NURS 2300 Midterm 1 oncology patients

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has a platelet count of 30,000/mm3. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

"I floss my teeth every morning." Explanation: A client with a platelet count of 30,000/mm3 is at risk for bleeding and shouldn't floss his teeth. Flossing may increase the risk of bleeding in a client with a platelet count less than 40,000/mm3. Using an electric razor is appropriate because doing so helps minimize the risk of cutting when shaving. Taking a stool softener helps decrease potential trauma to the GI tract that may cause bleeding. Removing throw rugs from the house helps prevent falls, which could lead to uncontrolled bleeding.

A client is recovering from a craniotomy with tumor debulking. Which comment by the client indicates to the nurse a correct understanding of what the surgery entailed?

"I guess the doctor could not remove the entire tumor." Explanation: Debulking is a reference made when a tumor cannot be completely removed, often due to its extension far into healthy tissue. Without complete removal, this is not a cure and, the cancer cells will continue to replicate and require adjuvant therapies to prevent further invasion. The physician, not the nurse, will need to clarify the details of the surgery.

The nurse is caring for a client is scheduled for chemotherapy followed by autologous stem cell transplant. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

"I hope they find a bone marrow donor who matches." Explanation: An autologous stem cell transplant comes from the client not from a donor. The doctor will remove the stem cells from the bone marrow before beginning chemotherapy and treat the client until most if not all the cancer is eliminated before reinfusing the stem cells. Clients are at risk for infection and will be closely monitored for at least 3 months, but not in protective isolation.

A client receiving chemotherapy has a nursing diagnosis of Deficient diversional activity related to decreased energy. Which client statement indicates an accurate understanding of appropriate ways to deal with this deficit?

"I'll play card games with my friends." Explanation: During chemotherapy, playing cards is an appropriate diversional activity because it doesn't require a great deal of energy. To conserve energy, the client should avoid such activities as taking long trips, bowling, and eating in restaurants every day. However, the client may take occasional short trips and dine out on special occasions.

Which statement by a client undergoing external radiation therapy indicates the need for further teaching?

"I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation." Explanation: The client undergoing external radiation therapy requires further teaching when he voices a concern that he might expose his family to radiation. Internal radiation, not external radiation, poses a risk to the client's family. The client requires no further teaching if he states that he should wash his skin with mild soap and water, wear protective clothing when outside, and avoid using a heating pad.

Normal Platelet count

150,000-400,000

Normal wbc count

5,000-10,000

A client with metastatic pancreatic cancer underwent surgery to remove a malignant tumor in the pancreas. Despite the tumor being removed, the physician informs the client that chemotherapy must be started. Why might the physician opt for chemotherapy?

A client with metastatic pancreatic cancer underwent surgery to remove a malignant tumor in the pancreas. Despite the tumor being removed, the physician informs the client that chemotherapy must be started. Why might the physician opt for chemotherapy?

The oncology nurse is giving chemotherapy to a client in a short stay area. The client confides that they are very depressed. The nurse recognizes depression as which of the following?

A normal reaction to the diagnosis of cancer. Explanation: Clients have many reactions, ranging from anxiety, fear, and depression to feelings of guilt related to viewing cancer as a punishment for past actions or failure to practice a healthy lifestyle. They also may express anger related to the diagnosis and their inability to be in control. While depression is understandable, it also needs to be acknowledged and treated if necessary. Depression is not a side effect of the neoplastic drugs nor is it an aberrant psychologic reaction to the chemotherapy.

Following surgery for adenocarcinoma, the client learns the tumor stage is T3,N1,M0. What treatment mode should the nurse anticipate?

Adjuvant therapy is likely. Explanation: T3 indicates a large tumor size, with N1 indicating regional lymph node involvement so treatment is needed. A T3 tumor must have its size reduced with adjuncts like chemotherapy and radiation. Although M0 suggest no metastasis, following with adjuvant (chemotherapy or radiation therapy) treatment is indicated to prevent the spread of cancer outside the lymph to other organs. The tumor stage IV wound be indicative of palliative care. A repeated biopsy is not needed until after treatment is completed.

A client is receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer. Which intervention should be part of this client's care plan?

Avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas Explanation: Because external radiation commonly causes skin irritation, the nurse should wash the irradiated area with water only and leave the area open to air. No soaps, deodorants, lotions, or powders should be applied. A lead apron is unnecessary because no radiation source is present in the client's body or room. Skin in the area to be irradiated is marked to position the radiation beam as precisely as possible; skin markings must not be removed.

Which oncologic emergency involves the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space?

Cardiac tamponade Explanation: Cardiac tamponade is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space. DIC is a complex disorder of coagulation and fibrinolysis that results in thrombosis and bleeding. SIADH is a result of the failure in the negative feedback mechanism that normally regulates the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Tumor lysis syndrome is a rapidly developing oncologic emergency that results from the rapid release of intracellular contents as a result of radiation- or chemotherapy-induced cell destruction of large or rapidly growing cancers such as leukemia.

A client diagnosed with cancer makes the following statement to the nurse: "I guess I will tell my health care provider to forego the chemotherapy. I do not want to be throwing up all the time. I would rather die." Which of the following facts supports the use of chemotherapy for this client?

Chemotherapy treatment can be adjusted to optimize effects while limiting adverse effects. Explanation: Chemotherapy is not one drug for all clients. The therapy can be specifically designed to optimize effects while limiting adverse effects with supplemental anti emetics to control the nausea and vomiting. It is true that nausea and vomiting are most prevalent in the first 24 hours after each chemotherapy treatment but does not eliminate the fears expressed by this client. No one can state the worth of any treatment, and a cure is never promised. Clinical trials open up new options for treatment, but the process is lengthy and is not a certainty for a client in need of immediate treatment.

Which primary cancer treatment goal is prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth?

Control Explanation: CURE: complete eradication of malignant disease , CONTROL: prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth PALLIATION: relief of symptoms associated with the disease . PREVENTION: not a treatment goal when the patient has already been diagnosed with cancer. Prevention of metastasis to a secondary site may be a goal.

The client is receiving a vesicant antineoplastic for treatment of cancer. Which assessment finding would require the nurse to take immediate action?

Extravasation (leakage into extravascular space) Explanation: The nurse needs to monitor IV administration of antineoplastics (especially vesicants) to prevent tissue necrosis to blood vessels, skin, muscles, and nerves. Stomatitis, nausea/vomiting, and bone pain can be symptoms of the disease process or treatment mode but does not require immediate action.

To prevent metastasis For a client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include which intervention in the care plan?

Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift Explanation: Because thrombocytopenia impairs blood clotting, the nurse should inspect the client regularly for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, purpura, epistaxis, and bleeding gums. The nurse should avoid administering aspirin because it may increase the risk of bleeding. Frequent rest periods are indicated for clients with anemia, not thrombocytopenia. Strict isolation is indicated only for clients who have highly contagious or virulent infections that are spread by air or physical contact.

What disadvantages of chemotherapy should the patient be informed about prior to starting the regimen?

It targets normal body cells as well as cancer cells. Explanation: Chemotherapy agents affect both normal and malignant cells; therefore, their effects are often widespread, affecting many body systems.

A nurse is caring for a client after a bone marrow transplant. What is the nurse's priority in caring for the client?

Monitor the client to prevent sepsis. Explanation: Until transplanted bone marrow begins to produce blood cells, clients who have undergone a bone marrow transplant have no physiologic means to fight infection, which puts them at high risk for dying from sepsis and bleeding before engraftment. Therefore, a nurse must closely monitor clients and take measures to prevent sepsis. Monitoring client's toilet patterns, physical condition, and heart rate does not prevent the possibility of the client becoming septic.

According to the tumor-node-metastasis (TNM) classification system, T0 means there is

No evidence of primary tumor Explanation: T0 means that there is no evidence of primary tumor. N0 means that there is no regional lymph node metastasis. M0 means that there is no distant metastasis. M1 means that there is distant metastasis.

alopecia areata

Patchy loss of hair occurring on the scalp or other parts of the body

The nurse at the clinic explains to the patient that the surgeon will be removing a mole on the patient's back that has the potential to develop into cancer. The nurse informs the patient that this is what type of procedure?

Prophylactic Explanation: Prophylactic surgery involves removing nonvital tissues or organs that are at increased risk of developing cancer. When surgical cure is not possible, the goals of surgical interventions are to relieve symptoms, make the patient as comfortable as possible, and promote quality of life as defined by the patient and family. Palliative surgery and other interventions are performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusions (Table 15-6). Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Diagnostic surgery, or biopsy, is performed to obtain a tissue sample for histologic analysis of cells suspected to be malignant.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which assessment finding places the client at the greatest risk for an infection?

Stage 3 pressure ulcer on the left heel Explanation: A stage 3 pressure ulcer is a break in the skin's protective barrier, which could lead to infection in a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The WBC count and temperature are within normal limits. Eating 75% of meals is normal and doesn't increase the client's risk for infection. A client who is malnourished is at a greater risk for infection.

Which of the following is the single largest preventable cause of cancer?

Tobacco Explanation: Tobacco remains the single largest preventable cause of disease and early death and accounts for at least 30% of all cancer deaths. The list of suspected carcinogens, such as pesticides, arsenic, and asbestos, continues to grow.

A nurse is performing a home visit for a client who received chemotherapy within the past 24 hours. The nurse observes a small child playing in the bathroom, where the toilet lid has been left up. Based on these observations, the nurse modifies the client's teaching plan to include:

chemotherapy exposure and risk factors. Explanation: The raised toilet lid exposes the child playing in the bathroom to the risk of inhaling or ingesting chemotherapy agents. The nurse should modify her teaching plan to include content related to chemotherapy exposure and its associated risk factors. Because the client has received chemotherapy, the plan should already include information about expected adverse effects, signs and symptoms of infection, and reinforcement of the medication regimen. Reference:

A client without symptoms receives a diagnosis of prostate cancer after a routine physical. What factors contributed to this diagnosis? Select all that apply.

client history risk factors tumor markers Explanation: The health care provider, using information obtained during the history and physical examination, selects tests that help to establish a diagnosis. Specific cancers alter the chemical composition of blood and other body fluids. Specialized tests have been developed for specific proteins, antigens, hormones, genes, or enzymes that cancer cells release. The use of sunscreen would be part of a skin cancer diagnosis.

A client with ovarian cancer is ordered hydroxyurea, an antimetabolite drug. Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic agents that interfere with various metabolic actions of the cell. What mechanism of action do antimetabolites interferes with

normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle Explanation: Antimetabolites act during the S phase of the cell cycle, contributing to cell destruction or preventing cell replication. They're most effective against rapidly proliferating cancers. Miotic inhibitors interfere with cell division or mitosis during the M phase of the cell cycle. Alkylating agents affect all rapidly proliferating cells by interfering with DNA; they may kill dividing cells in all phases of the cell cycle and may also kill nondividing cells. Antineoplastic antibiotic agents interfere with one or more stages of the synthesis of RNA, DNA, or both, preventing normal cell growth and reproduction.

thrombocyte

platelet

A nurse is caring for a client with prostate cancer and assesses bleeding gums and hematuria. What serum indicator should the nurse relate the bleeding?

platelet count of 60,000/mm3 Explanation: Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in the circulating platelet count, is the most common cause of bleeding in patients with cancer and is usually defined as a count less than 100,000/mm3. The risk of bleeding increases as the count drops lower. The risk of spontaneous bleeding occurs with a count of less than 20,000/mm3