NRSG 2510 Exam 3 (
A few days after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) and successful percutaneous coronary intervention, the patient states, "I just had a little chest pain. As soon as I get out of here, I'm going for my vacation as planned." Which reply would be most appropriate for the nurse to make? a. "What do you think caused your chest pain?" b. "Where are you planning to go for your vacation?" c. "Sometimes plans need to change after a heart attack." d. "Recovery from a heart attack takes at least a few weeks."
a. "What do you think caused your chest pain?" ANS: A When the patient is experiencing denial, the nurse should assist the patient in testing reality until the patient has progressed beyond this step of the emotional adjustment to MI.
After receiving change-of-shift report on a heart failure unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient who is cool and clammy, with new-onset confusion and restlessness b. A patient who has crackles bilaterally in the lung bases and is receiving oxygen. c. A patient who had dizziness after receiving the first dose of captopril (Capoten) d. A patient who is receiving IV nesiritide (Natrecor) and has a blood pressure of 100/62
a. A patient who is cool and clammy, with new-onset confusion and restlessness. ANS: A The patient who has "wet-cold" clinical manifestations of heart failure is perfusing inadequately and needs rapid assessment and changes in management.
When caring for a patient who has just arrived on the medical-surgical unit after having cardiac catheterization, which nursing intervention should the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Give the scheduled aspirin and lipid-lowering medication. b. Perform the initial assessment of the catheter insertion site. c. Teach the patient about the usual postprocedure plan of care. d. Titrate the heparin infusion according to the agency protocol.
a. Give scheduled aspirin and lipid-lowering medication. ANS: A Administration of oral medications is within the scope of practice for LPNs/LVNs. The initial assessment of the patient, patient teaching, and titration of IV anticoagulant medications should be done by the registered nurse (RN).
A patient's cardiac monitor shows a pattern of undulations of varying contours and amplitude with no measurable ECG pattern. The patient is unconscious and pulseless. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Perform immediate defibrillation. b. Give epinephrine (Adrenalin) IV. c. Prepare for endotracheal intubation. d. Give ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.
a. Perform immediate defibrillation ANS: A The patient's rhythm and assessment indicate ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest; the initial action should be to defibrillate.
A child with pulmonary atresia exhibits cyanosis with feeding. On reviewing this child's laboratory values, the nurse is not surprised to notice which abnormality? a. Polycythemia b. Infection c. Dehydration d. Anemia
a. Polycythemia. ANS: A Polycythemia is a compensatory response to chronic hypoxia. The body attempts to improve tissue oxygenation by producing additional red blood cells and thereby increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted to the coronary care unit following an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and percutaneous coronary intervention the previous day. Teaching for this patient would include a. when cardiac rehabilitation will begin. b. the typical emotional responses to AMI. c. information regarding discharge medications. d. the pathophysiology of coronary artery disease.
a. When cardiac rehabilitation will begin. ANS: A Early after an AMI, the patient will want to know when resumption of usual activities can be expected.
A patient in the intensive care unit with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) complains of severe dyspnea and is anxious, tachypneic, and tachycardic. All of the following medications have been ordered for the patient. The nurse's priority action will be to a. give IV morphine sulfate 4 mg. b. give IV diazepam (Valium) 2.5 mg. c. increase nitroglycerin (Tridil) infusion by 5 mcg/min. d. increase dopamine (Intropin) infusion by 2 mcg/kg/min.
a. give IV morphine sulfate 4 mg. ANS: A Morphine improves alveolar gas exchange, improves cardiac output by reducing ventricular preload and afterload, decreases anxiety, and assists in reducing the subjective feeling of dyspnea.
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. Which result is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Serum creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL b. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L c. Serum hemoglobin of 14.7 g/dL d. Blood glucose level of 96 mg/dL
a. serum creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL ANS: A The elevated creatinine indicates renal damage caused by the hypertension. The other laboratory results are normal.
Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care after endovascular repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm? a. Record hourly chest tube drainage. b. Monitor fluid intake and urine output. c. Check the abdominal incision for any redness. d. Teach the reason for a prolonged recovery period.
b. Monitor fluid intake and urine output. ANS: B Because renal artery occlusion can occur after endovascular repair, the nurse should monitor parameters of renal function such as intake and output.
The nurse is admitting a patient with possible rheumatic fever. Which question on the admission health history will be most pertinent to ask? a. "Do you use any illegal IV drugs?" b. "Have you had a recent sore throat?" c. "Have you injured your chest in the last few weeks?" d. "Do you have a family history of congenital heart disease?"
b. "Have you had a recent sore throat?" ANS: B Rheumatic fever occurs as a result of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal infection.
Which strategy is appropriate when feeding the infant with congestive heart failure? a. Continue the feeding until a sufficient amount of formula is taken. b. Limit feeding time to no more than 30 minutes. c. Always bottle feed every 4 hours. d. Feed larger volumes of concentrated formula less frequently.
b. Limit feeding time to no more than 30 minutes. ANS: B The infant with congestive heart failure may tire easily, so the feeding should not continue beyond 30 minutes. If inadequate amounts of formula are taken, gavage feedings should be considered.
The nurse has started discharge teaching for a patient who is to continue warfarin (Coumadin) following hospitalization for venous thromboembolism (VTE). The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the patient says which of the following? a. "I should get a Medic Alert device stating that I take Coumadin." b. "I should reduce the amount of green, leafy vegetables that I eat." c. "I will need routine blood tests to monitor the effects of the Coumadin." d. "I will check with my health care provider before I begin any new medications."
b. "I should reduce the amount of green, leafy vegetables that I eat." ANS: B Patients taking warfarin are taught to follow a consistent diet with regard to foods that are high in vitamin K, such as green, leafy vegetables.
When evaluating the effectiveness of preoperative teaching with a patient scheduled for coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery using the internal mammary artery, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the patient says which of the following? a. "They will circulate my blood with a machine during the surgery." b. "I will have small incisions in my leg where they will remove the vein." c. "They will use an artery near my heart to go around the area that is blocked." d."I will need to take an aspirin every day after the surgery to keep the graft open."
b. "I will have small incisions in my leg where they will remove the vein." ANS: B When the internal mammary artery is used there is no need to have a saphenous vein removed from the leg.
What is the appropriate priority nursing action for the infant with a CHD who has an increased respiratory rate, is sweating, and is not feeding well? a. Recheck the infant's blood pressure. b. Alert the physician. c. Withhold oral feeding. d. Increase the oxygen rate.
b. Alert the physican ANS: B These are signs of early congestive heart failure, and the physician should be notified
Which assessment finding for a patient who is receiving IV furosemide (Lasix) to treat stage 2 hypertension is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Blood glucose level of 175 mg/dL. b. Blood potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L c. Most recent blood pressure (BP) reading of 168/94 mm Hg d. Orthostatic systolic BP decrease of 12 mm Hg
b. Blood potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L ANS: B Hypokalemia is a frequent adverse effect of the loop diuretics and can cause life-threatening dysrhythmias. The health care provider should be notified of the potassium level immediately and administration of potassium supplements initiated.
A patient with septicemia develops prolonged bleeding from venipuncture sites and blood in the stools. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Avoid venipunctures. b. Notify the patient's physician. c. Apply sterile dressings to the sites. d. Give prescribed proton-pump inhibitors.
b. Notify the patient's physician. ANS: B The patient's new onset of bleeding and diagnosis of sepsis suggest that disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may have developed, which will require collaborative actions such as diagnostic testing, blood product administration, and heparin administration.
A patient whose heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia, rate 132, is apneic and has no palpable pulses. What is the first action that the nurse should take? a. Perform synchronized cardioversion. b. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Administer atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol. d. Provide supplemental oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
b. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). ANS: B The patient's clinical manifestations indicate pulseless electrical activity and the nurse should immediately start CPR.
Which assessment data collected by the nurse who is admitting a patient with chest pain suggest that the pain is caused by an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)? a. The pain increases with deep breathing. b. The pain has lasted longer than 30 min. c. The pain is relieved after the patient takes nitroglycerin. d. The pain is reproducible when the patient raises the arms.
b. The pain has lasted longer than 30 min. ANS: B Chest pain that lasts for 20 minutes or more is characteristic of AMI.
The nurse is assessing a patient who has been admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a hypertensive emergency. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Urine output over 8 hours is 250 mL less than the fluid intake. b. The patient cannot move the left arm and leg when asked to do so. c. Tremors are noted in the fingers when the patient extends the arms. d. The patient complains of a headache with pain at level 8/10 (0 to 10 scale).
b. The patient cannot move the left arm and leg when asked to do so. ANS: B The patient's inability to move the left arm and leg indicates that a hemorrhagic stroke may be occurring and will require immediate action to prevent further neurologic damage.
The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of decreased cardiac output related to valvular insufficiency for the patient with infective endocarditis (IE) based on which assessment finding(s)? a. Fever, chills, and diaphoresis b. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr c. Petechiae on the inside of the mouth and conjunctiva d. Increase in heart rate of 15 beats/minute with walking
b. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr. ANS: B Decreased renal perfusion caused by inadequate cardiac output will lead to decreased urine output.
The health care provider prescribes an infusion of heparin (Hep-Lock) and daily partial thromboplastin time (PTT) testing for a patient with venous thromboembolism (VTE). The nurse will plan to a. decrease the infusion when the PTT value is 65 seconds. b. avoid giving any IM medications to prevent localized bleeding. c. monitor posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses with the Doppler. d. have vitamin K available in case reversal of the heparin is needed.
b. avoid giving any IM medications to prevent localized bleeding. ANS: B IM injections are avoided in patients receiving anticoagulation. A PTT of 65 seconds is within the therapeutic range.
A patient has a 6-cm thoracic aortic aneurysm that was discovered during a routine chest x-ray. When obtaining an admission history from the patient, it will be most important for the nurse to ask about a. low back pain. b. trouble swallowing. c. abdominal tenderness. d. changes in bowel habits.
b. trouble swallowing. ANS: B Difficulty swallowing may occur with a thoracic aneurysm because of pressure on the esophagus.
A patient with a venous thromboembolism (VTE) is started on enoxaparin (Lovenox) and warfarin (Coumadin). The patient asks the nurse why two medications are necessary. Which response by the nurse is mostappropriate? a. "Taking two blood thinners reduces the risk for another clot to form." b. "Lovenox will start to dissolve the clot, and Coumadin will prevent any more clots from forming." c. "Lovenox will work right away, but Coumadin takes several days to have an effect on preventing clots." d. "Because of the risk for a blood clot in the lungs, it is important for you to take more than one blood thinner."
c. "Lovenox will work right away, but Coumadin takes several days to have an effect on preventing clots." ANS: C Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is used because of the immediate effect on coagulation and discontinued once the international normalized ratio (INR) value indicates that the warfarin has reached a therapeutic level.
After receiving report, which patient admitted to the emergency department should the nurse assess first? a. 67-year-old who has a gangrenous left foot ulcer with a weak pedal pulse b. 58-year-old who is taking anticoagulants for atrial fibrillation and has black stools c. 50-year-old who is complaining of sudden "sharp" and "worst ever" upper back pain d. 39-year-old who has right calf tenderness, redness, and swelling after a long plane ride
c. 50-year-old who is complaining of sudden "sharp" and "worst ever" upper back pain. ANS: C The patient's presentation is consistent with dissecting thoracic aneurysm, which will require rapid intervention.
A patient is recovering from a myocardial infarction (MI) and develops chest pain on day 3 that increases when taking a deep breath and is relieved by leaning forward. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Assess the feet for pedal edema. b. Palpate the radial pulses bilaterally. c. Auscultate for a pericardial friction rub. d. Check the heart monitor for dysrhythmias.
c. Auscultate for a pericardial friction rub. ANS: C The patient's symptoms are consistent with the development of pericarditis, a possible complication of MI.
The nurse obtains the following data when assessing a patient who experienced an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) 2 days previously. Which information is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The troponin level is elevated. b. The patient denies ever having a heart attack. c. Bilateral crackles are auscultated in the mid-lower lobes. d. The patient has occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs).
c. Bilateral crackles are auscultated in the mid-lower lobes. ANS: C The crackles indicate that the patient may be developing heart failure, a possible complication of myocardial infarction (MI).
A patient who has chest pain is admitted to the emergency department (ED) and all of the following are ordered. Which one should the nurse arrange to be completed first? a. Chest x-ray b. Troponin level c. Electrocardiogram (ECG) d. Insertion of a peripheral IV
c. Electrocardiogram (ECG) ANS: C The priority for the patient is to determine whether an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is occurring so that reperfusion therapy can begin as quickly as possible. ECG changes occur very rapidly after coronary artery occlusion, and an ECG should be obtained as soon as possible.
A patient who is on the progressive care unit develops atrial flutter, rate 150, with associated dyspnea and chest pain. Which action that is included in the hospital dysrhythmia protocol should the nurse do first? a. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). b. Notify the health care provider of the change in rhythm. c. Give supplemental O2 at 2 to 3 L/min via nasal cannula. d. Assess the patient's vital signs including oxygen saturation.
c. Give supplemental O2 at 2 to 3 L/min via nasal cannula. ANS: C Because this patient has dyspnea and chest pain in association with the new rhythm, the nurse's initial actions should be to address the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) by starting with oxygen administration.
Following an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), a patient ambulates in the hospital hallway. When the nurse is evaluating the patient's response, which of these assessment data would indicate that the exercise level should be decreased? a. BP changes from 118/60 to 126/68 mm Hg. b. Oxygen saturation drops from 100% to 98%. c. Heart rate increases from 66 to 90 beats/minute. d. Respiratory rate goes from 14 to 22 breaths/minute.
c. Heart rate increases from 66 to 92 BPM ANS: C A change in heart rate of more than 20 beats over the resting heart rate indicates that the patient should stop and rest.
What is a priority in planning care for the child with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? a. Hospitalization at the first sign of bleeding b. Teaching the child relaxation techniques for pain control c. Management in the intensive care unit d. Provision of adequate hydration to prevent complications
c. Management in the intensive care unit. ANS: C The child with DIC is seriously ill and needs to be monitored in an intensive care unit. DIC typically develops in a child who is already hospitalized. Relaxation techniques and pain control are not high priorities for the child with DIC. Hydration is not the major concern for the child with DIC.
Which assessment finding for a patient who has been admitted with a right calf venous thromboembolism (VTE) requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Erythema of right lower leg b. Complaint of right calf pain c. New onset shortness of breath d. Temperature of 100.4° F (38° C)
c. New onset shortness of breath. ANS: C New onset dyspnea suggests a pulmonary embolus, which will require rapid actions such as oxygen administration and notification of the health care provider.
A patient who is complaining of a "racing" heart and feeling "anxious" comes to the emergency department. The nurse places the patient on a heart monitor and obtains the following electrocardiographic (ECG) tracing. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Prepare to perform electrical cardioversion. b. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. c. Obtain the patient's vital signs including oxygen saturation. d. Prepare to give a b-blocker medication to slow the heart rate.
c. Obtain the patient's vital signs including oxygen saturation. ANS: C The patient has sinus tachycardia, which may have multiple etiologies such as pain, dehydration, anxiety, and myocardial ischemia. Further assessment is needed before determining the treatment.
Which electrocardiographic (ECG) change is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider when caring for a patient with chest pain? a. Inverted P wave b. Sinus tachycardia c. ST-segment elevation d. First-degree atrioventricular block
c. ST-segment elevation. ANS: C The patient is likely to be experiencing an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Immediate therapy with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or thrombolytic medication is indicated to minimize myocardial damage.
A patient has recently started on digoxin (Lanoxin) in addition to furosemide (Lasix) and captopril (Capoten) for the management of heart failure. Which assessment finding by the home health nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. Presence of 1 to 2+ edema in the feet and ankles b. Palpable liver edge 2 cm below the ribs on the right side c. Serum potassium level 3.0 mEq/L after 1 week of therapy d. Weight increase from 120 pounds to 122 pounds over 3 days
c. Serum potassium level 3.0 mEq/L after 1 week of therapy. ANS: C Hypokalemia can predispose the patient to life-threatening dysrhythmias (e.g., premature ventricular contractions), and potentiate the actions of digoxin and increase the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can also cause life-threatening dysrhythmias.
A patient with ST-segment elevation in three contiguous electrocardiographic (ECG) leads is admitted to the emergency department (ED) and diagnosed as having an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Which question should the nurse ask to determine whether the patient is a candidate for thrombolytic therapy? a. Do you have any allergies? b. Do you take aspirin on a daily basis? c. What time did your chest pain begin? d. Can you rate your chest pain using a 0 to 10 scale?
c. What time did your chest pain begin. ANS: C Thrombolytic therapy should be started within 6 hours of the onset of the myocardial infarction (MI), so the time at which the chest pain started is a major determinant of the appropriateness of this treatment.
During the administration of the thrombolytic agent to a patient with an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse should stop the drug infusion if the patient experiences a. bleeding from the gums. b. increase in blood pressure. c. a decrease in level of consciousness. d. a nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia.
c. a decrease in level of consciousness. ANS: C The change in level of consciousness indicates that the patient may be experiencing intracranial bleeding, a possible complication of thrombolytic therapy.
The nurse working on the heart failure unit knows that teaching an older female patient with newly diagnosed heart failure is effective when the patient states that a. she will take furosemide (Lasix) every day at bedtime. b. the nitroglycerin patch is applied when any chest pain develops. c. she will call the clinic if her weight goes from 124 to 128 pounds in a week. d. an additional pillow can help her sleep if she is feeling short of breath at night.
c. she will call the clinic if her weight goes from 124 to 128 pounds in a week. ANS: C Teaching for a patient with heart failure includes information about the need to weigh daily and notify the health care provider about an increase of 3 pounds in 2 days or 3 to 5 pounds in a week.
A patient reports dizziness and shortness of breath for several days. During cardiac monitoring in the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following electrocardiographic (ECG) tracing. The nurse interprets this heart rhythm as a. junctional escape rhythm. b. accelerated idioventricular rhythm. c. third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block. d. sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions (PACs).
c. third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block. The inconsistency between the atrial and ventricular rates and the variable P-R interval indicate that the rhythm is third-degree AV block.
Which statement suggests that a parent understands how to correctly administer digoxin? a. "I measure the amount I am supposed to give with a teaspoon." b. "I put the medicine in the baby's bottle." c. "When she spits up right after I give the medicine, I give her another dose." d. "I give the medicine at 8 in the morning and evening every day."
d. "I give the medicine at 8 in the morning and evening every day." ANS D: For maximum effectiveness, the medication should be given at the same time every day.
After receiving change-of-shift report about the following four patients, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 39-year-old with pericarditis who is complaining of sharp, stabbing chest pain b. 56-year-old with variant angina who is to receive a dose of nifedipine (Procardia) c. 65-year-old who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 4 days ago and is anxious about the planned discharge d. 59-year-old with unstable angina who has just returned to the unit after having a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
d. 59-year-old with unstable angina who has just returned to the unit after having a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). ANS: D This patient is at risk for bleeding from the arterial access site for the PCI, so the nurse should assess the patient's blood pressure, pulse, and the access site immediately.
The nurse has received change-of-shift report about the following patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient should the nurse see first? a. A patient who is in a sinus rhythm, rate 98, after having electrical cardioversion 2 hours ago b. A patient with new onset atrial fibrillation, rate 88, who has a first dose of warfarin (Coumadin) due c. A patient with second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, type 1, rate 60, who is dizzy when ambulating d. A patient whose implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) fired two times today who has a dose of amiodarone (Cordarone) due
d. A patient whose implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) fired two times today who has a dose of amiodarone (Cordarone) due ANS: D The frequent firing of the ICD indicates that the patient's ventricles are very irritable, and the priority is to assess the patient and administer the amiodarone
A patient develops sinus bradycardia at a rate of 32 beats/minute, has a blood pressure (BP) of 80/42 mm Hg, and is complaining of feeling faint. Which actions should the nurse take next? a. Recheck the heart rhythm and BP in 5 minutes. b. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. c. Give the scheduled dose of diltiazem (Cardizem). d. Apply the transcutaneous pacemaker (TCP) pads.
d. Apply the transcutaenous pacemaker (TCP) pads. ANS: D The patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia, and treatment with TCP is appropriate.
A nurse is assigned to care for an infant with an unrepaired tetralogy of Fallot. What should the nurse do first when the baby is crying and becomes severely cyanotic? a. Place the infant in a knee-chest position. b. Administer oxygen. c. Administer morphine sulfate. d. Calm the infant.
d. Calm the infant. ANS: D Calming the crying infant is the first response. An infant with unrepaired tetralogy of Fallot who is crying and agitated may eventually lose consciousness
A patient who has had chest pain for several hours is admitted with a diagnosis of rule out acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to help determine whether the patient has had an AMI? a. Myoglobin b. Homocysteine c. C-reactive protein d. Cardiac-specific troponin
d. Cardiac-specific troponin ANS: D Troponin levels increase about 4 to 6 hours after the onset of myocardial infarction (MI) and are highly specific indicators for MI
A patient has just been diagnosed with hypertension and has been started on captopril (Capoten). Which information is important to include when teaching the patient about this medication? a. Check blood pressure (BP) in both arms before taking the medication. b. Increase fluid intake if dryness of the mouth is a problem. c. Include high-potassium foods such as bananas in the diet. d. Change position slowly to help prevent dizziness and falls.
d. Change position slowly to help prevent dizziness and falls. ANS: D The angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors frequently cause orthostatic hypotension, and patients should be taught to change position slowly to allow the vascular system time to compensate for the position change.
A 56-year-old patient who has no previous history of hypertension or other health problems suddenly develops a blood pressure (BP) of 198/110 mm Hg. After reconfirming the BP, it is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient that a. a BP recheck should be scheduled in a few weeks. b. dietary sodium and fat content should be decreased. c. there is an immediate danger of a stroke and hospitalization will be required. d. diagnosis of a possible cause, treatment, and ongoing monitoring will be needed.
d. Diagnosis of a possible cause, treatment, and ongoing monitoring will be needed. ANS: D A sudden increase in BP in a patient over age 50 with no previous hypertension history or risk factors indicates that the hypertension may be secondary to some other problem. The BP will need treatment and ongoing monitoring.
What is an expected assessment finding in a child with coarctation of the aorta? a. Orthostatic hypotension b. Systolic hypertension in the lower extremities c. Blood pressure higher on the left side of the body d. Disparity in blood pressure between the upper and lower extremities
d. Disparity in blood pressure between the upper and lower extremities. AND: D The classic finding in children with coarctation of the aorta is a disparity in pulses and blood pressures between the upper and lower extremities.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving IV furosemide (Lasix) and morphine for the treatment of acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) with severe orthopnea. Which clinical finding is the best indicator that the treatment has been effective? a. Weight loss of 2 pounds in 24 hours b. Hourly urine output greater than 60 mL c. Reduction in patient complaints of chest pain d. Reduced dyspnea with the head of bed at 30 degrees
d. Reduced dyspnea with the head of bed at 30 degrees ANS: D Because the patient's major clinical manifestation of ADHF is orthopnea (caused by the presence of fluid in the alveoli), the best indicator that the medications are effective is a decrease in dyspnea with the head of the bed at 30 degrees.
For what reason might a newborn infant with a cardiac defect, such as coarctation of the aorta, that results in a right-to-left shunt receive prostaglandin E1? a. To decrease inflammation b. To control pain c. To decrease respirations d. To improve oxygenation
d. To improve oxygenation. ANS: D Prostaglandin E1 is given to infants with a right-to-left shunt to keep the ductus arteriosus patent. This will improve oxygenation and increase pulmonary blood flow.
A patient at the clinic says, "I have always taken a walk after dinner, but lately my leg cramps and hurts after just a few minutes of starting. The pain goes away after I stop walking, though." The nurse should a. check for the presence of tortuous veins bilaterally on the legs. b. ask about any skin color changes that occur in response to cold. c. assess for unilateral swelling, redness, and tenderness of either leg. d. assess for the presence of the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses.
d. assess for the presence of the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses. ANS: D The nurse should assess for other clinical manifestations of peripheral arterial disease in a patient who describes intermittent claudication.
After noting a pulse deficit when assessing a 74-year-old patient who has just arrived in the emergency department, the nurse will anticipate that the patient may require a. emergent cardioversion. b. a cardiac catheterization. c. hourly blood pressure (BP) checks. d. electrocardiographic (ECG) monitoring.
d. electrocardiographic (ECG) monitoring. ANS: D Pulse deficit is a difference between simultaneously obtained apical and radial pulses. It indicates that there may be a cardiac dysrhythmia that would best be detected with ECG monitoring.
The nurse obtains a rhythm strip on a patient who has had a myocardial infarction and makes the following analysis: no visible P waves, P-R interval not measurable, ventricular rate 162, R-R interval regular, and QRS complex wide and distorted, QRS duration 0.18 second. The nurse interprets the patient's cardiac rhythm as a. atrial flutter. b. sinus tachycardia. c. ventricular fibrillation. d. ventricular tachycardia.
d. ventricular tachycardia. ANS: D The absence of P waves, wide QRS, rate >150 beats/minute, and the regularity of the rhythm indicate ventricular tachycardia.