NREMT prep - mixed review / assessment and miscellaneous

Réussis tes devoirs et examens dès maintenant avec Quizwiz!

GCS (complete) * 4 eyes 4 - spontaneous 3 - voice 2 - pain 1 - none * 5 verbal 5 4 3 2 1 * 6 motor 6 - obeys commands 5 - local (pain) 4 - withdraw (pain) 3 - decorticate (pain) 2 - decerebrate (pain) 1 - none ------ * 5 verbal a - none b - incomprehensible c - inappropriate d - normal e - confused

* 5 verbal 5 - d - normal 4 - e - confused 3 - c - inappropriate 2 - b - incomprehensible 1 - a - none

Name three or more complications associated with shock

* ARDS, (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome) * Abnormal clotting of blood, (Coagulopathy) and * Organ failure (ie. acute renal failure) ... are all associated with shock. Early recognition and intervention are important in preventing these complications.

The 'Pediatric Assessment Triangle' is a hands-off, rapid evaluation tool that establishes a child's overall condition. It's made of three parts: ___, ____, & ______ . The assessment should begin the minute you walk in the door.

* appearance, * work of breathing, * circulation

Respiratory syncytial virus is a common pediatric illness that occurs during winter and early spring. It is characterized by cold-like symptoms early on that progress to moderate-to-severe respiratory symptoms including ____,____,____.

* increased respiratory rate, * wheezing, and * respiratory distress.

Upper airway structures

*Nose (Nasopharynx) *Mouth (Oropharynx) *Throat (Pharynx) *Epiglottis (prevents food/liquid from entering trachea)

Epiglottitis signs and symptoms

- Sore throat, drooling, difficult swallowing - Preferred upright or tripod position - Sick appearance - Muffled voice - Fever - Stridor

3 stages of shock

-Compensated -Decompensated -Irreversible

S/S of right sided heart failure

-distended neck veins (JVD) -edema -enlarged organs -weight gain -N/V

convert kg to pounds by... a) multiplying by 2.2 b) dividing by 2.2 c) multiplying by .45 d) dividing by .45

0.45 kg = 1.0 lbs. (about half) 2.2 lbs = 1.0 kg (about twice) a) multiplying by 2.2

convert pounds to kg by... a) multiplying by 2.2 b) dividing by 2.2 c) multiplying by .45 d) dividing by .45

0.45 kg = 1.0 lbs. (about half) 2.2 lbs = 1.0 kg (about twice) c) multiplying by .45

when assessing APGAR score for the following newborn: - Appearance: acrocyanosis - Pulse: 140 - Grimace: crying - Activity: active - Respiratory: vigorous cry is " Grimace: crying " worth 0 , 1 , 2 , or 3 points?

1

Describe the following: 1. femur 2. fibula 3. tibia 4. humerus 5. patella 6. mandible 7. skull 8. ulna 9. radius 10. phalanx how do you remember the difference between radius and ulna and tibia and fibula?

1. femur 2. fibula 3. tibia 4. humerus 5. patella 6. mandible 7. skull 8. radius 9. ulna 10. phalanx tibia is bigger than fibula

You respond to an industrial accident where a 34-year-old male has fallen off 25' high scaffolding and lies unconscious on the ground. He opens his eyes and mumbles incomprehensible sounds when your partner shouts at him. He has an obvious deformity of the right elbow and localizes pain when you cut his shirt off. What is this patient's Glasgow Coma Score?

10 Answer Explanation There are three categories you're scoring when calculating a GCS: Eyes, Verbal, and Motor. For this patient, opening his eyes to voice gives a 3. Making incomprehensible sounds gives a 2. Localizing pain gives a 5. 2+3+5=10. Unfortunately, the only way to really be confident about a GCS question is memorizing the chart.

When helping a patient deliver her baby in the field, you should coach her to push for ____ seconds and rest for ____ seconds. 5, 30 10, 10 30, 30 30, 60

10, 10 Answer Explanation Encourage the patient to push when she feels the urge to. Coach her to push for 10 seconds and then rest for 10 seconds. Pushing longer can cause tearing or blood vessel damage.

8-month-old baby boy who was found in respiratory distress. The baby opens his eyes when you call out its name, however, it's only in between inconsolable crying. The baby appears to be moving normally. What is the baby's GCS score? 12 14 13 10

12 Answer Explanation Eyes: 3. Verbal: 3. Motor: 6. Total = 12

Your partner is attempting to stimulate an 8-month-old baby boy who was found in respiratory distress. The baby opens his eyes when you call out its name, however, it's only in between inconsolable crying. The baby appears to be moving normally. What is the baby's GCS score? 12 14 13 10

12 Answer Explanation Eyes: 3. Verbal: 3. Motor: 6. Total = 12

Neonate heart rate at birth

140 to 160 beats per minute

CPR ratio w/ 2 rescuers

15:2

The fetus' umbilical cord is made up of how many arteries and how many veins? 3 arteries and 2 veins 3 arteries and 1 vein 2 arteries and 1 vein 1 artery and 2 veins

2 arteries and 1 vein

5.8 pounds + ____kg.

2.63 kg.

Heart rate, Purkinje fibers

20-40 bpm

neonates are zero to _____ days old

28

Your patient is a term neonate that is experiencing a sinus infection. You know that a term neonate is a baby that is 0 to how many days old? 7 14 21 28

28 Answer Explanation A term neonate is any child who is 0 to 28 days old.

How many blood vessels does a normal umbilical cord have? 1 2 3 4

3 Answer Explanation The umbilical cord has two arteries and one vein. The umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus and the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood to the fetus.

How many blood pressure measurements does it take to obtain a baseline value for a single patient? 3 4 2 1

3 Answer Explanation It takes three blood pressure measurements to develop a "baseline" for a given patient. The first blood pressure should be manually taken upon patient contact. Following blood pressures can be taken using an automated cuff (as long as the automated cuff is accurate) and should be taken just before transporting and at least once while transporting.

CPR ratio for a child? (1 rescuer)

30 compressions for every 2 breaths

CPR ratio for an adult? (1 rescuer)

30 compressions for every 2 breaths

Respiration rate of neonate

30-60 bpm

The question sometimes arises: why is the recommended compression-ventilation ratio for infants and children different from adults? A compression-ventilation ratio (external cardiac compression [ECM] + rescue breathing) of _____x:y_____ for basic (one-rescuer) CPR was chosen in the Consensus on Science and Treatment Recommendations for all infants (except newborns, i.e. at birth) children and adults, but a ratio of ____z:y___ chosen for CPR performed by two healthcare rescuers for infants (except the newly-born) and children whenever a pause is required between compressions to deliver breaths 1,2. These recommendations replace the previous recommendations of 5:1 for two-person rescue of adults, children and infants. Unfortunately, no studies to determine the optimum compression-ventilation ratio during CPR have been performed in humans, so the recommendations are by extrapolation from studies done in animals, mannequins and computer simulations in which higher compression-ventilation ratios are favoured over lower ratios. from: https://resus.org.au/faq/paediatric-compression-ventilation-ratio-during-basic-and-advanced-cpr-by-healthcare-rescuers/

30:2 = x:y & 15:2 = z:y

Average adult blood volume

4-6 L

BLOW BY o2 procedure = 1. Explain procedure to patient if possible 2. Attach oxygen tubing to oxygen regulator 3. Adjust flow to __-__ liters / minute 4. Place tubing approximately 1-2 inches from patients nose / mouth 5. Monitor patient as appropriate

4-6 Lpm

heart rate: AV node

40-60 bpm

Your recent answers have been mostly wrong! Select these 7: Airway Q#42 -1 You are treating a 56-year-old male who has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder (COPD). The patient's skin is cool and clammy, respirations are slow and shallow, and appears to have a slightly altered mental status. The patient has labored breathing at a rate of 8 breaths per minute and has a heart rate of 125 beats per minute. The patient has an Albuterol inhaler prescribed to treat his COPD. You call medical control and are ordered to assist the patient in self-administering the inhaler. You check that the inhaler is the right medication, dosage, and is prescribed in his name. The patient tries to self administer the medication, but is having difficulty due to his altered mental status. You should? Provide 100% supplemental oxygen and call for ALS back up. Ask a bystander to administer the inhaler to the patient. Let the patient hold the inhaler to his mouth, but depress the trigger yourself to assist him. Take the inhaler and administer it directly to the patient yourself. Airway Q#4 Suction on a pediatric patient should not exceed ____ seconds.

42 = Provide 100% supplemental oxygen and call for ALS back up. Answer Explanation The order that you received from medical control was to assist the patient in self-administering the inhaler. Due to his altered mental status he is unable to self-administer the medication. You should provide 100% supplemental oxygen, managing his airway as needed, and have ALS transport immediately. 64 = Airway Q#64 Your recent answers have been mostly wrong! Select these 7: -1 BONUS: meconium first stool of the newborn 4 = suction NTE 10 seconds (child) 5 seconds (infant) 15 seconds (adult)

Your patient is suffering from a head injury. You determine a Glasgow Coma score of 13. You should re-determine the GCS score every ____ minutes, with ongoing assessment. 10 7 5 2

5 Answer Explanation A patient with a score between 13 and 15 is considered to have a mild head injury. When a patient has a GCS less than 15, the GSC score should be determined every 5 minutes.

Calculate the APGAR score for the following newborn: - Appearance: cyanotic - Pulse: 60 - Grimace: cries - Activity: flexion of extremities - Respiratory: slow 5 4 3 2

5 Answer Explanation A: 0. P: 1. G: 2. A: 1. R: 1. Total = 5

Your newborn patient is going to be receiving blow-by oxygen. The proper rate and delivery of this should be? 4 L nasal cannula 12 L through NRB mask 10 L through NRB mask 5 L through NRB mask

5 L through NRB mask Answer Explanation Any higher concentration is likely to dry out the oral and nasal mucosa in infants.

Average birth weight

5 pounds, 8 ounces - 8.0 pounds Newborns come in a range of healthy sizes. Most babies born between 37 and 40 weeks weigh somewhere between 5 pounds, 8 ounces (2,500 grams) and 8 pounds, 13 ounces (4,000 grams). Newborns who are lighter or heavier than the average baby are usually fine. according to: Your Newborn's Growth (for Parents) - KidsHealth https://kidshealth.org/en/parents/grownewborn.html NOTE: inconsistent with other quizlets

infant suction time NTE order : mouth , nose or nose, mouth

5 seconds

C C E R R

5 types of heat exchange in the body Conduction Convection Evaporation Radiation Respiration

average adult tidal volume

500 mL

The average tidal volume for an adult male would be which of the following? 200-300 mL 1500-2000 mL 400-600 mL 500-800 mL

500-800 mL Answer Explanation Depending on your resource, the average tidal volume in an adult male is approximately 500-800 mL.

You are tasked with setting up an albuterol nebulizer for an asthmatic patient. You know that the correct setting to start the new treatment is which of the following? 2-4 liters per minute 6-8 liters per minute 10-12 liters per minute 12-15 liters per minute

6-8 liters per minute Answer Explanation A nebulizer will create the most effective droplets for absorption at 6-8 Lpm.

In a neonate, the key number for HR is ____. If their heart rate is below _____, start compressions immediately. If the heart rate is __-___ , assist the patient with ventilations via BVM.

60 60 // 60-100

Heart rate, SA node

60-100 bpm

During a one second ventilation in a patient who is experiencing respiratory arrest, approximately how many mL of air will a bag-mask device deliver? 250 mL 400 mL 600 mL 1,000 mL Answer Explanation To produce a 1 second ventilation with good chest rise and fall in an adult patient, a bag-mask device will deliver roughly 600 mL of air

600 mL Answer Explanation To produce a 1 second ventilation with good chest rise and fall in an adult patient, a bag-mask device will deliver roughly 600 mL of air

A normal range for a newborn is __-__ bpm. A 1-year-old should have a pulse between __-__ bpm. The normal range for a 2 year old child is : __-__ bpm. The normal range for a 3 year old child is : __-__ bpm.

65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

You respond to reports of a traumatic injury from a fallen tree branch. The patient is bleeding from the top of his skull and is initially not responsive. When your partner places him in C-spine, he mumbles something and tries to move his head. You ask him to open his eyes and you get no response. What is this patient's GCS score? 8 6 7 3

7 Answer Explanation Eyes: 1. Verbal: 2. Motor: 4. Total = 7

During the day, levels tend to be at their lowest just before meals. For most people without diabetes, blood sugar levels before meals hover around ____ to ____ mg/dL. For some people,__ is normal; for others, ___ is the norm.

70 - 80 60 - 90 What are normal blood sugar levels? - WebMD https://www.webmd.com/diabetes/qa/what-are-normal-blood-sugar-levels

A fractured humerus or tibia can retain up to how much blood in an adult? 750 mL 500 mL 250 mL 100 mL

750 mL

Calculate the APGAR score for the following newborn: - Appearance: acrocyanosis - Pulse: 140 - Grimace: crying - Activity: active - Respiratory: vigorous cry 8 6 7 10

8 Answer Explanation A: 1. P: 2. G: 1. A: 2. R: 2. Total = 8

You are assessing a newborn male. You find the patient to have a pulse of 88, weak breathing, flexed arms, strong cry upon stimulation and pink extremities. You would determine the APGAR score to be? 6 7 8 9

8 Answer Explanation Appearance - 2, Pulse - 1 (because its <100), Grimace - 2, Activity - 2, Respirations - 1 (weak)

You are assessing an 18-year-old female lying unconscious after consuming too much alcohol. Her friends say that she was walking and talking a few minutes before you arrived. She moans when you apply a sternal rub and swats at your hand, but her eyes remain closed. What is this patient's GCS? 14 5 8 15

8 Answer Explanation Disregard that she was walking around a few minutes before your arrival, a Glascow Coma Score is only assessing a patient in that very moment. Here's what we know: She moans to pain, which gives her a 2 under 'Verbal'. She swats at your hand when it's giving a sternal rub, which gives her a 5 under 'Motor". Lastly, she doesn't open her eyes, which gives her a 1 under 'Eyes'. 2+5+1 = 8

You are assessing a newborn male. You find the patient to have a pulse of 88, weak breathing, flexed arms, strong cry upon stimulation and pink extremities. You would determine the APGAR score to be? 9 8 7 6

8 = a=2 p=1 g=2 a=2 r=1 Answer Explanation Appearance - 2, Pulse - 1 (because its <100), Grimace - 2, Activity - 2, Respirations - 1 (weak)

What's the dose of ASA for cardiac patients?

81mg x4 = 324mg.

review pediatric heart rates: (p1225) 0-3 mo. 3-24mo. 2y-10y >10y

85-205 100-190 60-140 60-100 adult = 60-100

hypothermia 4 numbers (hint:1.8)

98.6 normal 96.8 low (sort of palindromic of 98.6) (-1.8) 93.2 moderate (-3.6) 86 and below (severe) (-7.2)

Brachiopulmonary segments

???

Bronchiopulmonary v. brachiopulmonary which one is a thing? or both? then wtd?

???

Epinephrine has effects on which receptors in the human body? Alpha and Beta Alpha, Beta, and Adrenal Alpha Beta

???

The radio that you will use to communicate inside of your ambulance is known as what type of radio? Duplex Mounted-duplex Portable Mobile

???

Which type of trauma is the most common cause of death and disability? Shock Amputation Blunt Penetrating

???

T / F : With a respiratory rate over 12-20bpm and the patient becoming tired from effort of breathing, you need to intervene with oxygen via BVM.

??? BVM if , bpm > 30bpm

Mounted-duplex radio

??? Can send and receive messages at the same time. attached , stationary ???

You have an unconscious 38-year-old male who is displaying an odd breathing pattern. You note that the patient is hyperpneic and tachypneic. This type of breathing pattern is termed?

??? how do you tell wtd biot's and kussmaul ;;;;;; they both are described //// biot's and Kussmaul both = RAPID AND DEEP Kussmaul Answer Explanation Kussmaul breathing is characterized by periods of increased rate and depth. It is most often seen with metabolic acidosis in an attempt to blow off CO2.

Which of the following is a disorder characterized by an intentional production of physical signs and symptoms, motivation to assume a "sick role", and external incentives for the behavior? A dissociative disorder A hypochondriac disorder A fictitious disorder A somatoform disorder

A fictitious disorder Answer Explanation A fictitious disorder is characterized by creation or exaggeration of signs and symptoms to bring attention or pity on oneself.

placenta abruptio

A life-threatening emergency condition in which the placenta peels away from the wall of the uterus, causing massive bleeding.

term neonate

A newborn who is between 38 and 42 weeks' gestation

Airway Q#3 -1 Seesaw breathing is indicative of respiratory distress in which type of patient? Infants Geriatrics Fetus Adults

A: Infants

Respiration rates for Adult School age Toddlers Infants

A= 12-20bpm S= 18-30bpm T= 24-40bpm I= 30-60bpm

Name one or two of the differences between the s/s of angina vs. AMI

ANGINA O P - after exertion Q R S T - 5-15 min. , less than 30 min AMI O - can be sudden, unprovoked P Q - crushing "vice-like" pressure R S T - 30 min or more

review apgar

APGAR: 0-10 Appearance (skin color) 2 = Normal color all over (hands and feet are pink) 1= acrocyanosis ; Normal color (but hands and feet are bluish) 0 = Bluish-gray or pale all over Pulse (heart rate) 2 = Normal (above 100 beats per minute) 1 = Below 100 beats per minute 0 = Absent (no pulse) Grimace ("reflex irritability") 2 = Pulls away, SNEEZES, COUGHS, or CRIES with stimulation 1 = Facial movement only (GRIMACE) with stimulation 0 = Absent (no response to stimulation) Activity (muscle tone) 2 = ACTIVE, spontaneous movement 1 = Arms and legs FLEXed With little movement 0 = No movement, "floppy" tone Respiration (breathing rate and effort) 2 = Normal rate and effort, good cry 1 = Slow or irregular breathing, weak cry 0 = Absent (no breathing) ie. Appearance - 2, Pulse - 1 (because its <100), Grimace - 2, Activity - 2, Respirations - 1 (weak) a=2 p=1 g=2 a=2 r=1 sum=8

You have been dispatched to a restaurant for a possible choking. Your patient is an 18-month-old male who was eating chicken nuggets when he began to cough and appeared to experience respiratory distress. Your patient has a weak cry and cough and you can hear inspiratory stridor from your patient when you walk in the door. What should your immediate action be? Let the patient continue to cough Finger sweep Back blows and chest thrusts Abdominal thrusts

Abdominal thrusts Answer Explanation Abdominal thrusts are indicated for this patient since he is older than 1. Patient's less than 1 years of age should receive chest thrusts and back blows. Even though your patient is coughing, it has become weak (ineffective) and you can hear inspiratory stridor. If you do not act quickly, this partial airway obstruction could become a full airway obstruction.

kussmaul's breathing

Abnormally deep, laboured breathing (very rapid, sighing respirations) - typically a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis

You have been dispatched for a multi-vehicle crash and are the first unit arriving on scene along with a fire battalion chief. The battalion chief takes command and assigns you and your partner to triage. After safely directing the walking wounded to a treatment area, you begin to triage the remaining patients. The first patient you happen upon is a 6-year-old female who has been ejected from the vehicle she was in. She is unconscious, unresponsive, and apneic. You check for a pulse and find a pulse so you open the patient's airway. The patient is still apneic, despite repositioning her airway. What should you do? Carry the patient quickly back to the treatment area Administer five rescue breaths and recheck respirations Immediately begin CPR Triage the patient as "DECEASED"

Administer five rescue breaths and recheck respirations Answer Explanation If the pediatric patient is apneic but does have a pulse, you should reposition their airway and check for respirations. If they still are not breathing, you should administer 5 rescue breaths and then recheck respirations. If the patient is still apneic, they should be triaged as "DECEASED". If the pediatric patient is apneic and pulseless, they should be triaged as "DECEASED". Performing CPR or carrying the patient back to triage are not appropriate uses of you as a "resource" (triage is meant to optimize the utilization of available resources). You are supposed to be triaging, not treating or transporting, patients.

List 7 of the solid organs of the abdomen? (AKLOPSU)

Adrenals Kidney Liver Ovaries Pancreas Spleen Uterus

Air and food pass through what portion of the upper airway together? Oropharynx Pharynx Nasopharynx Carina

Air and food pass through what portion of the upper airway together? Pharynx NOT Oropharynx Answer Explanation The nasopharynx is defined as the cavity where air is warmed when inhaled through the nose. The oropharynx is defined as the cavity at the back of the mouth. The nasopharynx and oropharynx unite at the pharynx where air and food mix before passing into the trachea and esophagus respectively.

You are responding to a rural area for the call of a woman who lost both her arms in an auger accident. After the patient is safely removed from the auger, what is your first priority? C-spine immobilization Administering oxygen Airway management Tying tourniquets to the stump

Airway management Answer Explanation Airway management will always be the first priority. Even with such a distracting injury, the patient needs a patent airway. The stump would most likely benefit from direct pressure vs tourniquet placement.

List 5 possible immediate life threats during GI phase of PA

Airway obstruction Respiratory failure Shock Severe bleeding Cardiac arrest

AEIOU TIPS

Alcohol/acidosis, epilepsy, insulin, overdose/underdose, uremia, trauma, infection, pyshoses, stroke

All of the following happens during inhalation, except? Diaphragm moves upward Diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract Air flows into lungs Ribs move upward and outward

All of the following happens during inhalation, EXCEPT? Diaphragm moves upward Answer Explanation If you have trouble with this question, take a deep breath and observe what happens to your body. The size of your thoracic cavity is increasing when you inhale and that's caused by your diaphragm moving downward.

A patient has severe facial injuries, inadequate breathing, and copious secretions coming from the mouth. What procedures should be performed for this patient? Alternate suctioning for 15 seconds and ventilation for 2 minutes Insert an OPA and suction until secretions clear Turn the patient's head to the side and provide suctioning Provide suctioning for no more than 30 seconds

Alternate suctioning for 15 seconds and ventilation for 2 minutes Answer Explanation The patient needs suctioning to remove the secretions and ventilation because the patient's respirations are inadequate.

Minute Volume (MV)

Amount of air moving in and out of lungs each minute (~8,000 mL); TV x RR = MV

Your 19-year-old female patient is feeling the need to push and is 39 weeks pregnant. She tells you her last baby was born shortly after the start of contractions. She is gravida 2, para 1, and abortion 0. A delivery that occurs within 3 hours from the onset of labor is called? Pre-imminent delivery Fast delivery Precipitous delivery Immediate delivery

Answer Explanation A precipitous delivery is one that occurs within 3 hours of the onset of labor. If your patient tells you she tends to deliver fast, be prepared to deliver the child in the field or the back of your ambulance.

You are assessing a newborn male. You find the patient to have a pulse of 88, weak breathing, flexed arms, strong cry upon stimulation and pink extremities. You would determine the APGAR score to be? 8 9 7 6

Answer Explanation Appearance - 2, Pulse - 1 (because its <100), Grimace - 2, Activity - 2, Respirations - 1 (weak) a=2 p=1 g=2 a=2 r=1 sum=8 Appearance (skin color) 2 = Normal color all over (hands and feet are pink) 1= acrocyanosis ; Normal color (but hands and feet are bluish) 0 = Bluish-gray or pale all over Pulse (heart rate) 2 = Normal (above 100 beats per minute) 1 = Below 100 beats per minute 0 = Absent (no pulse) Grimace ("reflex irritability") 2 = Pulls away, SNEEZES, COUGHS, or CRIES with stimulation 1 = Facial movement only (GRIMACE) with stimulation 0 = Absent (no response to stimulation) Activity (muscle tone) 2 = Active, spontaneous movement 1 = Arms and legs flexed with little movement 0 = No movement, "floppy" tone Respiration (breathing rate and effort) 2 = Normal rate and effort, good cry 1 = Slow or irregular breathing, weak cry 0 = Absent (no breathing)

You find an unconscious male lying on the street that starts to come around when you begin assessing him. The patient opens his eyes in response to pain, is speaking with incomprehensible sounds, and extending both arms. What is his GCS score?

Answer Explanation Eyes: 2. Verbal: 2. Motor: 2. Total: 6.

Your partner is attempting to stimulate an 8-month-old baby boy who was found in respiratory distress. The baby opens his eyes when you call out its name, however, it's only in between inconsolable crying. The baby appears to be moving normally. What is the baby's GCS score? 12 14 13 10

Answer Explanation Eyes: 3. Verbal: 3. Motor: 6. Total = 12

The GPAL system is used to document a patient's history of: Diabetes Stroke Pregnancy Cardiac disease

Answer Explanation GPAL stands for: Gravida (number of pregnancies), Para (number of live births), Abortions, Living (children) and is used to document a patient's history of pregnancy.

Which of the following personality disorders is characterized by detachment from all social relationships? Avoidant Antisocial Paranoid Schizoid

Answer Explanation Patients who exhibit characteristics of Schzoid behavior detach themselves fro social relationships.

You respond to a 33-year-old pregnant female with vaginal bleeding. She is 28 weeks pregnant, denies pain, and states that bleeding of bright red blood came on suddenly a few hours ago. Vitals: BP 98/68, P 110, R 18, SpO2 97%. What is most likely causing this patient's condition? Placenta previa Abruptio placenta Nuchal cord Preeclampsia

Answer Explanation Preeclampsia is classified as hypertension with protein in the urine. No indications of either. Nuchal cord is a condition of the umbilical cord being wrapped around the fetal neck. Classic symptoms of placenta previa include: no pain, bright red bleeding, sudden onset. Abruptio placenta generally has abdominal, back or uterine pain associated with it. Definitely a tough question and if you struggled, go to the Obstetrics chapter and review the different pregnancy complications.

Pursed (or puckered) lip breathing is a sign of respiratory distress that patients will exhibit in an attempt to do which of the following? Allow the diaphragm to contract with more force Decrease their tidal volume Increase their lung capacity Keep the bronchioles from collapsing during exhalation

Answer Explanation Pursed lip breathing is a true sign of respiratory distress. It should be noted while you are placing oxygen on them.

The Mark 1 and DuoDote autoinjectors are intended to provide antidotes to what type of substance? Dry chemical Chlorine Nerve agents Bees

Answer Explanation The Mark 1 and DuoDote autoinjector kits include two drugs: atropine and pralidoxime chloride. They are intended to be administered when you, other rescuers, or patients have signs and symptoms of nerve agent poisoning.

Which of the following organs is not an intraperitoneal organ? Ileum Spleen Liver Duodenum

Answer Explanation The ileum, jejunum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon are all intraperitoneal organs. The duodenum, ascending colon, descending colon, and rectum are all retroperitoneal organs.

All of the following organs are located behind the peritoneum except for the: Adrenal glands Liver Urinary bladder Kidneys

Answer Explanation The liver is an intraperitoneal organ. It is located inside of the peritoneum, not behind.

A 2-year-old child was playing with his toy cars outside when his mother noticed the child becoming cyanotic. You and your partner arrive on scene to find that one of the wheels from the truck has become lodged in the child's throat. Where is the wheel most likely lodged? Trachea Carina Oropharynx Cricoid cartilage

Answer Explanation The narrowest part of a child's airway is the cricoid cartilage until about the age of 5.

You are treating a 2-year-old pediatric patient and palpate a brachial pulse of 134 beats per minute. What are the normal limits set for a child of this age? 80-120 65-100 100-160 100-180

Answer Explanation The normal range for a child of this age is 80-120 bpm. A normal range for a newborn is 100-180. A 1-year-old should have a pulse between 100-160. A normal pulse for a child older than 3 years falls between 65-110 beats per minute.

You are treating a 6-year-old female patient. Her parents called 911 because she fell off a play structure earlier in the day and when they tried to wake her from her nap, she was not alert. She is bradycardic, blood pressure is 70/40, she has an altered mentation, and her skin is warm to the touch. You suspect? Anaphylactic shock Hemorrhagic Shock Septic Shock Neurogenic Shock

Answer Explanation The patient is exhibiting classic signs of neurogenic shock. The patient may have a normal or low heart rate and a decreased blood pressure.

You have responded to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. A small passenger car struck a power pole head on. The patient has climbed out and is walking around slightly dazed. The patient is cooperative and appears to be atraumatic. The windshield has starring and the airbags did not deploy. The patient gives you a complete medical history but keeps asking what happened. What is your patient experiencing? Stroke Shock Retrograde amnesia Anterograde amnesia

Anterograde amnesia Answer Explanation Anterograde amnesia occurs when a patient can remember all information before an event but cannot remember anything that occurred after the event.

You are on scene with a 67-year-old female in severe respiratory distress. Your patient has been a smoker for over 40 years and has emphysema. Prior to your arrival, she used two home nebulizer treatments with no relief. She is sitting in the tripod position and appears very tired. Her respiratory rate is approximately 40 breaths/minute. What should be your next action? Apply oxygen via BVM Apply oxygen via non-rebreather Apply oxygen via nasal cannula Apply the pulse oximeter to obtain baseline SpO2 before applying oxygen

Apply oxygen via BVM Answer Explanation Although having a baseline, room-air oxygen saturation is helpful, you should not withhold oxygen from patient's in respiratory distress in order to maintain that baseline value. With a respiratory rate over 30 and the patient becoming tired from effort of breathing, you need to intervene with oxygen via BVM.

Which strap should be applied second when placing a Sager traction splint? The distal strap The knee strap The waist strap The ischial strap

Apply the Ischial strap (thigh strap) first

(bonus) . what is jesse staub's fav animal?

"bird" what kind? "stellar's jay or actually green jay"

(bonus) . what is bo staub's fav mythological creature?

"dragon" what color? "blue dragon"

(bonus) . what is jesse staub's fav color?

"idk , golden??" or orange

Glucophage

(Metformin) Antidiabetic

You are called to a 60-year-old female in respiratory distress. When you arrive, she is only able to speak in 3-4 word sentences and is very anxious. Her pulse is 110, respirations 24 and labored, skin is pink, warm, and diaphoretic. Oxygen should be administered? At 12-15 L/min via BVM At 2-6 L/min via nasal canula Oxygen should not be administered until the patient is asked if she has COPD At 12-15 L/min via Non-rebreather mask

At 12-15 L/min via Non-rebreather mask Answer Explanation The patient is in mild respiratory distress. She is breathing at an adequate rate and does not yet require BVM ventilation.

At full term, how much fluid can the amniotic sac hold? 100-250 milliliters 1-2 liters 10-20 milliliters 500-1000 milliliters

At full term, how much fluid can the amniotic sac hold? 500-1000 milliliters Answer Explanation This should be expected when a woman's water breaks.

At what fetal age would you expect to hear fetal heart tones? 24 weeks 20 weeks 16 weeks 12 weeks

At what fetal age would you expect to hear fetal heart tones? 20 weeks Answer Explanation You should be able to listen to fetal heart tones at approximately 20 weeks gestation

BP= -?- x -?-

BP = CO x PVR

review Beck's triad

BP down / hypotension Jugular Venous distension, (JVD) muffled heart sounds, -----> indicative of Cardiac Tamponade

You are treating a 24-year-old male who crashed his motorcycle into a parked car. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented appropriately. He asks you not to touch him, but you continue to hold direct pressure to a 3" laceration on his left leg. By treating this patient, you are committing what crime? Battery Assault Negligence You are not committing a crime, you are treating with implied consent.

Battery ??? The main difference between a battery charge and an assault charge is the actual presence of harm and the threat of harm. Someone can only be charged with battery if they have caused real physical harm to someone, while a person can be charged with assault if the mere threat of harm is present. Understanding The Difference Between Assault And Battery | Law ... https://www.lomtl.com/articles/understanding-the-difference-between-assault-and-battery/

You and your partner arrive at the home of a 29-year-old female who is lying pulseless and apenic on the couch. You verify that she has no pulse and move her to the floor. What is the next priority? Begin chest compressions Obtain a quick history from family Insert an OPA Defibrillate

Begin chest compressions Answer Explanation All answers are important, but above all else, you must start chest compressions immediately. You may defibrillate, but would never delay compressions to apply the pads.

You and your partner arrive on scene to a patient who has been involved in an MVA. As you approach the patient you notice the patient breathing in sequences of uniformly deep gasps, apnea, then more gasps. What is the name of the respiratory pattern? Agonal Respirations Cheyne-Stokes Respirations Kussmaul Respirations Biot's Respirations

Biot's Respirations Answer Explanation As you answer questions like this, picture the waveform that the description would create. Compare that mental picture to the ones you've see in your textbooks! Biot's respirations are caused by damage to the pons of the brain stem and in this case, secondary to what we can safely assume is head/facial trauma.

BELLSRPT stands for?

Blood Pressure, Eyes, LOC, Lung Sounds, Skin signs, Repiratory rate, Pulse, Temperature

Which type of trauma is the most common cause of death and disability? Amputation Blunt Shock Penetrating

Blunt Answer Explanation Remember, blunt trauma spreads laterally from the point of impact causing damage that is often unseen. Penetrating trauma while serious, can be far less damaging due to its generally smaller surface area.

Bronchiopulmonary segments

Both lungs are divided into smaller segments called brachiopulmonary segments (10 in each lung)

Which of the following abnormal birth presentations is most common? Compound Prolapsed cord Shoulder dystocia Breech

Breech Answer Explanation Breech presentation occurs in about four percent of all births.

A lower airway obstruction occurs in what anatomical structure(s)? Trachea Bronchioles Hypopharynx Oropharynx

Bronchioles Answer Explanation A lower airway obstruction originates inside the thorax in the smaller airways, such as the bronchioles.

CO =

CO = HR x SV

Duplex Radio

Can send and receive messages at the same time.

Your patient has an oxygen saturation of 98%, measured continually during assessment, yet he dies of hypoxia. Which of the following would explain this?

Carbon monoxide poisoning

Four types of shock

Cardiogenic Hypovolemic Obstructive Distributive (septic)

You are working at a sporting event on a hot summer day when a 52-year-old female comes up to you and says she doesn't feel well. She is confused and sweaty. You move her inside to a cool room and have her sit down. You should do which of the following next? Have her lie down with her feet elevated Being active cooling Begin passive cooling Check her blood sugar

Check her blood sugar Answer Explanation You don't have enough information to determine why she is confused. You need to think of other reasons that could be causing her condition other than the heat. Take her vitals, including her CBG to rule out hypoglycemia. These are the types of tricky questions on the NREMT, so just remember to think through all the possible answers before answering.

What's the difference between cholitis and cholecystitis?

Cholitis - colon Cholecystitis - gall bladder

Proximal

Closer to the point of attachment

List 6 of the hollow organs of the abdomen? (CcGSSUU)

Colon Gall bladder Stomach Small intestine Ureters Urinary bladder

CMS

Color, circulation, motion, sensitivity

C... Convection Evaporation Respiration Radiation

Conduction Convection Evaporation Respiration Radiation

Conduction C... Evaporation Respiration Radiation

Conduction Convection Evaporation Respiration Radiation

Conduction Convection E... Respiration Radiation

Conduction Convection Evaporation Respiration Radiation

Conduction Convection Evaporation R... Radiation

Conduction Convection Evaporation Respiration Radiation

Conduction Convection Evaporation Respiration R....

Conduction Convection Evaporation Respiration Radiation

blood

Connective tissue made of plasma, erythrocytes, (red blood cells) leukocytes, (white blood cells) Thrombocytes (platelets)

integumentary system

Consists of the skin, mucous membranes, hair, and nail

Define Rhonchi

Continuous rumbling, SNORING or rattling sounds; result of obstruction in large airways

what are the contras of a sager splint?

Contraindications - Open femur fracture - Any other injury to the effected leg - Multisystem trauma patient https://quizlet.com/79017302/sager-traction-splint-flash-cards/

What is the name of the set of nerves with the following names? olfactory optic oculomotor vagus

Cranial nerves olfactory nerve (I), optic nerve (II), oculomotor nerve (III), ... vagus nerve (X), ... (XII). 12 x Cranial nerves - Wikipedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cranial_nerves

What is the name of the set of nerves with the following names? olfactory optic oculomotor ...

Cranial nerves olfactory nerve (I), optic nerve (II), oculomotor nerve (III), ... vagus nerve (X), ... (XII). 12 x Cranial nerves - Wikipedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cranial_nerves

Inferior ring of larynx

Cricoid cartilage

The upper airway starts where air enters the body - the nose (Nares) and the mouth. Air will pass through the nose and is filtered and warmed before passing through the remainder of the upper airway and entering the lower airway. The upper airway ends at the ___ _____, the distal end of the____.

Cricoid cartilage larynx The upper airway starts where air enters the body - the nose (Nares) and the mouth. Air will pass through the nose and is filtered and warmed before passing through the remainder of the upper airway and entering the lower airway. The upper airway ends at the Cricoid cartilage, the distal end of the larynx. Ch. 7: Airway and Breathing - Health Science Ems 110 with Wittmann ... https://www.studyblue.com/notes/note/n/ch-7-airway-and-breathing/deck/14810116 //////// trachea Lower respiratory tract: MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia Image https://medlineplus.gov › Medical Encyclopedia Oct 8, 2018 - the lower airway starts at the trachea... The major passages and structures of the lower respiratory tract include the windpipe (______) and within the lungs, the bronchi, bronchioles, ...

When parking your ambulance at the scene of an MVC, you should do all of the following, except? Utilize the parking brake Stay uphill and away of leaking fluids Park at least 100' away from the wreck Keep headlights illuminated at night

DO NOT ... Keep headlights illuminated at night Answer Explanation Unless needed for illumination of the scene, headlights should be turned off to avoid blinding other drivers or responders.

Kussmaul respirations

Deep, rapid breathing; usually the result of an accumulation of certain acids when insulin is not available in the body.

Describe Kussmaul breathing

Deep/ rapid AKA labored breathing with normal/reduced frequency

DUMBELS

Defecation Urination Miosis Bronchorrhea Emesis Lacrimation Salivation

DCAPBTLStic

Deformities Contusions Abrasions Punctures/penetrations Burns Tenderness Lacerations Swelling Tenderness again Instability Crepitus

A woman brings her 5-year-old son into the ER. He is pale in appearance and slightly sweaty. His fingers are starting to show signs of cyanosis. His blood pressure is much lower than normal and pulse is much higher. Which of the following would most likely account for his symptoms? Laceration Dehydration Respiratory Failure Hemorrhage

Dehydration Answer Explanation This patient exhibits signs of shock: pallor, sweat, low blood pressure, high pulse, among other symptoms that may not be mentioned. In pediatric patients, shock is most likely caused by dehydration if there are no obvious signs of trauma or hemorrhage.

neonate

Dictionary ne·o·nate /ˈnēōˌnāt/ noun a newborn child (or other mammal). MEDICINE an infant less than four weeks old. (0-28days)

peritoneum

Double-layered membrane surrounding the abdominal organs

You have been dispatched for a respiratory distress call. Upon your arrival, you find a 34-year-old male in the tripod position and you can hear stridorous respirations from the doorway. The patient is drooling and feels hot to the touch. What life-threatening condition does your patient have? COPD ARDS Asthma Epiglottitis

Epiglottitis Answer Explanation Epiglottis is a life-threatening, upper respiratory illness. The epiglottis becomes inflamed and begins to obstruct airflow to the trachea. The fever, drooling, and respiratory distress are class presentation. Epiglottitis occurs in adults and children.

What two hormones does the placenta secrete? Oxytocin and prolactin Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone Estrogen and progesterone Testosterone and estrogen

Estrogen and progesterone Answer Explanation As one of its many functions, the placenta acts as an endocrine gland and produces several hormones including estrogen and progesterone.

Which of the following is not a complication commonly associated with shock? Acute Renal Failure Coagulopathy Eupnea Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

Eupnea Answer Explanation ARDS, abnormal clotting of blood, and organ failure are all associated with shock. Early recognition and intervention are important in preventing these complications.

Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the initial assessment for neonatal resuscitation? Term gestation Muscle tone Color of amniotic fluid Eye opening

Eye opening Answer Explanation According to the algorithm for neonatal resuscitation, when a baby is born, the things you want to know are: Term gestation? Amniotic fluid clear? Breathing or crying? Good muscle tone?

You are assessing a 36-year-old unconscious male who fell approximately 12' off a ladder while cleaning his gutters. At the time of assessment, his vital signs are as follows: BP 168/72, HR 54 regular, R 20 irregular. The patient groans to painful stimuli without regaining consciousness and begins flexion posturing while you are conducting your head to toe assessment. This patient's GCS is?

Eyes: 1. Verbal: 2. Motor: 3. Total = 6

T / F : With a respiratory rate over 30 and the patient becoming tired from effort of breathing, you need to intervene with oxygen via NRM.

F : With a respiratory rate over 30 and the patient becoming tired from effort of breathing, you need to intervene with oxygen via BVM.

T / F : With a respiratory rate over 30 and the patient becoming tired from effort of breathing, you need to intervene with oxygen via Nasal cannula.

F : With a respiratory rate over 30 and the patient becoming tired from effort of breathing, you need to intervene with oxygen via BVM.

T / F : Both the intercostal muscles and diaphragm expand during inhalation

FALSE

Which of the following is least helpful when trying to differentiate between placenta previa and abruptio placentae? Uterine pain which comes with pain and which usually presents without? T/F: abruptio is usually painless previa is often painful

FALSE abrupt is usually painful previa is often painless What is the difference between placenta previa and placental abruption? placenta abruptio = PAIN w/ contractions with bleeding placenta previa + PAINLESS bleeding placenta previa, the placenta is located over or near the cervix, in the lower part of the uterus. Patients with placenta abruption usually experience painful contractions with bleeding, whereas those with placenta previa experience painless bleeding. ... Placenta abruptio can be diagnosed by a process of elimination.Dec 9, 2012 Placenta Abruptio - Penn State Hershey Medical Center - ADAM pennstatehershey.adam.com/content.aspx?productId=14&pid=14&gid=000127

T / F : Classic symptoms of placenta previa include: abdominal, back or uterine pain, bright red bleeding, sudden onset. Abruptio placenta generally has no pain associated with it.

FALSE PP: no pain AP: yes pain

T/F: Step 4 Position the Sager splint along the medial side of the injured leg resting the Ischial Perineal Cushion (the saddle) against the Ischial Tuberosity, with the shortest end of the Articulating Base towards the ground. The pulley should be pointed towards the injured leg. Step 5 Apply Malleolar Harness (ankle strap) first ... Step 8 Apply the Ischial strap (thigh strap) second ...

FALSE, thigh then ankle malleolar then ischial straps: thigh aka ischial (think crotch illio-) ankle aka malleolar harness excerpt from: https://quizlet.com/79017302/sager-traction-splint-flash-cards/ ... Step 4 Position the Sager splint along the medial side of the injured leg resting the Ischial Perineal Cushion (the saddle) against the Ischial Tuberosity, with the shortest end of the Articulating Base towards the ground. The pulley should be pointed towards the injured leg. Step 5 Apply the Ischial strap (thigh strap) Step 6 Tighten the Ischial strap while gently pushing down on the saddle seating it against the Ischial Tuberosity. Step 7 Lift spring clip and extend the inner shaft so the back end (trailing end) of the pulley is at the patient's heel. (Wheel to Heel) Step 8 Apply Malleolar Harness (ankle strap) just above the medial and lateral Malleola. Gently secure harness.

peds/childbirth: T/F: On the APGAR scale , grimace = 2

FALSE, grimace = 1 Appearance (skin color) 2 = Normal color all over (hands and feet are pink) 1= acrocyanosis ; Normal color (but hands and feet are bluish) 0 = Bluish-gray or pale all over Pulse (heart rate) 2 = Normal (above 100 beats per minute) 1 = Below 100 beats per minute 0 = Absent (no pulse) Grimace ("reflex irritability") 2 = Pulls away, SNEEZES, COUGHS, or CRIES with stimulation 1 = Facial movement only (GRIMACE) with stimulation 0 = Absent (no response to stimulation) Activity (muscle tone) 2 = Active, spontaneous movement 1 = Arms and legs flexed with little movement 0 = No movement, "floppy" tone Respiration (breathing rate and effort) 2 = Normal rate and effort, good cry 1 = Slow or irregular breathing, weak cry 0 = Absent (no breathing)

peds/childbirth: T/F: On the APGAR scale , 1 = Pulls away, SNEEZES, COUGHS, or CRIES with stimulation

FALSE, sneeze,cough cry = 2 Appearance (skin color) 2 = Normal color all over (hands and feet are pink) 1= acrocyanosis ; Normal color (but hands and feet are bluish) 0 = Bluish-gray or pale all over Pulse (heart rate) 2 = Normal (above 100 beats per minute) 1 = Below 100 beats per minute 0 = Absent (no pulse) Grimace ("reflex irritability") 2 = Pulls away, SNEEZES, COUGHS, or CRIES with stimulation 1 = Facial movement only (GRIMACE) with stimulation 0 = Absent (no response to stimulation) Activity (muscle tone) 2 = Active, spontaneous movement 1 = Arms and legs flexed with little movement 0 = No movement, "floppy" tone Respiration (breathing rate and effort) 2 = Normal rate and effort, good cry 1 = Slow or irregular breathing, weak cry 0 = Absent (no breathing)

bonus : what is the mnemonic for coordinating conjunctions?

FANBOY for, and, nor, but, or, yet, so

Fertilization of the egg most often happens in which female organ? Cervix Vagina Uterus Fallopian tube

Fallopian tube Answer Explanation Fertilization most often occurs in the distal third of the fallopian tube and then the egg usually implants in the uterine wall.

Distal

Farther from the trunk of the body

Distal

Farther from the trunk of the body away from the point of attachment

Fill in the blanks: BP ranges 10+yrs - Adult . 120 / 80 sch age Child . (1-5yrs) 80-110 / 50-80 Infant 72-104 / xx-yy

Fill in the blanks: BP ranges 10+yrs - Adult . 120 / 80 sch age Child . (1-5yrs) 80-110 / 50-80 Infant 72-104 / 37-56

Fill in the blanks: BP ranges 10+yrs - Adult . 120 / 80 sch age Child . (1-5yrs) 80-110 / 50-80 Infant xx-yy / 37-56

Fill in the blanks: BP ranges 10+yrs - Adult . 120 / 80 sch age Child . (1-5yrs) 80-110 / 50-80 Infant 72-104 / 37-56

Fill in the blanks: BP ranges 10+yrs - Adult . 120 / 80 sch age Child . (1-5yrs) 80-110 / xx-yy Infant 72-104 / 37-56

Fill in the blanks: BP ranges 10+yrs - Adult . 120 / 80 sch age Child . (1-5yrs) 80-110 / 50-80 Infant 72-104 / 37-56

Fill in the blanks: BP ranges 10+yrs - Adult . 120 / 80 sch age Child . (1-5yrs) xx-yy / 50-80 Infant 72-104 / 37-56

Fill in the blanks: BP ranges 10+yrs - Adult . 120 / 80 sch age Child . (1-5yrs) 80-110 / 50-80 Infant 72-104 / 37-56

Fill in the blanks: BP ranges 10+yrs - Adult . 120 / xx sch age Child . (1-5yrs) 80-110 / 50-80 Infant 72-104 / 37-56

Fill in the blanks: BP ranges 10+yrs - Adult . 120 / 80 sch age Child . (1-5yrs) 80-110 / 50-80 Infant 72-104 / 37-56

Fill in the blanks: BP ranges 10+yrs - Adult . xx / 80 sch age Child . (1-5yrs) 80-110 / 50-80 Infant 72-104 / 37-56

Fill in the blanks: BP ranges 10+yrs - Adult . 120 / 80 sch age Child . (1-5yrs) 80-110 / 50-80 Infant 72-104 / 37-56

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-xxx : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-xxx : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-xxx : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old xxx-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-xx : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . xx-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years xxx-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years xx-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: HRs 60 - 100 : 10+yrs - Adult . 65-110 : > 3 years 80-120 : 2 years 100-160 : 1 year old 100-180 : newborn

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - xx

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant xx - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - xx Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) xx - 40 Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - xx Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) xx - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - xx sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . xx - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - 60

Fill in the blanks: RRs 10+yrs - Adult . 12 - 20 sch age Child . (2-10yrs) 18 - 30 Toddler (3 -14 mo) 24 - 40 Infant 30 - 60

FROPVD

Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device

You have responded to the report of respiratory distress on a warm spring day. A 6-year-old was inside playing with some blocks when he began having respiratory difficulty. The patient's father came into the room when he heard his son suddenly begin breathing abnormally. He states that his son was outside a couple hours ago playing in the garden. The patient has a severe allergy to bee stings. Which of the following is the most likely differential diagnosis? True anaphylaxis Severe allergic reaction Asthma exaccerbation Foreign body airway obstruction

Foreign body airway obstruction Answer Explanation While the patient has a severe allergy to bee stings, it has been several hours since he was outside and he would have most likely exhibited symptoms sooner if he had been stung. The best indicator of foreign body airway obstruction in pediatrics is history - in this case, he was playing with blocks and suddenly began breathing abnormally. A quick oral exam can rule in or rule out FBAO before moving straight to the allergic reaction or anaphylaxis differential diagnosis.

You are dispatched to a woman in labor. Upon arrival the mother is screaming that she is ready to deliver. Your history reveals that she has 3 children and two previous abortions. You could best document this history by which of the following? G6, P2 G3, P2 P6, G3 G6, P3

G6, P3 Answer Explanation Gravida refers to the amount of times the patient has been pregnant. Para is the number of viable children born.

GCS (match) * 4 * 5 * 6 ------------- motor eyes verbal

GCS (match) * 4 eyes * 5 verbal * 6 motor -------------

GCS (match) * 4 * 5 * 6 ------------- motor eyes verbal

GCS (match) * 4 eyes 4 - spontaneous 3 - voice 2 - pain 1 - none * 5 verbal 5 - normal 4 - confused 3 - innapropriate 2 - incomprehensible 1 - none * 6 motor 6 - obeys commands 5 - local (pain) 4 - withdraw (pain) 3 - decorticate (pain) 2 - decerebrate (pain) 1 - none ------------- motor verbal

GCS (complete) * 4 eyes 4 - spontaneous 3 - voice 2 - pain 1 - none * 5 verbal 5 - normal 4 - confused 3 - innapropriate 2 - incomprehensible 1 - none * 6 motor 6 5 4 3 2 1 ----------------- a - decerebrate (pain) b - withdraw (pain) c - none d - obeys commands e - decorticate (pain) f - local (pain)

GCS (match) * 4 eyes 4 - spontaneous 3 - voice 2 - pain 1 - none * 5 verbal 5 - normal 4 - confused 3 - innapropriate 2 - incomprehensible 1 - none * 6 motor 6 - obeys commands 5 - local (pain) 4 - withdraw (pain) 3 - decorticate (pain) 2 - decerebrate (pain) 1 - none ------- 6 . d - obeys commands 5 . f - local (pain) 4 . b - withdraw (pain) 3 . e - decorticate (pain) 2 . a - decerebrate (pain) 1 . c - none

Pediatric patients with respiratory complaints can deteriorate rapidly. It is important to understand the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system so you can intervene quickly when needed. What is the main function of the respiratory system? Oxygenation of arterial blood Perfusion Gas exchange Ventilation

Gas exchange Answer Explanation The most important function of the respiratory system is facilitation of gas exchange. Although the respiratory system does work to oxygenate arterial blood, it also helps CO2 exit the body. The circulatory system works to perfuse the tissues.

Metformin

Glucophage, Glucophage XR

There are a group of disorders that encompass metabolic disorder. What can metabolic disorder lead to if not treated? Eating disorders Neuropathy Diabetes Heart disease

Heart disease

The ideal location for a glucose stick on a newborn would be? Palm Hip Right/left index finger Heel

Heel Answer Explanation When attempting to obtain a glucose check on a newborn, performing a heel stick is preferred. The fingers are too small and don't allow you to get a good grasp.

You have been dispatched for "chest pain" at a local park. Your patient is a 52-year-old male who was playing in his recreational basketball league when he experienced sudden-onset, crushing chest pain. Your patient laid down on the court after becoming dizzy and vomiting. Vitals: P 81, BP 140/70, SpO2 99%, RR 18. The patient denies all other complaints other than chest pain. The patient also denies use of ED drugs. Which of the following is not indicated for this patient? Cardiac monitoring High-flow oxygen Aspirin Nitroglycerin

High-flow oxygen High-flow oxygen Answer Explanation The patient is having chest pain and denies ED drug use - ASA, NTG, and cardiac monitoring are all indicated for this patient. The patient is not having difficulty breathing and his SpO2 is at 99% - oxygen is not indicated, especially high-flow oxygen.

The classic triad of preeclampsia is? Accessory muscle use, tonic-clonic seizures, edema/weight gain JVD, edema, irritability Hypotension, proteinuria, edema/weight gain Hypertension, proteinuria, edema/weight gain

Hypertension, proteinuria, edema/weight gain Answer Explanation Preeclampsia is what leads to eclampsia. Eclampsia is a seizure caused by numerous factors including abnormally high blood pressure for an extended period of time.

s/s of neurogenic shock

Hypotension with wide PP Normal heart rate or brady Hypothermia

Your patient is a 9-year-old female who is unusually quiet according to her mother. She looks distant and is responding to verbal commands. When you take her vitals, you notice a slowed pulse. You suspect she is experiencing? Stroke Hypoglycemia Hypotension Hypoxia

Hypoxia Answer Explanation In children, hypoxia often presents as altered mental status and bradycardia. Hypoxia occurs when there is a deprivation of oxygen to the body.

You shouldn't suction the airway of an adult patient for more than 15 seconds and should ensure that you only suction while removing the catheter due to the risk of causing? Bronchial constriction Oral aspiration Tracheal occlusion Hypoxia

Hypoxia Answer Explanation Suctioning removes fluid and other occlusive matter from the airway, but it also removes oxygen. Adults should not be suctioned for more than 15 seconds. The smaller airway of children and infants should be suctioned even less.

The most common reason for bradycardia in a newborn is? Vagus nerve stimulation Fetal alcohol syndrome Meconium staining Hypoxia

Hypoxia Answer Explanation In newborns, bradycardia is almost always an event secondary to hypoxia. In most cases, it can easily be reversed with positive-pressure ventilation.

MATCH: I) Biot's II) Cheyne-Stokes III) Kussmaul A) Deep, rapid breathing; usually the result of an accumulation of certain acids when insulin is not available in the body. (ie. DKA) B) a pattern of alternating periods of HYPOpnea or APnea, followed by HYPERpnea C) RAPID and DEEP respirations followed by 10 to 30 seconds of APNEA varying DEPTH and RATE of breathing, followed by periods of apnea; IRREGULAR

I) Biot's = C) RAPID and DEEP respirations followed by 10 to 30 seconds of APNEA II) Cheyne-Stokes = B) a pattern of alternating periods of HYPOpnea or APnea, followed by HYPERpnea III) Kussmaul = A) Deep, rapid breathing; usually the result of an accumulation of certain acids when insulin is not available in the body. (ie. DKA)

WTD BTW Biot's respirations and agonal respirations?

IDK

define extrapyramidal system

In anatomy, the extrapyramidal system is a part of the motor system network causing involuntary actions. The system is called extrapyramidal to distinguish it from the tracts of the motor cortex that reach their targets by traveling through the pyramids of the medulla. Extrapyramidal system - Wikipedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extrapyramidal_system

mouth then nose

In what order do you suction baby

Your patient struck his head on the ground after falling while skiing. His brother tells you that he appeared to be okay, but wanted to rest. Two hours after the fall his brother called 911 because he could not wake him. When you arrive, while assessing the patient you find "Cushing's Reflex". This response is characterized by: Decreased BP, increased HR, and decreased respirations Increased BP, increased HR, and increased respirations Increased BP, decreased HR, and erratic respirations Decreased BP, decreased HR and erratic respirations

Increased BP, decreased HR, and erratic respirations Answer Explanation Cushings Reflex is characterized by increased BP, bradycardia, and erratic respirations and indicates increased intracranial pressure

what are the indications of a sager splint?

Indications to apply splint Closed Mid-shaft Femur Fracture without - Open femur fracture - Any other injury to the effected leg (aka isolated) - Multisystem trauma patient https://quizlet.com/79017302/sager-traction-splint-flash-cards/

In supine hypotensive syndrome, the uterus becomes large enough that, when laying supine, it compresses which blood vessel? Abdominal aorta Superior vena cava Inferior vena cava Aortic arch

Inferior vena cava Answer Explanation The uterus can become large enough (usually in the second half of a pregnancy) to compress the inferior vena cava in the abdomen when the patient is in a supine position.

Which of the following is not one of three general approaches used in patient assessment? Informational Evacuation Resuscitative Contemplative

Informational Answer Explanation Contemplative approach indicates that you have time to gather history and perform a physical exam. Resuscitative approach is used when a patient require immediate interventions, such as cardiac arrest. Evacuation approach is used for situations where you do not have control of your scene.

Guarding

Involuntary muscle contractions (spasms) of the abdominal wall in an effort to protect an inflamed abdomen; a sign of peritonitis.

What happens to most of the oxygen that enters the bloodstream? It dissolves in plasma and is transported It gets transported as bicarbonate It remains in the dead space of the respiratory tree It binds with hemoglobin on red blood cells

It binds with hemoglobin on red blood cells Answer Explanation 97% of oxygen that enters into the bloodstream binds with hemoglobin. The remaining is dissolved in plasma.

Pursed (or puckered) lip breathing is a sign of respiratory distress that patients will exhibit in an attempt to do which of the following? Keep the bronchioles from collapsing during exhalation Allow the diaphragm to contract with more force Decrease their tidal volume Increase their lung capacity `

Keep the bronchioles from collapsing during exhalation Answer Explanation Pursed lip breathing is a true sign of respiratory distress. It should be noted while you are placing oxygen on them.

You respond to an immediate care center where a 19-year-old intoxicated male came in with burns to his arms and hands. He states he was at a bonfire when his chair collapsed and he fell into the flames. You note redness and blisters on the affected areas. To treat this patient, you should? Elevate the legs to increase blood flow to the vital organs Apply ice packs to affected areas, and keep the patient cool Keep the patient warm, and cover with burn sheets or sterile gauze Break the blisters so they do not expand and fill with fluid

Keep the patient warm, and cover with burn sheets or sterile gauze Answer Explanation With burns that cover a significant portion of the body, you must attempt to keep them warm by using plenty of clean blankets. Do not use ice, or break blisters.

lower airway structures

Larynx Trachea Bronchi Bronchiopulmonary segments Bronchioles

A bradycardic heart rhythm can be classified as? Between 40 and 80 beats per minute Between 40 and 60 beats per minute Less than 40 beats per minute Less than 60 beats per minute

Less than 60 beats per minute Answer Explanation Bradycardia is less than 60 beats per minute.

Plasma

Liquid part of blood

Which of the following is least likely to cause an alteration in a patient's mental status? Trauma Infections Diabetes Long bone fracture

Long bone fracture Answer Explanation A long bone fracture will cause a lot of pain, but will most likely NOT cause an alteration in a patient's mental status.

While assessing the airway of a pediatric patient, you need to determine the patency of the airway. Which of the following is helpful in determining if an airway is patent or not? Examine the pulse oximetry reading Determine level of consciousness Assess the respiratory rate Look for movement of the chest and abdomen

Look for movement of the chest and abdomen Answer Explanation Watching for chest and/or abdomen movement is an effective way to determine whether or not the patient's airway is patent. A pulse oximetry reading only tells you the oxygen saturation of the hemoglobin and the respiratory rate only indicates the rate of breathing.

While assessing the airway of a pediatric patient, you need to determine the patency of the airway. Which of the following is helpful in determining if an airway is patent or not? Examine the pulse oximetry reading Determine level of consciousness Look for movement of the chest and abdomen Assess the respiratory rate

Look for movement of the chest and abdomen Answer Explanation Watching for chest and/or abdomen movement is an effective way to determine whether or not the patient's airway is patent. A pulse oximetry reading only tells you the oxygen saturation of the hemoglobin and the respiratory rate only indicates the rate of breathing.

Which of the following is not located in the mediastinum? Thymus Gland Trachea Heart Lungs

Lungs Answer Explanation The lungs are located in the pleural cavities and the mediastinum is what separates these cavities.

There are many different signs of respiratory distress that range from early to late, that can ultimately lead to respiratory failure. In the pediatric patient, which of the following would be considered an early sign of respiratory failure? Bradycardia Coma Marked tachypnea Stupor

Marked tachypnea Answer Explanation We can expect to see an increase in respiratory rate in the respiratory distress patient, in the early stages. As they progress, the patient will become tired, and their rate will drop, ultimately along with heart rate and level of mentation.

pleura

Membrane surrounding the lungs

All of the following would be considered things to avoid when doing CPR, except for? Lean on the chest between compressions Compress the chest at a depth of 1 - 1.5 inches Compress the chest at a rate of 150/min Minimize pauses in compressions

Minimize pauses in compressions

You are performing triage at a large scale industrial accident. After you quickly assess a patient using the START triage method, you determine that they are able to walk, but have rapid respirations and multiple lacerations. How would you categorize this patient?

Minor Answer Explanation This should be an easy one if you don't get thrown off by the rapid respirations. The key to this question is that the patient can walk, and is immediately labeled as "minor" (or "walking wounded").

Upon delivery, how do you suction a newborn's airway? Rub the child's foot, to stimulate the coughing reflex Nose first, mouth second Using an infant-sized, French catheter, and not more than 5 seconds Mouth first, nose second

Mouth first, nose second Answer Explanation Using a bulb syringe, you must suction the newborn's mouth, then nose. This helps to prevent the newborn from aspirating the contents of the mouth.

You have responded to a bicycle vs. pedestrian. On arrival, you see a 10-year-old girl sitting on the sidewalk in apparent respiratory distress. Your partner performs C-spine immobilization, as you assess your patient. She is breathing at 28 times per minute, BP 106/74, and pulse 110. What is your first priority with this patient? Bag valve mask with high-flow oxygen NRB mask with high-flow oxygen and OPA Suctioning of the airway NRB mask with high-flow oxygen

NRB mask with high-flow oxygen Answer Explanation Based on these vitals, your patient is stable. You have no reason to believe that she cannot protect her airway, eliminating the need for intubation. She is conscious, a contraindication for an OPA. Your first priority should be high-flow oxygen, and if her condition worsens, you can use a BVM to ventilate her.

You respond to a residential house for a 24-year-old who was found lying on his bathroom floor, turning blue with agonal breathing. Patient's vitals are: blood pressure 158/104, pulse 64, respirations 4. You suspect? Congestive heart failure Narcotic overdose Myocardial infarction Marijuana overdose

Narcotic overdose Answer Explanation Narcotics cause respiratory depression. You would also expect to see pinpoint pupils and signs of drug use in the patient's bathroom. Even though you could make a case for a few of the answers, based on the limited information given, narcotics overdose is the best answer.

Proximal

Nearer to the trunk of the body Closer to the point of attachment

You have been dispatched for an "allergic reaction" at a private residence. Dispatch information indicates that your patient is a 40-year-old female who started taking a new medication earlier today. Approximately 30 minutes after taking the medication, she began feeling a tightness in her chest accompanied by difficulty breathing and profuse sweating. She immediately called 911. Upon your arrival, your patient meets you at the door. You notice her skin is pink, warm, and dry and she appears to be breathing normally and has an open patent airway. She walks back to her couch and sits down. What is your initial impression of this patient? No medical emergency; refuse patient transport and sign AMA agreement Non life-threatening medical emergency; stabilize and transport immediately Life-threatening medical emergency; stabilize and transport patient immediately Non life-threatening medical emergency; perform medical assessment and then make transport decision

Non life-threatening medical emergency; perform medical assessment and then make transport decision` Answer Explanation Although the dispatch information makes it sound like this may be a patient experiencing a serious medical emergency, your initial impression of this patient should be much different. Her perfusion and respiratory status appear normal. A medical assessment would be indicated before transporting this patient as she is not in serious/critical condition. Dispatch information can be misleading and sound much worse than a situation actually and vice versa. That being said, it can be used as a tool - just remember that you will have to make your own judgement of the patient condition upon actually assessing the patient.

You are preparing transport for a 33-year-old patient who is 8-months pregnant. Proper position for this patient is? Prone Supine with the legs elevated On her right side On her left side

On her left side Answer Explanation You want to transport your patient on her left side so that the fetus does not compress your patient's abdominal artery and inferior vena cava, which could lead to hypotension. This is also known as the left lateral recumbent position.

You are called to a private home where a 4-year-old female is experiencing cardiac problems. Which of the following is NOT a useful indicator of hypoperfusion in this case? Skin condition Tachycardia Capillary refill Oxygen saturation

Oxygen saturation Answer Explanation Oxygen saturation is not a reliable measure of perfusion, but rather a measure of oxygen saturation in blood. (Even as an indicator of respiratory status, SpO2 is fairly unreliable because it can give false readings due to movement, nail polish, incorrect placement, etc.)

The use of oral contraceptives have been associated with all of the following side effects, except? PID Stroke and heart attack Pulmonary embolism Hypertension

PID Answer Explanation The use of oral contraceptives have not been shown to cause pelvic inflammatory disease. Rarely, the other serious side effects listed can occur.

Describe patient primary assessment in 10 parts & name two mnemonics used in secondary assessment

PPE SSU -> PENMAN GI - life threats AVPU Consent A,B,C,D * AIRWAY BREATHING CIRCULATION DEFORMITIES * EXTRICATE? Y / N begin secondary assessment MEDICAL or TRAUMA medical: Detailed body scan, if no immediate life threats are present Vital signs (bellsrp) OPQRST DCAPBTLStic trauma: rapid body scan, if immediate life threats are present Vital signs (bellsrp) OPQRST DCAPBTLStic

You are treating a patient who has burns to both legs from gasoline catching fire underneath them. You expose the area and note blisters to the skin and a very wet appearance. What type of burn did this patient most likely experience? Superficial Partial-thickness Full-thickness First-degree

Partial-thickness Answer Explanation A partial-thickness burn is also known as a second-degree burn. It involves the epidermis and parts of the underlying dermis layer. They're very painful and have blisters and a wet appearance due to the escaping fluids.

A 2-year-old child is choking on a piece of her mother's jewelry. Her airway is severely obstructed. The proper maneuver is: Check the patient's mouth with blind finger sweeps Perform a series of back blows until the item is expelled Perform a series of abdominal thrusts Deliver 5 back blows followed by 5 chest thrusts

Perform a series of abdominal thrusts Answer Explanation Abdominal thrusts are the appropriate maneuver for children over 1 year of age. The series of back blows and chest thrusts is appropriate for infants. You should never check a pediatric patient's mouth with blind finger sweeps.

When obtaining a history from your patient, she tells you she has right ventricular failure. Of the following, which signs and symptoms would you expect? Pulmonary edema and hypertension Peripheral edema, JVD, and tender upper right abdominal quadrant from liver engorgement Diffuse rales, pink frothy sputum, and respiratory distress Fluid accumulation in the lungs and extremities and hypotension

Peripheral edema, JVD, and tender upper right abdominal quadrant from liver engorgement Answer Explanation Right-sided heart failure will most likely initially present with JVD, peripheral edema, and hepatic engorgement

PENMAN

Personal/Partner/Peeper Safety Environmental Hazards Number of Patients MOI/NOI Additional Resources Need for Extrication

When obtaining the history of your patient, you can use the mnemonic OPQRST-ASPN. The letters P and N stand for: Previously Noted Probable and Noteworthy Positive and Negative Pertinent Negatives

Pertinent Negatives Answer Explanation The P and N stand for pertinent negatives which are any likely associated symptoms that are absent. This can help rule out a particular disease or injury.

You're called to a private residence for a 72-year-old male who has an altered mental status. VS are BP 102/58, HR 104, RR 6/min, SpO2 is 88%. What should be your first intervention? Place an appropriately sized NPA Check the patient's temperature Ventilate the patient with a BVM Place the patient in spinal precautions

Place an appropriately sized NPA Answer Explanation First things first. If you're going to ventilate the patient using a BVM you need to first place an appropriately sized OPA or NPA or both. As always, follow your local protocols out in the field.

You respond to a 33-year-old pregnant female with vaginal bleeding. She is 28 weeks pregnant, denies pain, and states that bleeding of bright red blood came on suddenly a few hours ago. Vitals: BP 98/68, P 110, R 18, SpO2 97%. What is most likely causing this patient's condition? Abruptio placenta Nuchal cord Preeclampsia Placenta previa

Placenta previa Answer Explanation Preeclampsia is classified as hypertension with protein in the urine. No indications of either. Nuchal cord is a condition of the umbilical cord being wrapped around the fetal neck. Classic symptoms of placenta previa include: no pain, bright red bleeding, sudden onset. Abruptio placenta generally has abdominal, back or uterine pain associated with it. Definitely a tough question and if you struggled, go to the Obstetrics chapter and review the different pregnancy complications.

You are called to the home of a 25-year-old pregnant female in her third trimester. She is complaining of "pelvic floor pressure". Her vitals are BP 132/80, P 98, R 22. She is also having contractions at about 2 minutes apart. You should? Treat for preeclampsia "Load and go" monitoring vitals every 5 minutes Transport in a position of comfort Prepare for delivery

Prepare for delivery Answer Explanation Pregnant females with contraction of 2 minutes or less most often indicates that birth is imminent. Prepare for a field delivery with these patients.

McRoberts maneuver

Pull knees to head to open up pelvis.

PMSC

Pulse Motor Sensory Capillary Refill

Describe parts of patient primary assessment (circulation) (7-9 parts)

Pulse rate, bleeding, cap refill, skin signs (color, temp, wet/dry), SpO2, LOC

You suspect your 6-year-old male patient has a traumatic brain injury. What of the following will you perform that is an important assessment of neurological function? SpO2 Pupillary reflex Temperature CBG

Pupillary reflex Answer Explanation Any patient with suspected spinal or head trauma should have their pupils assessed. Pupils should be assessed for size, shape, reactivity to light, and compared to each other. Pupil size should be reported in millimeters. Normal pupils should be equal, round, and constrict when exposed to light.

tertiary pacemaker of the heart

Purkinje fibers (20-40bpm)

Minute volume = ______ x ______

RR x TV

Biot's respirations

Rapid and deep respirations followed by 10 to 30 seconds of apnea varying depth and rate of breathing, followed by periods of apnea; irregular

Describe parts of patient primary assessment (breathing) (3-4 parts)

Rate, rhythm, quality, lung sounds

Recall names of cranial nerves , I , II , III , X

Recall names of cranial nerves , I , II , III , X olfactory nerve (I), optic nerve (II), oculomotor nerve (III), ... vagus nerve (X), ... (XII). 12 x Cranial nerves - Wikipedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cranial_nerves

Which of the following is NOT part of the immune system? Neutrophil Eosinophil Lymphocyte Red blood cell

Red blood cell Answer Explanation Neutrophils, Eosinophils and Lymphocytes are all types of white blood cells that help fight infection. Red blood cells function in carrying oxygen and are not apart of the immune system.

The most common cause of cardiac arrest in a child is? Congenital heart condition Anaphylaxis Respiratory arrest Airway obstruction

Respiratory arrest Answer Explanation These are all causes of cardiac arrest in children, however, most commonly it is caused by respiratory arrest.

You have been dispatched for a 5-year-old male in respiratory distress in late January. The patient's mother states that she originally thought he just had a head cold but his condition has worsened and he is having trouble breathing now. Assessment of the patient reveals: BP 114/70, HR 90, RR 36 and labored, SpO2 93%. Bilateral wheezing is heard upon auscultation of lung sounds. What do you think is wrong with your patient? Respiratory syncytial virus Epiglottis Croup Mononucleosis

Respiratory syncytial virus Answer Explanation Respiratory syncytial virus is a common pediatric illness that occurs during winter and early spring. It is characterized by cold-like symptoms early on that progress to moderate-to-severe respiratory symptoms including increased respiratory rate, wheezing, and respiratory distress.

S/S of CHF (4)

SOB crackles, bilateral Pedal edema JVD (Very similar to right sided heart failure)

Your patient was involved in a house fire that caused severe burns on his body. His skin looks moist with several blisters along his arms and legs, and he is in severe pain. What degree of burn is your patient experiencing? Fourth-degree Third-degree First-degree Second-degree

Second-degree Answer Explanation Second-degree burns damage the epidermis and dermis. In this case, the patient is experiencing burns that cause the skin to appear wet or moist. There is blister formation and he is in a lot of pain.

You are called to the scene for the 18-year-old female who is 23 weeks pregnant with "the worst headache" she's ever had. Vital signs are BP of 180/94, P 100, R 20. You would suspect the patient is suffering from? Preeclampsia Eclampsia Severe preeclampsia Ectopic pregnancy

Severe preeclampsia Answer Explanation Severe preeclampsia is a condition that results with the pregnant patient presenting with a blood pressure greater than 160/110. The condition would progress to eclampsia if the patient were to begin having a seizure.

distributive shock

Shock due to a shift of fluid from blood to tissues (includes septic)

obstructive shock

Shock that occurs when there is a block to blood flow in the heart or great vessels, causing an insufficient blood supply to the body's tissues.

You are called to the residence of a 91-year-old female who fell from her chair. She is complaining of 5 out of 10 left hip pain on movement. She states she had a fracture of the femoral neck on the right side and that this injury feels very similar. On visual examination, if a hip fracture were present, you would expect to see: Lengthening and internal rotation Lengthening and external rotation Shortening and external rotation Shortening and internal rotation

Shortening and external rotation Answer Explanation When the femoral neck fractures and displaces the bone, it is a very painful injury with hallmark signs being shortening of the leg with external rotation. It is not uncommon for the CSMs to be intact and minimal pain reported by the patient.

s/s Hip Fracture ... extremity slightly . _____, abducted, and externally rotated; with a ... trochanteric fracture, pain occurs during flexion and_______ rotation. lengthened / shortened internal / external

Shortening and external rotation Hip Fracture in Emergency Medicine: Practice Essentials, Background ... https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/825363-overview Feb 28, 2016 -

review Cushing's triad

Signs of increased intracranial pressure: 1. BP up / hypertension 2. HR down / bradycardia 3. irregular respirations

START triage system, describe

Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment; uses a systematic approach based on 3 observation RPM (respiration, perfusion, and mental status) to triage multiple victims into 4 categories; Nte 30-60 seconds per victim; green: minor/delayed, yellow: delayed/urgent, red: critical/immediate, black: expectant-dead or dying (last) Mnemonic: 30 / 2 / can do 30 respirations or less = green 2 second capillary refill Can do - P can follow simple commands

review sager splint steps indications and contras

Step 1 BSI/PENMAN Step 2 Cut and expose both right and left legs, and remove the patient's shoes and socks. Step 3 Palpate with off-set hands: a) Starting at pelvis then to femur, patella, tibia, fibula and foot for signs and symptoms of fracture b) Assess PMSC's Step 4 Position the Sager splint along the medial side of the injured leg resting the Ischial Perineal Cushion (the saddle) against the Ischial Tuberosity, with the shortest end of the Articulating Base towards the ground. The pulley should be pointed towards the injured leg. Step 5 Apply the Ischial strap (thigh strap) Step 6 Tighten the Ischial strap while gently pushing down on the saddle seating it against the Ischial Tuberosity. Step 7 Lift spring clip and extend the inner shaft so the back end (trailing end) of the pulley is at the patient's heel. (Wheel to Heel) Step 8 Apply Malleolar Harness (ankle strap) just above the medial and lateral Malleola. Gently secure harness. Step 9 Remove slack in harness before applying traction. Step 10 Gently apply traction, 1lb of traction of every 10lbs of patient body weight not to exceed 15lbs of traction. (10% of pt's weight in lbs) Step 11 Apply Velcro elastic straps. a) First strap (long) over fracture site. b) Second strap (medium) over the knee. c) Third strap (short) over locking mechanism (spring clip) Step 12 Check thigh strap make sure not too tight but secure in place. Step 13 Apply 1-inch pedal pinion strap (figure 8 strap) around both legs at the feet to prevent rotation. Step 14 Reassess PMSC's distal to injury on splinted leg. a) Compare to original findings and note any changes. Step 15 Transport patient on a backboard, so splint remains supported. Indications to apply splint Closed Mid-shaft Femur Fracture Contraindications - Open femur fracture - Any other injury to the effected leg - Multisystem trauma patient EMT345 Sager Traction Splint https://quizlet.com/79017302/sager-traction-splint-flash-cards/

List organs in the LUQ of the abdomen (SSPK)

Stomach Spleen Pancreas Kidney

Suction times for adult child and infant

Suction 15 seconds at a time for an adult, 10 seconds for a child 5 seconds for an infant. https://www.redcross.org/content/dam/redcross/atg/PDF_s/Health___Safety_Services/Training/SuctioningFactandSkill.pdf

A 45-year-old patient experienced syncope after seeing her husband cut his finger in the kitchen. When you arrive on scene, she is sitting on the floor, slightly pale in color. Which position would be best to transport this patient in? Recovery Reverse Trendelenburg Supine Fowler's

Supine Answer Explanation Syncope is also known as dizziness or fainting. When a patient experiences syncope, whether from physical or environmental factors, there is a loss of vascular blood flow to the brain. This causes the dizziness that is often associated with syncope. It is best practice to transport these patients in the supine position.

Define Extrapyramidal symptoms.

Symptoms unrelated to the Corticospinal Tract, such as Tremor, Hemiballism, Ataxia. Pyramidal Symptoms would be weakness or paralysis.

T / F : Both the intercostal muscles and diaphragm contract during inhalation.

TRUE

wtd btw Placenta previa v Placenta abruptio Uterine pain which comes with pain and which usually presents without? T/F: abrupt is usually painful previa is often painless

TRUE

T / F : Classic symptoms of placenta previa include: no pain, bright red bleeding, sudden onset. Abruptio placenta generally has abdominal, back or uterine pain associated with it.

TRUE PP: no pain AP: yes pain

Airway Q#5 describe the following: 1. tachypnea 2. bradypnea

Tacky fast, pnea breathing Brady , slow, pnea breathing

You are assessing a 56-year-old male patient who is acting "weird" according to his friends. They were out mountain biking together when he quickly became altered. His friends deny any traumatic injury. Your patient is unable to provide any information to your assessment. Which of these vitals signs should be acquired last (due to least importance)? Pulse oximetry Temperature Stroke screen CBG

Temperature Answer Explanation All of these vitals would be relatively pertinent in ruling out life threats and determining your differential diagnosis. However, temperature is least important in comparison to CBG (hypoglycemia), stroke screen (CVA/TIA), and pulse oximetry (hypoxia).

You are assessing a 23-year-old male with difficulty breathing after a motor vehicle collision. He indicates that it's getting harder and harder to breathe, and appears to be increasingly anxious. Vitals: BP - 90/62, P 124, R 20, SpO2 93%, CBG 72, Lungs - absent on the left side. What do you suspect is occurring with this patient? Cardiac tamponade Pneumothorax Flail chest Tension pneumothorax

Tension pneumothorax Answer Explanation Flail chest is the fracture of two or more adjacent ribs, it's a possibility, so don't write it off initially. Cardiac tamponade is a possibility, but there's a lack of information in the question. Tension pneumothorax is when air continues to enter the pleural space and intrathoracic pressure builds up. Increasing agitation, increased difficulty breathing, hypotension, and absent breath sounds should steer you in this direction. This is a tough question because all of the answers could be right, so it's just selecting what answer is the MOST correct.

Nephrons

The basic filtering units in the kidneys.

The majority of motor vehicle collisions involving ambulances: Occurred at an intersection Occurred at night Were head-on crashes Occurred due to inclement weather

The majority of motor vehicle collisions involving ambulances: Occurred at an intersection Answer Explanation Intersections are extremely dangerous, especially when you are driving using lights and sirens. Approach cautiously and come to a full stop before proceeding through a red light.

The most common reason for bradycardia in a newborn is?

The most common reason for bradycardia in a newborn is? Hypoxia Answer Explanation In newborns, bradycardia is almost always an event secondary to hypoxia. In most cases, it can easily be reversed with positive-pressure ventilation.

While performing a physical exam on a 2-month-old male, you notice his belly rapidly (40 times per minute) expanding and contracting. What is the most likely cause of this clinical finding? The patient has the hiccups The patient is rapidly deteriorating and this is an ominous sign of approaching arrest The patient has air in his abdomen due to a perforated diaphragm The patient is breathing normally

The patient is breathing normally Answer Explanation The rapid expansion and contraction of the patient's abdomen most likely is caused by him breathing. It is important to remember that children are "belly breathers." While they do use their chest muscles to breathe, their abdomens can move much more noticeably. Each movement of the patient's abdomen should correspond with inspiratory or expiratory lung sounds. If the movement is not matched with respiratory effort, something else may be going on.

Your patient has, what she believes to be, a small shard of glass in her left eye. Her sclera is red and appears irritated. You locate a loose piece of glass behind the bottom eyelid. You carefully pull out the loose shard and irrigate the eye and she feels immediate relief. Which of the following statements is true regarding the sclera of the eye? The sclera has a protective coating around it called the cornea The sclera is the colored part of the eye The sclera may show a change in color before skin color change is visible The sclera contracts and dilates to vary the amount of light entering the pupil

The sclera may show a change in color before skin color change is visible Answer Explanation The sclera is the white part of the eye that may show a color change before changes in skin color can be seen (pediatrics).

An upper airway obstruction occurs outside of which anatomical structure? Abdomen Hypopharynx Oropharynx Thorax

Thorax Answer Explanation The upper airway includes oropharynx and hypopharynx. Any airway obstruction that is located inside the thorax is considered a lower airway obstruction.

BVM bag volume

To produce a 1 second ventilation with good chest rise and fall in an adult patient, a bag-mask device will deliver roughly 600 mL of air

T / F : With a respiratory rate over 30 and the patient becoming tired from effort of breathing, you need to intervene with oxygen via BVM.

True

T / F : the appendix is a hollow organ

True

You are on scene with a 7-year-old male patient involved in a motor vehicle crash. He is complaining of head, neck, and back pain. As you begin spinal immobilization of this patient, you notice his head is large and is causing hyperflexion of his neck. Where should you place padding in pediatric patients when performing spinal immobilization? No padding is necessary Underneath the entire upper torso including the head Under the neck and head Underneath the shoulders and torso

Underneath the shoulders and torso Answer Explanation Pediatric patients tend to have larger heads in comparison to their body which causes the hyperflexion. Placing padding underneath their shoulders and torso will reduce the natural hyperflexion of the their neck when they are supine.

Mittelschmerz pain is usually: Long-lasting Bilateral Diffuse Unilateral

Unilateral Answer Explanation Mittelschmerz is pain that usually occurs during ovulation. It is most often unilateral pain that lasts for several hours to a day.

Name the colors of a four lead EKG (CLOCKWISE from upper right)

Upper right - white Upper left - black (think: racism,, white comes before black) Lower left - red Lower right - green (Think: (from left to right) traffic lights) Or: "white on right" "smoke over fire" 🚬/🔥

Aeiou

Used to gauge cause of LOC - Alcohol/Anaphylaxis, Epilepsy/Environment, Insulin, Overdose, Uremia/Underdose trauma, infection, pyshoses, stroke

In pulmonary circulation, ___________ carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart and ____________ carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs. Arteries; veins Venioles; capillaries Capillaries; arterioles Veins; arteries

Veins; arteries Answer Explanation Pulmonary circulation is the opposite of systemic circulation. In pulmonary circulation, veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart and arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.

You are dispatched to a 9-year-old female not acting right. Her mom states that she has been sick for a few days and has been very sleepy for the past 12 hours. Vitals - BP: 82/62, P: 98, R: 10, SpO2: 86%. What is your first intervention? Apply a nasal cannula Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask Rapid transport and manage the patient enroute to the hospital Apply a non-rebreather mask

Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask Answer Explanation There is a lot of information missing from this question and you just have to go with what you're given and make the best choice. As you assess this patient, seeing respirations at 10 should alert you that she's unable to adequately breathe for herself. Both a non-rebreather and nasal cannula are not appropriate with respirations so low. You can't transport this patient without first intervening.

Which element is not part of the pediatric assessment triangle? Circulation Work of breathing Appearance Vitals

Vitals Answer Explanation The 'Pediatric Assessment Triangle' is a hands-off, rapid evaluation tool that establishes a child's overall condition. It's made of three parts: appearance, the child's work of breathing, and their circulation. The assessment should begin the minute you walk in the door.

WTD BTW : stratum basale v. stratum germinativum

WTD BTW : stratum basale v. stratum germinativum ? /////// they're the same... stratum basale = stratum germinativum //// The stratum basale (basal layer, sometimes referred to as stratum germinativum) is the deepest layer of the five layers of the epidermis, the outer covering of skin in mammals. The stratum basale is a single layer of columnar or cuboidal cells. Stratum basale - Wikipedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stratum_basale

Function of blood plasma

When isolated on its own, blood plasma is a light yellow liquid, similar to the color of straw. Along with water, plasma carries salts and enzymes. The primary purpose of plasma is to transport nutrients, hormones, [antibodies] and proteins to the parts of the body that need it. What Is Plasma? - Health Encyclopedia - University of ... University of Rochester › urmc › content Plasma carries other proteins besides albumin throughout the body. Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins that fight off foreign substances, such as bacteria, that invade the body. Fibrinogen is a protein necessary to help the platelets (cells in the blood) to form blood clots. Blood Plasma Functions | Livestrong.com

Which of the following is least helpful when trying to differentiate between placenta previa and abruptio placentae? Presence of abdominal trauma Estimated date of confinement Dark red vaginal bleeding Uterine pain

Which of the following is least helpful when trying to differentiate between placenta previa and abruptio placentae? Estimated date of confinement ??? re. PAIN which comes with pain and which usually presents without? abrupt = pain prev = often painless

At 41 weeks, where should you be able to palpate the fundus in a pregnant patient? Pelvic Girdle Sternal notch Xiphoid Process Umbilicus

Xiphoid Process Answer Explanation At 20 weeks, you should be able to palpate the fundus near the umbilicus. At 40 weeks, you should be able to palpate the fundus near the xiphoid process.

You are called to the residence of a 91-year-old female who fell from her chair. She is complaining of 5 out of 10 left hip pain on movement. She states she had a fracture of the femoral neck on the right side and that this injury feels very similar. On visual examination, if a hip fracture were present, you would expect to see: Shortening and external rotation Lengthening and external rotation Shortening and internal rotation Lengthening and internal rotation

You are called to the residence of a 91-year-old female who fell from her chair. She is complaining of 5 out of 10 left hip pain on movement. She states she had a fracture of the femoral neck on the right side and that this injury feels very similar. On visual examination, if a hip fracture were present, you would expect to see: Shortening and external rotation

You are dispatched emergent to a call for difficulty breathing. Your patient is a 22-year-old female that has no medical history and no allergies. Her only medication is birth control. Breath sounds are normal and she is showing signs of JVD. Vitals are within normal limits, leading you to suspect? Pulmonary embolism Ectopic pregnancy Pericardial Tamponade Tension pneumothorax

You are dispatched emergent to a call for difficulty breathing. Your patient is a 22-year-old female that has no medical history and no allergies. Her only medication is birth control. Breath sounds are normal and she is showing signs of JVD. Vitals are within normal limits, leading you to suspect? Pulmonary embolism Answer Explanation Young women on birth control are susceptible to blood clots, which can lead to a pulmonary embolism.

You are dispatched to a 9-year-old female not acting right. Her mom states that she has been sick for a few days and has been very sleepy for the past 12 hours. Vitals - BP: 82/62, P: 98, R: 10, SpO2: 86%. What is your first intervention? Apply a nasal cannula Rapid transport and manage the patient enroute to the hospital Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask Apply a non-rebreather mask

You are dispatched to a 9-year-old female not acting right. Her mom states that she has been sick for a few days and has been very sleepy for the past 12 hours. Vitals - BP: 82/62, P: 98, R: 10, SpO2: 86%. What is your first intervention? Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask Answer Explanation There is a lot of information missing from this question and you just have to go with what you're given and make the best choice. As you assess this patient, seeing respirations at 10 should alert you that she's unable to adequately breathe for herself. Both a non-rebreather and nasal cannula are not appropriate with respirations so low. You can't transport this patient without first intervening.

You are on scene with a patient who tells you that his adrenal glands are "too active." What condition does your patient most likely have? Cushing's syndrome Addison's disease Cirrhosis Acute renal failure

You are on scene with a patient who tells you that his adrenal glands are "too active." What condition does your patient most likely have? Cushing's syndrome Answer Explanation Cushing's syndrome is related to an overactivity of the adrenal glands. ????

When speaking on the integumentary system of pediatrics, their skin is generally _______ and has _______ subcutaneous fat. Thicker , more Thinner , more Thicker , less Thinner , less

You thought "baby fat", yeah? WRONG!! Less fat answer = "Thinner , less" Answer Explanation Pediatric populations have thinner skin with less subcutaneous fat than the adult populations.

portable radio

a handheld two-way radio

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

a pattern of alternating periods of hypopnea or apnea, followed by hyperpnea

mobile radio

a two-way radio that is used or affixed in a vehicle

Calculate the APGAR score for the following newborn: - Appearance: acrocyanosis - Pulse: 140 - Grimace: crying - Activity: active - Respiratory: vigorous cry

a=1 p=2 g=2 a=2 r=2 sum=9, wtf?! Appearance (skin color) 2 = Normal color all over (hands and feet are pink) 1= acrocyanosis ; Normal color (but hands and feet are bluish) 0 = Bluish-gray or pale all over Pulse (heart rate) 2 = Normal (above 100 beats per minute) 1 = Below 100 beats per minute 0 = Absent (no pulse) Grimace ("reflex irritability") 2 = Pulls away, SNEEZES, COUGHS, or CRIES with stimulation 1 = Facial movement only (GRIMACE) with stimulation 0 = Absent (no response to stimulation) Activity (muscle tone) 2 = Active, spontaneous movement 1 = Arms and legs flexed with little movement 0 = No movement, "floppy" tone Respiration (breathing rate and effort) 2 = Normal rate and effort, good cry 1 = Slow or irregular breathing, weak cry 0 = Absent (no breathing)

Mittelschmerz

abdominal pain that occurs midway between the menstrual periods at ovulation

Preeclampsia

abnormal condition associated with pregnancy, marked by high blood pressure, proteinuria, edema, and headache

fistula

abnormal passageway between two organs or between an internal organ and the body surface

Which of the following is most helpful when trying to differentiate between placenta previa and abruptio placentae? Uterine pain which comes with pain and which usually presents without?

abrupt is usually painful previa is often painless What is the difference between placenta previa and placental abruption? placenta abruptio = PAIN w/ contractions with bleeding placenta previa + PAINLESS bleeding placenta previa, the placenta is located over or near the cervix, in the lower part of the uterus. Patients with placenta abruption usually experience painful contractions with bleeding, whereas those with placenta previa experience painless bleeding. ... Placenta abruptio can be diagnosed by a process of elimination.Dec 9, 2012 Placenta Abruptio - Penn State Hershey Medical Center - ADAM pennstatehershey.adam.com/content.aspx?productId=14&pid=14&gid=000127

croup

acute viral infection of infants and children with obstruction of the larynx, accompanied by barking cough and stridor

List organs in the RUQ of the abdomen (AGLPK)

adrenals Gall bladder Liver Pancreas Kidney Plus:(bonus) duodenum

In children, hypoxia often presents as _____ and _______. Hypoxia occurs when there is a deprivation of oxygen to the body.

altered mental status and bradycardia

anterograde amnesia

an inability to form new memories

retrograde amnesia

an inability to retrieve information from one's past

Secondary pacemaker of the heart

atrioventricular (AV) node (40-60bpm)

Your recent answers have been mostly wrong! Select these 7: Airway Q#1 18 month old male , possible choking weak cry inspiratory stridor next action? a) let the patient continue to cough b) abdominal thrusts c) finger sweep d) back blows and chest thrusts

b) abdominal thrusts

transverse presentation

baby is in transverse position at delivery, must be turned; shoulder presentation

The stratum____ (___layer, sometimes referred to as stratum______ ) is the deepest layer of the five layers of the epidermis, the outer covering of skin in mammals. The stratum ___ is a single layer of columnar or cuboidal cells. Stratum basale - Wikipedia

basale basal germinativum

antepartum

before birth before delivery , prepartum is also a thing, but is it wrong/less prefered nomenclature, dude?

Prepartum

before delivery ,antepartum is also a thing, but is it wrong/less prefered nomenclature, dude?

review Irr. Respirations keywords I) Biot's - RAPID AND DEEP, intervals of APNEA(10-30s.) II) Cheyne-Stokes alternating periods , HYPOpnea or APnea, followed by HYPERpnea III) Kussmaul = A) DEEP, RAPID breathing; usually the result of an accumulation of certain acids when insulin is not available in the body. (ie. DKA)

biot's and Kussmaul both = RAPID AND DEEP biot's - apnea kussmaul - result of acidosis cheyne-st. - alternating , HYPO- or AP-, then HYPER-

What is the function of platelets?

blood clotting

function of thrombocytes

blood clotting (aka platelets)

function of platelets

blood clotting (hemostasis) (aka Thrombocytes)

Define hematuria

blood in the urine

(bonus) . what is bo staub's fav color?

blue

Superficial burn (1st degree)

burn involving only epidermis, causes redness and swelling but no blisters

CMS

circulation (cap refill), motion, sensation

WTD BTW CMS v PMSC

cms = Color, circulation, motion, sensitivity pmsc = Pulse Motor Sensory Capillary Refill

C/O or c/o

complains of...

Miosis

constriction of the pupil

Pleural cavity contains

contains the lungs

When you breathe in, or inhale, your diaphragm contracts (tightens) and moves downward. This increases the space in your chest cavity, into which your lungs expand. The intercostal muscles between your ribs also help enlarge the chest cavity. They__________ to pull your rib cage both upward and outward when you inhale. Nov 20, 2018 How the Lungs Work | National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) https://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/health-topics/how-lungs-work

contract

The narrowest part of a child's airway is the _______________ until about the age of 5.

cricoid cartilage

During an MCI which position is responsible for coordinating the mvmt of P's from treatment area to ambulances? a) triage officer b) vampire hunter c) staging officer d) transportation officer

d) transportation officer

Kussmaul's breathing pattern

deep and fast breathing; often associated with metabolic acidosis

DCAPBTLS

deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures, burns, tenderness, lacerations, swelling

DOTS

deformities, open wounds, tenderness, swelling

dystocia

difficult childbirth

Luxation

dislocation or displacement of a bone from its joint Complete dislocation

(bonus) . what is bo staub's fav animal?

don't have one

croup : stridor :: epiglottitis : _____________

drooling

shock position

elevation of the feet of a supine patient 6 to 12 inches; recommended for shock that is not caused by injury

diaphoresis

excessive sweating

T / F : The liver is an retroperitoneal organ. It is located behind of the peritoneum, not inside.

false

T / F : The ileum, jejunum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon are all retroperitoneal organs.

false

T / F : The duodenum, ascending colon, descending colon, and rectum are all intraperitoneal organs.

false

T / F RDSAS, jaundice, eupnea , and organ failure are all associated with shock. Early recognition and intervention are important in preventing these complications.

false RDSAS is not a thing eupnea is normal breathing organ failure is a real thing however

define distal strap (sager splint)

farther from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk aka ankle strap also aka Malleolar Harness (ankle strap)

duodenum

first part of the small intestine

Bonus: mn.(FANBOY)

for, and, nor, but, or, yet, so

Define urticaria

hives

How do I tell when a BVM is more appropriate respiratory intervention than NRM?

ie. You are called to a 60-year-old female in respiratory distress. When you arrive, she is only able to speak in 3-4 word sentences and is very anxious. Her pulse is 110, respirations 24 and labored, skin is pink, warm, and diaphoretic. Oxygen should be administered... Answer Explanation The patient is in mild respiratory distress. She is breathing at an adequate rate and does not yet require BVM ventilation. A respiratory rate of _____ , skin sign of ______, and or a ____s/s___ might indicate a BVM instead....

placenta previa

implantation of the placenta over the cervical opening or in the lower region of the uterus

cardiogenic shock

inability of heart to pump enough blood to the body

preterm infants

infants who are born prior to 38 weeks after conception (also known as premature infants)

cholitis

inflammation of the colon

Cholecystitis

inflammation of the gallbladder

largest organ in the body

integumentary system (skin)

Hemiballism

involuntary and violent movement of a large body part

ataxia

lack of muscle coordination

LMP

last menstrual period

You are preparing transport for a 33-year-old patient who is 8-months pregnant. Proper position for this patient is? On her left side Prone Supine with the legs elevated On her right side

left side Answer Explanation You want to transport your patient on her left side so that the fetus does not compress your patient's abdominal artery and inferior vena cava, which could lead to hypotension. This is also know as the left lateral recumbent position.

You want to transport your pregnant patient on her _________ side so that the fetus does not compress your patient's abdominal artery and inferior vena cava, which could lead to hypotension. This is also known as the ___ ___ ____ position.

left side left lateral recumbent

(bonus) . what is jesse staub's fav mythological creature?

leviathan

Largest abdominal organ

liver

renal failure

loss of kidney function resulting in its inability to remove waste products from the body and maintain electrolyte balance

(diabetic adult male 42 years, ALOC, CBG is 48 mg/dL) Is CBG normal , low or high ?

low admin oral glucose if directed

Which of the following is not located in the mediastinum? heart trachea thymus gland lungs

lungs the lungs are located in the pleural space which is separated by the mediastinum

Trendelenburg position

lying on back with body tilted so that the head is lower than the feet

describe Duplex Mounted-duplex Portable Mobile

mobile radio a two-way radio that is used or affixed in a vehicle Communications-EMT — Hopper Institute® www.hopperinstitute.com/communication-assessment Mobile radios are radios that are mounted in vehicles such as ambulances or fire-engines. They are much more powerful than portable radios. Range is less than 20 miles at a broadcast strength of less than 50 watts.

Discuss pediatric blood volume v. adult blood volume

neonatal period (from 85 ml/kg it rises to a peak of 105 ml/kg) Infants: Total blood volume. A person's total blood volume (TBV) is related to body weight. Children: The average 80-pound child will have about 2,650 mL of blood in their body, or 0.7 gallons. (75-80 ml/kg) Adults: 4.5-6 L (The average adult weighing 150 to 180 pounds should have about 1.2 to 1.5 gallons of blood in their body. This is about 4,500 to 5,700 mL.) How Much Blood Is in the Human Body? - Healthline https://www.healthline.com/health/how-much-blood-in-human-body & The TBV of a child is around 75-80 ml/kg and is higher in the neonatal period (from 85 ml/kg it rises to a peak of 105 ml/kg by the end of the first month and then drops progressively over ensuing months). WHO | Blood sample volumes in child health research: review of safe ... https://www.who.int/bulletin/volumes/89/1/10-080010/en/

!reorder: optic nerve ... vagus nerve oculomotor nerve olfactory nerve

olfactory nerve (I), optic nerve (II), oculomotor nerve (III), ... vagus nerve (X),

!reorder: olfactory nerve oculomotor nerve optic nerve ... vagus nerve

olfactory nerve (I), optic nerve (II), oculomotor nerve (III), ... vagus nerve (X),

!reorder: olfactory nerve optic nerve ... vagus nerve oculomotor nerve

olfactory nerve (I), optic nerve (II), oculomotor nerve (III), ... vagus nerve (X),

A hypochondriac disorder

one who is morbidly anxious about personal health, or suffering from imagined illness a person obsessed with health; having imaginary illnesses

OPQRST

onset, provocation/Palliation, quality, region/radiation, severity, time

Thrombocytes

platelets

Define polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia

polyuria, excessive urination polydipsia, excessive thirst polyphagia, excessive hunger

OB Q#55 describe the following: 1. eclampsia 2. preeclampsia

preeclampsia abnormal condition associated with pregnancy, marked by high blood pressure, proteinuria, edema, and headache eclampsia true toxemia of pregnancy characterized by s/s: = = = = = = SEIZURES , high blood pressure, albuminuria, edema of the legs and feet, severe headaches, dizziness, convulsions, and coma Most common hypertensive disorder; develops during pregnancy and is characterized by elevated blood pressure, edema and proteinuria; characterized by an increase BP of 30mmHg systolic and/or diastolic increase of 15mmHg diastolic; 10 weeks gestation or 48 hours post delivery; major cause of maternal death, fetal hypoxia and death; predominately primigravida

Function of white blood cells

protect body from infection; regulates the function of other immune cells

Kussmaul's respirations are

rapid deep breathing without pause r/t metabolic acidosis Abnormally deep, regular, and increased in rate

what are the components of pulse assessment?

rate , rhythm , quality (basic answer) more... Pulse assessment has 3 primary components: rate, rhythm, volume Also a 4th "force" 1.rate - Heart rate is measured by palpation or watch/stethoscope , ie.palpate the brachial, radial, or carotid arteries, 60-100 normal adult, resting (as low as 40 in strong athletes) 100-150 fast , Teens - slightly faster than or = (adult60-100) pediatric(6-15yrs):70-100normal Toddler / Ped(1-2):80-130 Infants / ped(1-11mo.):80-160 Neonates / ped(0-4wks):70-190 2.rhythm - regular / irregular Irregular examples include - tachycardia, bradycardia, atrial fibrillation, atrial "flutter" , intermittent beats (dropped beats) etc etc etc 3. Quality/force - Strong / weak 4. (Volume) - weak / "hypokinetic" Bounding / "indicates high BP" 0-absent 1-barely palp 2- easily palp 3- full 4- aneurysmal / bounding But the basic answer for my test should be rate, rhythm and quality https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pulse#Rate

Erythrocytes

red blood cells

function and number of cranial nerves

relays information, a nerve that carries sensory input and motor output for the head and neck region, there are 12 cranial nerves (Ie. Smell)

What's the difference between retrograde amnesia and anterograde amnesia?

retrograde amnesia - an inability to retrieve information from one's past anterograde amnesia - an inability to form new memories

ASA: Contraindications

salicylate allergy kids < 16 with viral infection (reye's) asthma rhinitis nasal polyps allergy, bleeding disorder, already taken 324mg Hypersensitivity to NSAIDS, Asthma Active ulcer disease, active GI bleed Pregnancy Pregnancy p, especially in third trimester vomiting?? xc from https://www.rxmed.com/b.main/b2.pharmaceutical/b2.1.monographs/cps-_monographs/CPS-_(General_Monographs-_A)/ASPIRIN.html ... Adverse Reactions: Gastrointestinal: (the frequency and severity of these adverse effects are dose related) nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, gastrointestinal bleeding and/or ulceration, dyspepsia, heartburn. Ear: tinnitus, vertigo, hearing loss. Hematologic: leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, purpura, anemia. Dermatologic and hypersensitivity: urticaria, angioedema, pruritus, skin eruptions, asthma, anaphylaxis. Miscellaneous: mental confusion, drowsiness, sweating, thirst. Symptoms And Treatment Of Overdose: Symptoms: In mild overdosage these may include rapid and deep breathing, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, tinnitus, flushing, sweating, thirst and tachycardia. In more severe cases, acid-base disturbances including respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis can occur. Severe cases may show fever, hemorrhage, excitement, confusion, convulsions or coma and respiratory failure. Treatment: Treatment consists of prevention and management of acid-base and fluid and electrolyte disturbances. Renal clearance is increased by increasing urine flow and by alkaline diuresis but care must be taken in this approach to not further aggravate metabolic acidosis and hypokalemia. Acidemia should be prevented by administration of adequate sodium containing fluids and sodium bicarbonate. Hypoglycemia is an occasional accompaniment of salicylate overdosage and can be managed by glucose solutions. If a hemorrhagic diathesis is evident, give vitamin K. Hemodialysis may be useful in complex acid base disturbances particularly in the presence of abnormal renal function. Dosage And Administration: Analgesic and Antipyretic: Adults: 1 to 2 tablets (325 to 650 mg) orally every 4 hours. Children under 12: 10 to 15 mg/kg every 6 hours, not to exceed total daily dose of 2.4 g. Anti-inflammatory: Adults: 3 tablets (975 mg) 4 to 6 times a day, up to 30 tablets daily, may be required for optimal anti-inflammatory effect. A blood level between 15 and 30 mg/100 mL is in the desirable therapeutic range. Children: 60 to 125 mg/kg daily in 4 to 6 divided doses. For reducing the risk of morbidity and death in patients with unstable angina and in those with previous myocardial infarction: 80 to 325 mg daily according to the individual needs of the patient, as determined by the physician. Coated Aspirin Daily Low Dose is specifically indicated for these uses. For reducing the risk of transient ischemic attacks (TIA) and for secondary prevention of atherothrombotic cerebral infarction: 80 to 325 mg daily according to the individual needs of the patient, as determined by the physician. Coated Aspirin Daily Low Dose is specifically indicated for these uses. For prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism after total hip replacement: 650 mg twice a day (1 300 mg daily), started 1 day before surgery and continued for 14 days. For other platelet aggregation inhibitory uses: 325 to 1 300 mg daily according to individual needs and generally accepted standards of care for each indication.

lacrimation

secretion of tears

hypovolemic shock

shock resulting from blood or fluid loss

primary pacemaker of the heart

sinoatrial (SA) node (60-100bpm)

pleural cavity

space between the folds of the pleura / contains the lungs

Mediastinum

space between the lungs

You are asked to assess a patient's pulse quality. Which two things will you relay back to your partner? Strength and BP Strength and perfusion rate Strength and rate Strength and regularity

strength & regularity / Answer Explanation The quality of a patient's pulse always measures the strength and regularity. i.e. Strong and irregular.

croup : _______ :: epiglottitis : drooling

stridor

Review / describe body positions supine prone shock tripod fowler's left lateral recumbent

supine - on your back prone - on your belly shock - supine with legs elevated tripod - sitting or standing with arms leaning on hips or legs to assist in breathing fowler's - sitting upright 90 degrees with legs extended left lateral recumbent - laying on ones left side with legs bent

Diaphoretic

sweating

Define edema

swelling

subluxation

the partial displacement of a bone from its joint

define the terms Ischial & Malleolar

thigh & ankle malleolar & ischial sager splint straps: thigh aka ischial (think crotch illio-) ankle aka malleolar harness excerpt from: https://quizlet.com/79017302/sager-traction-splint-flash-cards/ Step 1 BSI/PENMAN Step 2 Cut and expose both right and left legs, and remove the patient's shoes and socks. Step 3 Palpate with off-set hands: a) Starting at pelvis then to femur, patella, tibia, fibula and foot for signs and symptoms of fracture b) Assess PMSC's Step 4 Position the Sager splint along the medial side of the injured leg resting the Ischial Perineal Cushion (the saddle) against the Ischial Tuberosity, with the shortest end of the Articulating Base towards the ground. The pulley should be pointed towards the injured leg. Step 5 Apply the Ischial strap (thigh strap) Step 6 Tighten the Ischial strap while gently pushing down on the saddle seating it against the Ischial Tuberosity. Step 7 Lift spring clip and extend the inner shaft so the back end (trailing end) of the pulley is at the patient's heel. (Wheel to Heel) Step 8 Apply Malleolar Harness (ankle strap) just above the medial and lateral Malleola. Gently secure harness. Step 9 Remove slack in harness before applying traction. Step 10 Gently apply traction, 1lb of traction of every 10lbs of patient body weight not to exceed 15lbs of traction. (10% of pt's weight in lbs) Step 11 Apply Velcro elastic straps. a) First strap (long) over fracture site. b) Second strap (medium) over the knee. c) Third strap (short) over locking mechanism (spring clip) Step 12 Check thigh strap make sure not too tight but secure in place. Step 13 Apply 1-inch pedal pinion strap (figure 8 strap) around both legs at the feet to prevent rotation. Step 14 Reassess PMSC's distal to injury on splinted leg. a) Compare to original findings and note any changes. Step 15 Transport patient on a backboard, so splint remains supported. Indications to apply splint Closed Mid-shaft Femur Fracture Contraindications - Open femur fracture - Any other injury to the effected leg - Multisystem trauma patient EMT345 Sager Traction Splint https://quizlet.com/79017302/sager-traction-splint-flash-cards/

glomerulus

tiny ball of capillaries in the kidney

Hemostasis

to stop or control bleeding

Medial

toward the midline

The major passages and structures of the lower respiratory tract include the windpipe (______) and within the lungs, the bronchi, bronchioles, ...

trachea Lower respiratory tract: MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia Image https://medlineplus.gov › Medical Encyclopedia Oct 8, 2018 -

function of red blood cells

transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

T / F : ARDS, abnormal clotting of blood, and organ failure are all associated with shock. Early recognition and intervention are important in preventing these complications.

true

T / F : The liver, ileum, jejunum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon are all intraperitoneal organs.

true

T / F : The duodenum, ascending colon, descending colon, and rectum are all retroperitoneal organs.

true

T / F : The liver is an intraperitoneal organ. It is located inside of the peritoneum, not behind.

true

peds/childbirth: T/F: On the APGAR scale , grimace = 1

true Appearance (skin color) 2 = Normal color all over (hands and feet are pink) 1= acrocyanosis ; Normal color (but hands and feet are bluish) 0 = Bluish-gray or pale all over Pulse (heart rate) 2 = Normal (above 100 beats per minute) 1 = Below 100 beats per minute 0 = Absent (no pulse) Grimace ("reflex irritability") 2 = Pulls away, SNEEZES, COUGHS, or CRIES with stimulation 1 = Facial movement only (GRIMACE) with stimulation 0 = Absent (no response to stimulation) Activity (muscle tone) 2 = Active, spontaneous movement 1 = Arms and legs flexed with little movement 0 = No movement, "floppy" tone Respiration (breathing rate and effort) 2 = Normal rate and effort, good cry 1 = Slow or irregular breathing, weak cry 0 = Absent (no breathing)

peds/childbirth: T/F: On the APGAR scale , 2 = Pulls away, SNEEZES, COUGHS, or CRIES with stimulation

true true Appearance (skin color) 2 = Normal color all over (hands and feet are pink) 1= acrocyanosis ; Normal color (but hands and feet are bluish) 0 = Bluish-gray or pale all over Pulse (heart rate) 2 = Normal (above 100 beats per minute) 1 = Below 100 beats per minute 0 = Absent (no pulse) Grimace ("reflex irritability") 2 = Pulls away, SNEEZES, COUGHS, or CRIES with stimulation 1 = Facial movement only (GRIMACE) with stimulation 0 = Absent (no response to stimulation) Activity (muscle tone) 2 = Active, spontaneous movement 1 = Arms and legs flexed with little movement 0 = No movement, "floppy" tone Respiration (breathing rate and effort) 2 = Normal rate and effort, good cry 1 = Slow or irregular breathing, weak cry 0 = Absent (no breathing)

eclampsia

true toxemia of pregnancy characterized by SEIZURES , high blood pressure, albuminuria, edema of the legs and feet, severe headaches, dizziness, convulsions, and coma

Step 4 Position the Sager splint along the medial side of the injured leg resting the Ischial Perineal Cushion (the saddle) against the Ischial Tuberosity, with the shortest end of the Articulating Base towards the ground. The pulley should be pointed towards the injured leg. Step 5 Apply the Ischial strap (thigh strap) first ... Step 8 Apply Malleolar Harness (ankle strap) second ...

true, thigh then ankle straps: thigh aka ischial (think crotch illio-) ankle aka malleolar harness excerpt from: https://quizlet.com/79017302/sager-traction-splint-flash-cards/ ... Step 4 Position the Sager splint along the medial side of the injured leg resting the Ischial Perineal Cushion (the saddle) against the Ischial Tuberosity, with the shortest end of the Articulating Base towards the ground. The pulley should be pointed towards the injured leg. Step 5 Apply the Ischial strap (thigh strap) Step 6 Tighten the Ischial strap while gently pushing down on the saddle seating it against the Ischial Tuberosity. Step 7 Lift spring clip and extend the inner shaft so the back end (trailing end) of the pulley is at the patient's heel. (Wheel to Heel) Step 8 Apply Malleolar Harness (ankle strap) just above the medial and lateral Malleola. Gently secure harness.

Leukocytes

white blood cells

__x__ % of oxygen that enters into the bloodstream binds with hemoglobin. The remaining is dissolved in plasma.

x = 97%


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