NextStep Psych Questions
Which of the following statements could be true based on the data reported by the therapists? I. There could be a positive correlation between depression and stress II. There could be a positive correlation between depression and quality of life III. There could be a negative correlation between stress and quality of life A. I only B. II only C. II and II only D. I, II, and III
A is correct. A correlation is a relationship between two variables. If a correlation is positive, it means that when one variable increases, the other decreases. Depression and stress were both high at the start of the intervention and low at the end, so there could be a correlation between them. II: There is no evidence for a positive correlation between depression and quality of life III: The data does not provide strong evidence for a negative correlation between stress and quality of life. Quality of life didn't significantly change as a result of the intervention. If it had significantly increased, it could suggest a negative correlation between between stress and quality of life (as stress goes down, quality of life increases) - since it didn't, this statement isn't supported. B, C, D: Only RN I is correct
It can be inferred the researchers chose the emotions cited in the study because: I. the emotions are distinct from one another II. the emotions are culturally bound III. the emotions that are associated with certain behaviors A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only
A is correct. The passage states that each of the emotions activated a separate part of the brain. This suggestions that the emotions are distinct. II: The passage stated that the emotions were universal across cultures, not culturally bound (or confined to a single culture) III: This was a finding that emerged in the study, but it was not initially anticipated B: RN I is correct, while RN II is incorrect C: RN II is incorrect D: RN III is incorrect
A researcher from the study works together with others on a daily basis. The individuals he interacts with at this job most likely form what kind of social group with him? A. Primary group B. Secondary group C. Tertiary group D. Quartenary group
B is correct. These are generally two levels of social groups in psychology: primary and secondary. Primary social groups are more stable, often lifelong, relationships. They may found in families or childhood friends. Secondary social groups often represent temporary relationships that are unlikely to last, such as neighbors at a temporary home or coworkers at a second job. A: Coworkers at a second job are unlikely to form stable, lifelong relationships C, D: These do not exist
This study illustrates that those who assume abuses in institutions are done by those with dispositional propensities to violence have committed an error of what type? A. Confirmation bias B. Availability heuristic C. Fundamental attribution D. Expectation bias
C is correct. This experiment showed that anyone can act in the way the participants did in the right conditions, not because of cetrain personality characteristics. To assume otherwise is to commit the fundamental attribution error. A: Confirmation bias is selectively finding evidence to support views B: The availability heuristic is recalling information that is most readily available D: Expectation bias is when expectations influence attitudes or behavior
Which of the following is NOT an example of a reason that gender stereotypes persist, according to the passage? A. A woman making less money at work has fewer opportunities B. A man feels pressured by his family to work in a masculine job, rather than a feminine one C. A man working in a female-dominated job is to bring assertiveness and drive D. A child continues to play with her same-sex friends because she has observed a classmate being teased after playing with opposite-gender peers
A is correct. This example is not discussed in the text. B, C, D: These reasons are discussed in the text, and are examples of lack of examples of violation of stereotypes, focus on prescriptive behaviors, and social influence (in order).
When an odorous molecule binds to olfactory receptors, the cell transduces the information into an electrical signal that travels to the brain for processing. Which of the following accurately describes the state of the voltage-gated channels on this cell during the relative refractory period? A. Na+ channels are de-inactivated, and K+ channels are activated B. Na+ channels are inactivated, and K+ channels are activated C. Na+ channels are de-inactivated, and K+ channels are inactivated D. Na+ channels are inactivated, and K+ channels are inactivated
A is correct. First, we need to understand the difference between the absolute and relative refractory periods. The absolute refractory period lasts nearly the entire duration of an action potential, during which time a second action potential cannot be generated. During this time, voltage-gated sodium channels are "inactivated." If this term is not familiar, note that voltage-gated sodium channels have two gates that must be open for sodium to flow inward and depolarize the cell membrane. If the "inactivation gate" is closed, the channels are inactivated. If the inactivation gate is open but the activation gate is closed, the channel is "de-inactivated" -it isn't inactivated, but it is not yet open either. The "de-inactivation" occurs once the action potential near its end and the membrane voltage becomes sufficiently low (generally during the hyperpolarization phase). At this time, the inactivation gate opens and the activation gate closes. Since the channel is not inactivated, a stimulus could theoretically produce an action potential, but since the cell is hyperpolarized, this stimulus would need to be larger than normal. This interval is termed the relative refractory period, which is what this question asks us about. At this time, again, sodium channels are de-inactivated, potassium channels are still activated, allowing potassium to continue flowing out of the cell to finish the action potential. B: Sodium channels are inactivated during the absolute refractory period, not the relative refractory period C, D: If potassium channels were inactivated, then potassium would not be able to flow out of the cell to complete the action potential
Which of the following behavioral change strategies was not used in the smoking cessation program? A. Self-monitoring B. Dissonance induction C. Psychoeducation D. Relapse prevention
A is correct. Self-monitoring is a long-term strategy that usually involves self-reflection and taking regular notes on your behavior, thoughts, and attitudes over time. There is nothing in the passage that suggests that the program happened more than the program happened more than once or that self-monitoring was used as part of the program or afterwards. B: Cognitive dissonance can be induced when a person is forced to recognize the inconsistency between his or her beliefs and behaviors. This was a part of the program. C: Psychoeducation, or providing knowledge about a topic, was a major part of the program D: Relapse prevention is often used when the target behavior carries with it high risk for relapse or a maladaptive coping mechanism. The program incorporated peer support and taught coping skills, both of which are relapse prevention strategies.
In response to their initial survey results, the researchers theorized that individuals who are more susceptible to depression are more likely to exhibit behaviors and thoughts that lead to high-stress situations. If correct, this would mean that, compared to others, survey respondents LEAST susceptible to depression are: A. No more likely to experience autonomous stressors and less likely to experience subordinate stressors B. Less likely to experience and less likely to experience subordinate stressors C. More likely to experience autonomous stressors and more likely to experience subordinate stressors D. More likely to experience autonomous stressors and no more likely to experience subordinate stressors
A is correct. Since each answer has two parts, we can evaluate them one at a time and eliminate accordingly. According to the question stem, researchers believe people can actively influence the world around them and that a greater number of stressful events can lead to depression. Paragraph 1 tells us that autonomous stressors are traumatic events which the individual has no control over. As a result, compared to others, we would expect the rate of these events (e.g. family illness, death of a pet), to be no different for those who are depressed (eliminate choices B, C, and D). The researchers' theory does support the idea that increased rates of subordinate stressors (i.e. those that the individual can influence) will make one more prone to depression. Thus, we would expect depression-prone individuals to have greater experience with subordinate stressors. B, D: Since autonomous stressors are "beyond the control of an individual" (according to paragraph 1), we would not expect them to be experienced differently by individuals with different susceptibilities to depression. C: This answer choice has the same problem as choices B and D. Additionally, we would not expect the individuals to be more likely to experience subordinate stressors.
It has been shown that pheromones induce the body to secrete sex hormones more readily. All of the following are expected effects of sex hormones EXCEPT: A. Testosterone causes the Leydig cells in the seminfierous tubules to produce sperm B. Estrogen causes the endometrial lining to thicken C. Estrogen inhibits bone resorption D. Testosterone causes the development of secondary sex characteristics in boys
A is correct. Sperm is produced by the Sertoli cells of the seminferous tubules, not the Leydig cells. The seminferous tubules and their location in the tests of the male reproductive system are shown below. B: This is true; estrogen and progesterone together cause the endometrium to thicken. Estrogen produced from the developing follicles stimulate endometrial growth, and progesterone is responsible for converting the estrogen-primed endometrium into a receptive state. C: Estrogen does inhibit bone resorption; in fact, this is the reason why post-menopausal women experience significant declines in bone density. D: This is also an accurate statement; testosterone causes secondary sex characteristics to develop during puberty in boys.
Which of the following statements about human-pet interactions best reflects the Schacter-Singer theory of emotion? A. As Julia pets her cat, her blood pressure decreases and her brain releases oxytocin. She then thinks of how much she loves her cat, and experiences happiness as a result. B. Timothy's dog runs out of the house without his collar or leash. Timothy's heart rate increases and he shouts for the dog to come home. His body's cues and behavior lead him to understand that he is in a scary situation, and he feels afraid. C. Annabel is holding her guinea pig on the couch and scratching its ears. as she does this, her brain releases hormones associated with reward. At the same time, she interprets the situation as happy and calm. She then smiles. D. Luke is training for a marathon and runs with his dog, Max. He feels moderately happy and excited while he runs with Max, and records his best time yet.
A is correct. The Schacter-Singer theory states that emotion processing has three distinct steps: physiological arousal, cognitive interpretation of the situation, and the experience of the emotion, in that order. Julia pets her cat, which leads to physiological changes in her brain. She then thinks about her love for the cat and feels an emotion- happiness. B: This statement supports the James-Lange theory of emotion, which states that behavioral and physiological aspects of emotion (like increased heart rate and shouting) lead to cognitive aspects of emotion (like understanding that a situation is scary and feeling afraid). C: This statement supports the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, which states that physiological and cognitive aspects of emotion occur simultaneously and independently. Annabel's brain released hormones at the same that she interpreted the situation as happy and calm. The theory also states that behavioral expression is the last aspect- like when Annabel smiled. D: This statement supports the Yerkes-Dodson law, which states that people tend to perform their best when they're moderately emotionally stimulated. Luke is moderately happy when running with his dog, which leads to optimal performance.
What can be gathered from the frequency differences per trial in the two charts? A. That the electrodes serve as a more potent primary reinforcer compared to the food B. That the electrodes serve as a more potent positive reinforcer compared to the food C. That the electrodes and food help provide training through classical conditioning by serving as conditioned stimuli D. That the electrodes and food help provide training through classical conditioning by serving as unconditioned stimuli
B is correct. A positive reinforcer is one which, when given or applied to a subject, helps to reinforce certain behavior. Here, the electrodes are more effective as a positive reinforcer compared to the food; this can be sen by looking at the charts and observing that the percentage of monkeys who touched the painted circle increases faster, and reaches 100% more quickly when the electrodes are used than when the food is used. A: Primary reinforcers create natural response which occur even when no learning or conditioning takes place. Here, the response is touching the circle; this is a learned response, and is not caused by the process of primary reinforcement. C, D: What occurs here is operant conditioning, not classical conditioning.
Stimulus motives are: A. Needs that are learned such as the need for power or for achievement B. Innate but not necessary for survival C. Not innate but necessary for survival D. Innate and necessary for survival
B is correct. A stimulus motive is defined as a motive that appears to be unlearned but causes an increase in stimulation, such as curiosity. These motivates are not necessary for survival. A: Stimulus motivates are not learned. C, D: Stimulus motivates are not necessary for survival. For example, imagine a cat who lives inside an apartment. One of the cat's stimulus is the desire to explore his environment (for example, walk around the apartment, jump inside cupboards or cabinets, etc.). This is not necessary for survival, the cat could easily survive simply by sitting in one place and moving only to acquire food or water. Instead, this motive can be thought of as primarily for the cat's stimulation or entertainment.
What would be a possible ratio level measure of religiosity? A. Whether or not a person believes in God B. The type of religion with which a person identifies C. The degree of one's belief in afterlife D. The number of times a person has been to church in the last month
D is correct. A ratio level of measurement is one in which there are a range of quantitative responses, ordered at equally-spaced intervals, and with it being possible to score 0 (complete absence of the quantity). A: This is a binary level of measurement. B: This is a nominal level of measurement C: This is an ordinal or interval level of measurement, without the possibility of a measurement of 0.
Sandra's narrative most emphasizes the potential influence of hysterectomy on: A. gender schema B. gender identity C. gender role D. gender conditioning
B is correct. According to the passage, Sandra's narrative described the loss of her uterus as causing the loss of the personal experience of being a full-fledged woman. This emphasizes the direct relationship between hysterectomy and a change in Sandra's gender identity- the personal experience of one's own gender. A: Gender schema is a cognitive theory of how individuals acquire and understand elements of gender and sex-linked characteristics from their surrounding culture and how these characteristics are transmitted inter-generationally. C: A gender role is the set of normative behaviors viewed as acceptable (or desirable), for members of a given sex within a culture. D: Gender conditioning is a means by which, in part, gender roles are established. This social conditioning stems from societal reinforcements and punishments of gender-related behaviors.
In which of the following societies would anomie most likely be observed? A. A high school with a science and technology focus in which students who graduate are far more likely than average high school students to believe that arts funding is a waste of public money B. A college campus on which students are required to make such extensive use of technology that the level of normal face-to-face interaction drops precipitously below the norm at other college campuses C. A large corporate campus for a multi-national food additive company in which upper management actively promotes certain political views and candidates D. A committee of military generals with high group cohesiveness that over-estimates its own ability to make military planning decisions and is unwilling to consider dissent
B is correct. Anomie is the notion that there is a breakdown between individuals and their society. Choice B describes one example of this situation in which normal social interaction is well below normal levels. A, C: These relate to attitudes that members of society have, rather than the feeling of disconnection and breakdown of society. D: This is a good example of groupthink, not anomie.
Which of the following statements accurately describes a major assumption of the functionalist theory of social stratification? I. Social stratification affects what people believe about themselves and others and influences their daily life, lifestyle choices, and interactions with others. II. Social stratification is unnecessary and results from both lack of opportunity and discrimination against the poor and people of color III. Social stratification is necessary and results from the need for those with special intelligence, knowledge, and skills to be a part of the most important professions and occupations. A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. I and III only
B is correct. Functionalist theories assert that aspects of culture are necessary and need-based. I: This statement describes symbolic interactionism in relation to social stratification II: This statement describes conflict theory in relation to social stratification A: RN I is incorrect, while RN III is correct B: RN I and RN II are incorrect, while RN III is correct D: RN I is incorrect
Based on the information from the passage, what conformity process or factor most likely impacts the behavior of Internet users who decide to engage in harassment without examining evidence for themselves? A. Normative influence B. Informational influence C. Compliance D. Ingratiation
B is correct. Informational influence is an influence to accept information from others as evidence about reality and can come into play when we are uncertain about information or what might be correct. The Internet users relied on the information from the vigilantes when making a decision to conform with the group and harass the supposed subject. A: Normative influence is an influence to conform with the expectations of others to gain social approval. C: Compliance is superficial, public change in behavior in response to group pressure. D: Ingratiation is an attempt to get someone to like you in order to get them to comply with your requests.
What type of cultural norm is most directly involved in health behaviors? A. Folkways B. Mores C. Taboos D. Laws
B is correct. Mores are norms that are deemed highly necessary to the welfare of a society and have consequences if violated. Health behaviors (like seeking help for acute medical illness) are standards of behavior that are necessary for the well-being of everyone; if a person does not seek help, they may be shunned by family members of friends. A: Folkways are norms that govern everyday behavior (like holding a door open). C: Taboos are considered unacceptable by almost every culture (like cannibalism or incest) D: Laws are established standards of behavior that are written down and have very clear consequences
How could the studies be changed to assess operant conditioning? A. Present a reward while participants view the stimuli and then have them rate the stimuli B. Present a reward after participants rate the stimuli and then have them rate the stimuli again C. Present a reward after participants view the stimuli and then have them rate the stimuli D. Present a reward before participants view the stimuli and then have them rate the stimuli
B is correct. Operant conditioning involves shaping behavior. This is the only condition where the participants are given a reward after a behavior (rating the stimuli) and then asked to perform the same behavior again. The fact that the participants are then asked to rate the stimuli again implies that we are testing the impact of the reward on their behavior. A: In this option, participants are rewarded while they view the stimuli and are then asked to perform the behavior (rating the stimuli) afterwards. This would not assess operant conditioning, as the rating behavior itself is not reinforced. C: Similarly to choice A, the reward serves no clear operant conditioning function here. In typical operant conditioning protocols, a reward is presented upon performance of a desired behavior. Here, the participants are asked to rate the stimuli, which is a behavior, but the reward is given beforehand and not in conjunction with desired action D: Here, participants are rewarded before doing anything, which contradicts the typical operant conditioning practice of giving a reward upon completion of a desired activity
In considering the impact of hysterectomy, the purpose of the Norwegian study was to investigate the effect of hysterectomy on: A. self-esteem B. self-efficacy C. self-schemata D. self-concept
D is correct. According to the passage, the purposes of the Norwegian study was to investigate the effects of hysterectomy on the collection of beliefs young women hold about themselves. This is most broadly consistent with the definition of self-concept- the collections of beliefs about oneself. While self-concept includes self-schemata, and is related to one's self-esteem and self-efficacy, self-concept is the overarching concept addressed by the Norwegian study A: Self-esteem is an overarching evaluation of one's self-worth B: Self-efficacy is a self-assessment centered on an individual's ability to perform a specific task or set of tasks C: While self-concept is generally considered to include one's self-schemata, it also includes concepts of one's past, present, and future selves
A first-year resident is preparing a case presentation when he realizes that he forgot to ask the patient about her medication history. He asks other hospital members what to do. A group of third-year residents advice him to contact the patient and add the information, but his close friends (who were also first-year residents) tell him to guess since no one will know the difference. If the resident's behavior conforms to the concept of social proof, he will: I. guess or make up the patient's medication history and add it to the presentation II. contact the patient again and add her medication history to the presentation III. not add the medication history to the presentation A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II only
B is correct. Social proof, known as information social influence, is a psychological phenomenon where people assume the actions of others in an attempt to reflect correct behavior for a given situation. Informational social influence occurs most often when the situation is ambiguous. We have choices, but do not know which to select; there is a crisis and we have no time to think or experiment, as a decision is required now; others are experts. If we accept the authority of others, they must know better than us. If the first-year resident conforms because of informational social influences, he most likely does so because so he assumes that the third-year residents know what they are doing, considers them experts, and thinks that he can trust that their opinion is correct. I: If the resident follows the advice of his close friends, he will probably be conforming because of normative social influences. There is no reason to think that his friends are experts in this situation. III: If the resident conforms to social proof, he must make a change in his behavior based on the advice from third-year residents. A, C, D: Only RN II is correct
What cultural factor could help explain the pattern of findings observed in the study participants? A. Demographic heterogeneity among participants B. Strong religiosity among participants C. Demographic homogeneity among participants D. Endorsement of traditional views on gender roles among participants
B is correct. Strong religiosity is associated with more acceptance and greater use of emotion-focused strategies to manage reactions to events A: The heterogeneity of participants does not have bearing on their use of coping strategies C: Homogeneity of participants does not have bearing on their use of coping strategies D: Gender role perception is not related to coping strategies
What additional evidence was given to support that the creole languages that evolved in newly established communities were biologically based? A. The languages evolved as groups needed to communicate B. The syntax of the languages was similar across different, unrelated communities C. Deaf people generated languages as well as hearing people D. Creole languages evolved from pidgin languages
B is correct. That the syntax of the languages was similar across different unrelated communities suggests that there is some innate understanding of language contained within people. A: This does not necessarily indicate that creole language development was biologically based. On the contrary, the fact that the languages evolved in response to people's needs could indicate that language development was not biologically inherent. C: This was never stated in the passage, nor does it support that creole languages must be biologically based. D: This is simply a fact about the terminology of these languages and tells us nothing about the factors behind their development.
Which of the following factors could act as a confounding variable in the study? I. Position in the medical hierarchy II. Confidence in the medical knowledge III. Type of medical error assessed A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. I, II, and III
C is correct. A confounding variable is one that can change the way the results are interpreted. All of the data suggests that error detections and reporting is low or mixed, especially when an attending physician commits the error.. However, the final paragraph states that residents, nurses, and medical students all had different likelihood of detecting and reporting errors, which means that there is something different about these groups of individuals that could impact the results. So, what contributes to the differences between them? They all have different positions in the medical hierarchy (residents have more responsibility for patients than medical patients, which could affect their need to report) and expertise in the types of errors assessed (it is unreasonable to think that a medical student would be able to pick up on dosage or medication errors), which could confound the results of the study. There is not enough information in the passage to suggest that confidence in the medical knowledge is a confounding factor. A: RN III is also correct B, D: RN II is incorrect
According to the results of the study, we would predict that females from low-income families would be most likely to: A. major in biology and view their grades as being based on effort B. major in biology and view their grades as being based on external efforts C. major in literature and view their grades as being based on effort D. major in literature and view their grades as being based on external factors
C is correct. According to the study, females majored in arts and literature at a greater rate than males. In addition, females majored in arts and literature at a greater rate than males. In addition, people from low SES groups had statistically equivalent views of meritocracy to those of high-SES individuals. A, B: Figure 1 clearly tells us that females were more strongly represented in arts and literature. D. Be careful not to fall for the apparent discrepancy in Figure 2. The final paragraph tells us that the p-value for this trend was 0.15, which is grater than the threshold of p<0.05 used for statistical significance. Therefore, we cannot consider the null hypothesis to have been disproven.
According to Erikson's stages of development, which basic conflict would the individuals studied by the researchers experience? A. Generativity vs. stagnation B. Intimacy vs. isolation C. Ego integrity vs. despair D. Identity vs. role confusion
C is correct. Ego integrity vs. despair is a basic conflict that emerges when an individual reaches maturity (at 65 and older) and is reflecting on his or her life A: Generativity vs. stagnation is a basic conflict that occurs during middle adulthood (ages 40-65), when individuals are trying to balance employment and being parents B: Intimacy vs. isolation occurs during young adulthood (19-40 years), when individuals need to form intimate relationships with other people D: Identity vs. role confusion occurs during adolescence (12 to 18 years), where teens are trying to develop social relationships with others and find a sense of self or personal identity
Which of the following does NOT increase groupthink? A. Deindividuation B. External threats C. A lone dissenter D. Insulation of the group
C is correct. Even one individual dissenting within a group can serve to reduce groupthink. The other answers are examples of factors that increase groupthink. A: Deindividuation relates to high group cohesiveness; the more cohesive the group, the higher the probability of groupthink B: An external threat will often cause a group to more unified, increasing groupthink D: Insulation of the group will usually increase groupthink, as the members of the group will never come in contact with opposing ideas
The data presented in the passage best support which of the following? A. The data indicate that the professional norms for rural physicians result in lower-quality care B. The study suggests that at least some physicians exhibit discrimination when dealing with their rural patient populations C. The data provide evidence that either the norms for care in rural medicine are different or there is decreased adherence with professional norms by rural doctors D. The study shows evidence of disparities in health care practices between rural and urban physicians, because no data was provided about the health outcomes of smoking cessation efforts, no conclusion can be drawn
C is correct. The passage tells us that a discussion about smoking cessation is indicated when patients assert that they have smoked. Thus we have some reason to believe that there is a broad norm here for doctors across the country to discuss smoking cessation. The passage does not make clear, however, if there are variations in which type of patient and under what circumstances doctors should discuss or prescribe smoking cessation. So either three are different professional norms between urban and rural doctors, or there are similar norms but varying degrees to which physicians stick to those norms. The passage does not give us enough information to decide which, so choice C is the best option. A: The passage does not describe quality outcomes. B: We are given no evidence of discrimination D: The answer choice may seem tempting, because there is evidence of disparities, but we can still draw some conclusions
Which of the following is a potential of this study? A. The study does not consider the possibility that the health care providers themselves may be smokers B. The data gathered was merely descriptive with no longitudinal follow up C. Doctors who discuss smoking cessation, but make no formal prescriptions, may view such a conversation in a more casual light that does not merit inclusion in medical records D. Smokers may choose to engage in smoking cessation effort on their own now that many items such as patches and gums are available without a prescription
C is correct. The researchers relied on medical records to assess whether physicians discussed smoking cessation with their patients. This methodology carries with it the fairly large assumption that urban and rural doctors have similar behaviors when it comes to the level of detail recorded in their medical records and whether such a conversation is worthy of note. A disparity in that record-keeping would cast doubt on the validity of the findings. A, D: These possibilities are not specifically relevant to the scope of the study. B: Although longitudinal follow-up could have been an additional strength, the fact that a study is cross-sectional is not inherently a limitation, and it would be too hasty to dismiss such a study as "merely descriptive." Choice C is better because it specifically engages with the content of the study.
As part of a statistics assignment, students in a large college class track how many hours each of them spends studying per day. According to study 2, which is most likely true of the five students who spend the most time studying? A. They are attempting to compensate for their feelings of low competence with the material B. They are the less intrinsically motivated students who are receiving the largest reward C. They believe that they are choosing to do their schoolwork D. They are intrinsically motivated to perform all of their typical behaviors
C is correct. The results of the second study show that the subjects who spent the most time on the task were intrinsically motivated and not rewarded. Thus, we can only assume that the five students who spent the most time studying in this example were also intrinsically motivated. Intrinsic motivation requires a sense of autonomy, or the feeling that one is choosing to take part in an activity. A: The second paragraph includes the theory that intrinsic motivation is present during tasks which increase "feeling of competence." However, choice A only states that the students are trying to compensate for their low perceived competence; it never states that studying is actually increasing those feelings of competence. B: This corresponds to the LI-R group, which did not spend quite as much time on the task in study 2 as the HI-NR group D: Just because students are intrinsically motivated to study does not mean they are intrinsically motivated to study does not mean they are intrinsically motivated to do everything they typically do; the type of motivation varies by task.
A research subject is shown the following list of the following words: wing, engine, tail, and window. When later presented with and asked to recall whether the presented word was on the original list, the participant identifies "runway' as having been on the list. This is an example of: A. The context effect B. A miss C. A false alarm D. Deja vu
C is correct. The subject is primed with airplane-related words, then incorrectly identifies another airplane-related word as having been a part of the list. This is a false alarm because the participant incorrectly responds positively when the stimulus was in fact not present. The concept of a false alarm is part of signal detection theory, which focuses on the mechanisms by which individuals detect certain stimuli over others. The diagram below shows a false alarm in relation to other concepts from signal detection theory, in the context of the question stem. A: Do not fall for this answer simply because the word "context" looks correct here! In psychology, context effects refer to increased recall when the subject is in a similar environment as the one in which the original learning took place. B: A miss implies that the stimulus was indeed present on the list, but the participant did not recognize it. D: Deja vu is an example of a context effect in which a person believes he has experienced an event before.
It can be inferred that if participants in Study 1 were told that they were being exposed to one of two conditions to examine the conditions' impact on their preferences, their preferences for the stimuli: A. would increase in the group given the free lunch B. would lessen in the group exposed to the noxious smell C. would lessen in the group given the free lunch D. would not be able to be determined based on the information in the passage
C is correct. This question requires us to extrapolate the findings of Study 2 to make a prediction about Study 1. As can be seen in the graph in Study 2, participants who are exposed to pleasurable stimuli tend to reduce their preference for associated stimuli if they find out they are being manipulated. A, B, D: These answers are not appropriate, as they do not reflect the trend seen in the graph in Study 2
Which of the following objects to the study would NOT likely be raised by an ethics committee? I. Potentially harmful medication should not be given to otherwise healthy subjects II. Necessary medication should not be denied to patients for the sake of research III. Patients suffering from schizophrenia were unable to provide informed content for this experimental protocol A. I only B. II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
D is correct. Administering potentially harmful medication to healthy volunteers is a common practice in research, and is only unacceptable if the patient does not give informed consent, or if the dangers of the medicine clearly outweighs the potential benefits of the study (I). Likewise, necessary medication is often denied to sick patients during clinical trials, and is only unacceptable if the patient has not given informed consent, or if the danger of of withholding medication outweighs the potential benefits of the study (II). Roman numeral III may seem like a more tempting objection, but we cannot necessarily assume that all, or even most patients, suffering from schizophrenia are unable to give informed consent (III). A, B, C: These are all incorrect combinations
Based on passage information, which of the following strategies would NOT be reasonable for an online community to implement as ways to reduce the bystander effect to instances of online vigilantism and harassment? A. Preventing anonymous interactions by mandating that users participate under their real names B. Providing public recognition to users to report online vigilantism and harassment C. Emphasizing the role of the users themselves in maintaining the community space D. Rewarding users to report online vigilantism and harassment with small gift cards via email
D is correct. Although this may seem reasonable at first glance, according to the passage, research supports the following ways of reducing the bystander effect in online communities: (1) decreasing the degree to which users believe that moderators will solve the problem for them, (2) reducing anonymity, and (3) spotlighting users' own behavior. A reward distributed through email would not satisfy would not satisfy any of those criteria. A: The passage indicated that perceived that perceived anonymity contributes to the bystander effect, so reducing this dynamic would be a promising strategy B: The passage highlights the importance of accountability measures that spotlight users' behavior in reducing the bystander effect C: It is stated in the passage that perceiving a community as well-moderated and regulated decreases the degree to which users are likely to intervene in response to vigilantism or harassment. This is likely due to a sense that the problematic vigilantism or harassment. That is likely due to a sense that the problematic behavior will be handled by someone else, and taking measures to highlight users' own contributions tot he community may diminish this tendency.
What characteristics of society are associated with high levels of anomie? I. Rapid changes in society II. Low levels of income III. High heterogeneity A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
D is correct. Anomie refers to society feeling fragmented and lacking cohesiveness. All of the characteristics listed are associated with anomie. A: RN III is also correct B: RN II is also correct C: RN I is also correct
Which of the following represents a limitation to the design of this study? A. The age of the participants B. Lack of knowledge about OCD C. Ethical implications D. Using a non-clinical patient sample
D is correct. Any findings during this study would be more valid if the researchers could have gathered patients who had been diagnosed with OCD, instead of having patients that simply had obsessive-compulsive traits. An important note here is that this limitation specifically pertains to the goal of the study, which was conducted to investigate overgeneralization. In turn, paragraph 1 tells us that overgeneralization is linked to OCD. Therefore, conducting a study among participants with OCD, perhaps in addition to those with only obsessive-compulsive traits, would have strengthened the findings of the study. A, B: When answering questions that ask for limitations, it is important to be careful of answers that reflect a knee-jerk to say that the researchers should have gathered more data or that a subject is insufficiently understood. While this may be the case, to some extent, from a practical standpoint all studies have constraints in terms of sample size, and if a topic was perfectly understood, there would be no need to study it further. The passage gives us no reason to think that age is a specific limitation, since none of the issues being investigated are strictly age-dependent (choice A). Additionally, it is safe to conclude that OCD has been widely studied in order to be recognized as a disorder, and in any case, gaps in the understanding of OCD would motivate further research. C: Conducting research ethically does not necessarily mean avoiding all techniques that might be uncomfortable for patients. In particular, delivering shocks is a fairly common research method. Ethical considerations apply to the need to obtain informed consent and to conduct the procedure in the least harmful possible way that is consistent with the research goals (a concern that would be evaluated as part of IRB approval). However, using shocks is not inherently unethical.
According to study 1, how would increasing the salary of an employee who is intrinsically motivated to work at his job likely affect overall motivation? A. It is undeterminable B. Motivation would remain the same C. Motivation would increase D. Motivation would decrease
D is correct. As can be seen from the resulting graph, an individual who is already intrinsically motivated would likely become less motivated overall by receiving an external reward. A: This answer certainly is determinable, as both your own outside knowledge and the results in Figure 1 indicate that providing a reward to an already intrinsically motivated would likely become less motivated overall by receiving an external reward. A: This answer certainly is determinable, as both your own outside knowledge and the results in Figure 1 indicate that providing a reward to an already intrinsically motivated individual is expected to reduce motivation. B: Figure 1 clearly shows that the motivation of the high intrinsic motivation - did not receive money group is much higher than the high intrinsic motivation - received money group. This implies that providing a monetary reward to such an individual is likely to decrease motivation, not leave it unchanged. C: This is the opposite of the correct answer, and would be true if the individual were not intrinsically motivated.
Based upon the information provided in the passage, which of the following could be a cultural factor which impacts adolescent risky behavior? I. Culturally-based expectations II. Cultural response to onset of puberty III. Cultural taboos regarding alcohol use A. I only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. I, II, and III
D is correct. Check the Roman numerals (RNs) one at a time. RN I is in all of the answers, so do not bother assessing that option. For RN II,the second paragraph mentions that how a girl views herself during puberty can impact risk behavior. Cultural response can contribute to these views. Finally, for RN III, paragraphs four and five describes how peer groups and parental influence can impact behavior. Both of these factors can be reflections of cultural taboos. A: RN II and RN III are also correct B: RN III is also correct C: RN II is also correct
What type of conflict are the jurors in the study likely experiencing if they are unsure of the defendant's guilt? A. Approach-approach conflict B. Avoidant-avoidant conflict C. Approach-avoidant conflict D. Double approach-avoidant conflict
D is correct. Double approach-avoidant conflicts consists of two options with both appealing and negative characteristics, which seems to represent the jury's dilemma. If they rule the defendant guilty, they would either be punishing a criminal (approach) or punishing an innocent (avoidant). If they rule the defendant innocent, they would either be letting a criminal walk away unpunished (avoidant) or freeing an innocent (approach). A: In approach-approach conflicts, two options are both appealing. B: In avoidant-avoidant conflicts, both options are unappealing C: An approach-avoidance conflict is observed when one option has both positive and negative aspects, but there are two options in the question above.
Projection and rationalization serves as ego defense mechanisms in those affected by BPD. In which portions of the mind would Sigmund Freud argue that the ego functions in these individuals? I. Conscious mind II. Unconscious mind III. Preconscious mind A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. I, II, and III
D is correct. Sigmund Freud defined the ego as the principle which drives to please the id in realistic ways that will provide benefit (and reduce grief) in the long term. It has the capacity to act through the conscious mind (i.e., awareness at the present moment), the unconscious mind (i.e., processes that occur automatically in the mind and are not available to introspection), and the preconscious mind (i.e., thoughts in the minds that are unconscious but can be recalled if necessary). The diagram below depicts the three components of Freud's model of the psyche (the id, ego, and superego and the extent to which is conscious, preconscious, and unconscious. A, B, C: RNs I, II, and III are all correct
The researchers' original hypothesis about the motivates Arab IMGs have for adopting American medical culture would be best described as grounded in: A. Conflict theory B. Functionalist theory C. Behaviorist theory D. Symbolic interactionist theory
D is correct. Symbolic interaction theory states that people act based on the meanings of cultural symbols that are derived from social interaction. In this case, the hypothesis is that Arab IMGs want to attain the identity of "American doctor," which has certain cultural symbols and norms attached to it. By adding these attributes to their own identity, they will affect their own and others' perceptions and beliefs, causing themselves and native doctors to view the IMG as a legitimate American doctor. A: Conflict theory has to do with disparities of resources between groups like social classes, ethnic groups, and genders, none of which are mentioned in the hypothesis B: Functionalist theory is concerned with finding out how existing social structures promote social stability. It typically concerns itself with the interaction of macro-level institutions and social structures rather than individuals' beliefs and identities. D is a better fit given the focus on socially defined meaning. C: Behaviorism is related to the theories of BF Skinner. It is a school of psychological research that focuses on individual behavior alone, ignoring mental states such as beliefs and identities.
When the authors assessed the amount of tobacco products consumed by those who use tobacco: A. The possibility that people consumed more tobacco due to age rather than geographical possibility was neglected B. Confirmation bias was demonstrated C. Variations in type of tobacco consumed were controlled for D. They considered potential confounding variables and controlled for them
D is correct. The authors make a point to tell us in the third paragraph that tobacco use was compared across patient populations, controlling for age and race. Thus choice D is correct because the researchers considered potential confounding factors and accounted for them. A: We are told in the third paragraph that the researchers controlled for age B: There is no indication of confirmation bias C: The study did not address different types of tobacco use
Abnormal functioning of which brain region(s) plays a role in the development of depression? I. Frontal lobe II. Limbic system structures III. Hypothalamus A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I, II, and III
D is correct. The frontal lobe is involved in humans' ability to project consequences of current actions. Limbic system structures regulate emotion and memory, and the hypothalamus coordinates many hormones, some of which are involved in mood regulation. Therefore, abnormal functioning in any (or all) of the three could produce symptoms similar to depression. The lobes of the brain (left) and important limbic system structures (right) are displayed below. A. RN II and RN III are also correct B. RN I and RN III are also correct C. RN III is also correct
Based on the methods used by the researcher, which of the following represents an inherent limitation in the study? A. Information obtained from the surveys is susceptible to confounding variables. B. Failure to demonstrate the comparability of patients in treatments and control groups. C. Failure to use appropriate controls or comparison groups D. Information obtained from the surveys in susceptible to subjective bias
D is correct. The information obtained from this study was self reported as indicated in the third paragraph. It says that the participants independently completed the survey. Self-reported information is always vulnerable to subjective bias. A: It is true; confounding variables could be present for the participants' perceived vulnerability to HIV infection. But, this is not the best representation of a limitation inherent to the methods of this study. B, C: This was not an experimental design, there were no control groups. There was no attempt to prove causality in this study. Data was gathered through surveys distributed to participants.
According to the passage, the factors associated with teen marijuana use are examples of: I. dispositional attribution II. external attribution III. situational attribution A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I, II, and III only
D is correct. The passage lists a variety of factors that contribute to marijuana use, including internal (or dispositional) processes like beliefs about marijuana safety and external (or situational) processes like peer pressure or parental beliefs about use. Each factor is attributed to a different cause, but all three are covered in the passage. A, B, C: RNs I, II and III are all correct
Which of the following assumptions did the deans make in the design of their study? I. Most physicians begin their medical education around age 21 II. Non-medical professionals are exposed to programs similar to Professionalism in Medicine III. Professional behaviors are consistent across medical working environments and consistent across non-medical environments A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. I and III only
D is correct. While designing this study, the deans must have made the assumption that most (or at least many) physicians begin their medical education at the age of 21. This is evidenced in the fact that all of the participants in the study start at age 21, and the researchers went their results to be as valid and generalizable as possible. (Fun fact, the national average age for medical in the United States was ~24 in 2014). The researchers also make the assumption that professional behaviors are consistent across medical and non-medical working environments, because participants from all three groups are subjected to identical professionalism inventory questionnaires and simulation exercises. II: This is not an assumption that is ever suggested in the passage. A: RN III is also correct here B: RN I is also correct C: RN II is incorrect, while RN III is correct
According to the passage, which of the following methods would likely yield the most ideas? A. Individuals working alone B. A group critically discussing ideas C. A group listing ideas without responding to others' ideas D. It cannot be determined from the passage
D is correct. Within the passage, working alone (A) was found to be superior to brainstorming (C) and debating (B) was found to be superior to brainstorming (A). However, working alone and debating were not compared. Therefore, it cannot be determined which is better. A, B, C: Since all of the groups were not compared to each other, we cannot tell which method is most productive.
A surgeon suspects that the supernatural ability of a dowser to locate a hot coal buried in the ground is best explained by the presence of particularly sensitive thermoreceptors in their hands. Lesioning which area of the brain would best allow the surgeon to test her hypothesis? A. Lateral geniculate nucleus B. Hippocampus C. Frontal lobe D. Parietal Lobe
The image below shows the locations of the lobes of the human brain. A: The lateral geniculate geniculate nucleus is a visual information relay center in the thalamus. The LGN detects and interprets information from the retina and passes it on to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe. B: The hippocampus has been implicated in spatial navigation (which is considered a sensory modality), but it is not involved in the processing of information from thermoreceptors or mechanoreceptors. The hippocampus is also involved in consolidating information from short-term and long-term memory. C: The frontal lobe does not process information from thermoreceptors or mechanoreceptors. It is primarily involved in controlling cognitive skills such as emotion expression, judgement, problem solving, and sexual behavior.
