Nursing 212- Exam 1- Peds Assessment

Which is an appropriate play activity for a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation? a. Playing peek-a-boo b. Playing pat-a-cake c. Imitating animal sounds d. Showing how to clap hands

A Because object permanence is a new achievement, peek-a-boo is an excellent activity to practice this new skill for visual stimulation. Pat-a-cake and showing how to clap hands will help with kinetic stimulation. Imitating animal sounds will help with auditory stimulation.

The nurse has just started assessing a young child who is febrile and appears very ill. There is hyperextension of the child's head (opisthotonos) with pain on flexion. Which is the most appropriate action? a. Refer for immediate medical evaluation. b. Continue assessment to determine cause of neck pain. c. Ask parent when neck was injured. d. Record "head lag" on assessment record, and continue assessment of child.

A Hyperextension of the child's head with pain on flexion is indicative of meningeal irritation and needs immediate evaluation; it is not descriptive of head lag. The pain is indicative of meningeal irritation. No indication of injury is present.

The nurse is using calipers to measure skinfold thickness over the triceps muscle in a school-age child. What is the purpose of doing this? a. To measure body fat b. To measure muscle mass c. To determine arm circumference d. To determine accuracy of weight measurement

A Measurement of skinfold thickness is an indicator of body fat. Arm circumference is an indirect measure of muscle mass. The accuracy of weight measurement should be verified with a properly balanced scale. Body fat is just one indicator of weight.

Nonpharmacologic strategies for pain management: a. may reduce pain perception. b. make pharmacologic strategies unnecessary. c. usually take too long to implement. d. trick children into believing they do not have pain.

A Nonpharmacologic techniques provide coping strategies that may help reduce pain perception, make the pain more tolerable, decrease anxiety, and enhance the effectiveness of analgesics. Nonpharmacologic techniques should be learned before the pain occurs. With severe pain, it is best to use both pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic measures for pain control. The nonpharmacologic strategy should be matched with the child's pain severity and taught to the child before the onset of the painful experience. Some of the techniques may facilitate the child's experience with mild pain, but the child will still know the discomfort was present.

A nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant. The nurse recognizes the posterior fontanel usually closes at which age? a. 6 to 8 weeks b. 10 to 12 weeks c. 4 to 6 months d. 8 to 10 months

A The bones surrounding the posterior fontanel fuse and close by age 6 to 8 weeks; 10 to 12 weeks, 4 to 6 months, and 8 to 10 months are too late. The posterior fontanel is usually closed by age 8 weeks.

Which would be the best play activity for a 6-month-old infant to provide tactile stimulation? a. Allow to splash in bath. b. Give various colored blocks. c. Play music box, tapes, or CDs. d. Use infant swing or stroller.

A The feel of the water while the infant is splashing will provide tactile stimulation. Various colored blocks would provide visual stimulation for a 4- to 6-month-old infant. Music box, tapes, and CDs provide auditory stimulation. Swings and strollers provide kinesthetic stimulation.

Which drug is usually the best choice for patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for a child in the immediate postoperative period? a. Codeine b. Morphine c. Methadone d. Meperidine

B The most commonly prescribed medications for PCA are morphine, hydromorphone, and fentanyl. Parenteral use of codeine is not recommended. Methadone is not available in parenteral form in the United States. Meperidine is not used for continuous and extended pain relief.

While caring for a critically ill child, the nurse observes that respirations are gradually increasing in rate and depth, with periods of apnea. What pattern of respiration will the nurse document? a. Dyspnea b. Tachypnea c. Cheyne-Stokes respirations d. Seesaw (paradoxic) respirations

C Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a pattern of respirations that gradually increase in rate and depth, with periods of apnea. Dyspnea is defined as distress during breathing. Tachypnea is an increased respiratory rate. In seesaw respirations, the chest falls on inspiration and rises on expiration.

Fentanyl and midazolam (Versed) are given before débridement of a child's burn wounds. Which is the rationale for administration of these medications? a. Promote healing b. Prevent infection c. Provide pain relief d. Limit amount of débridement that will be necessary

C Fentanyl and midazolam provide excellent intravenous sedation and analgesia to control procedural pain in children with burns. These drugs are for sedation and pain control, not healing, preventing infection, or limiting the amount of débridement.

Where is the best place to observe for the presence of petechiae in dark-skinned individuals? a. Face b. Buttocks c. Oral mucosa d. Palms and soles

C Petechiae, small distinct pinpoint hemorrhages, are difficult to see in dark skin unless they are in the mouth or conjunctiva.

The nurse is testing an infant's visual acuity. By what age should the infant be able to fix on and follow a target? a. 1 month b. 1 to 2 months c. 3 to 4 months d. 6 months

C Visual fixation and following a target should be present by ages 3 to 4 months. One to 2 months is too young for this developmental milestone. If the infant is not able to fix and follow by 6 months, further ophthalmologic evaluation is needed.

During a funduscopic examination of a school-age child, the nurse notes a brilliant, uniform red reflex in both eyes. How should the nurse interpret this finding? a. Normal finding b. Abnormal finding, so child needs referral to ophthalmologist c. Sign of possible visual defect, so child needs vision screening d. Sign of small hemorrhages, which will usually resolve spontaneously

A A brilliant, uniform red reflex is an important normal finding. It rules out many serious defects of the cornea, aqueous chamber, lens, and vitreous chamber.

A nurse is preparing to assess a 3-year-old child. What communication technique should the nurse use for this child? a. Focus communication on child. b. Explain experiences of others to child. c. Use easy analogies when possible. d. Assure child that communication is private.

A Because children of this age are able to see things only in terms of themselves, the best approach is to focus communication directly on them. Children should be provided with information about what they can do and how they will feel. With children who are egocentric, experiences of others, analogies, and assurances that the communication is private will not be effective because the child is not capable of understanding.

In terms of fine motor development, what should the infant of 7 months be able to do? a. Transfer objects from one hand to the other and bang cubes on a table. b. Use thumb and index finger in crude pincer grasp and release an object at will. c. Hold a crayon between the fingers and make a mark on paper. d. Release cubes into a cup and build a tower of two blocks.

A By age 7 months, infants can transfer objects from one hand to the other, crossing the midline, and bang objects on a hard surface. The crude pincer grasp is apparent at about age 9 months, and releasing an object at will is seen around 8 months. The child can scribble spontaneously at age 15 months. At age 12 months, the child can release cubes into a cup and build a small tower.

The nurse is guiding parents in selecting a daycare facility for their infant. Which is especially important to consider when making the selection? a. Health practices of facility b. Structured learning environment c. Socioeconomic status of children d. Cultural similarities of children

A Health practices should be most important. With the need for diaper changes and assistance with feeding, young children are at increased risk when hand washing and other hygienic measures are not adhered to. A structured learning environment is not suitable for this age child. The socioeconomic status of children should have little effect on the choice of facility. Cultural similarities of children may be important to the families, but the health care practices of the facility are more important.

A 3-month-old infant, born at 38 weeks of gestation, will hold a rattle if it is put in her hands, but she will not voluntarily grasp it. How should the nurse interpret this action? a. Normal development b. Significant developmental lag c. Slightly delayed development due to prematurity d. Suggestive of a neurologic disorder such as cerebral palsy

A Holding a rattle but not voluntarily grasping it is indicative of normal development. Reflexive grasping occurs during the first 2 to 3 months and then gradually becomes voluntary. The infant is expected to be able to perform this task by age 3 months. If the child's age is corrected because of being 2 weeks preterm, the child is at the midpoint of the range for this developmental task and the behavior is age appropriate. No evidence of neurologic dysfunction is present.

A 4-month-old was born at 35 weeks of gestation. She seems to be developing normally, but her parents are concerned because she is a "more difficult" baby than their other child, who was term. What should the nurse's explanation include? a. Infants' temperaments are part of their unique characteristics. b. Infants become less difficult if they are not kept on scheduled feedings and structured routines. c. The infant's behavior is suggestive of failure to bond completely with her parents. d. The infant's difficult temperament is the result of painful experiences in the neonatal period.

A Infant temperament has a strong biologic component. Together with interactions with the environment, primarily the family, the biologic component contributes to the infant's unique temperament. Children perceived as difficult may respond better to scheduled feedings and structured caregiving routines than to demand feedings and frequent changes in routines. The infant's temperament has been created by both biologic and environmental factors. The nurse should provide guidance in parenting techniques that are best suited to the infant's temperament.

Which approach would be best to use to ensure a positive response from a toddler? a. Assume an eye-level position and talk quietly. b. Call the toddler's name while picking him or her up. c. Call the toddler's name and say, "I'm your nurse." d. Stand by the toddler, addressing him or her by name.

A It is important that the nurse assume a position at the child's level when communicating with the child. By speaking quietly and focusing on the child, the nurse should be able to obtain a positive response. The nurse should engage the child and inform the toddler what is going to occur. If the nurse picks up the child without explanation, the child is most likely going to become upset. The toddler may not understand the meaning of the phrase, "I'm your nurse." If a positive response is desired, the nurse should assume the child's level when speaking if possible.

The nurse must assess a 10-month-old infant. The infant is sitting on the father's lap and appears to be afraid of the nurse and of what might happen next. Which initial action by the nurse would be most appropriate? a. Initiate a game of peek-a-boo. b. Ask father to place the infant on the examination table. c. Undress the infant while he is still sitting on his father's lap. d. Talk softly to the infant while taking him from his father.

A Peek-a-boo is an excellent means of initiating communication with infants while maintaining a safe, nonthreatening distance. The child will most likely become upset if separated from his father. As much of the assessment as possible should be done on the father's lap. The nurse should have the father undress the child as needed for the examination.

The nurse has determined the rate of both the child's radial pulse and heart. What is the normal finding when comparing the two rates? a. Are the same b. Differ, with heart rate faster c. Differ, with radial pulse faster d. Differ, depending on quality and intensity

A Pulses are the fluid wave through the blood vessel as a result of each heartbeat. Therefore, they should be the same.

Which information could be given to the parents of a 12-month-old child regarding appropriate play activities? a. Give large push-pull toys for kinetic stimulation. b. Place cradle gym across crib to facilitate fine motor skills. c. Provide child with finger paints to enhance fine motor skills. d. Provide stick horse to develop gross motor coordination.

A The 12-month-old child is able to pull to standing and walk holding on or independently. Appropriate toys for a child this age include large pull toys for kinesthetic stimulation. A cradle gym should not be placed across the crib. Finger paints are appropriate for older children. A 12-month-old child does not have the stability to use a stick horse.

Which would be best for the nurse to use when determining the temperature of a preterm infant under a radiant heater? a. Axillary sensor b. Tympanic membrane sensor c. Rectal mercury glass thermometer d. Rectal electronic thermometer

A The axillary sensor measures the infrared heat energy radiating from the axilla. It can be used on wet skin, in incubators, or under radiant warmers. Ear thermometry does not show sufficient correlation with established methods of measurement. It should not be used when body temperature must be assessed with precision. Mercury thermometers should never be used. The release of mercury, should the thermometer be broken, can cause harmful vapors. Rectal temperatures should be avoided unless no other suitable way exists for the temperature to be measured.

The nurse is seeing an adolescent boy and his parents in the clinic for the first time. What should the nurse do first? a. Introduce self. b. Make family comfortable. c. Explain purpose of interview. d. Give assurance of privacy.

A The first thing that nurses should do is to introduce themselves to the patient and family. Parents and other adults should be addressed with appropriate titles unless they specify a preferred name. During the initial part of the interview, the nurse should include general conversation to help make the family feel at ease. Clarification of the purpose of the interview and the nurse's role is the next thing that should be done. The interview should take place in an environment as free of distraction as possible. In addition, the nurse should clarify which information will be shared with other members of the health care team and any limits to the confidentiality.

The nurse notices that a 10-month-old infant being seen in the clinic is wearing expensive, inflexible, high-top shoes. The nurse should explain that: a. soft and flexible shoes are generally better. b. high-top shoes are necessary for support. c. inflexible shoes are necessary to prevent in-toeing and out-toeing. d. this type of shoe will encourage the infant to walk sooner.

A The main purpose of the shoe is protection. Soft, well-constructed, athletic-type shoes are best for infants and children. High-top shoes are not necessary for support but may help to keep the child's foot in the shoe. Inflexible shoes can delay walking and can aggravate in-toeing and out-toeing and impede development of the supportive foot muscles.

The nurse is caring for a child receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for severe postoperative pain. The nurse observes a slower respiratory rate, and the child cannot be aroused. What is the priority nursing action? a. Administer naloxone (Narcan) b. Discontinue IV infusion c. Discontinue morphine until child is fully awake d. Stimulate child by calling name, shaking gently, and asking to breathe deeply

A The management of opioid-induced respiratory depression includes lowering the rate of infusion and stimulating the child. If the respiratory rate is depressed and the child cannot be aroused, then IV naloxone should be administered. The child will be in pain because of the reversal of the morphine. The morphine should be discontinued, but naloxone is indicated if the child is unresponsive. The child is unresponsive, therefore naloxone is indicated.

The nurse is preparing to perform a physical assessment on a 10-year-old girl. The nurse gives her the option of her mother either staying in the room or leaving. How should this action be interpreted? a. Appropriate because of child's age b. Appropriate because mother would be uncomfortable making decisions for child c. Inappropriate because of child's age d. Inappropriate because child is same sex as mother

A The older school-age child should be given the option of having the parent present or not. During the examination, the nurse should respect the child's need for privacy. Although the question was appropriate for the child's age, the mother is responsible for making decisions for the child. It is appropriate because of the child's age. During the examination, the nurse must respect the child's privacy. The child should help determine who is present during the examination.

The nurse is interviewing the mother of an infant. She reports, "I had a difficult delivery, and my baby was born preterm." This information should be recorded under which of the following headings? a. Past history b. Present illness c. Chief complaint d. Review of systems

A The past history refers to information that relates to previous aspects of the child's health, not to the current problem. The mother's difficult delivery and prematurity are important parts of the past history of an infant. The history of the present illness is a narrative of the chief complaint from its earliest onset through its progression to the present. Unless the chief complaint is directly related to the prematurity, this information is not included in the history of present illness. The chief complaint is the specific reason for the child's visit to the clinic, office, or hospital. It would not include the birth information. The review of systems is a specific review of each body system. It does not include the preterm birth. Sequelae such as pulmonary dysfunction would be included.

The nurse has a 2-year-old boy sit in "tailor" position during palpation for the testes. What is the rationale for this position? a. It prevents cremasteric reflex. b. Undescended testes can be palpated. c. This tests the child for an inguinal hernia. d. The child does not yet have a need for privacy.

A The tailor position stretches the muscle responsible for the cremasteric reflex. This prevents its contraction, which pulls the testes into the pelvic cavity. Undescended testes cannot be predictably palpated. Inguinal hernias are not detected by this method. This position is used for inhibiting the cremasteric reflex. Privacy should always be provided for children.

The nurse is doing a routine assessment on a 14-month-old infant and notes that the anterior fontanel is closed. How should the nurse interpret this finding? a. Normal finding b. Finding requiring a referral c. Abnormal finding d. Normal finding, but requires rechecking in 1 month

A This is a normal finding. The anterior fontanel closes between ages 12 and 18 months. No further intervention is required.

What type of breath sound is normally heard over the entire surface of the lungs except for the upper intrascapular area and the area beneath the manubrium? a. Vesicular b. Bronchial c. Adventitious d. Bronchovesicular

A Vesicular breath sounds are heard over the entire surface of lungs, with the exception of the upper intrascapular area and the area beneath the manubrium. Bronchial breath sounds are heard only over the trachea near the suprasternal notch. Adventitious breath sounds are not usually heard over the chest. These sounds occur in addition to normal or abnormal breath sounds. Bronchovesicular breath sounds are heard over the manubrium and in the upper intrascapular regions where trachea and bronchi bifurcate.

A nurse is performing an otoscopic exam on a school-age child. Which direction should the nurse pull the pinna for this age of child? a. Up and back b. Down and back c. Straight back d. Straight up

A With older children, usually those older than 3 years of age, the canal curves downward and forward. Therefore, pull the pinna up and back during otoscopic examinations. In infants, the canal curves upward. Therefore, pull the pinna down and back to straighten the canal. Pulling the pinna straight back or straight up will not open the inner ear canal.

A nurse is performing an assessment on a school-age child. Which findings suggest the child is getting an excess of vitamin A? (Select all that apply.) a. Delayed sexual development b. Edema c. Pruritus d. Jaundice e. Paresthesia

A,C,D

Which dietary recommendations should a nurse make to an adolescent patient to manage constipation related to opioid analgesic administration? (Select all that apply.) a. Bran cereal b. Decrease fluid intake c. Prune juice d. Cheese e. Vegetables

A,C,E To manage the side effect of constipation caused by opioids, fluids should be increased, and bran cereal and vegetables are recommended to increase fiber. Prune juice can act as a nonpharmacologic laxative. Fluids should be increased, not decreased, and cheese can cause constipation so it should not be recommended.

Which of the following data would be included in a health history? (Select all that apply.) a. Review of systems b. Physical assessment c. Sexual history d. Growth measurements e. Nutritional assessment f. Family medical history

A,C,E,F

A nurse is planning to use an interpreter during a health history interview of a non-English speaking patient and family. Which nursing care guidelines should the nurse include when using an interpreter? (Select all that apply.) a. Elicit one answer at a time. b. Interrupt the interpreter if the response from the family is lengthy. c. Comments to the interpreter about the family should be made in English. d. Arrange for the family to speak with the same interpreter, if possible. e. Introduce the interpreter to the family.

A,D,E

When the nurse interviews an adolescent, which is especially important? a. Focus the discussion on the peer group. b. Allow an opportunity to express feelings. c. Emphasize that confidentiality will always be maintained. d. Use the same type of language as the adolescent.

B Adolescents, like all children, need an opportunity to express their feelings. Often they will interject feelings into their words. The nurse must be alert to the words and feelings expressed. Although the peer group is important to this age group, the focus of the interview should be on the adolescent. The nurse should clarify which information will be shared with other members of the health care team and any limits to confidentiality. The nurse should maintain a professional relationship with adolescents. To avoid misinterpretation of words and phrases that the adolescent may use, the nurse should clarify terms frequently.

The nurse is taking a sexual history on an adolescent girl. Which is the best way to determine whether she is sexually active? a. Ask her, "Are you sexually active?" b. Ask her, "Are you having sex with anyone?" c. Ask her, "Are you having sex with a boyfriend?" d. Ask both the girl and her parent whether she is sexually active.

B Asking the adolescent girl whether she is having sex with anyone is a direct question that is well understood. The phrase sexually active is broadly defined and may not provide specific information to the nurse to provide necessary care. The word anyone is preferred to using gender-specific terms such as boyfriend or girlfriend. Because homosexual experimentation may occur, it is preferable to use gender-neutral terms. Questioning about sexual activity should occur when the adolescent is alone.

At what age should the nurse expect an infant to begin smiling in response to pleasurable stimuli? a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 4 months

B At age 2 months, the infant has a social, responsive smile. A reflex smile is usually present at age 1 month. The 3-month-old can recognize familiar faces. At age 4 months, the infant can enjoy social interactions.

Parents of a newborn are concerned because the infant's eyes often "look crossed" when the infant is looking at an object. The nurse's response is that this is normal based on the knowledge that binocularity is normally present by what age? a. 1 month b. 3 to 4 months c. 6 to 8 months d. 12 months

B Binocularity is usually achieved by ages 3 to 4 months. 1 month is too young. If binocularity is not achieved by ages 6 to 12 months, the child must be observed for strabismus.

The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old healthy infant who weighed 7 pounds at birth. The nurse should expect the infant to now weigh approximately how many pounds? a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25

B Birth weight doubles at about age 5 to 6 months. At 6 months, a child who weighed 7 pounds at birth would weigh approximately 15 pounds; 10 pounds is too little. The infant would have gone from the 50th percentile at birth to below the 5th percentile; 20 to 25 pounds is too much. The infant would have tripled the birth weight at 6 months.

Which tool measures body fat most accurately? a. Stadiometer b. Calipers c. Cloth tape measure d. Paper or metal tape measure

B Calipers are used to measure skinfold thickness, which is an indicator of body fat content. Stadiometers are used to measure height. Cloth tape measures should not be used because they can stretch. Paper or metal tape measures can be used for recumbent lengths and other body measurements that must be made.

The nurse is discussing development and play activities with the parent of a 2-month-old. Recommendations should include giving a first rattle at about which age? a. 2 months b. 4 months c. 7 months d. 9 months

B It is recommended that a brightly colored toy or rattle be given to the child at age 4 months. Grasping has begun as a deliberate act, and the infant grasps, holds, and begins shaking to hear a noise; 2 months is too young. The infant still has primarily reflex grips; 7 to 9 months is too old for the first rattle. The child should be given toys that provide for further exploration.

Which information should the nurse give a mother regarding the introduction of solid foods during infancy? a. Solid foods should not be introduced until 8 to 10 months, when the extrusion reflex begins to disappear. b. Foods should be introduced one at a time, at intervals of 4 to 7 days. c. Solid foods can be mixed in a bottle to make the transition easier for the infant. d. Fruits and vegetables should be introduced into the diet first.

B One food item is introduced at intervals of 4 to 7 days to allow the identification of food allergies. Solid foods can be introduced earlier than 8 to 10 months. The extrusion reflex usually disappears by age 6 months. Mixing solid foods in a bottle has no effect on the transition to solid food. Iron-fortified cereal should be the first solid food introduced into the infant's diet.

What is the best age for solid food to be introduced into the infant's diet? a. 2 to 3 months b. 4 to 6 months c. When birth weight has tripled d. When tooth eruption has started

B Physiologically and developmentally, the 4- to 6-month-old infant is in a transition period. The extrusion reflex has disappeared, and swallowing is a more coordinated process. In addition, the gastrointestinal tract has matured sufficiently to handle more complex nutrients and is less sensitive to potentially allergenic food. Infants of this age will try to help during feeding; 2 to 3 months is too young. The extrusion reflex is strong, and the child will push food out with the tongue. Infant birth weight triples at 1 year. Solid foods can be started earlier. Tooth eruption can facilitate biting and chewing; most infant foods do not require this ability.

What is the earliest age at which a satisfactory radial pulse can be taken in children? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 6 years

B Satisfactory radial pulses can be used in children older than 2 years. In infants and young children, the apical pulse is more reliable. The apical pulse can be used for assessment at these ages.

Where is the appropriate placement of a tongue blade for assessment of the mouth and throat? a. Center back area of tongue b. Side of the tongue c. Against the soft palate d. On the lower jaw

B Side of the tongue is the correct position. It avoids the gag reflex yet allows visualization. Placement in the center back area of the tongue will elicit the gag reflex. Against the soft palate and on the lower jaw are not appropriate places for the tongue blade.

A parent asks the nurse "when will my infant start to teethe?" The nurse responds that the earliest age at which an infant begins teething with eruption of lower central incisors is _____ months. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12

B Teething usually begins at age 6 months with the eruption of the lower central incisors; 4 months is too early for teething. By age 8 months, the infant has the upper and lower central incisors. At age 12 months, the infant has six to eight deciduous teeth.

The nurse is taking a health history on an adolescent. Which best describes how the chief complaint should be determined? a. Ask for detailed listing of symptoms. b. Ask adolescent, "Why did you come here today?" c. Use what adolescent says to determine, in correct medical terminology, what the problem is. d. Interview parent away from adolescent to determine chief complaint.

B The chief complaint is the specific reason for the child's visit to the clinic, office, or hospital. Because the adolescent is the focus of the history, this is an appropriate way to determine the chief complaint. A detailed listing of symptoms will make it difficult to determine the chief complaint. The adolescent should be prompted to tell which symptom caused him to seek help at this time. The chief complaint is usually written in the words that the parent or adolescent uses to describe the reason for seeking help. The parent and adolescent may be interviewed separately, but the nurse should determine the reason the adolescent is seeking attention at this time.

A 5-year-old girl is having a checkup before starting kindergarten. The nurse asks her to do the "finger-to-nose" test. What is the nurse testing for? a. Deep tendon reflexes b. Cerebellar function c. Sensory discrimination d. Ability to follow directions

B The finger-to-nose test is an indication of cerebellar function. This test checks balance and coordination. Each deep tendon reflex is tested separately. Each sense is tested separately. Although this test enables the nurse to evaluate the child's ability to follow directions, it is used primarily for cerebellar function.

Which is most important to document about immunizations in the child's health history? a. Dosage of immunizations received b. Occurrence of any reaction after an immunization c. The exact date the immunizations were received d. Practitioner who administered the immunizations

B The occurrence of any reaction after an immunization was given is the most important to document in a history because of possible future reactions, especially allergic reactions. Exact dosage of the immunization received may not be recorded on the immunization record. Exact dates are important to obtain but not as important as a history of reaction to an immunization. The practitioner who administered the immunization does not need to be recorded in the health history. A potentially severe physiologic response is the most threatening and most important information to document for safety reasons.

What is an important consideration for the nurse who is communicating with a very young child? a. Speak loudly, clearly, and directly. b. Use transition objects, such as a doll. c. Disguise own feelings, attitudes, and anxiety. d. Initiate contact with child when parent is not present.

B Using a transition object allows the young child an opportunity to evaluate an unfamiliar person (the nurse). This will facilitate communication with a child this age. Speaking in this manner will tend to increase anxiety in very young children. The nurse must be honest with the child. Attempts at deception will lead to a lack of trust. Whenever possible, the parent should be present for interactions with young children.

Which communication technique should the nurse avoid when interviewing children and their families? a. Using silence b. Using clichés c. Directing the focus d. Defining the problem

B Using stereotyped comments or clichés can block effective communication, and this technique should be avoided. After use of such trite phrases, parents will often not respond. Silence can be an effective interviewing tool. Silence permits the interviewee to sort out thoughts and feelings and search for responses to questions. To be effective, the nurse must be able to direct the focus of the interview while allowing maximal freedom of expression. By using open-ended questions, along with guiding questions, the nurse can obtain the necessary information and maintain the relationship with the family. The nurse and parent must collaborate and define the problem that will be the focus of the nursing intervention.

The nurse must check vital signs on a 2-year-old boy who is brought to the clinic for his 24-month checkup. What criteria should the nurse use in determining the appropriate-size blood pressure cuff? (Select all that apply.) a. The cuff is labeled "toddler." b. The cuff bladder width is approximately 40% of the circumference of the upper arm. c. The cuff bladder length covers 80% to 100% of the circumference of the upper arm. d. The cuff bladder covers 50% to 66% of the length of the upper arm.

B,C

Surgery has informed a nurse that the patient returning to the floor after spinal surgery has an opioid epidural catheter for pain management. The nurse should prepare to monitor the patient for which side effects of an opioid epidural catheter? (Select all that apply.) a. Urinary frequency b. Nausea c. Itching d. Respiratory depression

B,C,D Respiratory depression, nausea, itching, and urinary retention are dose-related side effects from an epidural opioid. Urinary retention, not urinary frequency, would be seen.

A nurse recognizes which physiologic responses as a manifestation of pain in a neonate? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased respirations b. Diaphoresis c. Decreased SaO2 d. Decreased blood pressure e. Increased heart rate

B,C,E The physiologic responses that indicate pain in neonates are increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, rapid, shallow respirations, decreased arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2), pallor or flushing, diaphoresis, and palmar sweating.

A nurse is monitoring a patient for side effects associated with opioid analgesics. Which side effects should the nurse expect to monitor for? (Select all that apply.) a. Diarrhea b. Respiratory depression c. Hypertension d. Pruritus e. Sweating

B,D,E Side effects of opioids include respiratory depression, pruritus, and sweating. Constipation may occur, not diarrhea, and orthostatic hypotension may occur but not hypertension.

A nurse is assessing a patient admitted for an asthma exacerbation. Which breath sounds does the nurse expect to assess? a. Rubs b. Rattles c. Wheezes d. Crackles

C

An 8-year-old girl asks the nurse how the blood pressure apparatus works. What is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Ask her why she wants to know. b. Determine why she is so anxious. c. Explain in simple terms how it works. d. Tell her she will see how it works as it is used.

C

A parent asks the nurse "at what age do most infants begin to fear strangers?" The nurse should give which response? a. 2 months b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 12 months

C Between ages 6 and 8 months, fear of strangers and stranger anxiety become prominent and are related to the infant's ability to discriminate between familiar and unfamiliar people. At 2 months, infants are just beginning to respond differentially to the mother. At age 4 months, the infant is beginning the process of separation-individuation when the infant begins to recognize self and mother as separate beings. Twelve months is too late and requires referral for evaluation if the child does not fear strangers at this age.

A nurse is counseling parents of a child beginning to show signs of being overweight. The nurse accurately relates which body mass index (BMI)-for-age percentile indicates a risk for being overweight? a. 10th percentile b. 9th percentile c. 85th percentile d. 95th percentile

C Children who have BMI-for-age greater than or equal to the 85th percentile and less than the 95th percentile are at risk for being overweight. Children in the 9th and 10th percentiles are within normal limits. Children who are greater than or equal to the 95th percentile are considered overweight.

Which is most likely to encourage parents to talk about their feelings related to their child's illness? a. Be sympathetic. b. Use direct questions. c. Use open-ended questions. d. Avoid periods of silence.

C Closed-ended questions should be avoided when attempting to elicit parents' feelings. Open-ended questions require the parent to respond with more than a brief answer. Sympathy is having feelings or emotions in common with another person rather than understanding those feelings (empathy). Sympathy is not therapeutic in helping the relationship. Direct questions may obtain limited information. In addition, the parent may consider them threatening. Silence can be an effective interviewing tool. It allows sharing of feelings in which two or more people absorb the emotion in depth. Silence permits the interviewee to sort out thoughts and feelings and search for responses to questions.

What is an appropriate screening test for hearing that can be administered by the nurse to a 5-year-old child? a. The Rinne test b. The Weber test c. Conventional audiometry d. Eliciting the startle reflex

C Conventional audiometry is a behavioral test that measures auditory thresholds in response to speech and frequency-specific stimuli presented through earphones. The Rinne and Weber tests measure bone conduction of sound. Eliciting the startle reflex may be useful in infants.

A nurse is conducting a teaching session for parents of infants. The nurse explains that which behavior indicates that an infant has developed object permanence? a. Recognizes familiar face, such as mother b. Recognizes familiar object, such as bottle c. Actively searches for a hidden object d. Secures objects by pulling on a string

C During the first 6 months of life, infants believe that objects exist only as long as they can see them. When infants search for an object that is out of sight, this signals the attainment of object permanence, whereby an infant knows an object exists even when it is not visible. Between ages 8 and 12 weeks, infants begin to respond differentially to the mother. They cry, smile, vocalize, and show distinct preference for the mother. This preference is one of the stages that influences the attachment process but is too early for object permanence. Recognizing familiar objects is an important transition for the infant, but it does not signal object permanence. The ability to understand cause and effect is part of secondary schemata development.

A lumbar puncture is needed on a school-age child. What should the nurse apply to provide the most appropriate analgesia during this procedure? a. TAC (tetracaine-adrenaline-cocaine) 15 minutes b. Transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately c. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics) 1 hour d. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics) 30 minutes

C EMLA is an effective analgesic agent when applied to the skin 60 minutes before a procedure. It eliminates or reduces the pain from most procedures involving skin puncture. TAC provides skin anesthesia about 15 minutes after application to nonintact skin. The gel can be placed on the wound for suturing. Transdermal fentanyl patches are useful for continuous pain control, not rapid pain control. For maximal effectiveness, EMLA must be applied approximately 60 minutes in advance.

A mother tells the nurse that she is discontinuing breastfeeding her 5-month-old infant. What should the nurse recommend the infant be given? a. Skim milk b. Whole cow's milk c. Commercial iron-fortified formula d. Commercial formula without iron

C For children younger than 1 year, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the use of breast milk. If breastfeeding has been discontinued, then iron-fortified commercial formula should be used. Cow's milk should not be used in children younger than 12 months. Maternal iron stores are almost depleted by this age; the iron-fortified formula will help prevent the development of iron-deficiency anemia.

A nurse is assessing a 12-month-old infant. Which statement best describes the infant's physical development a nurse should expect to find? a. Anterior fontanel closes by age 6 to 10 months. b. Binocularity is well established by age 8 months. c. Birth weight doubles by age 5 months and triples by age 1 year. d. Maternal iron stores persist during the first 12 months of life.

C Growth is very rapid during the first year of life. The birth weight has approximately doubled by age 5 to 6 months and triples by age 1 year. The anterior fontanel closes at age 12 to 18 months. Binocularity is not established until age 15 months. Maternal iron stores are usually depleted by age 6 months.

A nurse notes that a 10-month-old infant has a larger head circumference than chest. The nurse interprets this as a normal finding because the head and chest circumference become equal at which age? a. 1 month b. 6 to 9 months c. 1 to 2 years d. to 3 years

C Head circumference begins larger than chest circumference. Between ages 1 and 2 years, they become approximately equal. Head circumference is larger than chest circumference before age 1. Chest circumference is larger than head circumference at to 3 years.

According to Piaget, the 6-month-old infant should be in which developmental stage? a. Use of reflexes b. Primary circular reactions c. Secondary circular reactions d. Coordination of secondary schemata

C Infants are usually in the secondary circular reaction stage from ages 4 to 8 months. This stage is characterized by a continuation of the primary circular reaction for the response that results. Shaking is performed to hear the noise of the rattle, not just for shaking. The use of reflexes is primarily during the first month of life. Primary circular reaction stage marks the replacement of reflexes with voluntary acts. The infant is in this stage from ages 1 to 4 months. The fourth sensorimotor stage is coordination of secondary schemata. This is a transitional stage in which increasing motor skills enable greater exploration of the environment.

When interviewing the mother of a 3-year-old child, the nurse asks about developmental milestones such as the age of walking without assistance. How should this question be considered? a. Unnecessary information because child is age 3 years b. An important part of the family history c. An important part of the child's past history d. An important part of the child's review of systems

C Information about the attainment of developmental milestones is important to obtain. It provides data about the child's growth and development that should be included in the past history. Developmental milestones provide important information about the child's physical, social, and neurologic health and should be included in the history for a 3-year-old child. If pertinent, attainment of milestones by siblings would be included in the family history. The review of systems does not include the developmental milestones.

The nurse observes yellow staining in the sclera of eyes, soles of feet, and palms of hands. How should the nurse document these findings? a. Normal b. Erythema c. Jaundice d. Ecchymosis

C Jaundice is defined as the yellow staining of the skin, usually by bile pigments. Yellow staining is not a normal appearance of the skin. Erythema is redness that results from increased blood flow to the area. Ecchymosis is large, diffuse areas, usually black and blue, caused by hemorrhage of blood into the skin.

By which age should the nurse expect an infant to be able to pull to a standing position? a. 6 months b. 8 months c. 11 to 12 months d. 14 to 15 months

C Most infants can pull themselves to a standing position at age 9 months. Infants who are not able to pull themselves to standing by age 11 to 12 months should be further evaluated for developmental dysplasia of the hip. At 6 months, infants have just obtained coordination of arms and legs. By age 8 months, infants can bear full weight on their legs. Any infant who cannot pull to a standing position by age 1 year should be referred for further evaluation.

A nurse is assessing a child with an unrepaired ventricular septal defect. Which heart sound does the nurse expect to assess? a. S3 b. S4 c. Murmur d. Physiologic splitting

C Murmurs are the sounds that are produced in the heart chambers or major arteries from the back-and-forth flow of blood. These are the sounds expected to be heard in a child with a ventricular septal defect because of the abnormal opening between the ventricles. S3 is a normal heart sound sometimes heard in children. S4 is rarely heard as a normal heart sound. If heard, medical evaluation is required. Physiologic splitting is the distinction of the two sounds in S2, which widens on inspiration. It is a significant normal finding.

A nurse is gathering a history on a school-age child admitted for a migraine headache. The child states, "I have been getting a migraine every 2 or 3 months for the last year." The nurse documents this as which type of pain? a. Acute b. Chronic c. Recurrent d. Subacute

C Pain that is episodic and reoccurs is defined as recurrent pain. The time frame within which episodes of pain recur is at least 3 months. Recurrent pain in children includes migraine headache, episodic sickle cell pain, recurrent abdominal pain (RAP), and recurrent limb pain. Acute pain is pain that lasts for less than 3 months. Chronic pain is pain that lasts, on a daily basis, for more than 3 months. Subacute is not a term for documenting type of pain.

A nurse is preparing to perform a physical assessment on a toddler. Which approach should the nurse use for this child? a. Always proceed in a head-to-toe direction. b. Perform traumatic procedures first. c. Use minimal physical contact initially. d. Demonstrate use of equipment.

C Parents can remove clothing, and the child can remain on the parent's lap. The nurse should use minimal physical contact initially to gain the child's cooperation. The head-to-toe assessment can be done in older children but usually must be adapted in younger children. Traumatic procedures should always be performed last. These will most likely upset the child and inhibit cooperation. The nurse should introduce the equipment slowly. The child can inspect the equipment, but demonstrations are usually too complex for toddlers.

A nurse is assigned to four children of different ages. In which age group should the nurse understand that body integrity is a concern? a. Toddler b. Preschooler c. School-age child d. Adolescent

C School-age children have a heightened concern about body integrity. They place importance and value on their bodies and are oversensitive to anything that constitutes a threat or suggestion of injury. Body integrity is not as important a concern to toddlers, preschoolers, or adolescents.

During a routine health assessment, the nurse notes that an 8-month-old infant has significant head lag. Which is the nurse's most appropriate action? a. Teach parents appropriate exercises. b. Recheck head control at next visit. c. Refer child for further evaluation. d. Refer child for further evaluation if anterior fontanel is still open.

C Significant head lag after age 6 months strongly indicates cerebral injury and is referred for further evaluation. Reduction of head lag is part of normal development. Exercises will not be effective. The lack of achievement of this developmental milestone must be evaluated.

At what age can most infants sit steadily unsupported? a. 4 months b. 6 months c. 8 months d. 10 months

C Sitting erect without support is a developmental milestone usually achieved by 8 months. At age 4 months, an infant can sit with support. At age 6 months, the infant will maintain a sitting position if propped. By 10 months, the infant can maneuver from a prone to a sitting position.

The nurse should teach parents that which age is safe to give infants whole milk instead of commercial infant formula? a. 6 months b. 9 months c. 12 months d. 18 months

C The American Academy of Pediatrics does not recommend the use of cow's milk for children younger than 12 months. At 6 and 9 months, the infant should be receiving commercial infant formula or breast milk. At age 18 months, milk and formula are supplemented with solid foods, water, and some fruit juices.

Which is the most appropriate vision acuity test for a child who is in preschool? a. Cover test b. Ishihara test c. HOTV chart d. Snellen letter chart

C The HOTV test consists of a wall chart of these letters. The child is asked to point to a corresponding card when the examiner selects one of the letters on the chart. The cover test determines ocular alignment. The Ishihara test is used for the detection of color blindness. The Snellen letter chart is usually used for older children.

At what age does an infant start to recognize familiar faces and objects, such as a feeding bottle? a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 4 months

C The child can recognize familiar objects at approximately age 3 months. For the first 2 months of life, infants watch and observe their surroundings. The 4-month-old infant is able to anticipate feeding after seeing the bottle.

When doing a nutritional assessment on a Hispanic family, the nurse learns that their diet consists mainly of vegetables, legumes, and starches. How should the nurse assess this diet? a. Indicates they live in poverty b. Is lacking in protein c. May provide sufficient amino acids d. Should be enriched with meat and milk

C The diet that contains vegetable, legumes, and starches may provide sufficient essential amino acids, even though the actual amount of meat or dairy protein is low. Many cultures use diets that contain this combination of foods. It is not indicative of poverty. Combinations of foods contain the essential amino acids necessary for growth. A dietary assessment should be done, but many vegetarian diets are sufficient for growth.

Where in the health history should the nurse describe all details related to the chief complaint? a. Past history b. Chief complaint c. Present illness d. Review of systems

C The history of the present illness is a narrative of the chief complaint from its earliest onset through its progression to the present. The focus of the present illness is on all factors relevant to the main problem, even if they have disappeared or changed during the onset, interval, and present. Past history refers to information that relates to previous aspects of the child's health, not to the current problem. The chief complaint is the specific reason for the child's visit to the clinic, office, or hospital. It does not contain the narrative portion describing the onset and progression. The review of systems is a specific review of each body system.

What is the single most important factor to consider when communicating with children? a. The child's physical condition b. Presence or absence of the child's parent c. The child's developmental level d. The child's nonverbal behaviors

C The nurse must be aware of the child's developmental stage to engage in effective communication. The use of both verbal and nonverbal communication should be appropriate to the developmental level. Although the child's physical condition is a consideration, developmental level is much more important. The parents' presence is important when communicating with young children but may be detrimental when speaking with adolescents. Nonverbal behaviors will vary in importance, based on the child's developmental level.

At about what age does the Babinski sign disappear? a. 4 months b. 6 months c. 1 year d. 2 years

C The presence of the Babinski reflex after about age 1 year, when walking begins, is abnormal. Four to 6 months is too young for the disappearance of the Babinski reflex. Persistence of the Babinski reflex requires further evaluation.

Nitrous oxide is being administered to a child with extensive burn injuries. Which is the purpose of this medication? a. Promote healing b. Prevent infection c. Provide anesthesia d. Improve urinary output

C The use of short-acting anesthetic agents, such as propofol and nitrous oxide, has proven beneficial in eliminating procedural pain. Nitrous oxide is an anesthetic agent.

A 2-year-old child has been returned to the nursing unit after an inguinal hernia repair. Which pain assessment tool should the nurse use to assess this child for the presence of pain? a. FACES pain rating tool b. Numeric scale c. Oucher scale d. FLACC tool

D A behavioral pain tool should be used when the child is preverbal or doesn't have the language skills to express pain. The FLACC (face, legs, activity, cry, consolability) tool should be used with a 2-year-old child. The FACES, numeric, and Oucher scales are all self-report pain rating tools. Self-report measures are not sufficiently valid for children younger than 3 years of age because many are not able to accurately self-report their pain.

Pulses can be graded according to certain criteria. Which is a description of a normal pulse? a. 0 b. +1 c. +2 d. +3

D A normal pulse is described as +3. A pulse that is easy to palpate and not easily obliterated with pressure is considered normal. A pulse graded 0 is not palpable. A pulse graded +1 is difficult to palpate, thready, weak, and easily obliterated with pressure. A pulse graded +2 is difficult to palpate and may be easily obliterated with pressure.

How does the nurse assess a child's capillary refill time? a. Inspecting the chest b. Auscultating the heart c. Palpating the apical pulse d. Palpating the skin to produce a slight blanching

D Capillary refill time is assessed by pressing lightly on the skin to produce blanching, and then noting the amount of time it takes for the blanched area to refill. Inspecting the chest, auscultating the heart, and palpating the apical pulse will not provide an assessment of capillary refill time.

The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old girl who had surgery 12 hours ago. The child tells the nurse that she does not have pain, but a few minutes later she tells her parents that she does. Which should the nurse consider when interpreting this? a. Truthful reporting of pain should occur by this age. b. Inconsistency in pain reporting suggests that pain is not present. c. Children use pain experiences to manipulate their parents. d. Children may be experiencing pain even though they deny it to the nurse.

D Children may deny pain to the nurse because they fear receiving an injectable analgesic or because they believe they deserve to suffer as a punishment for a misdeed. They may refuse to admit pain to a stranger but readily tell a parent. Truthfully reporting pain and inconsistency in pain reporting suggesting that pain is not present are common fallacies about children and pain. Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, whenever the person says it exists. Pain would not be questioned in an adult 12 hours after surgery.

The nurse is having difficulty communicating with a hospitalized 6-year-old child. What technique might be most helpful? a. Suggest that the child keep a diary. b. Suggest that the parent read fairy tales to the child. c. Ask the parent if the child is always uncommunicative. d. Ask the child to draw a picture.

D Drawing is one of the most valuable forms of communication. Children's drawings tell a great deal about them because they are projections of the child's inner self. It would be difficult for a 6-year-old child who is most likely learning to read to keep a diary. Parents reading fairy tales to the child is a passive activity involving the parent and child. It would not facilitate communication with the nurse. The child is in a stressful situation and is probably uncomfortable with strangers.

During examination of a toddler's extremities, the nurse notes that the child is bowlegged. What should the nurse recognize regarding this finding? a. Abnormal and requires further investigation b. Abnormal unless it occurs in conjunction with knock-knee c. Normal if the condition is unilateral or asymmetric d. Normal because the lower back and leg muscles are not yet well developed

D Lateral bowing of the tibia (bowlegged) is common in toddlers when they begin to walk. It usually persists until all their lower back and leg muscles are well developed. Further evaluation is needed if it persists beyond ages 2 to 3 years, especially in African-American children.

Physiologic measurements in children's pain assessment are: a. the best indicator of pain in children of all ages. b. essential to determine whether a child is telling the truth about pain. c. of most value when children also report having pain. d. of limited value as sole indicator of pain.

D Physiologic manifestations of pain may vary considerably, not providing a consistent measure of pain. Heart rate may increase or decrease. The same signs that may suggest fear, anxiety, or anger also indicate pain. In chronic pain, the body adapts, and these signs decrease or stabilize. Physiologic measurements are of limited value and must be viewed in the context of a pain-rating scale, behavioral assessment, and parental report. When the child states that pain exists, it does. That is the truth.

Austin, age 6 months, has six teeth. How should the nurse interpret this finding? a. Normal tooth eruption b. Delayed tooth eruption c. Unusual and dangerous d. Earlier-than-normal tooth eruption

D Six months is earlier than expected. Most infants at age 6 months have two teeth. Although unusual, it is not dangerous.

When palpating the child's cervical lymph nodes, the nurse notes that they are tender, enlarged, and warm. What is the best explanation for this? a. Some form of cancer b. Local scalp infection common in children c. Infection or inflammation distal to the site d. Infection or inflammation close to the site

D Small nontender nodes are normal. Tender, enlarged, and warm lymph nodes may indicate infection or inflammation close to their location. Tender lymph nodes are not usually indicative of cancer. A scalp infection would usually not cause inflamed lymph nodes. The lymph nodes close to the site of inflammation or infection would be inflamed.

The nurse is using the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) growth chart for an African-American child. Which statement should the nurse consider? a. This growth chart should not be used. b. Growth patterns of African-American children are the same as for all other ethnic groups. c. A correction factor is necessary when the CDC growth chart is used for non-Caucasian ethnic groups. d. The CDC charts are accurate for US African-American children.

D The CDC growth charts can serve as reference guides for all racial or ethnic groups. US African-American children were included in the sample population. The growth chart can be used with the perspective that different groups of children have varying normal distributions on the growth curves. No correction factor exists.

A nurse is preparing to test a school-age child's vision. Which eye chart should the nurse use? a. Denver Eye Screening Test b. Allen picture card test c. Ishihara vision test d. Snellen letter chart

D The Snellen letter chart, which consists of lines of letters of decreasing size, is the most frequently used test for visual acuity for school-age children. Single cards (Denver—letter E; Allen—pictures) are used for children ages 2 years and older who are unable to use the Snellen letter chart. The Ishihara vision test is used for color vision.

At what age should the nurse expect the anterior fontanel to close? a. 2 months b. 2 to 4 months c. 6 to 8 months d. 12 to 18 months

D The anterior fontanel normally closes between ages 12 and 18 months. Two to 8 months is too early. The expected closure of the anterior fontanel occurs between ages 12 and 18 months; if it closes between ages 2 and 8 months, the child should be referred for further evaluation.

The parents of a 9-month-old infant tell the nurse that they have noticed foods such as peas and corn are not completely digested and can be seen in their infant's stools. The nurse's explanation of this is based on which statement? a. Child should not be given fibrous foods until digestive tract matures at age 4 years. b. Child should not be given any solid foods until this digestive problem is resolved. c. This is abnormal and requires further investigation. d. This is normal because of the immaturity of digestive processes at this age.

D The immaturity of the digestive tract is evident in the appearance of the stools. Solid foods are passed incompletely broken down in the feces. An excess quantity of fiber predisposes the child to large, bulky stools. This is normal for the child and is a normal part of the maturational process; no further investigation is necessary.

The parents of a 3-month-old infant report that their infant sleeps supine (face up) but is often prone (face down) while awake. What knowledge should the nurse's response should be based? a. Unacceptable because of the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) b. Unacceptable because it does not encourage achievement of developmental milestones c. Acceptable to encourage fine motor development d. Acceptable to encourage head control and turning over

D These parents are implementing the guidelines to reduce the risk of SIDS. Infants should sleep on their backs and then be placed on their abdomens when awake to enhance development of milestones such as head control. The face-down position while awake and on the back for sleep are acceptable because they reduce risk of SIDS and allow achievement of developmental milestones. These position changes encourage gross motor, not fine motor, development.

Which following parameters correlates best with measurements of the body's total protein stores? a. Height b. Weight c. Skinfold thickness d. Upper arm circumference

D Upper arm circumference is correlated with measurements of total muscle mass. Muscle serves as the body's major protein reserve and is considered an index of the body's protein stores. Height is reflective of past nutritional status. Weight is indicative of current nutritional status. Skinfold thickness is a measurement of the body's fat content.