OB Antepartum complications
A,B,D.
An 8-month-pregnant patient presents with preeclampsia. Which clinical findings in the patient indicate that the disease has progressed to HELLP syndrome? Select all that apply A. Hepatic dysfunction B. Elevated liver enzymes C. Vaginal bleeding D. Low platelet count E. Chronic hypertension
D.
After the delivery of a baby, the nurse instructs the patient to immediately start breastfeeding. Which complication is the nurse trying to prevent by giving this instruction? A. Hemorrhoids B. Endometritis C. Maternal infection D. Postpartum hemorrhage
C.
Excessive blood loss after childbirth can have several causes; however, which is the most common? A. Vaginal or vulvar hematomas B. Unrepaired lacerations of the vagina or cervix C. Failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly D. Retained placental fragments
C.
In caring for a pregnant woman with sickle cell anemia the nurse is aware that signs and symptoms of sickle cell crisis include A. Anemia B. Endometritis C. Fever and pain D. Urinary tract infection
A.
In helping the breastfeeding mother position the baby, what should nurses keep in mind? A. Whatever the position used, the infant is "belly to belly" with the mother. B. While supporting the head, the mother should push gently on the occiput. C. Women with perineal pain and swelling prefer the modified cradle position. D. The cradle position is usually preferred by mothers who had a cesarean birth.
C.
Signs of a threatened abortion (miscarriage) are noted in a woman at 8 weeks of gestation. What is an appropriate management approach for this type of abortion? A. Prepare the woman for a dilation and curettage (D&C). B. Place the woman on bed rest for at least 1 week and reevaluate. C. Prepare the woman for an ultrasound and bloodwork. D. Comfort the woman by telling her that if she loses this baby, she may attempt to get pregnant again in 1 month.
C.
The birth weight of a breastfed newborn was 8 lbs, 4 oz. On the third day the newborn's weight was 7 lbs, 12 oz. On the basis of this finding, what should the nurse do? A. Notify the physician because the newborn is being poorly nourished B. Refer the mother to a lactation consultant to improve her breastfeeding technique C. Encourage the mother to continue breastfeeding because it is effective in meeting the newborn's nutrient and fluid needs D. Suggest that the mother switch to bottle-feeding because the breastfeeding is ineffective in meeting newborn needs for fluid and nutrients
A.
The parent of a newborn reports to the nurse, "My baby has small, red papules on the face and hands." What response should the nurse give to the parent? A. "The skin reaction is normal." B. "The spots are due to cyanosis." C. "The baby has adequate oxygen supply." D. "The skin rash is due to direct sunlight exposure."
B.
The postpartum patient reports to the nurse, "I am having intolerable pain after the delivery." Which conditions would cause the patient's afterpains? A. Lactating, nulliparous, single gestation B. Lactating, multiparous, multiple gestation C. Nonlactating, nulliparous, oligohydramnios D. Nonlactating, nulliparous, multiple gestation
A.
Toxoplasmosis is a protozoal infection transmitted through organisms in raw and undercooked meat or through contact with contaminated cat feces. While providing education to the pregnant woman, the nurse evaluates the learning and understands that the patient requires further instruction when she states A. "I will be certain to empty the litter boxes regularly." B. "I won't eat raw eggs." C. "I had better wash all of my fruits and vegetables." D. "I need to be cautious when cooking meat."
C.
What is the only known cure for preeclampsia? A. Magnesium sulfate B. Antihypertensive medications C. Delivery of the fetus D. Administration of acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) every day of the pregnancy
D.
Which clinical sign is not included in the classic symptoms of preeclampsia? A. Hypertension B. Edema C. Proteinuria D. Glycosuria
C.
Which statement made by the nursing student about the management of molar pregnancy indicates effective learning? A. "Methotrexate therapy is prescribed to abort molar pregnancy." B. "Expectant management is initiated as per the amount of bleeding." C. "Suction curettage is the safest way of terminating molar pregnancy." D. "Induction of labor with oxytocic agents is one of the treatment options."
B.
A client at 38 weeks' gestation is admitted with the diagnosis of placenta previa. What is the priority nursing care at this time? A. withholding oral intake. B. assessing for hemorrhage. C. avoiding extraneous stimuli D. encouraging supervised ambulation.
C.
A patient with severe gestational hypertension is prescribed hydralazine (Apresoline). What is a priority nursing intervention in this case? A. Assess for visual disturbances. B. Assess airway, breathing, and pulse. C. Assess blood pressure frequently. D. Prepare the patient for nonstress testing.
A,B,D.
A client with preeclampsia is admitted to the highrisk prenatal unit because her blood pressure is progressively increasing. The nurse reviews the practitioner's orders. What orders does the nurse expect? Select all that apply. A. Daily weight B. Side-lying bed rest (improves cardiac return) C. 2-gram-sodium diet D. Deep tendon reflexes E. Glucose tolerance test
C,D,E.
A postpartum patient has chosen not to breastfeed. What instructions should the nurse provide to the patient to prevent discomfort caused by breast engorgement? Select all that apply. A. Express the milk from both breasts. B. Perform regular breast stimulation. C. Wear a well-fitted support bra. D. Use a breast binder. E. Apply ice packs on the breasts.
A.
A postpartum patient who has an episiotomy is being discharged to home. Which instruction about medications is most important for the patient? A. Take stool softeners regularly. B. Continue prenatal vitamins. C. Include iron supplements. D. Take analgesics as prescribed.
A.
A nurse in the prenatal clinic is assessing a woman at 34 weeks' gestation. The client's blood pressure is 166/100 mm Hg and her urine is +3 for protein. She states that she has a severe headache and occasional blurred vision. Her baseline blood pressure was 100/62 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing action? A. Arranging transportation to the hospital B. Obtaining a prescription for an antihypertensive C. Rechecking the blood pressure within 30 minutes D. Obtaining a prescription for acetaminophen to relieve the headache
C.
A nurse is assessing a client with a tentative diagnosis of hydatidiform mole. Which clinical finding should the nurse anticipate? A. hypotension B. decreased fetal heart rate. C. unusual uterine enlargement. D. painless, heavy vaginal bleeding.
B.
A nurse is obtaining the health history from a client with a diagnosis of ruptured tubal pregnancy. At what point in the pregnancy does the nurse expect the client to state that the low abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding started? A. at the end of the first trimester. B. around the 6th week of pregnancy. C. midway through the second trimester. D. when the first menstrual period was missed.
A.
A woman at 37 weeks of gestation is admitted with a placental abruption after a motor vehicle accident. Which assessment data are most indicative of her condition worsening? A. Pulse (P) 112, respiration (R) 32, blood pressure (BP) 108/60; fetal heart rate (FHR) 166--178 B. P 98, R 22, BP 110/74; FHR 150-162 C. P 88, R 20, BP 114/70; FHR 140-158 D. P 80, R 18, BP 120/78; FHR 138-150
B.
A patient gave birth to a 7-lb, 3-oz boy 2 hours ago. The nurse determines that the patient's bladder is distended because her fundus is now 3 cm above the umbilicus and to the right of the midline. In the immediate postpartum period, the most serious consequence likely to occur from bladder distention is what? A. Urinary tract infection B. Excessive uterine bleeding C. Ruptured bladder D. Bladder wall atony
B.
A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate A. Anxiety due to hospitalization B. Worsening disease and impending convulsion C. Effects of magnesium sulfate D. Gastrointestinal upset
D.
A pregnant patient after 20 weeks of gestation reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Upon assessment, the nurse finds that the patient's vital signs are normal. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the patient? A. Eclampsia B. Preeclampsia C. Pyelonephritis D. Placenta previa
B,C,E.
A pregnant patient with chronic hypertension is at risk for placental abruption. Which symptoms of abruption does the nurse instruct the patient to be alert for? Select all that apply. A. Weight loss B. Abdominal pain C. Vaginal bleeding D. Shortness of breath E. Uterine tendernes
C.
A primigravida is being monitored in her prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. What finding should concern her nurse? A. Blood pressure increase to 138/86 mm Hg B. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks C. A dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day
D. (Women with hypertension are at increased risk for an abruption. Eclamptic seizures are evidenced by the presence of generalized tonic-clonic convulsions. Uterine rupture presents as hypotonic uterine activity, signs of hypovolemia, and in many cases the absence of pain. Placenta previa presents with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. Uterine tenderness in the presence of increasing tone may be the earliest finding of premature separation of the placenta (abruptio placentae or placental abruption).)
A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit. She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes; dark red vaginal bleeding; and a tense, painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of what? A. Eclamptic seizure B. Rupture of the uterus C. Placenta previa D. Abruptio placentae
D.
A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit. She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1-2 minutes, dark red vaginal bleeding, and a tene, painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of: A. eclamptic seizure B. rupture of the uterus. C. placenta previa D. Abruptio placentae
A.
A woman has tested human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive and has now discovered that she is pregnant. Which statement indicates that she understands the risks of this diagnosis? A. "Even though my test is positive, my baby might not be affected." B. "I know I will need to have an abortion as soon as possible." C. "This pregnancy will probably decrease the chance that I will develop AIDS." D. "My baby is certain to have AIDS and die within the first year of life."
C.
A woman taking magnesium sulfate has respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. In addition to discontinuing the medication, the nurse should A Vigorously stimulate the woman. B. Instruct her to take deep breaths. C. Administer calcium gluconate. D. Increase her IV fluids.
D.
A woman who delivered her third child yesterday has just learned that her two school-age children have contracted chickenpox. What should the nurse tell her? A. The woman's two children should be treated with acyclovir before she goes home from the hospital. B. The baby will acquire immunity from the woman and will not be susceptible to chickenpox. C. The children can visit their mother and sibling in the hospital as planned but must wear gowns and masks. D. The woman must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious.
A.
A woman with severe preeclampsia has been receiving magnesium sulfate by intravenous infusion for 8 hours. The nurse assesses the woman and documents the following findings: temperature 37.1° C, pulse rate 96 beats/min, respiratory rate 24 breaths/min, blood pressure 155/112 mm Hg, 3+ deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The nurse calls the health care provider, anticipating an order for what? A. Hydralazine B. Magnesium sulfate bolus C. Diazepam D.Calciumgluconate
D.
After delivery, the primary health care provider (PHP) prescribes Rh immune globulin to a postpartum patient. The nurse asks the PHP, "What is the purpose of this medication?" Which is the best response by the PHP? A. "It protects the patient's next baby from having decreased immunity." B. "It protects the patient's next baby from developing a rubella infection." C. "It protects the patient's next baby from developing physiological jaundice." D. "It protects the patient's next baby from being affected by Rh incompatibility."
A,B,D.
An 8-month-pregnant patient presents with preeclampsia. Which clinical findings in the patient indicate that the disease has progressed to HELLP syndrome? Select all that apply. A. Hepatic dysfunction B. Elevated liver enzymes C. Vaginal bleeding D. Low platelet count E. Chronic hypertension
B.
An examiner who discovers unequal movement or uneven gluteal skinfolds during the Ortolani maneuver does what? A. Tells the parents that one leg may be longer than the other, but they will equal out by the time the infant is walking B. Alerts the health care provider that the infant has a dislocated hip C. Informs the parents and health care provider that molding has not taken place D. Suggests that if the condition does not change, surgery to correct vision problems might be needed
A,E.
As part of postpartum assessment, the nurse examines the breasts of a primiparous breastfeeding patient who is 1-day postpartum. What do expected findings include? Select all that apply. A. Little if any change B. Leakage of milk at let-down C. Swollen, warm, and tender on palpation D. A few blisters and a bruise on each areola E. Small amount of clear, yellow fluid expres
D.
On reviewing the medical reports of a postpartum patient, the nurse finds that the patient has Homans' sign. What does the nurse interpret from this finding? A. Risk of uterine atony B. Hypotensive shock C. Risk of developing mastitis D. Venous thromboembolism (VTE)
D.
Perineal care is an important infection control measure. When evaluating a postpartum patient's perineal care technique, the nurse recognizes the need for additional instruction if the patient does what? A. Uses soap and warm water to wash the vulva and perineum B. Washes from the symphysis pubis back to the episiotomy C. Changes her perineal pad every 2 to 3 hours D. Uses the peribottle to rinse upward into her vagina
C.
The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced. Before initiating the Pitocin infusion, the nurse reviews the woman's latest laboratory test findings, which reveal a low platelet count, an elevated aspartate transaminase (AST) level, and a falling hematocrit. The nurse notifies the physician, because the lab results are indicative of A. Eclampsia B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation C. HELLP syndrome D. Rh incompatibility
B.
The nurse advises a postpartum patient not to give any water to her 1-month-old infant after breastfeeding. What is the reason for this advice? A. The infant does not have any fluctuations in fluid balance. B. The breast milk contains enough water to hydrate the child. C. The infant's calorie consumption is increased by excess water. D. The infant has sufficient fluid reserves, which prevent dehydration.
B,C,D.
The nurse is caring for a new mother and baby. What are the most suitable nursing interventions for the welfare of the mother and the child? Select all that apply. A. Showing only the mother how to breastfeed B. Educating about the importance of breastfeeding C. Observing at least one feeding every shift each day D. Teaching about proper latching and suitable positions E. Documenting the frequency of feedings only during the day
D.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is in her immediate puerperium and reports profuse sweating, increased urinary output, and weight loss. What reason does the nurse identify for these manifestations? A. Breastfeeding B. Dilated urinary tract C. Diminished steroid levels D. Loss of excess tissue fluid
D.
The nurse is caring for a postpartum patient who gave birth recently. The nurse is evaluating the parent's behavior toward the new baby. Which parent-infant behaviors should the nurse investigate further? A. Change the baby's diapers when needed. B. Position the baby comfortably. C. Demonstrate eye-to-eye contact with the baby. D. Complete the child care activities silently, without looking at the baby.
D.
The nurse is caring for a postpartum patient who reports dizziness upon standing. What does the nurse believe to be the most likely cause for this occurrence? A. Endometritis B. Hemorrhoids C. Puerperal sepsis D. Orthostatic hypotension
D.
The nurse observes a student nurse providing care to a newborn immediately following birth. Which action made by the student nurse causes the nurse to intervene? A. The student nurse increases the temperature in the room to 74°F. B. The student nurse pre-warms the newborn's bed under a radiant warmer. C. The student nurse places the bassinet away from the window in the hospital room. D. The student nurse leaves the newborn slightly damp after birth to avoid skin friction.
B.
The nurse taught new parents the guidelines to follow regarding the bottle-feeding of their newborn. They will be using formula from a can of concentrate. The parents would demonstrate an understanding of the nurse's instructions if they do what? A. Warm formula in a microwave oven for a couple of minutes before feeding B. Wash the top of the can and can opener with soap and water before opening the can C. Adjust the amount of water added according to the weight gain pattern of the newborn D. Add some honey to sweeten the formula and make it more appealing to a fussy newborn
A.
The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to A. Assess fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs. B. Perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. C. Place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage. D. Monitor uterine contractions.
B,C,D,E.
What are the possible causes of miscarriage during early pregnancy? Select all that apply. A. Premature dilation of cervix B. Chromosomal abnormalities C. Endocrine imbalance D. Hypothyroidism E. Antiphospholipid antibodies
C.
What condition indicates concealed hemorrhage in an abruptio placentae? A. Decrease in abdominal pain B. Bradycardia C. Hard, boardlike abdomen D. Decrease in fundal height
C.
What does the nurse infer about the patient's condition from the finding of slightly bluish-colored milk expressed from the breasts of a postnatal patient? A. The patient may have a breast abscess. B. The patient may be expressing colostrum. C. The patient may be expressing mature milk. D. The patient may have fibrocystic changes in the breast.
D.
What form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy? A. Cardiomyopathy B. Rheumatic heart disease C. Congenital heart disease D. Mitral valve prolapse
C.
What instruction does the nurse provide to a pregnant patient with mild preeclampsia? A. "You need to be hospitalized for fetal evaluation." B. "Nonstress testing can be done once every month." C. "Fetal movement counts need to be evaluated daily." D. "Take complete bed rest during the entire pregnancy."
C.
What is the basic mechanism for heat generation in newborns? A. Vasodilation B. Shivering thermogenesis C. Metabolism of brown fat D. Metabolism of carbohydrates
A, C, D, E.
Which interventions are included in the nursing care for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia? Select all that apply. A. Monitoring deep tendon reflexes B. Assessing urine output every 8 hours C. Maintaining a dark, quiet environment D. Using a pump to regulate the medication E. Having calcium gluconate available at the bedside F. Notifying the care provider if the respiratory rate is slower than 20 breaths/min
D.
Which is a priority nursing action when a pregnant patient with severe gestational hypertension is admitted to the health care facility? A. Prepare the patient for cesarean delivery. B. Administer intravenous (IV) and oral fluids. C. Provide diversionary activities during bed rest. D. Administer the prescribed magnesium sulfate.
B.
Which laboratory marker is indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? A. Bleeding time of 10 minutes B. Presence of fibrin split products C. Thrombocytopenia D.Hyperfibrinogenemia
D.
Which statement made by the nursing student about the management of reduced cervical competence (premature dilation of the cervix) in a pregnant patient indicates effective learning? A. "Progesterone supplementation is the only effective treatment." B. "An abdominal cerclage is performed at the first week of gestation." C. "Surgical treatment is ineffective in patients with an extremely short cervix." D. "A prophylactic cerclage is used to constrict the internal os of the cervix."
A.
While assessing a postpartum patient early in the morning, the nurse finds that the patient's perineal pad is completely saturated. What is the first step the nurse should take in this situation? A. Ask the patient when she last changed her perineal pad. B. Inform the primary health care provider (PHP) immediately. C. Massage the patient's uterine fundus vigorously. D. Ask the night duty nurse to review the assessment.
A.
The nurse observes that intravenous (IV) administration of magnesium sulfate has resulted in magnesium toxicity in a pregnant patient with preeclampsia. The nurse immediately discontinues the infusion and reports to the primary health care provider (PHP). For which drug does the nurse obtain a prescription from the PHP? A. Calcium gluconate B. Nifedipine (Adalat) C. Hydralazine (Apresoline) D. Labetalol hydrochloride (Normodyne)
C.
The nurse notes the infant's body temperature to be 38.5° C (101.3° F). Upon further assessment, the nurse finds that the infant has extension posture, dilated blood vessels of the skin, warm hands and feet, and an appearance of flushed skin. What does the nurse conclude from these findings? A. The infant has hyperthermia due to infection or sepsis. B. The infant has hypoglycemia due to excessive glycolysis. C. The infant might have been swaddled in too many blankets. D. The infant has hypotension and bradycardia due to fluid retention.
C.
The nurse assesses a postpartum patient and finds that the patient has lochia rubra with a firm fundus at the level of the umbilicus. Which is the most important nursing intervention in this situation? A. Administer prostaglandins. B. Administer oxytocin. C. Document the findings and continue to monitor. D. Massage the fundus every 15 minutes.
B.
The nurse examines a patient 1 hour after birth. The patient's fundus is boggy, midline, and 1 cm below the umbilicus. Her lochial flow is profuse, with two plum-sized clots. What is the nurse's initial action? A. Place her on a bedpan to empty her bladder. B. Massage her fundus. C. Call the health care provider. D. Administer Methergine, 0.2 mg IM, which has been ordered prn.
A.
The nurse has taught a postpartum patient about postpartum blues. Which statement given by the patient indicates effective teaching? A. "I might feel like laughing one minute and crying the next." B. "I should call the support line only if I hear voices." C. "I should notify my primary health care provider (PHP) immediately if I am depressed." D. "I need to take medication to treat anxiety and sadness."
C.
The nurse is educating a lactating patient about feeding an infant. Why does the nurse ask the patient to breastfeed the child from either breast for longer durations? A. To increase the levels of oxytocin B. To increase the colostrum content C. To increase the caloric intake from fats D. To increase the volume of milk produced
D.
The nurse is preparing to administer rubella vaccine to a postpartum patient. What should the nurse tell the patient? A. "The vaccine is safe even if you have an egg allergy." B. "You cannot breastfeed for 5 days after taking the vaccine." C. "You will not have joint pains or skin rashes after the vaccination." D. "You should use proper contraception for 1 month after the vaccination."
A.
The nurse performs nasal and oral suctioning of a newborn immediately after birth. What is the reason for this nursing intervention? A. To stimulate respiration B. To assist in stimulating cardiac activity C. To remove fluid from the lungs D. To increase pulmonary blood flow
A.
The nurse provides care to a non-breastfeeding mother after birth who reports tenderness in the breasts. Upon assessment, the nurse confirms the breasts are distended and teaches the patient about the physiology of the breasts for non-breastfeeding women. Which statement made by the patient indicates teaching was effective? A. "The swelling is caused by a congestion of veins." B. "I should express the build-up of milk in the breasts." C. "Heat packs or hot towels can be used to relieve discomfort." D. "It is normal for me to lactate for about two weeks after I give birth."
D.
When caring for a pregnant woman with suspected cardiomyopathy, the nurse must be alert for signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation, which include A. A regular heart rate and hypertension B. An increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough C. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension D.Dyspnea; crackles; and an irregular, weak pulse
C.
When teaching the pregnant woman with class II heart disease, the nurse should A. Advise her to gain at least 30 lb. B. Explain the importance of a diet high in calcium. C. Instruct her to avoid strenuous activity. D. Inform her of the need to limit fluid intake.
A.
Which assessment finding should convince the nurse to "hold" the next dose of magnesium sulfate? A. Absence of deep tendon reflexes B. Urinary output of 100 mL total for the previous 2 hours C. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min D. Decrease in blood pressure from 160/100 to 140/85
A,B,D.
Which hypertensive disorders can occur during pregnancy? Select all that apply. A. Chronic hypertension B. Preeclampsia-eclampsia C. Hyperemesis gravidarum D. Gestational hypertension E. Gestational trophoblastic disease
C.
Which intervention will help prevent the risk of pulmonary edema in a pregnant patient with severe preeclampsia? A. Assess fetal heart rate (FHR) abnormalities regularly. B. Place the patient on bed rest in a darkened environment. C. Restrict total intravenous (IV) and oral fluids to 125 mL/hr. D. Ensure that magnesium sulfate is administered as prescribed.
B.
Which is an important nursing intervention when a patient has an incomplete miscarriage with heavy bleeding? A. Initiate expectant management at once. B. Prepare the patient for dilation and curettage. C. Administer the prescribed oxytocin (Pitocin). D. Obtain a prescription for ergonovine (Methergine).
C.
Which maternal risk is associated with placenta previa? A. Preeclampsia B. Placental abruption C. Surgery-related trauma D. Gestational hypertension
A.
While assessing a postpartum patient, the nurse finds that the patient has a fourth-degree laceration. What immediate interventions should the nurse perform while caring for the patient? A. Apply an ice pack to limit edema during the first 12 to 24 hours. B. Instruct the patient to use two or more perineal pads. C. Teach the patient to avoid taking sitz baths. D. Remind the patient to avoid doing perineal (Kegel) exercises.
D.
While caring for an infant, which method should the nurse adopt to prevent heat loss due to evaporation? A. Wrap the infant in a cloth. B. Place the infant in a warm crib. C. Place the crib away from the windows. D. Dry the infant immediately after the bath.
C.
Why is vitamin K given to the newborn? A. To reduce bilirubin levels B. To increase the production of red blood cells C. To enhance ability of blood to clot D. To stimulate the formation of surfactant
D.
A woman complains of excess vaginal bleeding after childbirth. The patient reports that the presence of excess blood is not continuous and denies any headaches or dizziness. What does the nurse suspect to be the cause of this excess bleeding? A. Oxytocin B. Hemorrhage C. Breastfeeding D. Increased activity
B.
A woman has a history of drug use and is screened for hepatitis B during the first trimester. What is an appropriate action? A. Provide a low-protein diet. B. Offer the vaccine. C. Discuss the recommendation to bottle-feed her baby. D. Practice respiratory isolation.
B.
A woman with severe preeclampsia is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. The nurse becomes concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits what? A. sleepy, sedated affect B. respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min C. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ D. Absent ankle clonus
A.
With regar to hemorrhagic complications that may present during pregnancy, nurses should know that: A. an incompetent cervic usually is not diagnosed until the woman has lost one or two pregnancies. B. the incidence of ectopic pregnancy is declining as a result of improved diagnostic techniques. C. one ectopic pregnancy does not affect a woman's fertility or her likelihood of having a normal pregnancy next time. D. gestational trophoblastic neoplasia is one of the persistently incurable gynecologic malignancies.
B.
With regard to preeclampsia and eclampsia, nurses should be aware that: A. Preeclampsia is a condition of the first trimester; eclampsia is a condition of the second and third trimesters B. Preeclampsia results in decreased function in such organs as the placenta, kidneys, liver, and brain C. The causes of preeclampsia and eclampsia are well documented D. Severe preeclampsia is defined as preeclampsia plus proteinuria
C.
Signs of a threatened abortion are noted in a woman at 8 weeks gestation. What is an appropriate management approach for this type of abortion? A. prepare the woman for a dilation and curettage (D&C). B. place the woman on bed rest for at least 1 week and reevaluate. C. prepare the woman for an ultrasound and bloodwork. D. comfor the woman by telling her that if she loses this baby, she may attempt to get pregnant again in 1 month.
B.
The nurse helps a breastfeeding mother change the diaper of her 16-hour-old newborn after the first bowel movement. The mother expresses concern because the large amount of thick, sticky stool is very dark green, almost black in color. She asks the nurse if something is wrong. How should the nurse respond to this mother's concern? A. Telling the mother not to worry because breastfed babies have this type of stool B. Explaining to the mother that the stool is called meconium and is expected of all newborns for the first few bowel movements C. Asking the mother what she ate at her last meal D. Suggesting that the mother ask her pediatrician to explain newborn stool patterns to her
D.
The nurse is caring for a family who has a newborn. The father appears to be very anxious and nervous when the newborn's mother asks him to bring the baby. Which nursing intervention is mostbeneficial in promoting father-infant bonding? A. Hand the father the newborn and instruct him to change the diaper. B. Ask the father why he is so anxious and nervous. C. Tell the father that he will get used to the newborn in time. D. Provide education about newborn care when the father is present.
B.
The nurse is caring for a postpartum patient. One day after delivery, the nurse assesses the lochia of the patient and finds that it is red and has a foul-smelling odor. What does the nurse conclude from this assessment? A. The patient is healing well. B. An infection is present. C. There is evidence of clinical dehydration. D. There is potential internal hemorrhaging.
C.
The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who just delivered a baby. The woman has continuous, heavy vaginal bleeding after the delivery. What should be the immediate medication intervention? A. Platelet aggregators B. Exogenous estrogen C. Exogenous oxytocin D. Exogenous progesterone
A,C,D.
The nurse is caring for a woman who is at 24 weeks of gestation with suspected severe preeclampsia. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to observe? Select all that apply. A. Decreased urinary output and irritability B. Transient headache and +1 proteinuria C. Ankle clonus and epigastric pain D. Platelet count of less than 100,000/mm 3 and visual problems E. Seizure activity and hypotension
B.
The nurse notes that, when placed on the scale, the newborn immediately abducts and extends the arms, and the fingers fan out with the thumb and forefinger forming a "C." What is this response known as? A. Tonic neck reflex B. Moro reflex C. Cremasteric reflex D. Babinski reflex
A.
The nurse observes that eclampsia has developed in a pregnant patient after starting magnesium sulfate therapy. What action does the nurse take? A. Continue to administer magnesium sulfate per protocol. B. Administer regional anesthesia to the patient. C. Administer calcium gluconate simultaneously. D. Prepare the patient for immediate cesarean birth.
B.
What is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa)? A. Bleeding B. Intense abdominal pain C. Uterine activity D. Cramping
A.
What is the priority teaching tip the nurse should provide about bottle-feeding? A. Hold infant semi-upright while feeding B. Feed newborn at least every 3 to 4 hours C. Some infants take longer to feed than others D. Infants may stool with each feeding in the first weeks
D.
What parameter does the nurse check in the amniocentesis report of a pregnant patient to assess fetal lung growth? A. Antibody titer in the blood B. Alfa-fetoprotein (AFP) levels C. Creatinine levels in the blood D. Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
