor laws. The policy can be enforced by using time of day restrictions that may be available as features with the remote access systems that her company has in place.

Tanner has just connected his laptop to the corporate network but is unable to access any resources on the network. He checks the IP address by using the ipconfig command and notices that he has an IP address of 172.16.0.97. He knows that his company only uses class A addresses internally. Which of the following is most likely the problem? incorrect MAC address has been configured rogue DHCP server incorrect DNS settings incorrect subnet mask is configured

rogue DHCP server The 172.16.x.x network is a class B network. Since Tanner's company only uses the class A address space, internal addresses should start with a 10 (10.x.x.x). Tanner is most likely receiving an IP address via DHCP from an unauthorized DHCP server on the network in this instance.

Brett has a special tool that allows him to see what access points are around and is currently doing a site survey at his company to determine if there are any areas that may need another WAP installed. As he is walking around the office, he notices a WAP underneath an employee's desk. Which of the following would this be considered? spoofing evil twin rogue access point man-in-the-middle

rogue access point The unauthorized WAP under an employee's desk would at the very minimum be defined as a rogue access point. The scenario doesn't tell us whether it is broadcasting an SSID with the goal of getting people to join its wireless network or not, so we can't say for sure whether it is an evil twin.

Andy has just applied a set of patches to one of the workstations that controls the MRI at a large hospital. After applying the patches, the MRI software on the workstation is no longer functional. Which of the following describes what Andy should do next? create a snapshot re-install the operating system rollback re-install the MRI software

rollback Andy should rollback the patches so that they are no longer installed. He then may want to reach out to the vendor that created the software to see if they have any known issues with the patches that were installed and see if they have any suggestions for how to update the system and keep the MRI software working.

Barry has configured four VLANs on a switch stack and needs two of the VLANs to communicate with each other for certain types of traffic. Which of the following devices would be required in order for these two VLANs to communicate with each other? firewall router hub NIC

router In order for devices on different VLANs to communicate with each other, a router is required to forward traffic between the them.

Which of the following technologies relies on microwave transmissions to equipment that orbits around the Earth? metropolitan ethernet cable satellite dial-up

satellite Satellite Internet reliex on microwave transmissions between satellites that orbit around the Earth.

Which of the following types of fiber has the longest distance capability in a single run without needing an amplifier or repeater? multimode triplex single-mode DB-25

single-mode Single-mode fiber can be used for runs of 80 km (50 miles) or more, whereas multimode fiber can be used for runs of up to 2 km.

Aria's company has just acquired a lease for half of the 12th floor of a large building downtown. Which of the following should she do before installing the WAPs? site survey ask the building management where she should install them run dedicated ethernet cabling to where the WAP will be located ask neighboring companies what channels their WAPs are using

site survey Aria should perform a site survey to determine what channels neighboring organizations are already using so that she can configure her company's WAPs to use channels that will not conflict or overlap with existing wireless networks.

Garrett is required to use biometrics to gain access to his company's data center. Which of the following devices would not be something that he would use to verify his identity? smart card handprint geometry scanner retinal scanner fingerprint reader

smart card Handprint geometry scanners, fingerprint readers, and retinal scanners are all types of biometric authentication technologies. A smart card can be inserted into a card reader that will read the information off of the chip embedded in it and is considered part of the something you have authentication factor, not biometrics or something you are.

Quincy receives a call where the person on the other end claims to be from the help desk and needs his username and password to validate his account. Which of the following is this an example of? man-in-the-midde attack insider threat phishing social engineering

social engineering This is an example of social engineering called vishing. The help desk should never call a user and ask for their username and password.

Devon is trying to access a system where he places his finger on a fingerprint reader to gain access to a system. Which of the following factors of authentication does this system use? something you do something you know something you have something you are

something you are Fingerprint recognition is a factor of authentication known as something you are.

Darren is attempting to use a computer within his office. Before he can do so, he must type in a couple of sentences that analyze his keystrokes to determine the pattern and delays between keystrokes. Which of the following authentication factors is being used by this system? something you know something you are something you have something you do

something you do While not in wide use outside of research and development labs at the moment, keystroke pattern recognition can analyze how someone types and determines whether the person is who they say they are.

Ava must insert a smart card into a card reader on her laptop before she is able to use it. Which of the following authentication factors does her laptop use to verify the identity of users? something you have something you are something you do something you know

something you have A smart card falls under the something you have authentication factor.

Gary is trying to access a system that requires him to enter his password to gain access. Which of the following is this considered? something you have something you are something you know something you do

something you know A password is a form of an authentication factor known as something you know.

Fictional Corp has implemented wireless tablets that can be used throughout their warehouse and has implemented controls that verify that the tablet is on the local network before a certain application will work. Which of the following authentcation factors are they using to protect their company's data? something you know something you have somewhere you are something you do

somewhere you are The somewhere you are authentication factor may verify presence on a particular network or look at the source of an IP address or potentially even GPS coordinates of the device to ensure that it is within a certain geographical area before it will work. In this case, the tablet may not be able to use GPS inside of a big metal warehouse and so they are relying on ensuring the devices are on the local network before an application will work.

Which of the following tools might a cable company technician use to analyze the RF signal being received at the outlet where a cable modem would attach to? tone generator cable tester light meter spectrum analyzer

spectrum analyzer A spectrum analyzer can show the amount of signal, signal-to-noise ratio, and other characteristics of signals being transmitted over whatever frequencies it is capable of tuning into.

Taryn received a call from a number with a pre-recorded message. She hangs up and attempts to call the number back, but the person who answers the phone swears that they didn't call her. Which of the following has most likely occurred? evil twin DDoS spoofing DoS

spoofing Spoofing can be used on a variety of technologies - spoofing an e-mail address, IP address, MAC address, or even a telephone number using Voice over IP systems.

Which of the following is a type of cable that uses the T568B wiring standard on both ends of the cable? rollover crossover jumper straight through

straight through A straight through cable uses the same TIA/EIA standard on both ends of the cable.

Emily is visiting one of her company's branch offices for the day and needs to plug into their local network as they do not have wireless installed at the office. She finds an ethernet cable laying around on a network administrator's desk and decides to borrow it for a little bit to check e-mail until the administrator arrives. Unfortunately, she's not able to connect to the network at the desk she's sat down at. When the network administrator comes in, he hands her a different cable that works just fine. Which of the following types of cables did the administrator most likely hand to her? straight-through alternating current rollover crossover

straight-through Most likely Emily found one of the network administrator's crossover cables laying around on their desk. When connecting to a standard network jack, she should have been using a straight-through cable, as the cross over from transmit to receive is performed at the switch, not in the cable for end users to connect.

Fran has two VLANs configured so that certain devices are only allowed to communicate with other devices. Which of the following devices would she have configured the VLANs on? bridge switch router hub

switch VLANs are configured on switches so that certain ports are only allowed to communicate with other ports on that same VLAN within the switch or group of switches.

Zoe wants to analyze all of the incoming packets on a Linux server she manages. Which of the following tools will allow her to view this information as it arrives? dig nslookup ifconfig tcpdump

tcpdump The tcpdump command can be used on Linux systems to display incoming packets on a given network interface.

Fictional Corp is building a new office and the wiring contractor has just finished installing the ethernet cabling throughout the building. Unfortunately, none of the wires hanging from the ceiling in the IDF have been labeled with the office or cubicle that they were run to. Which of the following tools might a technician use to determine where each wire goes? crimper OTDR toner and probe punchdown tool

toner and probe A toner and probe can be used to locate each cable run separately. Simply plug the tone generator into an ethernet port in an office or cubicle, and then take the probe to the IDF. As you move the probe across the wires, it will typically have a series of lights or sounds that will tell you when you're getting close to the right cable.

Peter is just purchased a new wireless router that he wants to test for possible use by employees who telecommute. Which of the following is the first thing that he should do? Disable the WAN port Configure spanning tree update the firmware enable a flood guard

update the firmware Since the time of manufacture, the wireless router has been packaged in a box, shipped (potentially internationally), sat on a warehouse shelf, and eventually made its way to a store shelf. There may have been multiple firmware updates since the wireless router was made, so the first thing Peter should do is update the firmware to ensure any security vulnerabilities have been eliminated.

Horus has created five virtual machines on three separate VLANs on a single piece of hardware. He wants two of the VLANs to be able to communicate with each other on a limited basis. Which of the following should he add to the configuration? virtual disk virtual switch virtual NIC virtual router

virtual router A virtual router can be configured to allow or deny communication between different VLANs.

Victoria has installed three virtual machines on one of the servers within her organization: A, B, and C. B needs to be able to communicate with both A and C. However, A is not allowed to communicate directly with C. She believes she can put them on separate VLANS. Which of the following would she need to implement in order to do so? virtual switch virtual router virtual firewall virtual disk

virtual switch A virtual switch will allow her to configure and assign VLANS for the virtual machines running on this server.

Fictional Corp performs a monthly review of the state of the security of its systems. The management team has decided that they want to determine what weaknesses exist within the company's infrastructure, but do not want to attempt to actually exploit them out of fear that something critical may break or stop working. Which of the following types of security testing should they perform? firewall log review vulnerability scan baseline analysis penetration test

vulnerability scan A vulnerability scan can be performed and the results can be compiled into a report to show the current weaknesses in the organization's security posture. A penetration test is when someone attempts to exploit the weaknesses found in a vulnerability scan to determine whether they can actually be exploited or compromised. A baseline analysis is certainly a good practice to do on a regular basis, but does not contribute to making a list of vulnerabiliities. A manual firewall log review may also be a good task to perform occasionally, but again may not discover all of the vulnerabilities that may exist.

Patrick hops on a bus in a major city, connects an external antenna to his laptop and rides around town for couple of hours. He plots points on a map with all of the open unsecured networks as well as ones that are still using the legacy WEP protocol so that he can come back and attempt to access them later. Which of the following terms describes what Patrick is doing? phishing man-in-the-middle Distributed Denial of Service war-driving

war-driving Even though Patrick isn't technically driving, he is still being driven around town searching for networks that are unsecured or are using weak encryption. Phishing is when the attacker is attempting to elicit information from a victim by means of e-mail. A man-in-the-middle, or MITM attack is when an attacker is able to insert themselves into a network communication so that they act as a relay for traffic back and forth between two endpoints. A distributed denial of service, or DDoS, attack is when many devices attempt to send large amounts of traffic or invalid forms of traffic to a victim computer or device so that it cannot respond to normal and valid requests.

Patty is performing an annual review on the company's disaster recovery and continuity of operations plans. She sees that there is a requirement tht she needs to verify that if something were to happen to the company's main data center, that another data center can take over the traffic and provide the necessary services within 48 hours. Which of the following describe the type of solution required by Patty's company? cold site warm site mobile site hot site

warm site A cold site may be nothing more than an empty building with power and Internet connections. It might take a 2 to 4 weeks or more to fully recover to a cold site. A warm site may be partially built out, but still take several days to a week to become fully operational. A hot site can typically become fully operational anywhere from immediately to a day. A mobile site example may be portable cellular phone towers that can quickly be erected if something happens to an existing tower or if they need to provide extra coverage for a large event where there are a lot more people in the area than normal.

Blair has deployed a wireless network within his company's building. However, users in one part of the building appear to be having issues with the connection dropping out and re-establishing many times per day. Which of the following devices might Blair want to install? modem wireless range extender bridge hub

wireless range extender A wireless range extender can pick up the signal from an existing wireless network and re-broadcast so that users in a location where signal may be spotty can still take advantage of the wireless capabilities they may need.