NREMT
When ventilating an apneic patient with a pocket mask device, each breath should be delivered over: A: 4 seconds. B: 3 seconds. C: 1 second. D: 2 seconds.
1 second.
You are administering oxygen at 15 L/min to a patient with respiratory distress. If you are using a D cylinder (cylinder constant, 0.16), which reads 1,500 psi, how long will it take before you need to replace the oxygen cylinder? A: 18 minutes B: 9 minutes C: 14 minutes D: 11 minutes
14 minutes
A 5-year-old child experienced partial-thickness burns to his head, anterior chest, and both upper extremities. What percentage of his total body surface area has been burned? A: 45% B: 72% C: 63% D: 54%
45%
Inn which of the following patients is nitroglycerin contraindicated? A: 58-year-old male with chest pain radiating to the left arm, a blood pressure of 130/64 mm Hg, and prescribed Tegretol B: 41-year-old male with crushing substernal chest pressure, a blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg, and severe nausea C: 66-year-old female with chest pressure of 6 hours' duration, lightheadedness, and a blood pressure of 110/58 mm Hg D: 53-year-old male with chest discomfort, diaphoresis, a blood pressure of 146/66 mm Hg, and regular use of Levitra
53-year-old male with chest discomfort, diaphoresis, a blood pressure of 146/66 mm Hg, and regular use of Levitra
The 5-minute Apgar assessment of a newborn reveals a heart rate of 130 beats/min, cyanosis to the hands and feet, and rapid respirations. The infant cries when you flick the soles of its feet and resists attempts to straighten its legs. These findings equate to an Apgar score of: A: 10 B: 7 C: 9 D: 8
9
Which of the following mechanisms of injury would necessitate performing a rapid head-to-toe assessment? A: Amputation of three toes from the patient's left foot with controlled bleeding B: A 5 foot, 9 inch tall adult who fell 12 feet from a roof and landed on his side C: A stable patient involved in a motor-vehicle crash, whose passenger was killed D: An impaled object in the patient's lower extremity with minimal venous bleeding
A stable patient involved in a motor-vehicle crash, whose passenger was killed
A middle-aged female with a history of hypertension and high cholesterol complains of chest discomfort. She asks you to take her to the hospital where her personal physician practices, which is 15 miles away. Her blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, pulse is 84 beats/min and regular, and respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. Which of the following actions is clearly NOT appropriate for this patient? A: Allowing her to walk to the ambulance B: Contacting her physician via phone C: Giving oxygen via nasal cannula D: Taking her to her choice hospital
Allowing her to walk to the ambulance
While triaging patients at a mass-casualty incident, you encounter a responsive middle-aged female with a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min. What should you do next? A: Assess for bilateral radial pulses B: Administer high-flow oxygen at once C: Assess her ability to follow commands D: Triage her as immediate (red tag)
Assess for bilateral radial pulses
While triaging patients at a mass-casualty incident, you encounter a responsive middle-aged female with a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min. What should you do next? A: Triage her as immediate (red tag) B: Administer high-flow oxygen at once C: Assess her ability to follow commands D: Assess for bilateral radial pulses
Assess for bilateral radial pulses
When you begin to assess a woman in labor, she states that her contractions are occurring every 4 to 5 minutes and lasting approximately 30 seconds each. Which of the following questions would be MOST appropriate to ask next? A: How many other children do you have? B: Has your bag of waters broken yet? C: Have you had regular prenatal care? D: At how many weeks gestation are you?
At how many weeks gestation are you?
Which of the following sets of vital signs is MOST suggestive of increased intracranial pressure in a patient who has experienced a traumatic brain injury? A: BP, 176/98 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min B: BP, 92/60 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 24 breaths/min C: BP, 160/72 mm Hg; pulse, 100 beats/min; respirations, 12 breaths/min D: BP, 84/42 mm Hg; pulse, 60 beats/min; respirations, 32 breaths/min
BP, 176/98 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min
You are assessing a 66-year-old man who has emphysema and complains of worsened shortness of breath. He is confused, has a heart rate of 120 beats/min, and an oxygen saturation of 89%. Which of the following assessment findings should concern you the MOST? A: Worsened shortness of breath B: Low oxygen saturation C: Confusion D: Tachycardia
Confusion
Which of the following injury mechanisms is associated with hangings? A: Axial loading B: Distraction C: Subluxation D: Hyperextension
Distraction
Which of the following statements regarding sudden cardiac arrest and ventricular fibrillation is correct? A: For each minute that defibrillation is delayed, the chance of survival decreases by as much as 10%. B: Patients with ventricular fibrillation are typically unconscious, apneic, and have a weak and irregular pulse. C: Most patients develop ventricular fibrillation within 10 minutes after the onset of sudden cardiac arrest. D: High-quality CPR often reverses ventricular fibrillation if it is initiated within 2 minutes of the onset.
For each minute that defibrillation is delayed, the chance of survival decreases by as much as 10%.
Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence initially when assessing a responsive 40-year-old woman who fell from a standing position? A: Did you faint before you fell? B: Can you move your hands and feet? C: Have you fallen before? D: Did you hit your head?
Have you fallen before?
A 56-year-old diabetic man is found unresponsive by his wife. She tells you that he ate breakfast this morning, but is unsure if he took his insulin. His respirations are rapid and shallow, his skin is cool and profusely diaphoretic, and his pulse is rapid and weak. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is correct? A: The fact that he ate breakfast makes hypoglycemia highly unlikely. B: He needs glucose as soon as possible because he is likely hypoglycemic. C: You should request an ALS unit so they can give the patient his insulin. D: He probably did not take his insulin and has a high blood glucose level.
He needs glucose as soon as possible because he is likely hypoglycemic.
Which of the following statements regarding the high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator is correct? A: A HEPA respirator should be placed on any patient with tuberculosis. B: A HEPA respirator is necessary only if the patient with suspected tuberculosis is coughing. C: A surgical mask provides better protection against tuberculosis than a HEPA respirator. D: Long sideburns or a beard will prevent the proper fit of a HEPA respirator.
Long sideburns or a beard will prevent the proper fit of a HEPA respirator.
You arrive at the scene shortly after a 3-year-old female experienced a seizure. The child, who is being held by her mother, is conscious and crying. The mother tells you that her daughter has been ill recently and has a temperature of 102.5°F. What is the MOST appropriate treatment for this child? A: Oxygen via the blow-by technique, remove clothing to help reduce her fever, and transport with continuous monitoring. B: Oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, place the child in a tub of cold water to lower her body temperature, and transport. C: Oxygen via the blow-by technique, transport, and request a paramedic intercept so an anticonvulsant drug can be given. D: Oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, avoid any measures to lower the child's body temperature, and transport at once.
Oxygen via the blow-by technique, remove clothing to help reduce her fever, and transport with continuous monitoring.
Which of the following devices is contraindicated in patients with blunt chest trauma? A: Oxygen-powered ventilator B: Oral airway C: Bag-mask device D: Nasal airway
Oxygen-powered ventilator
Which of the following assessment findings is LEAST suggestive of cardiac compromise? A: Rapid, irregular heart rate B: Nausea and epigastric pain C: Palpable pain to the chest D: Anxiety and pale, cool skin
Palpable pain to the chest
You are transporting a 30-year-old man who is experiencing an emotional crisis. The patient does not speak when you ask him questions. How should you respond to his unwillingness to speak? A: Tell the patient that you cannot help if he won't talk. B: Remain silent until the patient speaks to you. C: Do not speak to the patient, even if he begins to speak to you. D: Continually encourage the patient to talk to you.
Remain silent until the patient speaks to you.
Following delivery of a newborn and placenta, you note that the mother has moderate vaginal bleeding. The mother is conscious and alert and her vital signs are stable. Treatment for her should include: A: massaging the uterus if signs of shock develop. B: treating her for shock and providing rapid transport. C: carefully packing the vagina with sterile dressings. D: administering oxygen and massaging the uterus.
administering oxygen and massaging the uterus.
Firefighters have rescued a man from his burning house. He is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant respiratory distress. He has a brassy cough and singed nasal hairs. The MOST immediate threat to this patient's life is: A: hypothermia. B: airway swelling. C: severe infection. D: severe burns.
airway swelling.
After removing a patient from the water, your assessment reveals that he is not breathing and is continuously regurgitating large amounts of water. You should: A: alternate suctioning with artificial ventilations. B: begin rescue breathing after he stops regurgitating. C: perform abdominal thrusts to remove the water. D: place him on his side and press on his abdomen.
alternate suctioning with artificial ventilations.
Seizures in children MOST often are the result of: A: a life-threatening infection. B: a temperature greater than 102°F. C: an inflammatory process in the brain. D: an abrupt rise in body temperature.
an abrupt rise in body temperature.
Rapid transport of a patient who ingested a large dose of Tylenol is important because: A: an antidote may prevent liver failure if administered early enough. B: it only takes a small dose of Tylenol to cause cardiopulmonary arrest. C: liver failure usually occurs within 6 hours following a Tylenol overdose. D: activated charcoal cannot be given to patients who ingested Tylenol.
an antidote may prevent liver failure if administered early enough.
In addition to chest pain or discomfort, a patient experiencing an acute coronary syndrome would MOST likely present with: A: irregular breathing and low blood pressure. B: ashen skin color, diaphoresis, and anxiety. C: profound cyanosis, dry skin, and a headache. D: severe projectile vomiting and flushed skin.
ashen skin color, diaphoresis, and anxiety.
While you are inside a crashed vehicle assessing a patient who is entrapped, the rescue team should be: A: preparing for a simple extrication process since you were obviously able to access the patient. B: actively extricating the patient using whichever extrication method they deem necessary. C: awaiting specific instructions from you as to how to proceed with the extrication process. D: assessing exactly how the patient is trapped and determining the safest way to extricate.
assessing exactly how the patient is trapped and determining the safest way to extricate.
Following the initial steps of resuscitation, a newborn remains apneic and cyanotic. You should: A: start CPR if the heart rate is less than 80 beats/min. B: immediately resuction its mouth and nose. C: gently flick the soles of its feet for up to 60 seconds. D: begin ventilations with a bag-mask device.
begin ventilations with a bag-mask device.
The respiratory system functions by: A: sending messages to the diaphragm that cause it to contract. B: removing carbon dioxide from the cells and returning it to the lungs. C: ensuring that adequate oxygen is delivered to the body's tissues. D: bringing oxygen into the lungs and eliminating carbon dioxide.
bringing oxygen into the lungs and eliminating carbon dioxide.
An elderly man in unresponsive and has agonal breathing. You should: A: perform rescue breathing at 10 to 12 breaths/min. B: begin CPR, starting with chest compressions. C: open his airway and deliver 2 rescue breaths. D: check for a carotid pulse for up to 10 seconds.
check for a carotid pulse for up to 10 seconds
Which of the following is the preferred initial method for providing artificial ventilations to an apneic adult? A: Two-person bag-valve-mask technique with 100% oxygen B: Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device C: One-person bag-valve-mask technique with 100% oxygen D: Mouth-to-mask technique with supplemental oxygen
Mouth-to-mask technique with supplemental oxygen
Sonorous respirations are MOST rapidly corrected by: A: correctly positioning the head. B: initiating assisted ventilations. C: inserting an oropharyngeal airway. D: suctioning the oropharynx.
correctly positioning the head.
After an adult cardiac arrest patient has been intubated by a paramedic, you are providing ventilations as your partner performs chest compressions. When ventilating the patient, you should: A: deliver each breath over 2 seconds at a rate of 12 to 15 breaths/min. B: deliver 2 breaths during a brief pause in chest compressions. C: hyperventilate the patient to maximize carbon dioxide elimination. D: deliver each breath over 1 second at a rate of 8 to 10 breaths/min.
deliver each breath over 1 second at a rate of 8 to 10 breaths/min.
An unresponsive 60-year-old male is apneic and has a weak, rapid pulse. His oxygen saturation reads 79%. You should: A: ventilate at a rate of 8 to 10 breaths/min, ensuring visible chest rise. B: deliver one breath over 1 second every 5 to 6 seconds. C: mildly hyperventilate him until his oxygen saturation improves. D: use a pocket face mask to deliver 12 to 20 breaths/min.
deliver one breath over 1 second every 5 to 6 seconds.
In contrast to the contractions associated with true labor, Braxton-Hicks contractions: A: do not increase in intensity and are alleviated by a change in position. B: consistently become stronger and are not alleviated by changing position. C: generally follow rupture of the amniotic sac and occur with regularity. D: may be intensified by activity and are accompanied by a pink discharge.
do not increase in intensity and are alleviated by a change in position.
The scene size-up includes all of the following components, EXCEPT: A: evaluating the mechanism of injury. B: determining if the scene is safe. C: donning personal protective gear. D: assessing the need for assistance.
donning personal protective gear.
The MOST effective means of preventing the spread of disease is: A: wearing gloves with all patients. B: wearing a mask with all patients. C: effective handwashing. D: up-to-date immunizations.
effective handwashing
When using the power lift to lift a stretcher, you should: A: maintain a slight inward curve to your back. B: ensure that you lift with your palms facing up. C: place your hands palms down on the stretcher. D: bend at the waist and keep your back straight.
ensure that you lift with your palms facing up.
You are assessing a young male who was stabbed in the right lower chest. He is semiconscious and has labored breathing, collapsed jugular veins, and absent breath sounds on the right side of his chest. This patient MOST likely has a: A: ruptured spleen. B: liver laceration. C: hemothorax. D: pneumothorax.
hemothorax
You are assessing a young male who was stabbed in the right lower chest. He is semiconscious and has labored breathing, collapsed jugular veins, and absent breath sounds on the right side of his chest. This patient MOST likely has a: A: hemothorax. B: liver laceration. C: pneumothorax. D: ruptured spleen.
hemothorax.
The function of the uterus is to: A: dilate and expel the baby from the cervix. B: house the fetus as it grows for 40 weeks. C: provide a cushion and protect the fetus from infection. D: provide oxygen and other nutrients to the fetus.
house the fetus as it grows for 40 weeks.
A 56-year-old man has labored, shallow breathing at a rate of 28 breaths/min. He is responsive to pain only. You should: A: place him on his side and administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B: insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisting his ventilations. C: suction his mouth for 15 seconds and insert an oropharyngeal airway. D: ventilate him with a bag-mask device at a rate of 30 breaths/min.
insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisting his ventilations.
You receive a call for a 49-year-old woman who passed out. The patient's husband tells you that they were watching TV when the incident occurred. No trauma was involved. The patient is semiconscious and has cyanosis to her lips. After opening her airway with the head tilt-chin lift maneuver, you should: A: insert a nasopharyngeal airway. B: assess her respiratory effort. C: begin ventilation assistance. D: insert an oropharyngeal airway.
insert a nasopharyngeal airway.
Which of the following would clearly be detrimental to a patient in cardiac arrest? A: Performing CPR before defibrillation B: Ventilating just until the chest rises C: Interrupting CPR for more than 10 seconds D: Using a pocket face mask without high-flow oxygen
interupting CPR for more than 10 seconds
You are transporting a 35-year-old male who has a history of alcoholism. He stopped drinking 4 days ago and is now disoriented, diaphoretic, and tachycardic. You should be MOST concerned that he: A: will develop a high fever. B: may have a seizure. C: is severely dehydrated. D: will begin hallucinating.
may have a seizure.
At the peak of the inspiratory phase, the alveoli in the lungs contain: A: more oxygen than carbon dioxide. B: high quantities of carbon dioxide. C: minimal levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide. D: equal levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
more oxygen than carbon dioxide.
The role of triage officer at a mass-casualty incident should be assumed by the: A: EMS medical director via telephone communication. B: most knowledgeable EMS provider. C: EMS provider with the most years in EMS. D: first EMS provider who is willing to perform the task.
most knowledgeable EMS provider.
You arrive at the scene of a young male who was stabbed when a burglar broke into his house. Law enforcement officers are present. The patient, who is unresponsive with several stab wounds to the chest, is lying in a narrow space between a couch and coffee table. You should: A: move the coffee table, begin patient care, and notify a police officer. B: treat the patient where he is, without moving the coffee table. C: move the coffee table, document what you did, and begin treatment. D: obtain permission from law enforcement before moving any furniture.
move the coffee table, begin patient care, and notify a police officer.
The EMT should avoid focusing all of his or her attention on a single critical patient during the triage process because: A: three EMTs are required to effectively manage a critical patient. B: the patient will most likely die before he or she can be transported. C: all of his or her supplies will likely be depleted on that one patient. D: other patients may die of problems that may have been corrected
other patients may die of problems that may have been corrected
hen assessing distal circulation in a patient with a swollen deformed femur, you should: A: assess the pulse behind the knee. B: ask the patient to wiggle his toes. C: palpate for a dorsalis pedis pulse. D: touch his foot with a blunt object.
palpate for a dorsalis pedis pulse.
Chest compression effectiveness is MOST effectively assessed by: A: palpating for a carotid pulse with each compression. B: measuring the systolic blood pressure during compressions. C: carefully measuring the depth of each compression. D: listening for a heartbeat with each compression.
palpating for a carotid pulse with each compression.
A 19-year-old male was assaulted and has trauma to multiple body systems. After performing your primary assessment and treating any immediate life-threatening injuries, you should: A: transport at once and intercept with ALS. B: obtain a full set of baseline vital signs. C: fully immobilize his spine and transport. D: perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment.
perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment.
After an initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive apneic patient fails, you reposition the patient's head and reattempt ventilation without success. You should next: A: administer 5 to 10 abdominal thrusts and reattempt to ventilate. B: turn the patient onto his side and deliver 5 to 10 back slaps. C: perform chest compressions, open the airway, and look in the mouth. D: perform continuous chest compressions until ALS personnel arrive.
perform chest compressions, open the airway, and look in the mouth.
Your assessment of a mother in labor reveals that a fetal limb is protruding from the vagina. Management of this situation should include: A: applying gentle traction to the protruding limb to remove pressure of the fetus from the umbilical cord. B: giving the mother 100% oxygen and attempting to manipulate the protruding limb so that delivery can occur. C: positioning the mother in a semi-Fowler's position, administering oxygen, and providing transport. D: positioning the mother with her hips elevated, administering high-flow oxygen, and providing transport.
positioning the mother with her hips elevated, administering high-flow oxygen, and providing transport.
After the baby's head delivers, it is usually tilted: A: anteriorly, with the chin up. B: with the face up. C: posteriorly, to one side. D: posteriorly, face down.
posteriorly, to one side
After the baby's head delivers, it is usually tilted: A: anteriorly, with the chin up. B: with the face up. C: posteriorly, face down. D: posteriorly, to one side.
posteriorly, to one side.
During the inhalation phase of breathing: A: the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and ascend. B: the muscles in between the ribs relax, which lifts the ribs up and out. C: pressure within the thorax decreases and air is drawn into the lungs. D: air passively enters the lungs as pressure within the thorax increases.
pressure within the thorax decreases and air is drawn into the lungs.
During the rapid head-to-toe assessment of a patient with multiple injuries, you expose the chest and find an open wound with blood bubbling from it. You should: A: place a porous dressing over the wound. B: apply high-flow supplemental oxygen. C: prevent air from entering the wound. D: stop your assessment and transport.
prevent air from entering the wound.
Which of the following would MOST likely occur in conjunction with a breech presentation? A: Premature rupture of the amniotic sac B: Prolapsed umbilical cord C: Vertex presentation D: Maternal hypertension
prolapsed umbilical cord
Despite direct pressure, a large laceration to the medial aspect of the arm continues to bleed profusely. You should: A: locate and apply pressure to the brachial artery. B: pack the inside of the laceration with sterile gauze. C: quickly apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury. D: continue direct pressure and elevate the extremity.
quickly apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury.
A patient presents with a swollen, painful deformity to the lateral bone of the left forearm. You should recognize that he has injured his: A: clavicle. B: ulna. C: radius. D: humerus.
radius.
After administering nitroglycerin to a patient with chest discomfort, it is MOST important for you to: A: ask the patient if the discomfort has improved. B: reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes. C: find out how long the discomfort has been present. D: place the patient supine and elevate his or her legs.
reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes.
In addition to supplemental oxygen, one of the MOST effective way to minimize the detrimental effects associated with acute coronary syndrome is to: A: request ALS support for any patient who has chest pain. B: transport the patient rapidly, using lights and siren. C: administer nitroglycerin in 15 to 20 minute intervals. D: reassure the patient and provide prompt transport
reassure the patient and provide prompt transport
Medications such as albuterol (Ventolin) relieve respiratory distress by: A: relaxing the smooth muscle of the bronchioles. B: constricting the bronchioles in the lungs. C: contracting the smaller airways in the lungs. D: dilating the large mainstem bronchi of the airway.
relaxing the smooth muscle of the bronchioles.
Management for a women who presents with a prolapsed umbilical cord includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A: placing the mother in a position that elevates her hips. B: lifting the baby's head off of the umbilical cord. C: ensuring that the cord stays moist during transport. D: relieving pressure off of the cord by gently pulling on it.
relieving pressure off of the cord by gently pulling on it.
You are dispatched to a residence for a 20-year-old male with respiratory distress. When you arrive, you find that the patient has a tracheostomy tube and is ventilator dependent. His mother tells you that he was doing fine, but then suddenly began experiencing breathing difficulty. You should: A: detach the ventilator, suction the tracheostomy tube, and reassess the patient. B: check the settings on the ventilator to ensure that it is functioning properly. C: remove the ventilator tubing and place an oxygen mask over the tracheostomy tube. D: remove him from the mechanical ventilator and ventilate him manually.
remove him from the mechanical ventilator and ventilate him manually.
A 22-year-old man was stabbed in the chest with a large knife. The patient is pulseless and apneic, and the knife is impaled in the center of his chest. Treatment should include: A: removing the knife, starting CPR, and providing rapid transport. B: stabilizing the knife, starting CPR, and providing rapid transport. C: removing the knife, applying an occlusive dressing, and providing rapid transport. D: stabilizing the knife, applying an occlusive dressing, and providing rapid transport.
removing the knife, starting CPR, and providing rapid transport.
When the incident command system is activated at the scene, you should expect to: A: receive instructions and then function independently. B: be assigned one responsibility for the duration of the incident. C: report back to your section officer in between assignments. D: be immediately directed to the established treatment area.
report back to your section officer in between assignments.
Displaced fractures of the proximal femur are characterized by: A: hip joint extension and external leg rotation. B: lengthening and internal rotation of the leg. C: a flexed hip joint and inward thigh rotation. D: shortening and external rotation of the leg.
shortening and external rotation of the leg.
When restraining a violent patient, you should make sure that: A: consent for restraint has been obtained from a family member. B: at least two EMTs restrain the patient. C: the patient is restrained using maximal force. D: someone talks to the patient during the proces
someone talks to the patient during the process
You arrive at the scene shortly after a 55-year-old man collapsed. Two bystanders are performing CPR. Your FIRST action should be to: A: stop CPR so you can assess breathing and pulse. B: check the effectiveness of the CPR in progress. C: attach the AED and analyze his cardiac rhythm. D: insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue CPR
stop CPR so you can assess breathing and pulse.
Which of the following is MOST indicative of decompensated shock in a trauma patient with internal bleeding? A: Restlessness B: Clammy skin C: Hypotension D: Tachycardia
Hypotension
Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib) is correct? A: Loss of consciousness occurs within minutes after the onset of V-Fib. B: Patients in V-Fib should be defibrillated after every 60 seconds of CPR. C: In V-Fib, the heart is not pumping any blood and the patient is pulseless. D: Any patient in V-Fib must receive CPR for 2 minutes prior to defibrillation.
In V-Fib, the heart is not pumping any blood and the patient is pulseless.
Which of the following is the MOST detrimental effect that tachycardia can have on a patient experiencing a cardiac problem? A: Increased oxygen demand B: Increased blood pressure C: Increased stress and anxiety D: Decreased cardiac functioning
Increased oxygen demand
You are called to treat a 55-year-old man who is experiencing difficulty breathing. After making contact with your patient, he extends his arm out to allow you to take his blood pressure. This is an example of: A: informed consent. B: implied consent. C: formal consent. D: actual consent.
actual consent
Which of the following techniques represents the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway of an infant with no suspected neck injury? A: Perform the technique as you would for an older child or adult. B: Lift up the chin and hyperextend the neck. C: Gently lift the chin while maintaining slight flexion of the neck. D: Tilt the head back without hyperextending the neck.
Tilt the head back without hyperextending the neck.
Which of the following components is NOT part of an injury or illness prevention program? A: Training a group of daycare employees on infant and child CPR B: Inspecting the home of young parents for child safety locks C: Teaching new parents how to properly install a child safety seat D: Educating teenage students on the dangers of drinking and driving
Training a group of daycare employees on infant and child CPR
Sudden cardiac arrest in the adult population MOST often is the result of: A: myocardial infarction. B: a cardiac arrhythmia. C: accidental electrocution. D: respiratory failure.
a cardiac arrhythmia.
A 60-year-old woman is experiencing severe respiratory distress. When you ask her a question, she can only say two words at a time. Treatment for her should include: A: applying a nonrebreathing mask set at 15 L/min. B: insertion of a nasopharyngeal airway. C: assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device. D: applying a nasal cannula set at 2 to 6 L/min.
assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device.
Failure of the EMT to obtain consent from a responsive patient before taking his or her blood pressure may constitute: A: assault. B: abandonment. C: negligence. D: battery.
battery
A 44-year-old woman was bitten on the ankle by an unidentified snake while working in her garden. She is conscious and alert, has stable vital signs, and denies shortness of breath. Her only complaint is a burning sensation at the wound site. Your assessment reveals two small puncture wounds, redness, and swelling. You should: A: elevate her leg, cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing, and apply an ice pack to reduce pain and swelling. B: give supplemental oxygen, splint her leg to decrease movement, and keep her leg below the level of her heart. C: conclude that envenomation likely did not occur, provide reassurance, and allow a friend to take her to the hospital. D: administer high-flow oxygen, apply a constricting band proximal to the bite, and use ice to prevent venom spread.
give supplemental oxygen, splint her leg to decrease movement, and keep her leg below the level of her heart.
When insulin levels in the blood remain high: A: the patient urinates excessively and becomes dehydrated. B: glucose is rapidly taken out of the blood to fuel the cells. C: the cells starve for glucose and begin to metabolize fat. D: a fruity odor can be detected on the patient's breath.
glucose is rapidly taken out of the blood to fuel the cells.
An elderly man is found lying unresponsive next to his bed. The patient's wife did not witness the events that led to his unresponsiveness. You should: A: assess the patient's respirations. B: grasp the angles of the lower jaw and lift. C: tilt the head back and lift up the chin. D: apply 100% supplemental oxygen.
grasp the angles of the lower jaw and lift.
A patient who is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction: A: often complains of a different type of pain than a patient with angina. B: most often describes his or her chest pain as being sharp or tearing. C: often experiences relief of his or her chest pain after taking nitroglycerin. D: has chest pain or discomfort that does not change with each breath.
has chest pain or discomfort that does not change with each breath.
A 73-year-old male presents with confusion; cool, pale, clammy skin; absent radial pulses; and a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg. The patient's wife tells you that he has had abdominal pain for a week and began vomiting a coffee-ground substance yesterday. His past medical history includes hypertension and gastric ulcer disease. Your MOST immediate concern should be that: A: his blood glucose level is probably too high. B: his condition requires surgery within 2 hours. C: he is bleeding from his gastrointestinal tract. D: he is in shock and requires prompt transport.
he is in shock and requires prompt transport.
Hypoxia-induced unresponsiveness during a submersion injury is usually the result of: A: laryngospasm. B: water in the lungs. C: associated hypothermia. D: a cardiac dysrhythmia.
laryngospasm.
The lower airway begins at the: A: larynx. B: cricoid cartilage. C: epiglottis. D: trachea.
larynx.
To ensure you deliver the highest concentration of oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask, you should: A: set the flow rate to at least 10 to 12 L/min. B: cover the flapper valves on the oxygen mask. C: securely fasten the mask to the patient's face. D: make sure that the reservoir bag is preinflated.
make sure that the reservoir bag is preinflated.
The technique of rapid extrication from a vehicle involves: A: applying a vest-style extrication device, sliding a long backboard under the patient's buttocks, and removing him or her from the vehicle. B: grabbing the patient by his or her clothing, protecting his or her spine as much as possible, and dragging him or her from the vehicle. C: applying a cervical collar, grasping the patient by the clothing, and quickly removing him or her onto the stretcher. D: manually stabilizing the head, applying a cervical collar, and removing the patient from the vehicle onto a long backboard.
manually stabilizing the head, applying a cervical collar, and removing the patient from the vehicle onto a long backboard.
When assessing a conscious patient who overdosed on a drug, you should FIRST determine: A: if there is a history of prior overdose. B: the patient's weight in kilograms. C: when the medication was ingested. D: the type of medication ingested.
the type of medication ingested.
You will know that the third stage of labor has begun when: A: the placenta has delivered. B: the mother's contractions become regular. C: the baby's head is visible at the vaginal opening. D: the entire baby has delivered.
the entire baby has delivered.
A 60-year-old man presents with a severe right-sided headache. He is conscious and alert. As you are assessing him, he tells you that the left side of his body feels weak. His blood pressure is 190/100 mm Hg, pulse is 88 beats/min, and respirations are 14 breaths/min. His past medical history includes diabetes, arthritis, and hypertension. You should be MOST concerned with: A: the location of his headache. B: his current blood pressure. C: the presence of hemiparesis. D: his blood glucose level.
the presence of hemiparesis.
When the vital organs of an 85-year-old patient need additional blood flow, the heart may not be able to meet the increased need because: A: the reserve capacity of the heart is reduced. B: stroke volume increases as a person ages. C: the patient's blood vessels become more elastic. D: blood pressure decreases as a person ages.
the reserve capacity of the heart is reduced.
A 6-year-old boy presents with a high fever, a headache, and a stiff neck. He is conscious, but is not acting as a normal 6-year-old boy should. His mother told you that he vomited once before your arrival. You should be MOST concerned with: A: treating him for severe dehydration. B: performing a secondary assessment at the scene. C: the potential for a febrile seizure. D: the risk of permanent neurological damage.
the risk of permanent neurological damage.
A young male experienced a syncopal episode after working in the heat for several hours. He is conscious and alert; has cool, clammy skin; and complains of nausea and lightheadedness. You should: A: give him cold water to drink. B: advise him to go home and rest. C: provide rapid cooling. D: transport him on his side.
transport him on his side.
During your assessment of a 70-year-old man with crushing chest pain, you note that his blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg. Your MOST important action should be to: A: transport without delay. B: assess his oxygen saturation. C: give high-flow oxygen. D: keep the patient warm.
transport without delay
A patient overdosed on several drugs and is unresponsive with shallow breathing and facial cyanosis. As you continue your assessment, the patient suddenly vomits. You should: A: turn the patient onto his side. B: insert an oropharyngeal airway. C: begin assisting his ventilations. D: suction his oropharynx at once.
turn the patient onto his side.
Oxygen and other nutrients are transferred to the developing fetus via the: A: uterine blood vessels. B: umbilical arteries. C: umbilical vein. D: amniotic fluid.
umbilical vein
When caring for a critically injured patient, it is MOST appropriate to perform your secondary assessment: A: while you are en route to the hospital. B: after all life threats have been ruled out. C: immediately after taking baseline vital signs. D: immediately following the primary assessment.
while you are en route to the hospital.