NAVLE OTHER FOOD ANIMALS and NON-SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

a. Uterine leiomyoma The most likely cause of a large uterine mass in an intact female potbellied pig is a uterine leiomyoma. These tumors do not typically metastasize so a cure may be achieved by surgical removal of the uterus.

An aged intact female potbellied pig presents for evaluation of abdominal distension. A large mass contiguous with the uterine wall is discovered with ultrasound exam of the abdomen. Which of the following choices is the most likely cause of this finding? a. Uterine leiomyoma b. Endometritis c. Adenocarcinoma of the cervix d. Lymphosarcoma e. Endometrial hyperplasia

a. Silk This stuture is non-absorbable and thus contraindicated. Leaving non-absorbable suture in the bladder is a potential nidus for infection

A cystotomy is on the schedule for today on a 4-year-old male Chihuahua. What suture would you not use for closing the bladder? a. Silk b. Vicryl c. Dexon d. Polydioxanone (PDS)

a. Hypophosphatemia One observes decreased erythrocyte ATP which is not compatiblewith maintenance of ATP-dependant membrane pumps, and cell lyse

What is the underlying cause of postparturient hemoglobinuria? a. Hypophosphatemia b. Hypomagensemia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypokalemia

a. Munge This is the clinical picture of munge (idiopathic nasal/perioral hyperkeratotic dermatosis). Some affected animals have lesions on the bridge of the nose and around the eyes and ears. Average age of onset is 6 months to 2 years old Rx: address secondary bacterial infections (e.g., daily 10% providone iodine scrubs and apply 7% tincture of iodine). If minimal response, include a topical glucocorticoid or intralesional triamcinolone acetonide. If still no response, evaluate immune function Dorsal nasal alopecia is characterized by alopecia over the bridge of the nose with normal to variably scaly, hyperpigmented, and thickened skin. It is more common in dar-haired animals. It can be secondary to fly bites or rubbing the nose. Animals with idiopathic hyperkeratosis (zinc-responsive dermatosis) present with thickened, non-pururitic papules with tightly adherent crusts in the less densely haired areas of the perineum, ventral abdomen, inguinal region, medial thighs, and axilla. Signs can begin at any age

A 1-year-old female llama is presented with hyperkeratosis around the nose and mouth. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Munge b. Dermatophilosis c. Dorsal nasal alopecia d. Wry face e. Zinc-responsive dermatosis

a. Rumen acidosis (train overload) Excessive consumption of grain or other readily fermentable carbohydrate will lead to replication of Streptococcus bovis and other gram positive bacteria in the rumen at first, lowering the rumen pH precipitously to below 4.5 and causing an increase in lactic acid. Lactobacilli will subsequently multiply due to the favorable conditions created. The goat cannot metabolize the D-lactic acid made by bacteria (mammals can only process _-lactic acid which they produce themselves), and a systemic lactic acidosis results. Clinical signs include rapid HR, depression, anorexia, fluid-filled rumen, scleral injection, staggering, diarrhea after 24 hours, and damage to rumen mucosa

A 3-year-old Nubian male goat presents with a history of breaking into a bag of grain meant for horses. What disease processes are you concerned about? a. Rumen acidosis (train overload) b. Abomasal impaction c. Rumen alkalosis d. Acute hypocalcemia

b. Administer procaine penicillin, 40,000 units per kg every 6 hours The key to answering this questions is the unilateral nature of the clinical signs which are most typical of Listeriosis in goats in contrast to other common neurologic conditions such as Polioencephalomalacia (thiamine or Vitamin B1 deficiency). This infection is most common in goats fed silage (although that information was not provided in this question). Thiamine administration would not be inappropriate but is not the most criteria therapy for Listeriosis The signs in this goat are not suggestive of white muscle disease which is caused by selenium deficiency. They are also not suggestive of lungworms or round worms which might be treated with levamisole

A 3-year-old female goat is displaying signs of decreased activity with right sided ptosis and drooling. On examination, you notice a decreased palpebral reflex on the right side. The goat has a temperature of 104F (40C). What is the most important and appropriate therapy for the goat's suspected condition? a. Administer 1mg of Selenium and 500 units of Vitamin E once and then add supplementation to the feed b. Administer procaine penicillin, 40,000 units per kg every 6 hours c. Administer levamisole 8mg/kg once d. Administer Thiamine 10mg/kg every 6 hours

d. A current DEA license Hydrocodone is a controlled substance. Controlled substances cannot be prescribed unless the veterinarian holds a current DEA license. Pharmacists require a DEA number in order to process these prescriptions. A premise license is held by the owner of the building of the veterinary hospital A conversation with the owner of possible side effects of any medications sent with the pet should occur, but a written list is not required by law

A 3-year-old male neutered Maltese who was recently adopted from the shelter presents for kennel cough. He is currently on doxycycline. You would also like to send a cough suppressant and write a prescription for hydrocodone. In order to prescribe this medication, what does the law require? a. A list of side effects of this medication provided to the owner b. A current premise license c. A signed wirtten consent form from the owner ascknowledging this is a controlled substance d. A current DEA license

b. Osteochondrosis

A 5-month-old boar that is fast-growing and heavily muscled is being evaluated because of progressive bilateral lameness of the front legs. None of the other animals on the farm is affected. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition? a. Biotin deficiency b. Osteochondrosis c. Porcine stress syndrome d. RIckets e. Wobbler syndrome

a. Contact your local public health authorities to determine if this animal needs to be quarantined prior to euthanasia and what procedures need to be followed Potential rabies exposure constitutes a significant public health concern. Because we know this animal bit someone, it is important to ascertain what the state law is where you practice. Most states require that the animal be quarantined for 10 days prior to euthanasia, EVEN IF IT IS CURRENT on its rabies vaccination. If the euthanasia is performed before 10 days quarantine, the refrigerated (not frozen) head must be submitted for rabies testing. A blood sample is not a proper specimen for testing. Because this animal bit someone, quarantine will likely be needed. If the euthanasia is performed, the head must be submitted (not just saved "in case")

A 5-year-old male intact dog is brought into your clinic by his owner who states that he bit a neighbor child in the face yesterday. He wants the dog immediately euthanized and wants to bury the dog on his ranch property. He said he had all his shots as a puppy. What is the best course of action? a. Contact your local public health authorities to determine if this animal needs to be quarantined prior to euthanasia and what procedures need to be followed b. Collect a blood sample from the dog to submit to the laboratory for rabies testing prior to euthanasia c. Have the owner signs the euthanasia form and euthanize the dog, but keep the body in case the dog needs to be tested for rabies d. Have the owner signs a euthanasia form and euthanize the dog; because this is an owned pet and not stray, quarantine is not required.

e. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis This is a description of caseous lymphadenitis. Infection of supramammary lymph nodes in sheep and goats is of economic importance due the fact that caseous lymphadenitis can cause weight loss in the individual, can become a herd problem, and could also be a potential public health concern

A 7-year old doe presents with abscessation of the supramammary lymph nodes. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus b. Trueperella pyogens c. E. coli d. Mycoplasma mycoides e. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

e. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis This is a description of caseous lymphadenitis. Infection of supramammary lymph nodes in sheep and goats is of economic importance due the fact that caseous lymphadenitis can cause weight loss in the individual, can become a herd problem, and could also be a potential public health concern

A 7-year-old doe presents with abscessation of the supramammary lymph nodes. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. E. coli b. Trueperella pyogenes c. Mycoplasma mycoides d. Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus e. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

b. Avian influenza Avian influenza, also called fowl plague, is the most likely diagnosis. This virus can either be low pathogenicity (most common) or highly pathogenic. Viruses of low pathogenicity typically cause subclinical or mild respiratory disease. The case above is due to a highly pathogenic strain of avian influenza Infectious bronchitis is characterized by respiratory signs and is a differential for infection with an avian influenza strain of low pathogenicity.

A chicken farm has had several ill and dead brids over the past week. Examination of the sick chickens shows severe depression, ecchymoses and edema of the comb and wattles, green diarrhea. Some are unable to walk with absent perching reflexes. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? a. Avian encephalomyelitis b. Avian influenza c. Infectious coryza d. Infectious bronchitis e. Mycoplasma gallisepticum

b. Infectious bronchitis This is caused by a coronavirus. It is spread by aerosol and ingestion and usually affects all exposed birds. The clinical signs and necropsy findings are as described in the question. The disease can be clinically indistinguishable from mild forms of Newcastle disease, laryngotracheitis, and infectious coryza. Virus isolation is needed to obtain a definitive diagnosis

A chicken operation has recently been ravaged by a respiratory disease affecting almost all of the chickens in the flock. The chickens are coughing and sneezing and many have facial swelling. You necropsied many of the chickens and found mucoid exudate in the bronchi, thickened air sacs, and in a few of the chickens, interstitial nephritis was present. Which of these diseases is likely? a. Infectious bursal disease b. Infectious bronchitis c. Fowl cholera d. Aspergillus

a. Infectious bronchitis This is caused by a coronavirus. It is spread by aerosol and ingestion and usually affects all exposed birds. The clinical signs and necropsy findings are as described in the question. The disease can be clinically indistinguishable from mild forms of Newcastle disease, laryngotracheitis, and infectious zoryza. Virus isolation is needed to obtain a definitive diagnosis.

A chicken operation has recently been ravanged by a respiratory disease affecting almost all of the chickens in the flock. The chickens are coughing and sneezing and many have facial swelling. You necropsied many of the chickens and found mucoid exudate in the bronchi, thickened air sacs, and in a few of the chickens, interstitial nephritis was present. Which of these disease is likely? a. Infectious bronchitis b. Fowl cholera c. Infectious bursal disease d. Aspergillus

c. Advise the farmer that there is minimal evidence that chickens can develop clinical disease from West Nile virus Crows, geese, and exotic birds are susceptible to clinical disease from West Nile virus. Many birds and mammals can become transiently infected if bitten by mosquitoes that are infected with West Nile virus. However, there is no evidence that clinical disease develops in chickens or turkeys. Chickens and turkeys quickly develop antibodies and clear the virus. Infected poultry are also not thought to represent a reservoir for the virus or a significant public health risk

A chicken producer is concerned that geese infected with West Nile virus were found near his farm. He has instituted strict biosecurity measures for his chickens as well as a mosquito control regimen. Which of the following additional recommendation is most appropriate? a. Advise the farmer that adding sulfonamides to the water has been shown to decrease the morbidity of West Nile virus in chickens b. Advise the farmer to monitor for development of any neurologic signs in his chickens and immediately euthanize affected chickens because they are likely infected with West Nile virus c. Advise the farmer that there is minimal evidence that chickens can develop clinical disease from West Nile virus d. Advise the farmer that vaccination of the chickens will decrease the risk of them developing encephalitic signs from West Nile virus

c. The macaw should be vaccinated for WNV prior to leaving and should be kept in a mosquito free area during her visit Control methods for WNV are aimed at vaccination and reducing exposure to infected mosquitoes. Currently there is no West Nile Virus vaccine approved for use in birds (so use is "off-label"). Some zoos or wildlife centers use the WNV vaccine labeled for horses in birds. The efficacy and safety is not guranteed by the USDA or the vaccine manufactures

A client will be vacationing in New York for the summer with her Hyacinth macaw. She is worried about her favorite pet contracting West Nile Virus (WNV) due to the many mosquitoes that are expected during this time of the year. You make which of the following recommendations? a. Since WNV is highly infectious to other birds by direct contact, upon her return home, the bird should be kept away from other birds for at least 30 days b. birds are not susceptible to WNV so she need not worry about this flavi virus c. The macaw should be vaccinated for WNV prior to leaving and should be kept in a mosquito free area during her visit d. WNV is transmitted by ticks and the bird should routinely be checked for this ectoparasite

b. Avian tuberculosis This is classic avian tuberculosis (usually Mycobacterium tuberculosis), which can affect all types of birds. It is a chronic, granuloamtous bacterial infection that is slow to spread and is characterized by gradual weight loss. M. tuberculosis is prevalent worldwide and is spread by infective feces. It is ZOONOTIC in immune-compromized people. Dx: difficult. Positive wattle or skin tuberculin test confirms exposure but negative does not rule out disease. Suspicion can be based on seeing lots of acid-fast bacteria on smears from lesions. Rx: NOne. Prevent by careful purchasing and/or quarantine (at least 6 months) of new birds. Improve sanitation and rapid flock turnoever in commercial flocks has mostly eliminated this infection from these groups. Candidiasis is an intestinal mycotic disease typically characterized by thickened mucosa and white, raised pseudomembranes lesions in the crop and esophagus Colibacillosis (Escherichia coli) is common in chickens and can cause subacute pericarditis, airsacculitis, salpingitis, peritonitis, and acute fatal septicemia. It can occasionally cause granulomas in the liver and spleen (but not the intestine, bone marrow like in this chicken). Lameness would also be less common in the history for colibacillosis Infectious coryza is a respiratory disease of chickens that acutely causes nasal discharge, sneezing, and facial swelling. Ulcerative enteritis (Clostridium colinum) causes depression, anorexia, and diarrhea

A client with a small backyard flock presents a chicken carcass for necropsy. She sayd the bird had lost significant weight, was slow to move around, and was limping. Necropsy reveals various-sized granulomatous lesions distributed throughout the spleen, liver, intestines, and bone marrow, as seen below. What is the presumptive diagnosis? a. Ulcerative enteritis b. Avian tuberculosis c. Candidiasis d. Colibacillosis e. Infectious coryza

c. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae This is a classic scenario of an outbreak of pleuropneumonia, caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae. Primarily a growing pig disease, although adults can be affected as well, and sows can abort. Mortality is high if untreated. Survivors may experience lowered growth rates and have a persistent cough.

A commercial pig farm experiences an explosive outbreak of respiratory disease with high mortality, primarily in young pigs under 6 months of age. Affected pigs show severe respiratory distress, fever up to 107F (41.5C), anorexia, and reluctance to move. Some animals display open-mouth breathing with a blood-stained, frothy nasal and oral discharge. On necrospy, the lungs are bilaterally dark and swollen and ooze bloody fluid from the cut surface (see image). Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? a. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae b. Fusobacterium necrophorum c. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae d. Haemophilus parahaemolyticus e. Swine influenza

c. Sheep can transmit malignant catarrhal fever virus to cattle Most sheep carry the ovine herpes virus-2, which easily spreads (even by close proximity) to cattle, bison, deer, and other similar species where it can cause fatal lymphocytic vasculitis. The disease is called malignant catarrhal fever (MCF)

A dairy farmer wants to sell some land 100 yards from this corrals to a neighbor who plans to raise sheep. Why is this a bad idea? a. Sheep make dairy cattle nervous and decreased feed consumption and milk production b. Sheep carry bovine viral diarrhea (BVD) virus which they transmit to cows via stable flies c. Sheep can transmit malignant catarrhal fever virus to cattle d. Sheep carry Salmonella dublin which can cause abortion and calf deaths in cattle e. Sheep keds will infect the cattle, causing loss of milk production

a. Amblyomma spp. ticks Amblyomma spp. are vectors for Ehrlichia ruminatium (formerly Cowdria ruminatium), the causative agent of heartwater disease in ruminants. The clinical progression of this case and pericardial effusion seen on necropsy (as identified by the blue arrow) are classical for acuteheartwater disease. Animals may just be found dead with peractue disease. Definitive diagnosis typically requires necropsy with microscopic evaluation of stained brain tissue.

A dead goat is presented to a veterinarian in the Caribbean. The farmer reports that the goat hadn't been eating well yesterday, the this morning was breathing hard and walking with a strange high-stepping gait. She eventually went down and started paddling with her head twisted back just before death. Necropsy reveals the following finding (blue arrow) adjacent to the heart: He is worried about this other goats. What vector is responsible for transmitting the infectious agent most likely responsible for this goat's condition? a. Amblyomma spp. ticks b. Dermacentor spp. ticks c. Damalinia caprae lice d. Musca autumnalis (the face fly) e. Tabanids (e.g., the horse fly)

d. Ascites syndrome This is ascites in a chicken. Suddenly dead or cyanotic, panting chickens with abdomens distended by ascites fluid suggests ascites syndrome (waterbelly). Essentially a form of right ventricular heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension or more rarely, hepatic failure. Because broilers affected with ascites syndrome frequently die on their backs, differential diagnosis includes flip-over disease Another cardiomyopathy to remember is round heart disease (spontaneous cardiomyopathy), but that is a disease of turkeys Dissecting aneurysm is another cause of sudden death, but animals display severe hemorrhage on necropsy.

A dozen young chickens at a broiler-raising facility are found dead on their back and sides with no premonitory signs. Other birds appear cyanotic, with distended and reddened abdomens and congested blood vessels. Affected birds have an increased respiratory rate and reduced exercise tolerance. Nectopsy of a dead chicken shows typical lesions below. What is the clinical diagnosis? a. Flip over disease b. Infectious bursal disease c. Spontaneous cardiomyopathy d. Ascites syndrome e. Dissecting aneurysm

a. Circovirus Circovirus, a non-enveloped DNA virus was first described in Canada in 1991 and causes post-weaniing multisystemic wasting syndrome (PMWS). The virus also associated with porcine dermatitis and nephropathy syndrome caused by necrotizing vasculitis, which is more prominent in the skin, renal pelvis, mesentery, and spleen.

A farmer has a few 8-12 week-old pigs with weight loss, diarrhea, and a few with expiratory dyspnea. Several pigs with similar signs have died recently. Mucous membranes are pale, and inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged. Which one of the following viruses is the most likely causative agent? a. Circovirus b. Parvovirus c. Manangle virus d. Herpesvirus e. Paramyxovirus

b. histomoniasis This is histomoniasis; the combination of characteristic "bull's-eye" lesions on liver and cecal changes are pathognomic. Caused by protozoan Histomonas meleagridis, transmitted in eggs of cecal nematode Heterakis gallinarum. Expect a depression/diarrhea presentation Expect to see more sudden death with necrotic enteritis caused by Clostridium perfringens. Signs of avian spirochetosis are highly variable, may be absent: see listlessness, shivering, increased thirst, gree/yellow diarrhea with increased urates early on. Caused by a tick-borne Borrelia. Look for characteristic enlarged, mottles spleen with petechial hemorrhages, similar to Marble spleen disease of pheasants. Expect depression, bloody droppings, substantial mortality with hemorrhagic enteritis of turkeys. Expect diarrheal presentation with coronaviral enteritis of turkeys, but NOT the characteristic cecal/liver lesions described on necropsy above

A flock from a turkey farm is presented with a mysterious illness. Several dead birds are notable, mostly younger animals. Sick turkeys are listless, with drooping wings, unkept feathers, yellow droppings. Sick older birds are emaciated. Necropsy shows a yellowish green, caseous exudate in the ceca, cecal ulcerations and thickening of the cecal wall. A typical liver looks like the image. What is the diagnosis? a. Necrotic enteritis b. histomoniasis c. Avian spirochetosis d. Coronaviral enteritis of turkeys e. Hemorrhagic enteritis of turkeys

a. Remove sheep from the rain D. congolensis is an actinomycete that primarily affects the dorsal surface of animals. Clinically, crusty lesions will form which are easy to pull off, and many people describe them as a paintbrush lesion. In sheep, this disease may be known as strawberry footrot when the claws are affected. Valuable individuals may benefit from dry conditions plus antimicrobial therapy. The main predisposing factor to infection is being in prolonged wet conditions such as frequent rain,. Ivermectin is a poor answer choice because the organism is a gram positive branching actinomycete. Chronically infected sheep may be a source of infection, but euthanizing all affected is not necessary or practical if they are kept in dry conditions.

A flock of sheep is struggling with an outbreak of Dermatophilus congolensis in the lambs. What is your recommendation to the owner? a. Remove sheep from the rain b. Treat herd with ivermectin c. Isolate and euthanize affected individuals s. Shear all affected sheep

d. Polioencephalomalacia

A goat has a sudden onset of clinical signs of blindness, depression, head pressing, and anorexia that progress to recumbency with opisthotonos and nystagmus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Bacterial meningitis b. Carpine arthritis-encephalitis c. Listeriosis d. Polioencephalomalacia e. Scrapie

a. Supplement dietary zinc In pigs, zinc deficiency causes parakeratosis. Zinc supplementation will resolve clinical signs. Starter diets should contain 125 ppm zinc (and 0.9% calcium) Grower dietts should contain 75 ppm zinc (and 0.60-0.65% calcium) Finisher diets should contain 50 ppm zinc (and 0.45 to 0.50% calcium) Parakeratosis may resemble exudative epidermitis ("greasy pig disease"), caused by Staphylococcus hyicus. Exudative epidermitis is more typically seen in younger suckling piglets and treated with antibiotics. Sarcoptic mange (Sarcoptes scabiei var suis) is typically pruritic and treated with antiparasitics like ivermectin or pigs may be sprayed with lindane (0.05-0.1%) or malathion (0.05%)

A group of 2 1/2-,pmth-old feeder pigs are presented with non-pruritic keratinized skin lesions and mild lethargy. One severely affected animal is depressed and anorexic. What treatment is most appropriate for the presumptive diagnosis? a. Supplement dietary zinc b. High dose trimethoprim-sulfonamide 7-10 days c. Copper sulphate bath or sprays d. Ivermectin SQ now, repeat in 2 weeks e. Spray with malathion (0.05%)

a. Staphylococcus hyicus S. hyicus infection in pigs are also known as exudative epidermitis or greasy pig disease. The disease affects piglets less than 8 weeks of age and seldomly adults. The clinical signs and lesions are those described in the question. Morbidity and mortality is usually high in younger pigs. There are not many other swine diseases that appear clinically like this, so diagnosis is usually based on history and clinical signs. Pediculosis causes pruritus and anemia. Dermatosis vegtans is a semilethal hereditary defect that causes macules and papillomas around the coronary band of pigs. Pityriasis rosea is characterized by raised circular lesions on the ventral abdomen. Pityriasis rosea resolves on its own in a few weeks without any treatment

A group of 4-week-old piglets presents for depression, anorexia, and lethargy. They all have brown spots on the skin of their heads, axillae, and groins. Some of the lesions are brown to black crusts. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Staphylococcus hyicus b. Pityriasis rosea c. Pediculosis d. Dermatosis vegetans

d. Baermann examination of feces This specialized technique will detect lungworm larvae in the feces. First stage larvae produced in the lung are coughed up, swallowed, and passed in the feces. On the pasture, they go through a snail intermediate host, and the third stage larvae are then ingested with the snail

A group of 60 goats from 6 months to 6 years of age live on a small pasture in the sourth-east United States, where it is wet and warm for most of the year. The owner has never used any drugs or vaccine in these goats; in fact you are the first veterinarian he has ever consulted. Many of goats have developed a cough and weight loss, and you note pronounced dyspnea and tachypnea in several of them. You suspect lungworms as the cause of these problems. What test should you run to determine whehter lungworms, such as Muellerius capillarus are present? a. Fecal sedimentation b. Fecal flotation in sugar c. Collect pasture forage sample to culture for worms d. Baermann examination of feces e. Transtracheal aspiration

a. A frequent small amount of water It is dangerous to rapidly correct for a hyperosmolar or hypoosmolar state (salt toxicity) --could lead to brain swelling. It is best to gradually rehydrate the animals with small amounts of water given frequently. Also, half-strength Ringers solution with 2.5% dextrose can be given IV at a slow rate.

A group of feeder pigs is presented for strange behaviour. The pig farmer complains they are hyperexcitable yet are not squealing. A few are lethargic, wandering aimlessly, and seem to be blind. Bloodwork shows a marked increase in sodium concentration. Upon insepction of the pen, it turns out that the water had been inadvertently turned off. Which one of the following treatments is indicated? a. A frequent small amount of water b. Ad lib H2O access c. Mannitol d. Furosemide e. Hypertonic saline solution IV

e. Toxoplasma gondii Toxoplasma gondii infection can cause severe abortion storm in sheep. Clinical signs pathognomonic of T. gondii are bright to dark red cotyledons with white foci necrosis. The intercotyledonary areas of placenta are normal. With Brucella and Histophillus ovis, the abortion rate is much lower. Abortion caused by Listeria spp. is associated with the feeding of silage

A herd of ewes has had an abortion storm in which 80% of animals are affected. All stages of gestation are affected, and lambs that are born are very weak. On the placentas, cotyledons have white foci of necrosis. Which one of the following choices is the primary differential diagnosis? a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Brucella c. Chlamydiosis d. Histophilus ovis e. Toxoplasma gondii

e. Toxoplasma gondii Toxoplasma gondii infection can cause severe abortion storms in sheep. Clinical signs pathognomonic of T. gondii are bright to dark red cotyledons with white foci of necrosis. The intercotyledonary areas of placenta are normal. With Brucella and Histophilus ovis, the abortion rate is much lower. Abortion caused by Listeria spp. is associated with the feeding of silage

A herd of ewes has had an abortion storm in which 80% of animals are affected. All stages of gestation are affected, and lambs that are born are very weak. On the placentas, cotyledons have white foci of necrosis. Which one of the following choices is the primary differential diagnosis? a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Brucella c. Chlamydiosis d. Histophilus ovis e. Toxoplasma gondii

d. Beta mannosidosis Storage diseases and inborn errors of metabolism can result in intraneuronal accumulation of some ingestible metabolic products, in this case mannose-based oligosaccharides. Beta mannosidase deficiency occurs as a genetic disorder in Anglo-Bubian goats and Salers calves. The plasma level of the enzyme can be tested and is zero in affected goats. Alpha mannosidosis occurs in a number of breeds of cattle

A herd of line-bred registered Anglo-Nubian goats has had several kids born with abnormalities in the last year, and the owner asks you to investigate. The abnormalities reported include inability to stand since birth, short sternum, shortened and domed head with short curled ear, head tremor, and carpal contractures. They have no suck reflex. Based on these clincal signs, what condition should you suspect? a. Lead poisoning, in utero b. Congenital Neospora caninum infection c. Congenital bovine viral diarrhea infection d. Beta mannosidosis e. Locoweed poisoning, in utero

a. Urinalysis Stephanurus dentatus is the kidney worm of pigs. The parasites are often in or near the kidneys, in the ureters, or in perirenal fat. Posterior ataxia or paralysis can occur due to larvae migration along the spinal cord. Diagnosis usually made on necropsy or by finding ova in the urine.

A herd of pigs present for unthriftiness, slow growth, and occasional deaths Some pigs show signs of posterior ataxia or paralysis. The farmer says his herd was previously infected with Stephanurus dentatus. Which of the following diagnostics is most appropriate to make the diagnosis of Stephanurus dentatus? a. Urinalysis b. Blood smear c. Fecal float d. Intestinal biopsy e. Fecal sedimentation

c. Report the disease outbreak to the state/provincial veterinarian immediately

A large commercial layer flock in sourthern California experiences a sudden increase in mortality and an abrupt decrease in egg production. The affected birds are cyanotic and have dyspnea and violent diarrhea. A few of the birds have conjunctivitis or pronoused nervous signs. Postmortem examination of smaple birdsShows marked tracheitis, acute airsacculitis, serosal hemorrhages, and prominent hemorrhages along the gastrointestinal tract, primarily involving lymphoid tissue. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? a. Inform the owner that the outbreak will subside spontaneously b. Prepare to vaccinate other flocks in the immediate area for infectious laryngotracheitis c. Report the disease outbreak to the state/provincial veterinarian immediately d. Treat the birds with a broad-spectrum antibiotic in the drinking water e. Withdraw feed immediately and replace with new feed

c. Haemophilus parasuis Haemophilus parasuis causes Glasser's disease, which is usually characterized by sudden death but can often also lead to painful joints, pneumonia, and occasionally neurologic signs. Lesions show fibrinopurulent pleuritis, pericarditis, and peritonitis. Meningitis is usually responsible for the cause of neurologic signs and seizures. THis disease most commonly affects piglets from 2 weeks to 4 months of age. Morbidity rate can reach up to 50-75% and mortality rate up to 10%. Erysipelas typically occurs in grower and finisher pigs and does not result in penumonia. Diamond-shaped skin lesions (this the name "diamond skin disease") are pathognomonic for erysipelas. Mycoplasma hyosynoviae and osteochondrosis do not cause fever, pneumonia, or neurologic signs, and occur mainly in growers and finishers.

A little of 3-week-old piglets is presented for shifting leg lameness. They have warm swollen joints in all legs, a temperature of 107.0F (41.7C), and are dyspneic. Necropsy of one dead animal shows fibrinopurulent pleuritis and peritonitis. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Osteochondrosis b. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae c. Haemophilus parasuis d. Mycoplasma hypsynoviae

c. Urinary tract obstruction This should be suspected in all male and castrated male goats (and sheep) with non-specific signs of disease or discomfort because it is so common. Common clinical signs associated with urinary tract obstruction are vocalization and dribbling of urine. Heaving or forceful abdominal contractions may be seen. Hematuria, dysuria, prolonged urination, and apparent abdominal pain are also common signs. The most important step of evaluation is exteriorization of the penis and examination of the urethral process because this is the most common site of blockage. In severe cases, the entire urethra may be filled with calculi

A male goat presents for vocalizing and straining to urinate. He has been kicking at his abdomen. You detect crystals adherent to the hairs around the prepuce (see image). What condition should you suspect and try to rule out first? a. Upper intestinal obstruction b. Lower intestinal obstruction c. Urinary tract obstruction d. Acute severe pyelonephritis

d. Oral antacids containing magnesium oxide and magnesium hydroxide; IV fluids containing sodium bicarbonate; systemic penicillin This goat has a classic history for grain overload, and the PE is compatible with rumen acidosis and metabolic acidosis. If not promptly and aggressively treated, this can result in death from metabolic acidosis and dehydration, as well as liver abscesses and mycotic rumenitis. Oral antacids, systemic buffers, and penicillin are all indicated. The safest effective oral antacids are MgO and MgOH. In some cases, a rumenotomy may also be indicated

A mature pet goat is brought to you for diagnosis and treatment one morning. The owner found the wether in the feed room eating a bag of horse sweet feed (grain and molasses) some 3 hours ago. His abdomen is large and full. On examination, you note that his T=101F (38.3C), HR=120, RR=43, and his rumen is overfull with watery fluid. The goat is either a very quiet oet or is depressed, as he stands in place with no restraint and lies down as soon as he can (see photo). You pass a stomach tube and take a sample of rumen fluid and it has a pH of 4.5. Based on this history and PE findings, which of the following treatments would be most effective? a. Transfaunate with normal rumen contents; SQ 7% sodium bicarbonate; SQ tetracycline b. Oral antacids containing sodium bicarbonate; IV fluids containing sodium and chloride (saline); diuretics such as furosemide c. Oral antacids containing magnesium hydroxide; IV 50% glucose; IM tetracycline d. Oral antacids containing magnesium oxide and magnesium hydroxide; IV fluids containing sodium bicarbonate; systemic penicillin e. Oral vinegar; IV saline; oral penicillin

e. Gram negative bacteria in blood or tissues Fowl cholera is caused by Pasteurella multocida, a Gram negative, non-motile, pleomorphic rod. As with most poultry diseases, it is preferable to prevent introduction of the disease into a flock with biosecurity measures. If treatment is attempted, it should ideally be based on culture and sensitivity, but sulfonamides, tetracyclines, or penicillin are most often used. Intracellular inclusion bodies from the tracheal epithelium are seen with infectious Laryngotracheitis caused by a herpesvirus. Fowlpox virus produces intracytoplasmic inclusions. Liver necrosis with large, granular basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions is consistent with avian chlamydiosis

A number of chickens in a flock have been dying acutely with dyspnea and mucoid discharge from the mouth and watery, whitish diarrhea in some birds. On post-mortem, evaluation, you find vascular hyperemia of the abdominal organs. Which of the following findings would support a diagnosis of fowl cholera? a. Multifocal necrosis in the liver with large, granular basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions b. A positive tracheal wash culture for mycoplasma c. Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the chorioallantoic membrane of inoculated chick embryos d. Intranuclear inclusion bodies in tracheal epithelium e. Gram negative bacteria in blood or tissues

a. Gram negative bacteria in blood or tissues Fowl cholera is caused by Pasteurella multocida, a Gram negative, non motile, pleomorphic rod. As with most poultry diseases, it is preferable to prevent introduction of the disease into a flock with biosecurity measures. If treatment is attempted, it should ideally be based on culture and sensitivity, but sulfonamides, tetracyclines, oe penicillin are most often used. Intranuclear inclusion bodies from the tracheal epithelium are seen with infectious Laryngotracheitis caused by a herpesvirus. Fowlpox virus produces intracytoplasmic inclusions. Liver necrosis with large, granular basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions is consistent with avain chlamydiosis

A number of chickens in a flock have been dying acutely with dyspnea and mucoid discharge from the mouth and watery, whitish diarrhea in some birds. On postmortem evaluation, you find vascular hyperemia of the abdominal organs. Which of the following findings would support a diagnosis of fowl cholera? a. Gram negative bacteria in blood or tissues b. Intranuclear inclusion bodies in tracheal epithelium c. A positive tracheal wash culture for mycoplasma d. Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the chorioallantoic membrane of inoculated chick embryos e. Multifocal necrosis in the liver with large, granular basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions

b. Vitamin A A shortage of vitamin A in the diet can lead to these signs in young pigs, especially an increase in middle ear infections, as also seen in turtles. In sows it can cause embryonic mortality and congenital defects in their offspring.

A number of young growing pigs on a commercial hog farm are experiencing head tilt, incoordination, reduced weight gains, and weak rear limbs. Most have normal vital signs, and you suspect a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following deficiencies might cause such clinical signs? a. Vitamin D b. Vitamin A c. Thiamine (vitamin B1) d. Sodium e. Folic acid

a. Require original owner consent or court order to release information According to the AVMA's Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics, "Ethically, the information within veterinary medical record is considered privileged and confidential. It must not be released except by court order or consent of the owner of the patient. Veterinarian should secure a written release to document that request."

A person calls to say she adopted a friend's dog and requests a copy of the dog's medical record and radiographs. The former owner is a client at your clinic. Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate action to take? a. Require original owner consent or court order to release information b. Give caller a copy of medical record only c. Give caller a copy of medical record and radiographs d. After physical exam, start a new medical record documenting previous issues e. Give a summarized record with personal identifiers (vet, owner names) blocked out

a. High-dose antibiotics for sick piglets Use high-dose antibiotics for sick piglets. This is exudative dermatitis ("greasy pig disease"), caused by Staph hyicus. Responds to most antibiotics (pen, amoxi, TMS, erythromycin, lincomycin, tylosin, AGs, cephs) at high dose 7-10 days, plus topical antiseptic. In severe outbreaks, antibiotics for contact pigs recommended for a few days. Disinfection, good environmental hygiene important. In chronically affected herds, autogenous bacterins have been used with some success to decrease incidence.

A pig farm reports a problem in weaning-age piglets. The affected piglets are depressed and anorexic with slight fevers. A few of the more severely-affected piglets have an exudative epidermitis affecting the face, limbs, and ventral abdomen. What should be recommende? a. High-dose antibiotics for sick piglets b. Cull affected animals c. Vaccinate herd with modified live vaccine d. Report to state vet e. Topical coumaphos/disinfectant combination dip

a. High-dose antibiotics for sick piglets Use high-dose antibiotics for sick piglets. This is exudative dermatitis ("greasy pig disease"), caused by Staph hyicus. Responds to most antibiotics (pen, amoxi, TMS, erythromycin, licomycin, tylosin, AGs, cephs) at high dose 7-10 days, plus topical antiseptic. In severe outbreaks, antibiotics for contact pigs recommended for a few days. Disinfection, good environmental hygiene important. In chronically affected herds, autogenous bacterins have been used with some success to decrease incidence.

A pig farm reports a problem in weaning-age piglets. The affected piglets are depressed and anorexic with slight fevers. A few of the more severely-affected piglets have an exudative epidermitis affecting the face, limbs, and ventral abdomen. What should be recommended? a. High-dose antibiotics for sick piglets b. Cull affected animals c. Vaccinate herd with modified live vaccine d. Report to state vet e. Topical coumaphos/disinfectant combinatioon dip

b. Pasteurrella multocida Pasteurella multocida is the causative agent of fowl cholera. Older chickens are more vulnerable than are younger chickens. The description above is of chronic fowl cholera. In acute fowl cholera, there are usually no clinical signs before a large number of birds die. Classic lesions of Marek's disease are enlarged sciatic nerves and lymphoid tumors. It is a highly contagious diseease, but may be subclinical in many cases.

A poultry operation has been having problems with sick birds and many have died over the past few months. A few showed torticollis before death. Some of the currently ill fowl have swollen joints, wattles, and footpads. One of the broilers with swollen wattles is sacrificed. There is caseous, suppurative material inside the wattle and necrotic lung lesions. Which one of the following agents is likely involved? a. Fowlpox b. Pasteurrella multocida c. Marek's disease virus d. Salmonella gallinarum e. Paramyxovirus

c. Inguinal hernia This is an inguinal hernia in a piglet. A COMMON problem in pigs, Rx surgically: midline skin incision, cranial to scrotum; ligate and excise vas deferens, blood vessels. Both inguinal ring areas should be closed to prevent herniation post-surgery. Removal of tunic, cremaster muscle, extra subQ tissue, with closure to obliterate empty space helps prevent seromas. Intersex syndrome is described in pigs and goat (rare), but look for BOTH genitalia Perineal hernia more a problem of middle-aged pure bred dogs With cryptorchidism a testicle is RETAINED, not protruding

A seven-week-old pot-bellied pig is presented with a posterior swelling that looks like this: Which one of the following is the most likely clinical diagnosis? a. Perineal hernia b. Testicular torsion c. Inguinal hernia d. Cryptorchidism e. Intersex syndrome

e. This is a Knemidocoptes (also can be Cnemidocoptes) mutans infestation The location and appearance of these lesions is most suggestive of a Knemidocoptes mite infestation, also known as scaly leg mite. White-grey powdery debris forms between and on the surface of the scale resulting in the honeycomb crusts. The legs may become thickened and distorted. Diagnosis can usually be made by skin scraping or examination of the underside of a crust microscopically to detect the mite. The microscopic evaluation reveals two mites that look substantially different. These are the male and female Cnemidocoptes mites. The adult female, seen on the left, is almost round with short legs and devoid of suckers. The adult male is smaller with longer legs and suckers on long stalks. Treatment of choice is ivermectin

A small scale rearer of pheasant chicks reports that several birds from a group had developed abnormalities of the legs around 5-weeks of age (see image) resulting in mild lameness. You perform a microscopic evaluation on the underside of some of the crust and see the mites shown in the image below. What is the best interpretation? a. This is a Sarcoptes infestation b. This is a mixed infestation of Knemidocoptes and Sarcoptes c. This is a mixed infestation of Sarcoptes and Cheyletiella d. This is a mixed infestation of Cheyletiella and Knemidocoptes e. This is a Knemidocoptes (also can be Cnemidocoptes) mutans infestation

d. Choanal atresia Choanal atresia is one of the most common congenital problems of South American camelids. Choanal atresia occurs when the caudal nares (choanae) fail to oepn during embryologic development. Can be unilateral or bilateral and may cause complete or partial blockage.

A three-day-old female alpaca (cria) is presented in respiratory distress. The cria's cheeks flare noticeably during inspiration, and the distress is more pronounced during nursing, when the animal gasps and inhales milk. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Lung lobe torsion b. Wry face c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Choanal atresia e. Mitral stenosis

e. Penumothorax and collapsed lung The collapsed lungs can still be heard ventrally, but the dorsal thorax is quiet and air-filled. With pneumothorax, air can enter the thorax through a damaged lung or through a chest wall injury

Absence of dorsal lung sounds with audible ventral lungs sounds in a goat with dyspnea, tachypnea and normal temperature would indicate which of the following conditions? a. Pleural effusion b. Pulmonary edema c. Ovine progressive penumonia d. Mannheimia hemolytic bronchopneumonia e. Penumothorax and collapsed lung

a. Drug Enforcement Agency The DEA has the sole authority over drugs distributed between states

According to the FD&C Act under Title 21 of the US Code, who has been given authority to govern the manufacturing, distributing, and use of veterinary drugs that are distributed between states? a. Drug Enforcement Agency b. Congress c. Environmental Protection Agency d. Each individual state has its own authority

d. Transmissible gastroenteritis

An acute outbreak of vomiting and diarrhea in a litter of 1-week-old piglets is characterized by a high morbidity and a high mortality rate. Which of the following is the most likely cause? a. Clostridium perfringens type C infection b. Colibacillosis c. Rotavirus infection d. Transmissible gastroenteritis e. Vomiting and wasting disease

e. Skin scraping and microscopic exam Skin scraping and microscopic exam. Like most other animals, South American camelids get sarcoptic mange (scabies). A skin scrape and microscopic exam can rapidly confirm the diagnosis. Treatment is an avermectin-family drug SQ every 2 weeks. One report suggests amitraz is also effective. If you see a severely pruritic dog that looks like this, think of canine sarcoptic mange. If you see a severely pruritic cow that looks like this, think of bovine sarcoptic mange. In contrast, some things may look like mange, but aren't

An alpaca is presented in poor body condition with an unkempt coat, patchy alopecia and severe pruritus and crusting of the extremities. A photo of an affected limb is shown below. What is the most appropriate diagnostic step? a. Tell Yoda you found his brother b. Test skin crusts for contagious ecthyma parapoxviruses c. Check thyroid status and bluetongue titers d. Punch biopsy e. Skin scraping and microscopic exam

d. Count the legs Ticks are arachnids with 8 legs and sheep keds (Melophagus ovinus) have 6 legs. Sheep keds are wingless flies. The adults feed on blood. Clinical signs include pruritus, stained wool, and potentially anemia

While performing a physical exam on a w=ewe, you see a small ectoparasite. You are unsure if this is a sheep ked or a tick. What is an easy way to find out? a. Sheep keds have wings b. Sheep keds do not cause pruritus c. Only ticks feed on blood d. Count the legs

b. One medical record is used for a client that brings in 3 of her dogs The common requirements among almost all states are the following: 1) Separate record for each patient 2) Accurate record 3) Complete record - what was normal, abnormal, and not examined 4) Legible - Can be dictated to someone else 5)Unalterable 6) Easily accessible 7) Retained for 3-5 years

While state practice acts vary in regard to requirements for medical record keeping, there are common principles. Which of the following medical records would be unacceptable based on these practice acts? a. The medical record is in someone's handwriting other than the veterinarian b. One medical record is used for a client that brings in 3 of her dogs c. Medical records are discarded 5 years after the patient was last seen d. The medical record states that the heart and lungs were not ausculted on an exam

d. Marketing and pricing Determining whether to lease or purchase new equipment, current interest rates, and other costs are all very important considerations. However, the ability to make such a purchase profitable hinges on the ability to successfully market the product and services associated with it and the associated prices that will be charged.

You and your hospital are interested in purchasing a $30,000 ultrasound machine. Which of the following factors will have the biggest influence on whether such a purchase will be profitable? a. Whether the machine is purchased vs. leased b. The cost of insuring the machine c. The interest rate on the loan for the purchase d. Marketing and pricing

a. Penicillin Erysipelas is susceptible to penicillins, as well as tetracyclines (usually), lincomycin and tylosin. Chloramphenicol and nitroimidazoles (including metronidazole) are not approved for food animal use

You are asked to examine some feeder pigs that have stopped eating yesterday. The group is lying down and seems lethargic. They have fevers of 105-106F (40.6-41.1C), firm dry feces, and the skin has rhomboid-shaped red blotches scattered on it. What treatment should be recommended? a. Penicillin b. Metronidazole c. Streptomycin d. Chloramphenicol e. Gentamicin

a. Clostridium tetani This camel is showing signs of tetanus. The organism was likely introduced into the body through the castration wound. It is recommended that camels are vaccinated against tetanus prior to castration. While rabies may cause paralysis of the tongue and difficulty swallowing, the recent history of castration in this camel makes tetanus most likely. Trypanosoma evansi is transmitted bia biting flies and causes a slow wasting disease in camels

You are called out to examine a 4-year-old dromedary who was castrated 10 days ago and is now not eating. The groin and prepucial area is extremely swollen. The camel is unable to stand and is drooling. His neck is extended and he appears to be unable to swallow. Which of the following is most likely responsible for these symptoms? a. Clostridium tetani b. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus c. Trypanosoma evansi d. Rabies virus

c. Resistant parasites Haemonchus is a blood sucker and causes anemia. Haemonchus, Ostertagia, and some other trichostrongyles can become resistant to anthelmintics. In addition, some anthelmintics are not as effective against hypobiotic larvae. You should recommend several management changes and use a new anthelmintic such as ivermectin

You are called to a goat dairy in Mississippi and asked to perform a postmortem on several 3- to 5- month-old kids, which are pale. You note that the abomasum contains many Haemonchus contortus. Other animals of various ages appear anemic (pale, rapid HR, and weak). The owner has been treating all hergoats with fenbendazole at tow-month intervals for several years now. What is the explanation for this anemia likely to be? a. Copper deficiency anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Resistant parasites d. Vitamin B12 deficiency e. Hypobiotic larvae

b. Collect nasal swabs from all aborted sows In this case, the sudden onset of coughing that is highly contagious is highly suggestive of swine influenza virus. Swine influenza virus does not go systemic. It causes abortion by creating a systemic illness (fever), but the virus does not spread via the blood. The virus is not found in the blood or the aborted fetuses. A necropsy of an affected sow is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis as nasal swabs of acutely affected animals are great diagnostic specimens.

You are called to a sow farm to investigate an abortion outbreak. The owner has 600 sows and is concerned because 5 sows aborted overnight. Upon arrival, you find that all 5 sows that aborted were at least 95 days pregnant. Everyone seemed fine 2 days ago, but yesterday a few sows started to cough and were off feed. Today there are a lot more sows coughing. The aborted sows all have temperatures of 105.0-106.5F (40.6-41.4C). Which of the following samples is most important in helping you confirm your diagnosis? a. Euthanize a sow and collect a complete set of tissues b. Collect nasal swabs from all aborted sows c. Collect blood samples from aborted sows only d. Collect 2 aborted fetuses from each sow e. Collect a random sample of blood samples from sows (aborted and not aborted)

a. Cannot tell if either kid is truly CAE positive or negative You cannot tell if either kid is truly CAE positive or negative yet. Should probably retest both after 90 days, or at next semiannual herd testing. A positive ELISA test for caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAE) in a kid less than 90 days old may reflect maternal antibody or a false positive. Negative test in a kid less than 90 days old does not rule out CAE (though most kids infected at birth from colostrum develop a measurable antibody response by 4-10 weeks after infection) Note lots of qualifiers about CAE testing: A positive test in an adult goat implies infection, but does not confirm that clinical signs were caused by CAE virus. Negative tests do NOT rule out CAE infection. Definitive Dx is to find characteristic lesions by biopsy/necropsy. Virus isolation can substantiate Dx, but may not be practical on herd basis

You are helping a local goat dairy owner interpret the results of semi-annual ELISA serological testing of her herd for caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAE). One 2-month-old kid is CAE-positive by ELISA. Another 2-month-old kid is CAE-negative by ELIISA. How do you interpret these results? a. Cannot tell if either kid is truly CAE positive or negative b. CAE-positive kid has CAE, CAE-negative kid does not have CAE c. Both kids are infected with CAE d. CAE-positive kid has CAE, cannot say if CAE-negative kid is infected or not Cannot say if CAE-positive kid has CAE, CAE-negative kid is not infected

c. Suppurative, non-septic inflammation The marked predominance of non-degenerate neutrophils without apparent intracellular organisms makes this suppurative, nonseptic inflammation. Primary differentials include immune-mediated polyarthritis and polyarthritis due to rickettsial disease. A small mononuclear cell population is normally present in joint fluid, but neutrophils are not. "Granulomatous" describes a predominantly mononuclear cell population (lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells), and "pyogranulomatous" describes a mixed population of neutrophils and mononuclear cells. Osteoarthritis may result in a mild increase in mononuclear cells with a few neutrophils, but should not produce markedly inflammatory joint fluid.

You are looking at Diff-quick stained slides of joint fluid from a 7-year-old Labrador with shifting-leg lameness and fever. You see a moderate to large number of non-degenerate neutrophils, accounting for 95% of the cell population, and scattered small mononuclear cells (accounting for 5% of the cell population). How would you describe this joint fluid? a. Pyogranulomatous inflammation b. This is a normal cell population for joint fluid c. Suppurative, non-septic inflammation d. Suggestive of osteoarthritis e. Suggestive of neoplasia f. Granulomatous inflammation

b. Vaccinate 10-15 week old breeding animals Avian encephalomyelitis is c aused by a picornavirus. Transmission is commonly vertical (transovarian) but also can be lateral (fecal-oral) as the virus can survive in feces for several weeks. Many older animals remain carriers. Therefore, treating only the symptomatic animals is not an effective strategy. This is not a genetic disease and cannot be bred out the population. The best prevention strategy is to vaccinate breeder animals to prevent vertical transmission to progeny and to provide them with maternal immunity during the susceptible period

You examine a small flock of chickens and find that about 5% of the 1-2 week old birds are exhibiting neurologic signs of ataxia, imbalance, and head and wing tremors. Post-mortem examination of one of the affected animals revelas neuronal axon-type degeneration (ghost cells) in the brain stem and anterior horn of the spinal cord. You suspect that this is a case of avian encephalomyelitis. Which of the these treatment/management strategies is most appropriate for this disease? a. Treat chicks with oxytetracycline b. Vaccinate 10-15 week old breeding animals c. Vaccinate chicks at 1-3 days old d. Administer serum from recovered animals to affected animals e. Identify heterozygotes and do not breed them

c. Failed to check a blood glucose or urine dipstick on a dog who is polyuric and polydipsic, lethargic, and dehydrated The dog mentioned died from diabetic ketoacidosis. Due to the dog's critical nature, a blood sugar or urine dipstick should have been checked at time of the visit. The dog may have had a chance of survival if treatment for DKA had been initiated immediately. The other answer choices are not diagnostic procedures

You find yourself in a malpractice lawsuit for "omission of a diagnostic procedure" on a dog who died. The owner says the pet died because of this omission. Which of the following might you have done? a. Left sponge inside a body cavity b. Failed to administer fluids in a dog who has recently been having vomiting and diarrhea c. Failed to check a blood glucose or urine dipstick on a dog who is polyuric and polydipsic, lethargic, and dehydrated d. Failed to administer anti-emetics to a vomiting dog

d. Contact the state veterinary authorities This could be a case of African Swine Fever (ASF). THe very high mortality, pigs with fevers (pigs pilling), septicemia (cyanosis, hemorrhages on multiple organs), and enlarged spleens with infarcts are all suggestive of a highly infectious disease. The history of the farmer returning from hunting also indicates foreign travel (Africa). Warthogs are known reservoirs of ASF virus and usually do not show any clinical signs of infection. The incubation period for ASF varies from 5-15 days (fits the time frame of this scenario). Domestic pigs are highly susceptible with high mortalities. The neomycin is not contributing to the problem. It is simply not effective against a viral infection. There is no need to call the FDA either. Although a feed mix-up occurred, that was 3 weeks earlier so taking a feed sample today does not address what may have been in the feed earlier. There is not need to collect blood samples at this time. Once a Foreign Animal Disease investigation is initiated, the authorities will determine what samples (whole blood or serum) and how many samples if any are needed. Besides, with a high morbidity and mortality (i.e. high prevalence), there would be no need to sample that many animals anyway

You have been called a pig form to investigate an acute outbreak with high mortalities. The farm has one large confinement with 1,050 pigs. Pigs currently weigh around 50lbs. This is the same producer who had stopped at your clinic just a few days ago to purchase some neomycin for the water to treat these pigs for salmonella. The pigs are currently on day 3 of the 5 days water medication regime. The health of the pigs has gotten worse. THe pigs are cyanotic and are pilling up. The farmer lost 2 pigs before he started the water medication, 6 pigs yesterday, and 45 today for a total of 53 or just over 5% mortality. He informs you that he is very concerned that there was a feed mix up that occurred 3 weeks ago while he was away on a hunting trip in Africa. As you necrospy the first 5 pigs, you notice markedly enlarged spleen (two with splenic infarcts), hemorrhagic lymph nodes, pinpoint hemorrhages on kidney capsules, generalized pulmonary edema, and some fibrin over the heart and lungs. What should you do next? a. Collect 60 blood samples from affected pigs b. Collect a 1 pound sample of feed in a paper bag c. Contact the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) d. Contact the state veterinary authorities e. Stop the administration of neomycin immediately

d. Zeralenone This estrogenic effect of this mycotoxin causes edema of the vulva and sometimes edema of the rectum predisposing to rectal prolapses. There are some suspected genetic predispositions for rectal prolapses, but not for the enlarged reddened vulvas. Calcium and phosphorus balance has no effects on either of the clinical presentations described. Severe diarrhea cause by salmonellosis can lead to rectal prolapses, but diarrhea or coughing (systemic manifestations) will be common

You have been called to a farm to fix several rectal prolapses in a group of 60lbs pigs. The pigs are not coughing and you notice that several of the gilts in the group also have reddened and enlarged vulvas. What could be causing both problems? a. Salmonellosis b. Aflatoxins c. Genetic predisposition d. Zeralenone e. Low Ca and P ratio in the feed

d. Swine influenza The rapid spread within a population (>50% in just 2 days) is characteristic for swine influenza. Although this group of pigs had been vaccinated for swine influenza, the great diversity in the virus (especially due to antigenic shift) does not gurantee that the particular vaccine used will contain influenza strains that match or corss protect against hte specific virus the herd has been exposed to. PRRS and PCV viruses both can cause respiratory problems in pigs, but they tned to move very slowly within a population. Mycoplasma hypopneumoniae clinically presents as a more chronic problem. Strep. suis cause pneumonia, but usually is more of a problem for an individual or small group of pigs. Classical swine fever is currently not present in the US and manifests as a systemic and enteric problem in pigs and not associated with pneumonia

You have been called to a swine farm with 2,400 pigs weighing around 150lbs because of sudden onset of respiratory signs. Upon arrival, you find over 50% of the pigs are coughing. They are off feed and lethargic. The owner reports the coughing just started 2 days ago. The pigs have been vaccinated for porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus (PRRS), mycoplasma hyponeumoniae, porcine circovirus type 2 (PCV2), and swine influenza. WHat is your top differential? a. Porcine circovirus type 2 (PCV2_ b. Classical swine fever c. Mycoplasma hypneumoniae d. Swine influenza e. Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus (PRRS) f. Streptococcus suis

f. Treat all pigs in the group with enrofloxacin and follow up with gentamicin in the water Enrofloxacin is an approved fluoroquinolone for E. coli in groups of pigs. Gentamicin is approved for use in young pigs. Because of the large size of the molecule, it is poorly absorbed from the intestine. In this case, we are targeting the E. coli in the intestines and are not concerned about systemic abdorption of the antibiotic. Although injection of young pigs with gentamicin is legal, it has a voluntary long withdrawal period and can be nephrotoxic, especially in dehydrated patients. Water antibiotics can be very effective against enteric pathogens, but it does take about two days for pigs to start getting enough antibiotic in the water to start having an effect. Because of this delay in the effectiveness of water antibiotics, it is important that we start treating pigs immediately. Three week old scouring pigs are very susceptible to dehydration, making a quick recovery critical. Because enteric hemolytic E. coli is highly contagious, water antibiotics will be necessary in helping prevent other pigs from becoming infected. Feed grade antibiotics can be effective against eteric pathogens but are not a good choice for treatment. Feed delivery may be a week away, and even if feed could be delivered that same day, it would take three or four days before pigs get enough antibiotic via the feed. Immediate action is crucial

You have diagnosed a hemolytic E. coli in a group of 350 three-week-old pigs. Which of the following treatments would be your best recommendation for the farmer? a. Gentamicin in the water b. Neomycin in the feed c. Treat sick pigs with an injection of gentamicin d. Gentamicin in the water and neomycin in the feed e. Treat sick pigs with an injection of ceftiofur f. Treat all pigs in the group with enrofloxacin and follow up with gentamicin in the water

d. Choline deficiency This occurs in both chicks and young turkeys, but turkeys have a particularly high choline requirement. The clinical signs described should lead you to suspect this deficiency

Young turkeys on a large new farm are showing stunting, poor feathering, and short thick bowed legs. Histologically they have chondrodysplasia. The most likely cause of this is _____? a. Selenium deficiency b. Copper deficiency c. Vitamin E deficiency d. Choline deficiency e. Magnesium deficiency

c. Phylloerythrin Phylloerythrin is a photosensitizing agent derived from microbial breakdown of chlorophyll in the GI tract. If the liver is damaged, then phylloerythrin builds up in the plasma. This phylloerythrin absorbs and releases light energy in the skin, causing SECONDARY photosensitization. This is the most common type of livestock photosensitizatioon. So, when sheep eat hepatotoxic Tetradymia spp. and Artemisia nova, the compromised liver allows toxic photosensitizing phylloerythrin to build up. PRIMARY photosensitization occurs in the absence of hepatic disease when a photodynamic agent is ingested/injected/absorbed. Hypericum perforatum (St. Joh's wort) is an example of a plant that causes primary photosensitization. Tetracycline is a medication that can cause primary photosensitization. Congenital inherited photosensitization is seen in some breeds of cattle and sheep.

a flock of sheep has been grazing on Sorghum halepense (Johnson grass), Tetradymia spp. (horsebush) and Artemisia nova (black sage). Many of the exposed animals have edema, especially in their heads. This lamb has edema around the eyes and the ears show hyperkeratinized tissue. What is the photosensitizing agent responsible for this condition? a. Tetradymia spp. b. Chlorophyll c. Phylloerythrin d. Artemisia nova e. Bile acids

a. Normal finding Normal male crias are born with adhesions between the free end of the penis and the prepuce. As they sexually mature, these adhesions gradually detach, so puberty can be seen clinically when the penis can be completely exteriorized. Castration prior to puberty may result in continued adhesions. In Peru, males are not generally used for breeding until 3 years of age. Male llamas reach puberty at approximately 21 months (range (9-31 months). Alpacas mature earlier, around 12 months of age.

During examination of a newborn male cria, adhesions between the free end of the penis and the prepuce are evident. What is the most likely explanation? a. Normal finding b. Common congenital malformation of preputial ring, associated with phimosis c. Secondary to stress in utero, 5th month d. Failure of separation of preputial diverticulum e. Sequella of hypospadias; Heritable

c. Disinfect shears before shearing and between shearing sheep The sheep are most likely being infected with caseous lymphadenitits (also commonly called boils) which is caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. This organism is highly contagious and commonly transmitted at shearing when nicks and cuts occur. When you lance these abscesses, make sure to clean up the area thoroughly and decontaminate everything to avoid spreading the disease. The rancher should also consider vaccination against caseous lymphadenitis. Dipping in Betadine would be prohibitively expensive and likely to stain the wool and be ineffective. Neither other choice is useful in controlling caseous lymphadenitis

Every time an owner shears his sheep, 10% develop large abscesses in their lymph nodes several weeks or even months after shearing. What should the owner do to control/prevent this problem the next time he shears his sheep? a. To eliminate carriers of the disease from the flock, treat all affected animals with long acting tetracycline when you lance the abscesses later b. Develop a closed flock in which all replacements come from within the flock c. Disinfect shears before shearing and between shearing sheep d. Pretreat all animals by dipping in a solution of dilute Betadine (an aqueous iodine compound) in a dip tank

d. Pasteurella multocida Pasteurella multocida infection in conjunction with Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae causes exudative bronchopneumonia, polyarthritis, and chronic lung lesions. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae (also called "enzootic pneumonia") is a common, smolding, low-level illness. Stressors (parasites, other infections, even weather) can result in severe pneumonia. Best managed by decreasing stressors with improved ventilation and decreased overcrowding. In endemic herds, ABX for sick individuals (ie: lincomycin, tylosin, tiamulin, or a tetracycline) helps control illness, most likely by preventing secondary bacterial infection (like Pasteurella). Bacterin vaccines give good protection, decrease signs (coughing). Pre-farrowing vaccination of sows decreases colonization in suckling piglets.

Failure to control mild endemic respiratory disease in swine caused by Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae predisposes pigs to complications. Which other organism works in conjunction with Mycoplasma hyopneumonia to cause exudative bronchopneumonia and polyarthritis? a. Bordetella bronchiseptica b. Fusobacterium necrophorum c. Hemophilus parasuis d. Pasteurella multocida e. Swine influenza virus

a. Cardiomyopathy Another possibly correct answer is hepatopathy, since gossypol also affects the liver. However, sudden death is most likely from cardiac toxicity and secondary pulmonary edema. An example of a toxin causing a neuropathy would be organophosphates, metaldehyde, astragalus or oxytropis. An example of a toxin causing a coagulopathy would be bracken fern or sweet clover. An example of a toxin causing a hepatopathy would be fiddleneck (amsinkia) senecio, or ragwart

Gossypol toxicity in young ruminants can cause suddendeath as result of a _______ a. Cardiomyopathy b. Hepatopathy c. Cagulopathy d. Neuropathy

b. Infectious laryngotracheitis Blood in the trachea and this Hx suggest infectious laryngotracheitis (ILT). A highly contagious herpesvirus infection, ILT is characterized by RESPIRATORY signs (rales, severe dyspnea, coughing). In severe forms, mortality can reach 50%, typically due to occlusion of the trachea by blood, mucus or caseous exudates. In most states, ILT is REPORTABLE! Infectious coryza is a milder respiratory disease, with swelling around the eyes and head, sneezing, nasal discharge. Newcastle disease is characterized primarily by respiratory signs. Severe forms include depression, neurologic signs or diarrhea. Look for GI hemorrhage with most severe form, VIscerotropic Velogenic Newcastle disease (VVND), which is REPORTABLE. With fowlpox, only a few birds typically affected with scab-like lesions around head. See only depression beofre death with Marek's disease. Some birds may have characteristic unilateral paresis (one leg forward, one leg back). On necropsy, see lymphoid tumors in organs and enlarged nerves.

Half of the flock from a local broiler poultry farm has died in the last ten days. Examination shows chickens that are gasping and coughing, extending their necks to inhale. Some have blood-stained beaks. There are no obvious neurologic signs. Necropsy finds hemorrhage in the airways, as shown below. What is the most likely presumptive diagnosis? a. Infectious coryza b. Infectious laryngotracheitis c. Fowl pox, diphtheritic form d. Viscerotropic Velogenic Newcastle disease e. Marek's disease

a. 32 Ruminants have 2(I 0/4, P 3/3, M 3/3). The corner or fourth incisor is a modified canine tooth, so most authorities now write it as we have calling it an incisor. It could also be correctly written as 2 (I 0/3, C 0/1, P 3/3, M 3/3). Pigs have 44 permanent teeth. Horses have between 40-42 permanent teeth. Dogs also have 42 permanent teeth. Cats have 30 permanent teeth

How many permanent teeth do sheep have? a. 32 b. 40 c. 30 d. 44

c. Left lung On a right lateral radiograph, the right side is down. In this situation, the right lung lobes are compressed and the left lung lobes inflated, accentuating a mass in the left lung. On a left lateral radiograph, the left lobes are compressed and a mass in the left lung can be concealed due to compression of the lung surrounding the mass

If a mass appears in the lungs on a right lateral radiograph, but not on a left lateral radiograph, where is the mass located? a. Body wall b. Mediastinum c. Left lung d. Right lung

b. Babesia canis Imidocarb diproprionate is the treatment of choice for babesia canis but is NOT effective clearing B. gobsoni and B. felis. B. gibsoni is usually susceptible to treatment with atovaquone and azithromycin. Two species of Babesia, B. gibsoni (small Babesia) and B. canis (large Babesia), are important causes of babesiosis in dogs. Babesiosis is a tickborne disease - clinical signs of hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. Polymerase chain reaction is the only conclusive way to determine which Babesia species is responsible.

Imidocarb diproprionate is the most effective therapeutic for which one of the following organisms? a. Bartonella spp. b. Babesia canis c. Rickettsia rickettsii d. Borrelia burgdorferi e. Trypanosoma congolense

c. Broiler chickens Broilers are raised to 6-7 weeks with high uniformity of males and females at that age

In which one of the following production systems are male and female poultry raised together? a. Turkeys b. Broiler and laying chickens c. Broiler chickens d. Turkeys and broiler chickens e. Laying chickens

e. Report outbreak to regulatory authorities This history and the necropsy findings are consistent with viscerotropic velogenic Newcastle disease (VVND), which is REPORTABLE. The appropriate regulatory authorities should be contacted ASAP. Gross lesions, such as the petechiae seen here in the proventricular mucosa are not usually seen with low-virulence Newcastle disease (LONDV). The clinical history is also suggestive of VVND. THe acute form of NDV must be differentiated from highly pathogenic avian influenza by isolation of a hemagglutinating virus identified by inhibition with NEwcastle disease antiserum. NCV occurs worldwide and chickens usually present with acute respiratory disease. Occasionally diarrhea, neurological problems, or depression predominate. Virulence varies between the VVND and LONDV forms. Vaccines against NDV decrease clinical signs and death. Infected poultry are depopulated. Sometimes the temperature of the poultry house is increased to decrease morbidity and mortality in flocks with suspected avian influenza. Amprolium is a treatment for coccidiosis.

Many hens in a large backyard flock recently become ill after the owner purchased four new chickens. The sick hens are gasping, coughing and sneezing. They have poor appetite and act depressed. Some affected birds have watery green diarrhea and swelling of the head and neck. A few have paralyzed legs and wings, twisted necks, are circling, and have tremors or clonic spasms. Birds are not laying well and some eggs are misshapen with watery albumen. Many of the sickest birds have died. Necropsy of a dead chicken shows petechial hemorrhages on the mucosal surface of the proventriculus and gizzard (left). What should be done next to address this problem? a. Increase poultry house temperatures to reduce morbidity b. Disinfect housing with phenolic compounds, barrier precautions for staff. c. Treat all affected chickens with amprolium d. Cull affected birds and vaccinate the remainder e. Report outbreak to regulatory authorities

a. Mosquito control The condition described here is the dry form of avian (fowl) pox. This is a relatively slow spreading disease that can be spread by contact or by mosquitoes that may harbor infective virus for greater than a month. In the dry form of the disease, the main sign is raised, whitish wart-like lesions on unfeathered areas (head, legs, vent, etc.). The lesions heal in about 2 weeks. Unthriftiness, decreased egg production and retarded growth may be seen. Mortality is low with this form of the disease. THe wet form mainly involves the oral cavity and upper respiratory tract. Lesions are diphtheritic and can ulcerate or erode mucous membranes. Marked respiratory involvement can lead to mortality. A diagnosis is usually based on flock history and presence of these lesions. THis is a pox virus and there is no specific effective treatment, but there is a vaccine. Disease control is best accomplished by preventive vaccine as sanitation alone will not prevent spread of disease. Several vaccines are available and a single application results in permanent immunity. There are not many tick borne poultry diseases, but they may include spirochaetosis and Pasteurella infection. Raising the temeprature 5 degrees may be part of the treatment for infectious bronchitis in chickens. Disinfecting pens +/- quarantine is done for quail bronchitis, aspergillosis, and ulcerative enteritis. Antibiotics in the drinking water are most effective for preventing secondary bacterial infections and for mycoplasma but not preventing spread of the virus.

Many turkeys on a poultry farm develop whitish "wart-like" nodules and scabs on the comb, wattles, feet, and vent. Which management intervention would help prevent spread of the disease? a. Mosquito control b. Immediate removal of fecal waste c. Tick control d. Raise the room temperature 5 degrees e. Add antibiotics to the drinking water f. Thoroughly disinfect pens and equipment

e. The client should be told that they are receiving discounted goods or services There are many reasons to give discounts and many types of discounts that a veterinary practice may offer depending on the practice philosophy and the types of clients that they are hoping to attract with such discounts. Examples might include discounts for senior citizens, animal rescue organizations, first time clients, employees, or other veterinary professionals. They only way to use discounts to the practice's advantages is to make sure that clients are aware that they are receiving the benefit of a discount. How a practice may choose to market or advertise a discount may vary based on the practice philosophy. Practice managers or owners are typically responsible for choosing who to offer discounted services to; attending veterinarians often use different criteria when deciding what to discount that may not fit the business and practice interests.

Many veterinary practices provide discounted goods or services to clients in certain instances. From a business standpoint, which of the following is always true about discounted services? a. An explanation of the available discounts should be clearly displayed in the reception or waiting area b. A discount provided to one client should be provided to all clients c. Discounts should be given based on the discretion of the attending veterinarian d. Discounts should only be given to clients on their first visit e. The client should be told that they are receiving discounted goods or services

a. Encephalomyocarditis Encephalomyocarditis virus (EMCV) is caused by a cardiovirus in the family picornaviridae. Confusingly, the virus is named for its effects on mice. Think of rodents and exotic zoo mammals with EMCV. Pig-to-pig contact, contamination of swine feed and water by rodents or ingestion of dead rodents may cause disease. See pulmonary edema and copious transudate in the respiratory tract, causing cardiac failure. Zoo outbreaks of EMCV have included lions, African elephants, rhinos, hippos, sloths, llamas, antelope and non-human primates. An outbreak of lion deaths at a Florida zoo in the USA occurred after feeding them the carcass of an African elephant that had died of EMCV. Edema disease is a neurologic disease caused by a hemolytic Escherichia coli producing Shiga toxin e2 and F18 pili resulting in high mortality in recently-weaned pigs. Glasser's disease, caused by Hemophilus parasuis is usually an acute disease of 6 to 8 week-old pigs which causes fibrinous arthritis, polyserositis, and meningitis. Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome (PRRS), is an arterivirus causing reproductive failure and post-weaning respiratory disease. Pseudorabies is a herpesvirus: infection causes CNS disease in neonates, respiratory disease in weaned pigs, and fever in all ages.

Most of a litter of European wild boar at a zoological park have died. The surviving piglets are in lateral recumbency with a frothy nasal discharge. Necropsy of the piglets reveals pulmonary edema and copious fluid in the trachea and bronchi along with grayish-white necrotic foci on the myocardium. Which one of the following diseases is the most likely diagnosis? a. Encephalomyocarditis b. Edema disease c. Glasser's Disease d. Porcine Respiratory and Reproductive Syndrome e. Pseudorabies

e. Atrioventricular valves The first heart sound (S1-the "lub" in "lub-dub") is caused by closure of the atrioventricular valves (AV valves, mitral and tricuspid). The seconda sound (S2) is the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves (semilunar valves). A third sound (S3) is the end of rapid ventricular fillinf and a fourth sound (S4) is atrical systole (atrial contraction). You can often hear all 4 sounds in horses, but typically hear only S1 and S2 in cattle and small animals

One description of a typical heart sound is "lub-dub." What makes the first heart sound (S1)? a. Ventricular filling b. Aortic and pulmonic valves c. Mitral and semilunar valves d. Atrial contraction e. Atrioventricular valves

d. Classical swine fever Classical swine fever (CSF, "hog cholera"). Virology is required to confirm and differentiate from other causes of febrile hemorrhagic diseases. The best tissues to submit are tonsils, maxillary or submandibular lymph nodes, mesenteric lymph nodes, spleen, ileum, and kidney. Haemophilus parasuis (Glasser's disease) is an acute bacterial infection, characterized by different combinations of meningoencephalitis, polyserositis and polyarthritis and can contribute to bacterial pneumonia.

Over the past 2 weeks, several pigs in a herd have been febrile and depressed. Many were constipated, then had diarrhea. A few were incoordinated and one had seizures. A few have died. Necropsy revealed petechial hemorrhages on the kidneys and larynx, and a hemorrhagic urinary bladder. Of the following choices, which one is most consistent with a presumptive diagnosis? a. Glasser's disease b. Erysipelas c. Swine dysentery d. Classical swine fever e. Streptococcus suis infection

c. Sarcobatus vermiculatus (greasewood) Oxalates are found in Sarcobatus vermiculatus (greasewood). Greasewood toxicity is seen primarily in sheep, sometimes in cattle, usually when large amounts are consumed over a short period of time. Oxalates occur in plants as salts of calcium, sodium, and potassium. Calcium oxalate is insoluble and is lost through the GI tract. Sodium and potassium oxalates are soluble and either 1) bind to calcium in the rumen and lost through the GI tract, or 2) are absorbed and react with calcium in body fluids. Death is attributed to hypocalcemia and/or kidney failure caused by calcium oxalate crystals in the renal tubules. Signs of oxalate toxicity include: dullness, lowering of the head, loss of appetite, separation from the herd; followed by excessive salivation with frothing, progressive incoordination; and finally, coma, irregular breathing, and death. Oxalate containing plants include: Sarcobatus (greasewood) Oxalis (sorrel), Rumex (dock), Halogeton, Amaranthus (pigweed), and Chenopodium (lambsquarter). Oxalates are also produced by molds (Aspergillus niger) in contaminated feeds. Delphinium spp. (larkspur) contain alkaloids Hyperium perforatum (klamathweed) contain hypericin Hordeum spp. (foxtail) cause physical injury Solanum spp. (nightshade) contain alkaloids.

Oxalate is the toxic agent found in which one of the following palnts? a. Hypericum perforatum (klamathweed) b. Delphinium spp (larkspur) c. Sarcobatus vermiculatus (greasewood) d. Hordeum spp. (foxtail) e. Solanum spp. (nightshade)

d. Oxaloacetate During times of negative energy balance the body is unable to produce enough oxaloacetate to feed into the citric acid cycle. This results in mobilization of fat and subsequent production of ketones. The other answer choices are ketones

Pregnancy toxemia may occur in ewes and does in the last 2-4 weeks of gestation secondary to insufficient energy intake. Which of the following compounds is the body deficient in? a. Acetoacetic acid b. Acetone c. B-hydroxybutyric acid d. Oxaloacetate

d. Senecio spp. (ragwort) Common plants containing pyrrolizidine alkaloids (PA) are: Senecio vulgaris, S. jacobea, Amsinckia intermedius, Heliotropium europaeum, Crotolaria spectabilis. Although generally not palatable, livestock will eat these plants when baled in hay or on pasture when forage is scarce. Chronic ingestion allows accumulation of toxic levels of PA, resulting in hepatic fibrosis. Poisoning is most common in horses and cattle. Sheep and goats are more resistant to toxic effects. Hepatic pathology with associated clinical signs is the most common manifestation of pyrrolizidine alkalosis in domestic animal species. Clinical signs may not be seen for several weeks or months after initial exposure. Consumption of the offending plant may even have ceased months earlier. Clinical signs include loss of body condition, anorexia, dullness, and constipation or diarrhea. Photosensitization and hepatoencephalopathy can also occur. Persea spp. (avocado leaves) contain persin. Signs of toxicity are: non-infectious mastitis, abrupt cessation of milkflow, heart failure Nerium spp. (oleander) contain cardiac glycosides. Signs of toxicity are: sudden death, weakness, diarrhea, cardiac arrhythmias. Lupinus spp. (lupine) contain alkaloids. Signs of toxicity are: birth defects (ingestion at 40-70 days in cattle), abortion, tremors, incoordination, head pressing, seizures. Astragalus and Oxytropis spp (locoweed) contain alkaloids (swainsonine). Signs of toxicity are: excitability, incoordination, difficulty eating, exaggerated mouth movements, depression.

Pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity is caused by chronic ingestion of which one of the following plants? a. Astragalus spp. (locoweed) b. Lupinus spp. (lupine) c. Nerium spp. (oleander) d. Senecio spp. (ragwort) e. Persea spp. (avocado)

b. Enzootic pnuemonia in grower/finisher units Enzootic pneumonia in grower/finisher units is a likely sequela of porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS). This history and clinical presentation are consistent with PRRS. It is common for the grower/finisher units to have increased severity of enzootic pneumonia once the infection has spread to all parts of the herd. PRRS is caused by a highly contagious artervirus that is spread via fomites, aerosolization, insects, and silent shedders. There are two typicaly clinical phases. First, reproductive failure as described in this herd and second, post-weaning respiratory diseases. The initial outbreak lasts about 1-4 months, but the disease can become chronic and endemic. PRRS is the most economically significant disease affecting US swine production today. Dx: virus detection and serology on oral fluid samples Rx: None. Prevention is key Know the status of replacement gilts and boars, isolate incoming stock Nursery depopulation has been used 12-18 months after the initial outbreak when only the growers/finishers are still affected. Other effective methods: whole herd depopulation-repopulation, test and removal, and herd closure.

Roughly 10% of the dry sows in a herd of pigs have poor appetite, fever, and are coughing. There have been several late-term abortions and an increase in returns post-service. Some of the farrowing sow have poor appetite and thirst. Several have mastitis and/or agalactia and are farrowing 2-3 days early. Some piglets born alive have diarrhea, and some in the litter were born dead and mummified. There's been more respiratory disease in the piglets recently and the farmer has heard a funny thumping noise when the most severely affected piglets breath. The farmer noticed that several of the sows have transiently had blue ears, as seen in the picture. Based on the presumptive diagnosis, if this disease becomes endemic in the herd, which of the following is a likely sequela? a. Necrotic eary syndrome in piglets b. Enzootic pnuemonia in grower/finisher units c. Chronic diarrhea in breeding sows d. Neurologic syndromes in breeding boars e. Diamond-shaped, erythematous skin lesions in most pigs

c. Nutritional myopathy Vitamin E and selenium are key components in preventing nutritional myopathies

Selenium deficiency in ruminants results in _______. a. Nutritional deformities b. Nutritional neuropathy c. Nutritional myopathy d. Nutritional hepatopathy

a. Bluetongue Swollen sore muzzles with mucous membrane erosions, high fevers and lameness suggests infection with bluetongue virus. Bluetongue is almost exclusively seen in sheep, though white-tailed deer, pronghorn antelope and desert bighorn sheep in North America can be severely affected. Rare in cows. REPORTABLE! Bluetongue is indistinguishable from foot and mouth disease (FMD), so that is a good second choice. But FMD is unlikely in the scenario above because FMD mainly affects pigs and cattle Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP) is a chronic disease of wasting and dyspnea in sheep and goats, caused by a lentivirus (retrovirus family). OPP is most common in almost older than 4 years and rarely occurs in sheep and goats under 2 years of age

Several 12 months-old sheep and goats are sick at a petting zoo that has cows, horses, pigs, bison and white-tailed deer. One of the deer is also affected. The rest of the animals appear well. Affected sheep are febrile, listless, and off-feed, with serous or mucopurulent nasal discharge and rectal tempetaure ranging from 105-107.5F. Physical exam shows swollen muzzles with edema and congestion of the lips, nose and face with small hemorrhages and ulcers on the mucous membranes. The ulcers appear where the teeth contact the swollen lips and tongue. Two affected animals are lame. What is the diagnosis? a. Bluetongue b. Peste des petits ruminants (PPR) c. Capriine arthritis encephalitis (CAE) d. Contagious ecthyma e. Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)

b. Listeriosis The key to answering this question is the unilateral nature of the clinical signs. Because Listeria infection is caused by an ascending infection, usually of the trigeminal nerve, the signs are frequently unilateral. The other big hint was that the animals were fed silage. Listeria is a common inhabitant of spoiled silage because it thrives in a microaerophilic, low pH environment.

Several animals of a herd of silage fed goats are showing signs of circling, dysphagia, and unilateral dropped lip. On your examination, you also note a lack of a menace and palpebral reflex unilaterally in several of these animals. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Brain abscess b. Listeriosis c. Polioencephalomalacia d. Rabies

a. Increase energy intake About one lB/head/day of good quality grain should be introduced by mid gestation for sheep and goats carrying multiple fetuses. The prognosis for animals already showing clinical signs is poor and treatment is expensive. A C-section can be done, IV glucose administered slowly by drip. This should be followed by rumen transfaunations and feeding 15-30 mL propylene glycol every 12 hours, as well as feeding high quality feed

Several does in a large goat herd, all of which are in late gestation, have not been able to rise to the standing position. They are being fed good quality grass and alfalfa hay. It is December and the weather is cold. They have reduced feed intake and the most severely affected individuals appear blind and depressed, and two have died. On post-mortem examination, you only finding is that they have fatty livers and 4 fetuses each. They physical exam is otherwise not very revealing except that all have significant ketonuria. What steps should be taken to prevent more does from developing this disorder? a. Increase energy intake b. Calcium gluconate IV c. Add magnesium oxide to feed d. IM dexamethasone e. Feed anionic diet

e. Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides The large colony type is responsible for major problems in the US goat population. It can also cause acute septicemia and CNS signs in kids. Carrier goats maintain the infection in a herd, where it is transmitted to kids through milk or colostrum

Several kid goats age 10 to 12 weeks on large goat dairy have developed high fevers, swollen and painful joints, and respiratory signs including tachypnea and dyspnea. One has died, and a post mortem exam reveals fibrinopurulent polyarthritis and interstitial pneumonia. Which is the agent most likely to be the cause of this outbreak? a. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis b. Pasteurella multocida c. Arcanobacterium pyogens d. Mannheimia hemolytica e. Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides

d. Clostridium perfringens type C The age of these affected pigs along with the rapid course of hemorrhagic and necrotic enteritis help you come to this conclusion. As with many Clostridial diseases, vaccination is the most effective means of control. Other important clostridial diseases of swine include C. perfringens type A, C, difficile, C. tetani, C. botulinum, C, novyi, C. septicum, and C. chauvoei

Several litters of 2 to 3 day old pigs have recently died rapidly with hemorrhagic enteritis. Post mortem lesions include mucosal hemorrhage, necrosis and emphysema in the small intestines. What pathogen is most likely to cause these signs? a. Enteroxigenic E. coli b. Haemophilus parasuis c. Salmonella cholerasuis d. Clostridium perfringens type C e. Eyrsipelothrix rhusiopathiae

e. Enterotoxogenic E. coli The edema disease producing E. coli produce a heat stable toxin called Stx2e (Shiga toxin 2d). When absorbed into the blood, this toxin destroys endothelial cells in small vessels, resulting in blood clots, hemorrhage, ischemic necrosis, and edema in vital organs, including the brain.

Several weaner pigs have developed anorexia, followed by diarrhea and edema of the eyelids, forehead and lips. The pigs also have dyspnea and are open mouth breathing. Some are weak and circling. What pathogen is the most likely cause? a. Clostridium tetani b. Salmonella typhimurium c. Transmissible gastroenteritis virus d. Porcine Parvovirus e. Enterotoxogenic E. coli

d. Contagious ecthyma Also known as orf or soremouth, this parapoxvirus disease is common in lambs and kids. Human can also be affected. Rarely, fatal, it nonetheless can make affected kids or lambs end up smaller than their age mates. Lesions occasionally also occur on the teats of the dams. The scabs dry up in 2 to 4 weeks and fall off, with the virus overwintering in the scabs on the ground until more susceptible animals appear next year.

Several young goats under one year of age in a herd of 50 goats have scabby lesions around their mouths and noses, as shown in the photo. They also have low-grade fever and appear reluctant to eat hay, so they are falling behind the group. The owner is concerned because this condition appears to be spreading. You examine three affected kids and find that under the scabs is what appears to be proliferative granulation tissue. You advise the owner that the diagnosis is _______? a. Foot-and-mouth disease b. Malignant catarrhal fever c. Bovine papular stomatitis d. Contagious ecthyma e. Pseudocowpox

a. Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid Active immunization with Clostridium novyi toxoid before the late summer is the most effective way to control and prevent infectious necrotic hepatitis (black disease) in sheep. Because vaccinated sheep have long-term immunity after only one shot, only new introductions to the flock (lambs and sheep brought in from other areas) need to be vaccinated. Reducing the number of snails (intermediate hosts for fluke cercaria) with molluscicides or by fencing off wet areas may not be practical due to expense or amount of pasture lost. Likewise, use of flukicides is complicated by the need for careful timing and long withdrawal times for meat and milk

Several younger sheep in a large herd have died suddenly with a diagnosis of infectious necrotic hepatitis secondary to fluke infestation. Which choice is the most practical and effective control measure you can take next to prevent future cases? a. Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid b. High-dose penicillin for clinical cases c. Clostridium hemolyticum bacterin for animals under 3 years d. Clorsulon antihelmintic for whole herd e. Treat ponds with copper sulfate molluscidie against lymnaeid snails

e. 0.16% You do not need to know anything about the disease in this question in order to get the correct answer. You are told that the disease is reccesive and has a carrier rate of 8%. Because the trait is recessive, homozygotes will be the only individual affected. In order for a foal to be born homozygous for the trait, BOTH parent MUST BE CARRIERS. The chances of both parents being carrier is 8% x 8% (or 0.08 x 0.08) = 0.0064 or 0.64%. If both parents are carriers, the offspring has a 1 in 4 chance of inheriting two mutant alleles (50% chance for each allele from each parent). Since the chances of both parents being carriers is 0.64% and the chance of having a homozygous offspring in that case is 1 in4, the overall expected frequency of diseased foals is 0.0064 x 0.25 = 0.0016 or 0.16%

Severe combined immunodecifiency is a lethal autosomal recessive trait in Arabian foals. Heterozygotes are clinically normal. If the hetrozygote carrier rate for the genetic mutation is 8%, what is the expected frequency of Arabian foals that are homozygous for the mutated allele? a. 2% b. 4% c. 0.064% d. 0.64% e. 0.16% f. 25%

b. Type III Type I (aka immediate) hypersensitivity reactions occur when re-exposure of an antigen results in an allergic reaction. The antigen is presented and causes B cell production of IgE antibodies Type II (aka cytotoxic) occurs when an antigen on a cell surface binds with an antibody and is then recognized by the body as being foreign. The antigen on the cell may have been a normal feature of the cell, or it may have been acquired, such as a drug binding to the cell. Macrophages or dendritic cells then recognize the cell and "present the antigen" which then causes B cell proliferation and production of IgG and IgM antibodies. The antibodies bind to the cell and activate the complement cascade which results in cell lysis/destruction Type III (aka immune complex) occurs when there are more antigens than there are antibodies. The antigens float around in the circulation, and multiple antigens may bind one antibody, thus forming an immune complex. Large complexes can be cleared by macrophages, but smaller ones may evade the macrophages Type IC (delayed type hypersensitivty) takes several days to occur and rather than being antibody-mediated, it is actually cell-mediated. Cytotoxic CD8+ T cells and CD4+ helper T cells recognize antigen that is in a complex with major histocompatibility complex 1 or 2. This results in proliferation and activation of the cells. Activated CD8+ T cells then destroy the antigen containing cells while activated macrophages release hydrolytic enzymes

Systemic lupus erythematosis and glomerulonephritis occur as a result of what type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. Type IV b. Type III c. Type I d. Type II

c. Highly vascular air sacs that are the site of oxygen exchange into the bloodstream Air sacs are AVASCULAR and do not conduct oxygen exchange

The following features are unique to the avian respiratory tract EXCEPT: a. Two-cycle respiration for air to pass entirely through the respiratory tract b. Lungs are adhered to rib cage c. Highly vascular air sacs that are the site of oxygen exchange into the bloodstream d. Lung contains parabronchi that branch off of dorsal and ventral bronchi e. Choanal slit connects oral and nasal cavities

c. Pentobarbital Pentobarbital is one of the most commonly used drugs IV euthanasia solution. The AVMA report states IV ijection of a barbituric acid derivative is the PREFERRED METHOD for euthanasia of dogs, cats, other small animals, and horses. Potassium chloride can be used in conjunction with general anesthesia Phenytoin and lidocaine are often added to pentobarbital-containing euthanasia solutions to increase cardiac depressant effects. Thiopental is an ultra-short acting thiobarbiturate used for anesthesia induction and for short procedures. It is currently unavailable in the US and Canada

The major active ingredient in most IV euthanasia solutions is : a. Phenobarbital b. Phenytoin c. Pentobarbital d. Thiopental e. Potassium chloride

c. Antigenic shift Exchange of genetic segment (shift) can change the H or N phenotype. Drift is when there are gradual changes in a individual virus over time

The phenomenon of two or more different avian influenza viruses (orthomyxoviruses) sharing genetic segments within infected host cells, resulting in a change in hemagglutinin or neuraminidase types, is known as which of the following? a. Antigenic shock b. Transfection c. Antigenic shift d. Point mutation e. Antigenic drift

c. Monthly administration of ivermectin The findings at slaughter are consistent with an infection of Ascaris suum. This is the roundworm of pigs. These worms can cause intestinal obstruction in large infestation. They can also migrate into the bile ducts and liver, causing the fibrotic liver lesions described in this case. Antemortem diagnosis is made by fecal flotation and clinical signs. Treatment options are wide and include ivermectin, fenbendazole, pyrantel, levamisole and other ascaracides. Endemically infected farms should employ on-going medication program with routine benzimidazoles or ivermectins. Medication is aimed at prevention of mature intestinal infections by medicating finisher pigs at monthly intervals. In outdoor pig systems, careful attention must be paid to stock management, with field rotations, light stocking densities and regular anthelmintic treatment. Clearing sites of ascarid eggs is not practical unless floor surfaces can be flame treated. Ascaris suum eggs have thick coats and are highly stable and infectious in outdoor environments for several years. Praziquantel is used to treat tapeworm infections, but is not effective against roundworms.

The viscera from a group of 100kg pigs are presented at a slaughter facility. The pigs were raised in a semi-outdoor management farm system with groups of 30-100kg pigs kept on the same site. At slaughter, multifocal fibrotic lesions are seen in the livers and noticeable nematodes are present within the small intestine. You perform fecal flotation on a fresh sample from the younger pigs. The results are shown in the image below. What treatment or management recommendation is most appropriate for this problem? a. Disinfect the pasture b. Examine the food sources of the pigs c. Monthly administration of ivermectin d. Depopulate and replace the herd e. Quarterly treatment with praziquantel

b. Haemonchus contortus H. contortus is a blood sucker and causes anemia and hypoproteinemia. Young sheep and goats, pregnant or nursing females, and animals ina low plane of nutrition are most susceptible. Ostertagia is often an important GI parasite of cattle

There are five main gastrointestinal parasites of major importance in small ruminants, including Cooperia spp, Nematodius spp, Trichostrongylus axei, and Telodorsagia circumcincta. Name the fifth and often most important GI parasite of sheep and goats in moderate, warm, wet climates. a. Ostertagia ostertagi b. Haemonchus contortus c. Muellerius capillaris d. Ascaris lumbricoides e. Dictyocaulus viviparus

e. No illness No lesions would be seen. Reminants are not affected by ingestion of Centaurea spp. (yellow star thistle or Russian knapweed) and can be used to control the spread of these weeds. Chronic ingestion of Centaurea spp. causes nigropallidal encephalomalacia in horses (liquefactive necrosis of the neurons in the globus pallidus and substantia nigra). Sometimes called "chewing disease," the signs of toxicity in horses are quite characteristic - involuntary chewing movement, twitching/curling of the lips, and facial hypertonicity. Affected horses cannot prehend or chew, but they are still able to swallow. They may bury their head deep into a water bucket trying to drink. The brain damage in horses is irreversible, and euthanasia is recommended.

This plant, yellow star thistle, is a substantial source of forage for a herd of goats. What would be the most likely problem seen in the goats? a. Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis b. Hepatic fibrosis and megalocytosis c. Diffuse fibrosing alveolitis d. Nigropallidal encephalomalacia e. No illness

b. Knemidocoptes mutans Knemidocoptes is the scaley leg mite of poultry. It causes hyperkeratosis, leading to crusting lesions of the skin. It is treated with ivermectin or moxidectin

Two bantam chickens present with marked hyperkeratosis of the non-feathered skin on the shank and feed, distorting the leg and causing the birds to walk with a stilted gait. The most likely causative agent in this case is: a. Candida albicans b. Knemidocoptes mutans c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Microsporum caninum e. Ornithonyssus sylviarum

a. Rare disease, early diagnosis improves prognosis You need a very sensitive test if: 1. Disease is rare (e.g., BSE) 2. Early Dx improves prognosis (e.g., HIV in people); or 3. The disease is highly lethal or consequences of missing a case are severe (e.g., Rbies, Brucellosis, BSE, screw-worm, FMD, EIA) Remember that a HIGHLY SENSITIVE test will have very FEW false negatives That means if a test is highly sensitive, you can TRUST a NEGATIVE TEST This sounds contradictory, but it makes more sense if you review sensitivity diagram Sensitivity=a/(a+c). "a" are true positives. "c" are false negatives. If sensitivity is HIGH then "c" (FALSE negs) must be small. Therefore, high sensitivity means you can really trust a NEGATIVE result to be correct

Under what conditions is a very sensitive test used? a. Rare disease, early diagnosis improves prognosis b. Lethal disease, highly prevalent disease c. Treatment does not affect prognosis, non-infectious disease d. Common disease, infectious diseases e. Zoonoses, untreatable disease

a. Sea lions Vesicular exanthema of swine is called San Miguel Sea Lion Disease in sea lions. It is caused by a calicivirus and affects swine, sea lions, and several types of seals, and other marine mammals. Vesicular exanthema is not present in the USA, but San Miguel Sea Lion Disease is present in marine mammals off the coast of California. The disease is reportable

Vesicular exanthema of swine affects swine and which other animals? a. Sea lions b. Dogs c. Rodents d. Sheep e. Horses

b. Nutritional encephalomalacia Chicks 15 to 30 days old on a Vitamin E deficient diet show ataxia or paresis, prostration and death. There is ischemic necrosis, demyelinization, and neuronal degeneration of many parts of the brain. Vitamin E deficiency can also cause exudative diathesis and nutritional myopathy in chicks

Vitamin E deficiency in chicks results in which problem? a. Bleeding diathesis b. Nutritional encephalomalacia c. Blindness d. Weak bones

c. Salmonella typhimurium Salmonella typhimurium is associated with rectal strictures in growing pigs. Caused by an ulcerative proctitis that damages rectal tissue. Can see large numbers of cases. Can see sporadic rectal strictures as a sequelae to rectal prolapse. Intestinal spirochetosis is a post-weaning diarrhea seen in the ABSENCE of Brachyspira (Serpulina) hydysenteriae (swine dysentery), but similar in presentation to it. This syndrome is being recognized more frequently worldwide.

What condition is associated with rectal stricture in pigs? a. Rotabirus b. Intestinal spirochetosis c. Salmonella typhimurium d. Intussusception e. Coccidiosis

d. Magnesium deficiency Magnesium is important for nervous system function and many enzyme reactions. The skeletal reserves of magnesium are much smaller than the calcium reserve. Magnesium deficiency leads to grass tetany. Magnesium toxicity is rare. Grass tetany usually occurs in lactating animals in the early spring on pastures that are well-fertilized with nitrogen and potassium, because high levels of these inhibit magnesium absorption from the GI tract. Copper deficiency causes enzootic ataxia. If you chose mycotoxins, you were probably thinking of grass staggers, which is a different disease

What is the cause of grass tetany in goats? a. Magnesium toxicity b. Copper deficiency c. Calcium deficiency d. Magnesium deficiency e. Mycotoxins

e. Skin trauma Staphylococcus aureus is a normal flora of the skin and mucosa and is most commonly transmitted through trauma to these areas. Immunocompromised individuals are most susceptible to illness

What is the most common method for a bird to contract Staphylococcus aureus infection? a. Previous infection with coccidiosis b. Dirty litter c. Exposure to oculonasal secretions d. Contaminated drinking water e. Skin trauma

b. Hardbag CAEV is a retrovirus and when it affects the udder it will cause fibrosis and result in a firm udder with agalactia. Treatment is ineffective and the goat should be culled. The disease is usually subclinical but can cause arthritis in adults and encephalitis in kids

What is the potential udder fate of goats infected with caprine arthritis encephalomyelitis virus? a. Bluebag b. Hardbag c. The udder is not affected d. Gangrene

c. Hardbag CAEV is a retrovirus and when it affects the udder it will cause fibrosis and result in a firm udder with agalactia. Treatment is ineffective and the goat should be culled. the disease is usually subclinical but can cause arthritis in adults and encephalitis in kids

What is the potential udder fate of goats infected with caprine arthritis encephalomyelitis virus? a. The udder is not affected b. Gangrene c. Hardbag d. Bluebag

b. Infectious bursal disease This is infectious bursal disease. Note the enlarged, balloon-like hemorrhagic bursa of Fabricius. Caused by a birnavirus, shed in feces and transferred barn to barn via domites. Very stable. Difficult to eradicate from premises. Signs include clinical picture given above in older birds, or MORE IMPORTANT subclinical form in young birds, which causes immunosuppression via destruction of immature lymphocytes in bursa, thymus, spleen. Imuunosuppressed birds do not respond well to vaccination and are predisposed to infections with normally nonpathogenic viruses and bacteria. Common disease usually exacerbated by IBDV infections. See large economic losses.

What is the presumptive diagnosis in a chicken with the following necropsy finding? a. Renal dystrophy b. Infectious bursal disease c. Avian spirochetosis d. Histomoniasis e. Marek's disease

d. Via mosquitoes Mosquito vectors are the primary mode of transmission for WNV between birds and other hosts (horses, humans). There are infrequent documented cases of the disease being spread by feces or saliva. No mites have been documented to transmit the disease. Birds do not have a placenta

What is the primary mode of transmission of West Nile VIrus (WNV) between birds? a. Via feces b. Via placenta c. Via Cnemidocoptes mites d. Via mosquitoes e. Via saliva

b. Stephanurus dentatus Stephanurus dentatus is the swine kidney worm. Found worldwide, particularly in tropical and subtropical areas. Seen in the US as a parasite of pigs raised outside in the south-eastern and south-central states.

What is the proper name for the swine kidney worm? a. Capillaria plica b. Stephanurus dentatus c. Dioctophyma renale d. Gnathostoma spinigerum e. Trichinella spiralis

b. Aerosol Mycoplasma pneumonia, also referred to as enzootic pneumonia or atypical pneumonia, is caused primarily by Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae in sheep. It is usually spread from older animals to younger animals by the respiratory route (aerosol). Note that this route is in direct contrast to transmission ingoats which have a different species of Mycoplasma (M. mycoides spp. mycoides) that is primarily spread in milk.

What is the usual route of transmission of Mycoplasma pneumonia in sheep? a. Transmammary b. Aerosol c. Fomites such as hands and brushes d. Mites

c. Cull or isolate Since this organism is able to survive in abscesses that can be walled off and inside macrophages, making it very difficult to treat, Staphylococcus aureus is also very difficult to treat, and many times the animals are culled when infected with this organism. A life-saving mastectomy may be performed in valuable animals

What is the usual treatment for a doe infected with Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis in the mammary glands? a. Vaccinate affected animals against caseous lymphadenitis b. Antibiotics c. Cull or isolate d. Frequent milking every 2 hours

b. 67% R0 (R naught) measures the number of new cases of an infectious disease generated by a contagious individual entering a naive (completely susceptible) population. For example, estimates for smallpox R0 =5, and Ebola R0=2 to 4. In this example, one infected individual will transmit the agent, resulting in infection, to three other individuals. Propagation dependes on the coefficient of transmission for the particular infectious agent and on the contact rate among individuals. The disease will spread/propagate through the population as long as at least one new case is generated by each infected case. The disease will cease to spread when the R) drops below1, indicating that a sufficient proportion of the population has developed immunity and no longer can support transmission of the agent to others. In developing vaccination strategies, a fundamental question is what proportion of the population must be immunized (vaccination that results in immunity) in order to prevent a new case from spreading infection through the population. The higher the R0, the higher the proportion of the population that will have to be immunized. When R0 <1, the proportion of the population that is immune will be 1-1/R0. This formula is derived from differential equation calculations of a geometric propagation of infection and subsequent increase in proportion of the population that becomes immune and no longer capable of supporting and transmitting the agent. The purpose of this question was to highlight this basic rate, which has been referred to frequently in the press, as related to Ebola and measles, and is the basis for veterinary vaccination programs against diseases like rinderpest and foot-and-mouth disease.

What minimum proportion (%) of a herd or population must be immunized (not just vaccinated) in order for an infectious disease spread to begin to slow and eventually stop, if the basic reproductive rate (R0) for the disease is 3? (Note: it is given that R0 must be <1 for disease spread to decline and, at that point the immune proportion will be 1-1/R0)/ a. 90% b. 67% c. 100% d. 33%

c. 2 hours Dystocia in the sow is present when one hour or more has passed between piglets. Intervention should be swift to prevent death of piglets from anoxia. Dystocia is not common in swine, but when it occurs, it is often due to uterine inertia, similar to other animals that produce multiple off spring. Other causes include fetal malposition, fetopelvic disproportion, obstruction of the pelvic canal, deviation of the uterus, and excitement in the dam. Medical therapy can be given with oxytocin and/or calcium only when an obstructive dystocia is not present

When a sow is giving birth, what is the shortest time interval between passage of piglets that indicates dystocia? a. 4 hours b. 1/2 hour c. 2 hours d. 1 hour e. 15 minutes

d. Both MD and LL both cause neoplastic transformation of lymphocytes MD and LL are caused by viruses that initiate lymphoma

When comparing Marek's disease (MD) and Lymphoid leukosis (LL), which of the following statement is CORRECT? a. Both MD and LL are controlled by vaccination in the hatchery b. Both MD and LL cause paralysis in 4-week-old chicken c. Both MD and LL viruses are transmitted only in feather follicle epithelium d. Both MD and LL both cause neoplastic transformation of lymphocytes e. Both MD and LL are classified as wet and dry form

b. Oxacillin Oxacillin is the preferred antimicrobial used to test for methicillin resistance. Oxacillin resistance implies resistance to all penicillins, cephalosporins, imipenem, and beta lactam/beta lactamase inhibitors and combinations such as amoxicillin/calvulanic acid. Oxacillin is used instead of methicillin because it is more stable and widely available

When reading a bacterial culture and sensitivity report, which antibiotic is used to indicate methicillin resistance? a. Rifampin b. Oxacillin c. Cefazolin d. Penicillin e. Erythromycin

d. Diagnose --> Close --> Homogenize The first part in any control program is to have the correct diagnosis. Once the correct diagnosis is confirmed then the next step is to close the herd to new introductions. By closing the herd, we minimize the introduction of new susceptible animals which can then be exposed to the virus. This is like adding new wood to a fire. The final stage is to homogenize the herd. Here the goal is to get all animals on the farm to be exposed to the virus at the same time. The PRRS virus does not appear to move very quickly within a herd (low contagiousness). By having a homogenous population we prevent having susceptible animals left in the population and thus the virus is likely to die out on its own (no new hosts available)

When working to control porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) virus in a herd, what is the proper order for the different steps needed to achieve this goal. a. Homogenize --> Close --> Diagnose b. Homogenize --> Diagnose --> Close c. Close --> Diagnose --> Homogenize d. Diagnose --> Close --> Homogenize e. Close --> Homogenize --> Diagnose f. Diagnose --> Homogenize --> Close

d. Proventiculus The proventriculus secretes hydrochloric acid and pepsin, fiving it the lowest pH in the digestive tract

Which anatomic site of the chicken digestive tract has the lowest pH? a. Small intestine b. Colon c. Oral cavity d. Proventiculus e. Cecum

d. Ferrets Ferrets are susceptible to acetaminophen toxicity. Like cats, ferrets metabolize acetaminophen slowly because they are deficient in glucuronyl transferase. There are unsubstantiated web reports of pot bellied pigs reacting poorly to acetaminophen, but we have not yet seen peer-reviewed papers to verify this. There are recommended acetaminophen dosages for dogs, rabbits, rodents and guinea pigs, but high doses ARE toxic to dogs and other animals, so don't overdo it. In cats, toxicity can occur with 10-40mg/kg. In one report, 3 of 4 dogs showed clinical signs of methemoglobunemia at 200mg/kg, but toxicity can be seen at lower dosages with repeated exposures

Which animal is considered to be as susceptible to acetaminophen toxicity as cats? a. Dogs b. Rabbits c. Hamsters d. Ferrets e. Rats

c. Innervated by parasympathetic nervous system by CN III The iris sphincter is stronger than the iris dilator. It receives parasympathetic innervation by CN III. It is comprised of smooth muscle in mammals, unlike birds, where it is striated. The innervation makes sense if you consider that when you sympathetic nervous system is activated, your eyes become dilated; that leaves the parasympathetic nervous system to constrict the pupil, which is the responsibility of the sphincter

Which correctly describes the innervation of the iris sphincter muscle in mammals? a. innervated by sympathetic nervous system by CN V b. Innervated by sympathetic nervous system by CN III c. Innervated by parasympathetic nervous system by CN III d. Innervated by parasympathetic nervous system by CN V

e. Grain overload, ethylene glycol toxicity, renal failure Typically, expect an increased anion gap with: - Diabetic ketoacidosis - Renal failure - Ethylene glycol toxicity - Lactic acidosis from gain overload or strenuous exercise Anion gap is typically measured as positive cations (Na+, K+) minus negatice anions (total CO2, Cl-). You can also calculate AG using HCO3- in place of TCO2 Anion gap = (sodium + potassium) - (TCO2 + chloride). Decreased anion gap is UNCOMMON. THink hemodilution, hypoalbuminemia, hypercalcemia

Which diseases are classically associated with a high anion gap (AG)? a. Eosinophilic enteritis, hypothyroidism, gastrinoma b. Prostatic adenocarcinoma, pleural effusion, lymphagiectasia c. Diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis, proliferative enteritis d. Hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoadrenocorticism, displaced abomasum e. Grain overload, ethylene glycol toxicity, renal failure

c. Dexamethasone Dexamethasone is allowed in food animals, but may cause abortion in pregnant animals. Typically use dexamethasone in cattle to induce parturition (20-30mg, IM, given within 2 wks of normal term). Diethylstilbesterol (DES) is banned for use in food producing animals and should never be used. Chloramphenicol has been associated with bone marrow suppression/aplastic anemia in exposed humans, and is contraindicated in food-animals According to a 2006 report from the FDA, the use of Estradiol cypionate (ECP) in animals is illegal. ECP has been used as an estrogenic hormine for reproductive therapy in food animals, but even extra-label, this is not allowed. Furazolidone a nitroduran, is not allowed in food aniamls

Which drug is PERMITTED for use in food animals? a. Diethylstilbesterol b. Chloramphenicol c. Dexamethasone d. Estradiol cypionate e. Furazolidone

c. Nerve enlargement Think of NERVE ENLARGEMENT with Marek's disease. Also can see distortion of the pupil and enlargement of feather follicles ("skin leukosis" = condemnation of carcass)/ May see one leg forward, one leg back, a transient paralysis. Think infectious laryngotracheitis (ILT) if there is blood occluding trachea on necropsy Remember wrinkeled egg go with infectious bronchitis Think infectious coryza with sinusitis, swelling under eyes

Which lesions are most commonly associated with Mresk's disease? a. Edematous facial swelling with sinustitis b. Hemorrhagic skin lesions c. Nerve enlargement d. Wrinkeled eggs e. Blood in the trachea

a. Beta mannosidosis Beta mannosidosis is a disorder of Anglo-Nubian goats that causes fatal neurological symptoms in newborns and is an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance. Scrapie is a prion-caused disorder. In sheep, scrapie can controlled by genetic testing to eliminate the susceptible animals. To date that is not possible with goats. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is a bacterial disease known as boils. Papillomas are viral

Which of the following disorders of goats can be controlled by genetic testing? a. Beta mannosidosis b. Penile papillomas c. Scrapies d. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

c. Spider lamb syndrome Spider lamb syndrome is a bone growth disorder of Suffolk and Hampshire breeds of sheep caused by an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance. A genetic test has been available since the year 2000. Caseous lymphadenitis is caused by Corynebacterium psuedotuberculosis. Urolithiasis is often caused by improper feeding and can be diestary-related. Squamous cell carcinomas of the GI tract are thought to be caused by a combination of genetics and environmental carcinogens.

Which of the following disorders of sheep can be eliminated by using genetic testing? a. Caseous lymphadenitis b. Carbonate urinary stones c. Spider lamb syndrome d. Squamous cell carcinoma of the abomasum

c. Isospora suis Isospora mainly causes diarrhea in nursing and weaning piglets. Growers and finishers are rarely affected by Isospora suis. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae, Lawsonia intracellularis, and Trichuris suis most commonly cause diarrhea in grower and finisher pigs

Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause diarrhea in a grower or finisher pig? a. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae b. Trichuris suis c. Isospora suis d. Lawsonia intracellularis

c. All choices listed are accurate Progesterone is essential for maintenance of pregnancy in all domestic mammals. Some species (sheep, horse, cow) get progesterone support from the ovarian corpus luteum/corpora lutea initially; that progesterone production is later augmented (cow) or assumed entirely by placental sources (sheep, horse). The pig, however, is dependent on ovarian progesterone throughout her 113-114 days gestation

Which of the following is accurate concerning maintenance of pregnancy in domestic mammals? a. In pigs, the pregnancy is dependent upon ovarian sources of progesterone throughout gestation b. In cows, the latter half of pregnancy is maintained by ovarian and placental progesterone c. All choices listed are accurate d. In horses, the ovarian source of progesterone peaks relatively early in gestation and is gradually replaced by placental sources of progesterone e. None of the choices listed are accurate f. In sheep, the placenta takes over progesterone production early in gestation, i.e. by 50 days

a. Ingestion by human can cause cysticercosis There are two very different life stages for this disease. Infection with adult tapeworms is called taeniasis. Infection with the larvae form is called cysticercosis. Pigs act as intermediate hosts and become infected by ingesting infected human feces containing eggs or onchospheres (first stage after eggs) causing cysticercosis in the pig. Pigs do not become infected with larvae form (cysticerci) and thus don't have adult tapeworms (taneniasis). Therefore calling it a pig "tapeworm" is somewhat of a misnomer. Cysticerci then form in muscles, especially the most active muscles, which include the pig's cardiac and skeletal muscles. Infection of humans (taeniasis) occurs with ingestion of infected port that is inadeqautely cooked containing cysticerci. The cysticerci evaginate and attache to the small intestine. Adult tapeworm then develop (taneniasis). This is the only way these tapeworms can complete their life cycle. The tapeworms shed eggs which can be consumed in the cyst form (undercooked infected port). In humans, cysticercosis develops only when tapeworm eggs are ingested. Both taeniasis and cysticercosis cause disease in people. Cysticercosis rarely causes any clinical signs in pigs.

Which of the following is important about the pork tapeworm, Taenia solium? a. Ingestion by human can cause cysticercosis b. Ingestion by human cause hydatid cyst disease c. Ingestion by pigs causes severe diarrhea and weight loss d. Ingestion by pigs causes severe neurologic signs

a. Pasteurella multocida The bacterium is a gram negative rod. It causes fever, mucoid discharge from the mouth, diarrhea, petechia, ecchymoses, increased pericardial and peritoneal fluid, and death. The chronic form of the disease usually causes localized disease. DIagnosis is based on identifying the organism from samples in conjunction with clinical signs. Vaccines are available for prevention of the disease. Sulfa antibiotics are used for treatment

Which of the following is the causative agent of fowl cholera? a. Pasteurella multocida b. Mycoplasma gallisepticum c. Chlamydophila psittaci d. Reticuloendotheliosis virus

a. Lincomycin

Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for swine dysentery? a. Lincomycin b. Penicillin c. Sulfathiazole d. Tetracycline e. Tilmicosin

d. Tetracyclines The correct answer is long term use of tetracyclines. Vaccinations are usually only used in the breeding herd where bacterins, containing the appropriate serovar, can reduce the prevalence of infection and leptospirosis-induced abortions. Depopulation or euthanasia is not necessary as in growing pigs the clinical signs are not lifethreatening (leptospirosis0induced abortions is not a concern). Fluoroquinolone antibiotics are not useful against leptospirosis. Besides tetracycline antibiotics, other effective antibiotics include tylosin, erythromycin, and penicillins.

Which of the following is the most effective treatment for a leptospira infection in a growing pig? a. Fluoroquinolones b. Vaccination with multivalent bacterins c. Euthanizing the pig or depopulating the herd d. Tetracyclines

a. Reproductive failure Acute leptospirosis in young pigs causes fever, anorexia, hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinuria, jaundice, and failure to grow. Chronic infections in dams cause reproductive failure as late term abortions, mummies, or weak piglets that die in a few days. Dams usually recover, conceive again, and carry their litters to full term

Which of the following is the most important problem associated with leptospirosis in pigs? a. Reproductive failure b. Chronic kidney disease c. Abiotrophy of the spleen d. Purple extremities due to vasculitis

a. Clostridium perfringens type C

Which of the following is the most likely cause of hemorrhagic enteritis affecting the small intestines of suckling pigs? a. Clostridium perfringens type C b. Isospora suis c. Rotavirus d. Salmonella choleraesuis e. Serpulina hyodysenteriae

d. Trismus The usual clinical signs of tetanus begin with stiffness or lameness in a limb ascending to generalized stiffness, a raised tail head, saw-horse stance, trismus (sardonic grin), loacked jaws due to muscle rigidity, and rigid paralysis. Pyrexia is common as well

Which of the following is the most likely clinical sign in a sheep with a tetanus infection? a. Facial paralysis b. Poor muscle tone c. Diarrhea d. Trismus

b. Dorsal auricular vein

Which of the following is the preferred site for intravenous injection in mature swine? a. Anterior cephalic vein b. Dorsal auricular vein c. Femoral vein d. Jugular vein e. Lateral thoracic vein

a. Haemonchus contortus Ostertagia is not considered a blood sucker; instead this organism invades the abomasal wall. Strohgyloides spp are interstinal threadworms that migrate to the intestines by first penetrating the oral mucosa or the skin, entering the bloodstream, and then heading for the heart. Afterward, they travel to the lungs and trachea, where they are swallowed and enter the intestines. Fasciola gigantica is a liver fluke

Which of the following organisms is known to be a blood sucker of the abomasum in sheep and goats? a. Haemonchus contortus b. Ostertagia ostertagii c. Strongyloides spp d. Fasciola gigantica

c. Liver and muscle Damage to liver and muscle cells of dogs and cats causes increased serum levels of alanine aminotransferase (ALT). ALT is considered a "leakage" enzyme. High levels are normally found in the cytoplasm of healthy cells. When hepatic or muscle cells are damaged, ALT leaks into adjacent tissue where it is picked up by the venous circulation. Other animals such as horses, ruminats, pigs, and birds do not have high levels of ALT inside cells. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is the predominant leakage enzyme in these animals. The magnitude of the elevation of leakage enzymes can be deceiving - are a few cells leaking a lot or many cells are leaking a small amount? Severe damage to a healthy liver may result in very high levels, while low levels may be seen when significant atrophy or fibrosis of the liver is present and few cells are left. Prognosis of the former may be good, for the latter it is certainly grim. Differentiation between muscle and liver as the source of increasees in ALT/AST is determined by evaluation of other muscle (creatine phosphokinase (CK) and ASK) and liver enzymes (AST, sorbitol dehydrogenase (SDH), gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT), alkaline phosphatase (ALP)), the animal, and the clinical evaluation. LEakage enzymes DO NOT provide an estimate of actual liver function. THis is evaluated by measurement of substances dependent on the efficacy of liver function such as bile acids, blood urea nitrogen, albumin, and glucose.

Which of the following pairs of tissues can both cause increased serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels in dogs and cats? a. Pancrease and intestine b. Kidneys and pancreas c. Liver and muscle d. Spleen and adrenals e. Heart and kidneys

d. Infectious laryngotracheitis virus Infectious laryngotracheitis virus (ILT) has a long incubation period of 6-12 days

Which of the following respiratory viruses has such a long incubation period, that it is often practical to vaccinate a layer flock during an outbreak because the vaccine virus may immunize birds before they are exposed to the field virus? a. Lymphoid leukosis virus b. Infectious bronchitis virus c. Avian encephalomyelitis virus d. Infectious laryngotracheitis virus e. Infectious bursal disease virus

d. Lembert pattern The Lembert pattern is a variation of a vertical mattress pattern. It is often used to close hollow viscera. The Bunnel pattern is a suture that is used to appose severed tendons. The Ford interlocking pattern is used to help appose tissues that have increased tension. The horizontal mattress pattern results in eversion of tissues.

Which of the following suture patterns results in an inversion of sutured edges? a. Bunnel pattern b. Horizontal mattress pattern c. Ford interlocking pattern d. Lembert pattern

b. Hypoderma Hypoderma larvae travel outside of the GI tract and exit the hide

Which of these agents migrates in another body part outside the gastrointestinal tract in its life cycle? a. Giardia b. Hypoderma c. Cryptosporidium d. Ostertagia e. Haemonchus

b. Atropine Organophosphates act by inhibition of acetylcholinesterase, causing muscarinic signs such as hypersalivation, incoordination, and bloat. Acute cases can be treated with high doses of atropine or pralidoxime (2-PAM). 4-Methylpyrazole is a treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity. 3-methyl indole is a pneumotoxin produced by rumen microflora when cattle ingest large amounts of L-typtophan in forage, resulting in atypical interstitial pneumonia

Which of these drugs could you try to use to treat organophosphate toxicity in sheep? a. 3-Methyl indole b. Atropine c. Bethanecol d. 4-Methylpyrazole

d. Inability to close the mouth Idiopathic trigeminal neuritis, due to inflammation of cranial nerve 5 (CN 5), is characterized by acute onset of flassic jaw paralysis. Affected animals cannot close their mouth and have difficulty eating and drinking. Seen occasionally in dogs, rare in cats. Cause is unknown. Idiopathic facial nerve paralysis, affecting cranial nerve 7 (CN7), results in the inability to move the eyelid, lip, or ear and dryness of the eyes and mouth. Masticatory myositis is characterized by pain on opening the mouth and swelling of the muscles of mastication (acute) or atrophy of the temporalis and masseter muscles with the inability to open the moouth due to fibrosis (chronic). Dysphagia, dysphonia, and sttridor are most often associated with dysfunction of the vagus nerve, cranial nerve 10 (CN 10). Circling and head tilt toward the side of the lesion with no other signs is a common presentation of vestibulocochlear nerve, cranial nerve 8 (CN 8) lesions. Concurrent CN 7 paralysis and Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, enophthalmos) may be present with middle- and inner-ear infections.

Which one of the folllowing choices include the cardinal sign of trigeminal neuritis? a. Masseter muscle pain associated with chewing b. Circling and head tilt toward side of lesion, no other signs c. Dysphagia, dysphonia and stridor d. Inability to close the mouth e. Paralyzed eyelid, ear or lip on one or both sides of the face

e. Spironolactone Potrassium-sparing diuretics (i.e. spironolactone) are aldosterone antagonists sometimes used with furosemide as part of the treatment plan for congestive heart failure (CHF). Aldosterone, the mineralcorticoid produced in the adrenal cortex, acts on the distal convoluted tubules (and collecting ducts) of the nephron to retain Na+ and water, secrete K+ and increase blood pressure With CHF, aldosterone levels are increased due to activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system In contrast, see decreased aldosterone secretion (and decreased blood pressure) with hypoadrenocorticism.

Which one of the following choices is a competitive antagonist for aldosterone that is sometimes used in treatment of congestive heart failure? a. Hydrochlorothiazine b. Furosemide c. Mannitol d. Acetazolamide e. Spironolactone

a. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) suddenly appeared in the mid 1980's in the UL, likely due to changes in the practice of feeding meat and bone meal of sheep origin. In 1997, it was confirmed that Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease was associated with the bovine disease. Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis (SBE), caused by Chlamydia pectoris (also called Chlamydophia pecorum), is not nown to cause disease in humans.

Which one of the following diseases have been linked with the variant form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) in humans? a. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy b. Q fever c. Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis d. Equine West Nile virus encephalitis e. Eastern equine encephalomyelitis (EEE)

b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) Disseminated intravascular coagulation. Schistocytes are produced by the mechanical fragmentation of erythrocytes on intravascular fibrin strands. They are most commonly associated with conditions that affect blood flow or clotting like disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), heartworm, hemangiosarcoma, and glomerulonephritis. Cobalamin deficiency causes a macrocytic anemia (perinicious anemia). Systemic lupus erythematosus may cause anemia, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia or leukocytosis. Think of methemoglobinemia, Heinz bodies, and hepatotoxicity with acetaminophen toxicity in cats.

Which one of the following diseases is characterized by schistocytes on a complete blood count? a. Congenital hepatic arteriovenous fistula b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) c. Cyanocobalamin deficiency d. Methemoglobinemia e. Acetaminophen toxicity

a. Heterakis gallinarum The cecal nematode Heterakis gallinarumtransmits Histomonas melaeagridis (a protozoan), the causative agent of blackhead disease. CLinical signs of histomoniasis include listlessness, droopy wings, unkempt feathers, yellow droppings. Clinical signs of Ascardia galli infecttion include diarrhea, anemia, and decreased egg production. Birds infected with Capillaria or Eimeria have hemorrhagic enteritis. Clinical signs of Raillietina (tapeworm) infection range from none to enteritis.

Which one of the following organisms transmits the causative agent of blackhead disease in turkeys? a. Heterakis gallinarum b. Ascardia galli c. Capillaria spp. d. Eimeria spp. e. Raillietina spp.

b. Tetanus Tetanus and Clostridium perfringens type C and D toxoids are the core vaccines recommended in South American camelids. Rabies vaccination is indicated in rabies-endemic areas. Use of the vaccine for EHV-1 in camelids (when exposed to exotic equids) has caused blindness and should only be used when necessary. Vaccination for BVDV may provide an antibody response and protection when exposed. No vaccines are licensed for use in camelids.

Which one of the following vaccines is considered a core vaccine for South American camelids? a. Rabies b. Tetanus c. Listeria d. Equine herpes virus 1 e. Bovine viral diarrhea virus