OB Exam #3

A nurse is providing care for a client who is diagnosed with marginal abruptio placentae. The nurse is aware that which of the following findings are risk factors for developing the condition? (Select all that apply.) A Fetal position B. Blunt abdominal trauma C. cocaine use D. Maternal age E. cigarette smoking

B. Blunt abdominal trauma C. cocaine use E. cigarette smoking Blunt abdominal trauma is a risk factor associated with abruptio placentae. Cocaine use is a risk factor associated with abruptio placentae. Cigarette smoking is a risk factor associated with abruptio placentae.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving nifedipine for the prevention of preterm labor. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? A. Blood-tinged sputum B. Dizziness C. Pallor D. Somnolence

B. Dizziness Dizziness and lightheadedness are associated with orthostatic hypotension, which occurs when taking nifedipine.

A nurse is caring for a client with suspected hyperemesis gravidarum and reviewing the client's laboratory reports. Which of the following findings is a clinical manifestation of this condition? A. Hgb 12.2 g/dL B. Urine ketones present C. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 20 IU/L D. Blood (serum) glucose 114 mg/dL

B. Urine ketones present The presence of ketones in the urine is associated with the breakdown of proteins and fats in a client with hyperemesis gravidarum.

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states she missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because she has an intrauterine device. The nurse should suspect which of the following? A. Missed abortion B. ectopic pregnancy C. Severe preeclampsia D. Hydatidiform mole

B. ectopic pregnancy Manifestations of an ectopic pregnancy include unilateral lower quadrant pain with or without bleeding. The use of an IUD is a risk factor associated with this condition.

A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea and vomiting and scant, prune-colored discharge. She has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect? A. Hyperemesis gravidarum B. Threatened abortion C. Hydatidiform mole D. Preterm labor

C. Hydatidiform mole A client who has a hydatidiform mole exhibits increased fundal height that is inconsistent with the week of gestation, and excessive nausea and vomiting due to elevated hcg levels. Scant, dark discharge occurs in the second trimester.

A nurse is providing care for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and who has a placenta previa. The nurse notes that the client is actively bleeding. Which of the following types of medications should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe? A. Betamethasone B. indomethacin C. nifedipine D. Methylergonovine

A. Betamethasone Betamethasone is given to promote lung maturity if delivery is anticipated.

A nurse is caring for a client who has gonorrhea. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe? A. Ceftriaxone B. Fluconazole C. Metronidazole D. Zidovudine

A. Ceftriaxone Ceftriaxone IM or doxycycline orally for 7 days is prescribed for the treatment of gonorrhea.

A nurse is caring for a client at 14 weeks of gestation who has hyperemesis gravidarum. The nurse is aware that which of the following are risk factors for the client? (Select all that apply.) A. Diabetes B. Multifetal pregnancy C. Maternal age greater than 40 D. Gestational Trophoblastic disease E. Oligohydramnios

A. Diabetes B. Multifetal pregnancy D. Gestational Trophoblastic disease Diabetes, multifetal pregnancy, and gestational trophoblastic disease are risk factors for hyperemesis gravidarum.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for magnesium sulfate. The nurse should recognize that which of the following are contraindications for the use of this medication? (Select all that apply.) A. Fetal distress B. Preterm labor C. Vaginal bleeding D. Cervical dilation greater than 6 cm E. Severe gestational hypertension

A. Fetal distress C. Vaginal bleeding D. Cervical dilation greater than 6 cm Acute fetal distress, vaginal bleeding, and cervical dilation greater than 6 cm are complications that are contraindications of the use of magnesium sulfate.

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor. The nurse should identify that which of the following infections can be treated during labor or immediately following birth? (Select all that apply.) A. Gonorrhea B. Chlamydia C. HIV D. Group B streptococcus beta-hemolytic E. TORCH infection

A. Gonorrhea B. Chlamydia C. HIV D. Group B streptococcus beta-hemolytic Erythromycin is administered to the infant immediately following delivery to prevent Neisseria gonorrhea and Chlamydia trachomatis. Retrovir is prescribed to a client in labor who is HIV-positive. Penicillin G or ampicillin may be prescribed to treat positive GBS.

A nurse in an antepartum clinic is assessing a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply) A. Joint pain B. Malaise C. Rash D. Urinary frequency E. Tender lymph nodes

A. Joint pain B. Malaise C. Rash E. Tender lymph nodes TORCH infections are flu-like in presentation, such as joint pain, malaise, rash, and tender lymph nodes. Urinary frequency is not a clinical finding associated with a TORCH infection.

A nurse is administering magnesium sulfate IV to a client with severe preeclampsia for seizure prophylaxis. Which of the following indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity? (Select all that apply.) A. Respirations fewer than 12/min B. Urinary output less than 30 mL/hr C. Hyperreflexic deep-tendon reflexes D. Decreased level of consciousness E. Flushing and sweating

A. Respirations fewer than 12/min B. Urinary output less than 30 mL/hr D. Decreased level of consciousness A respiratory rate of less than 12/min is a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Urinary output of less than 30 ml/hr is a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Decreased level of consciousness is a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity.

A nurse is caring for a client who reports indications of preterm labor. Which of the following findings are risk factors of this condition? (Select all that apply). A. Urinary tract infection B. Multifetal pregnancy C. Oligohydramnios D. Diabetes mellitus E. Uterine abnormalities

A. Urinary tract infection B. Multifetal pregnancy D. Diabetes mellitus E. Uterine abnormalities A urinary tract infection, multifetal pregnancy, diabetes mellitus, and uterine abnormalities are all risk factors of preterm labor.

A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and has HIV. Which interventions should the nurse identify as contraindicated for this client? (Select all that apply.) A. Vacuum extractor B. Oxytocin infusion C. Forceps D. Cesarean birth E. Internal fetal monitoring

A. Vacuum extractor C. Forceps E. Internal fetal monitoring The use of a vacuum extractor should be avoided for a client who is HIV positive due to risk of exposing the fetus to maternal blood. The use of forceps during delivery should be avoided due to risk of fetal bleeding. Internal fetal monitoring should be avoided due to the risk of fetal bleeding.

A nurse manager is reviewing ways to prevent a TORCH infection during pregnancy with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by a nurse indicates understanding of the teaching? A. "Obtain an immunization against rubella early in pregnancy." B. "Seek prophylactic treatment if cytomegalovirus is detected during pregnancy." C. "A woman should avoid crowded places during pregnancy." D. "A woman should avoid consuming undercooked meat while pregnant."

D. "A woman should avoid consuming undercooked meat while pregnant." Toxoplasmosis, a TORCH infection, is contracted by consuming undercooked meat.

A nurse in labor and delivery is providing care for a client who is in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to hasten fetal lung maturity? A. Calcium gluconate B. Indomethacin C. Nifedipine D. Betamethasone

D. Betamethasone Betamethasone is a glucocorticoid given to clients in preterm labor to hasten surfactant production.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected? A. Nifedipine (Adalat) B. Pyridoxine (vitamin B) C. Ferrous sulfate D. Calcium gluconate

D. Calcium gluconate Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate.

A nurse is reviewing discharge teaching with a client who has premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Use a condom with sexual intercourse. B. Avoid bubble bath solution when taking a tub bath. C. Wipe from the back to front when performing perineal hygiene. D. Keep a daily record of fetal kick counts.

D. Keep a daily record of fetal kick counts. The client should record daily fetal kick counts.

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition? A. No alteration in menses B. Transvaginal ultrasound indicating a fetus in the uterus C. Blood progesterone greater than the expected reference range D. Report of severe shoulder pain

D. Report of severe shoulder pain A client's report of severe shoulder pain is a finding associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy due to the presence of blood in the abdominal cavity, which irritates the diaphragm and phrenic nerve.

Which of the following women should receive RhoGAM postpartum?

Nonsensitized Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive newborn.

The nurse instructs a female client about contraceptive options. The nurse explains that the intrauterine device (IUD) is a good contraceptive option for women who: a) Are in a monogamous relationship. b) Desire short-term use of a contraceptive. c) Have a history of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). d) Have had a history of ectopic pregnancies.

a) Are in a monogamous relationship. The IUD is suitable for clients who desire long-term contraceptive use and are in a monogamous relationship. Because of the increased risk of infection with an IUD, if an STD occurs, the device is not appropriate for women with multiple partners or a history of STDs. Previous ectopic pregnancy is also a contraindication for an IUD because the incidence of ectopic implantation is slightly higher.

A nurse is conducting a healthy-living workshop with a group of female college students. Which of the following methods of contraception should the nurse recommend as a means of preventing both pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections? a) Condoms b) Coitus interruptus c) Intrauterine devices (IUD) d) Oral contraceptives

a) Condoms Coitus interruptus, oral contraceptives, and IUDs provide no protection against STIs, while condoms provide significant (but imperfect) protection against both pregnancy and STIs.

The nurse should inform a young female client that the barrier method providing the best protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is: a) Condoms. b) A cervical cap. c) A diaphragm. d) Spermicides.

a) Condoms. Condoms provide effective (though imperfect) protection against STIs. Spermicides, diaphragms, and cervical caps do not provide effective protection against STIs.

Which of the following substances may be used to lubricate a condom? a) K-Y jelly b) Petroleum jelly c) Skin lotion d) Baby oil

a) K-Y jelly K-Y jelly is water-based and will provide lubrication while not damaging the condom. The oil in skin lotion will cause the condom to break. Baby oil and the oil in petroleum jelly will cause the condom to break.

The nurse is conducting a health history of a preoperative client. The client shares that she experienced vaginal itching and burning and labial swelling after her partner tried a new brand of condoms. The nurse suspects that the client: a) May have a latex allergy. b) Is susceptible to the lubricant. c) Needs to change her position during intercourse. d) May have a sexually transmitted disease.

a) May have a latex allergy. Most condoms are made of latex. The client who experiences itching, swelling, hives, or other symptoms after contact with a condom may have a latex allergy.

A new patient has come to the clinic wanting a method of birth control. The patient asks about a diaphragm. What would the nurse teach this patient about a diaphragm? a) The diaphragm must be used during each episode of sexual activity. b) A diaphragm's effectiveness does not require spermicidal jelly. c) The diaphragm may be removed an hour following intercourse. d) One size fits all females.

a) The diaphragm must be used during each episode of sexual activity. The diaphragm must be used during each episode of sexual activity. It must be left in 6 hours after intercourse and should be used with spermicidal jelly. There are different sizes of diaphragms, and the patient needs to be fitted by the health care practitioner.

A 22-year-old nulligravid client tells the nurse that she and her husband have been considering using condoms for family planning. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include about the use of condoms as a method for family planning? a) Using a spermicide with the condom offers added protection against pregnancy. b) Condom users commonly report penile gland sensitivity. c) Natural skin condoms protect against sexually transmitted diseases. d) The typical failure rate for couples using condoms is about 25%.

a) Using a spermicide with the condom offers added protection against pregnancy. The typical failure rate of a condom is approximately 12% to 14%. Adding a spermicide can decrease this potential failure rate because it offers additional protection against pregnancy. Natural skin condoms do not offer the same protection against sexually transmitted diseases caused by viruses as latex condoms do. Unlike latex condoms, natural skin (membrane) condoms do not prevent the passage of viruses. Most condom users report decreased penile gland sensitivity. However, some users do report an increased sensitivity or allergic reaction (such as a rash) to latex, necessitating the use of another method of family planning or a switch to a natural skin condom.

An antenatal G2, T1, P0, A0, L1 client is discussing her postpartum plans for birth control with her health care provider. In analyzing the available choices, which factor has the greatest impact on her birth control options? a) breast- or bottle-feeding plan b) desire for another child in 2 years c) satisfaction with prior methods d) preference of sexual partner

a) breast- or bottle-feeding plan Birth control plans are influenced primarily by whether the mother is breast- or bottle-feeding her infant. The maternal milk supply must be well established prior to the initiation of most hormonal birth control methods. Low-dose oral contraceptives would be the exception. Use of estrogen-/progesterone-based pills and progesterone-only pills are commonly initiated from 4 to 6 weeks postpartum because the milk supply is well established by this time. Prior experiences with birth control methods have an impact on the method chosen as do the preferences of the client's partner; however, they are not the most influential factors. The desire to have another child in 2 years would make some methods, such as an IUD, less attractive but would still be secondary to the choice to breastfeed.

In teaching about HIV transmission, the nurse explains that the virus cannot be transmitted by: a. shaking hands. b. sharing drug needles c. sexual intercourse d. breastfeeding

a. shaking hands.

A 16-year-old comes to the clinic for routine care and is diagnosed with gonorrhea. The client asks the nurse why she needs treatment for this since she has no symptoms. The nurse should explain that possible complications of lack of treatment could result in: a. sterility, birth defects, and miscarriage. b. the need for future births by cesarean section. c. skin rashes and hearing loss. d. disseminated systemic infections.

a. sterility, birth defects, and miscarriage.

The nurse educator is presenting a lecture on clients at risk for developing urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which response made by the staff nurse would indicate to the educator a need for further teaching? a) "Due to the physiological changes with aging, the elderly are at risk for developing an UTI." b) "Having sexual relationships does not put a woman at risk for developing an UTI." c) "I will make sure to teach my clients with diabetes mellitus to control their glucose level to help prevent an UTI." d) "A woman using an intrauterine device for contraceptive reason is at risk for developing an UTI."

b) "Having sexual relationships does not put a woman at risk for developing a UTI." During sexual intercourse, bacteria from the perineal area may travel into the urethra and urinary bladder. The spermicide used with the diaphragm (IUD) decreases the vagina's normally protective flora. The glucose in the urine acts as an excellent medium for bacteria to proliferate in the client with diabetes mellitus. The elderly are predisposed to the development of UTIs due to the physiological changes associated with aging.

The nurse is instructing a male client about safer sexual behaviors. Which client statement indicates a need for additional instruction? a) "After having sex, I should hold onto the condom when pulling out." b) "I will apply baby oil to lubricate the condom." c) "My partner and I should avoid manual-anal intercourse." d) "I should use a new condom each time I have sex."

b) "I will apply baby oil to lubricate the condom." The client should use only water-soluble lubricants, such as K-Y jelly or glycerin. Baby oil can cause the condom to break. The client should use a new condom for each sexual activity and hold onto the condom so that it does not come off when pulling out. Manual-anal intercourse should be avoided.

A female client informs the nurse that she is considering beginning sexual relations and wants to know the best way to protect herself from a sexually transmitted infection and HIV. What is the best response by the nurse? a) "Using a lamb skin condom will be the most effective way to decrease transmission of STIs and HIV" b) "Using a condom (latex) and spermicidal jelly is one of the most effective ways to decrease the risk of transmission of an STI and HIV." c) "Douching immediately after intercourse will be the most effective way to kill bacteria and viruses." d) "Using a diaphragm with spermicidal jelly will also kill the bacteria and viruses that transmit STIs and HIV."

b) "Using a condom (latex) and spermicidal jelly is one of the most effective ways to decrease the risk of transmission of an STI and HIV." Using a condom is one of the most effective ways to reduce the risk of HIV infection. Condoms are available for both men and women. A diaphragm would not be the most effective way because there is no protection for the penis or vagina. A lamb skin condom is not effective to prevent the transmission of HIV. Douching after intercourse is not an effective method to avoid transmission and does not offer protection from secretions that are already present.

Other than abstinence, what is the only proven method of decreasing the risk for sexual transmission of HIV infection? a) Birth control pills b) Consistent and correct use of condoms c) Spermicides d) Vaginal lubricants

b) Consistent and correct use of condoms Other than abstinence, consistent and correct use of condoms is the only method proven to decrease the risk for sexual transmission of HIV infection. Vaginal lubricants, birth control pills, and spermicides do not decrease the risk for sexual transmission of HIV infection.

Which instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a 30-year-old multiparous client who will be using an intrauterine device (IUD) for family planning? a) Amenorrhea is a common adverse effect of IUDs. b) Severe cramping may occur when the IUD is inserted. c) The client needs to use additional protection for conception. d) IUDs are more costly than other forms of contraception.

b) Severe cramping may occur when the IUD is inserted. Severe cramping and pain may occur as the device is passed through the internal cervical os. The insertion of the device is generally done when the client is having her menses, because it is unlikely that she is pregnant at that time. Common adverse effects of IUDs are heavy menstrual bleeding and subsequent anemia, not amenorrhea. Uterine infection or ectopic pregnancy may occur. The IUD has an effectiveness rate of 98%. Therefore, additional protection is not necessary to prevent pregnancy. IUDs generally are less costly than other forms of contraception because they do not require additional expense. Only one insertion is necessary, in comparison to daily doses of oral contraceptives or the need for spermicides in conjunction with diaphragm use.

A woman with human papilloma virus (HPV) is likely to present with which nursing assessment finding? a. Profuse, pus-filled vaginal discharge b. Clusters of genital warts c. Single painless ulcer d. Multiple vesicles on genitalia

b. Clusters of genital warts

When explaining to a pregnant woman about HIV infection and transmission, which of the following would the nurse include? *a.* It primarily occurs when there is a large viral load in the blood *b.* HIV is most commonly transmitted via sexual contact *c.* It affects the majority of infants of mothers with HIV infections *d.* Nurses are most frequently affected due to needlesticks

b. HIV is most commonly transmitted via sexual contact

Which of the following conditions would most likely cause a pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes the greatest difficulty during her pregnancy? *a.* Placenta previa *b.* Hyperemesis gravidarum *c.* Abruptio placentae *d.* Rh incompatibility

b. Hyperemesis gravidarum

Which of the following would the nurse include when teaching a pregnant woman about the pathophysiologic mechanisms associated with gestational diabetes? *a.* Pregnancy fosters the development of carbohydrate cravings *b.* There is progressive resistance to the effects of insulin *c.* Hypoinsulinemia develops early in the first trimester *d.* Glucose levels decrease to accommodate fetal growth

b. There is progressive resistance to the effects of insulin

The nurse's primary role related to sexually transmitted infections is: a. case reporting of partners. b. detection and education. c. sexual counseling. d. diagnosis and treatment.

b. detection and education.

A client is asking for information about using an intrauterine device (IUD). Which question when asked by the nurse would provide pertinent information on whether or not a client is a candidate for an IUD? a) "Do you smoke?" b) "Do you have hypertension?" c) "Are you in a monogamous relationship?" d) "How often do you have sex?"

c) "Are you in a monogamous relationship?" Due to the increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease, candidates for the IUD should be in a monogamous relationship. Smoking and hypertension are not contraindications for an IUD. The frequency of sexual relations will not affect IUD use.

Students in a health class are discussing birth control and prevention of sexually transmitted disease. The school nurse would know that teaching has been effective if the students state which of the following? a) "Safe sex means preventing pregnancy through use of birth control." b) "The rhythm method means not having sex just before menstruation." c) "Responsible sex involves using condoms and spermicides for protection and birth control." d) "The intrauterine device is the most effective way to prevent pregnancy."

c) "Responsible sex involves using condoms and spermicides for protection and birth control." This comment indicates an understanding of ways to lessen the incidence of sexually transmitted illnesses by condom use. It also indicates that use of a spermicide and condom will help to prevent unwanted pregnancies. The other choices are not accurate examples of safer sex.

While teaching sex education to a group of high school students, the nurse talks about forms of birth control. Which of the following could the nurse say is 100% effective if practiced correctly and consistently? a) Oral contraceptives b) Withdrawal prior to ejaculation c) Abstinence d) Condoms

c) Abstinence Abstinence is not having sex. It is the most effective form of birth control, preventing pregnancy 100% of the time when practiced consistently.

Which of the following is the first barrier method that can be controlled by the woman? a) Diaphragm b) Birth control pills c) Female condom d) IUD

c) Female condom The female condom has the distinction of being the first barrier method that can be controlled by the woman. The IUD may increase the risk for HIV transmission through an inflammatory foreign body response. The female condom is as effective in preventing pregnancy as other barrier methods, such as the diaphragm and the male condom. Birth control pills are not a barrier method.

A nurse is teaching a group of clients about birth control methods. When providing instruction about subdermal contraceptive implants, the nurse should cite which feature as the main advantage of this method? a) The implants can be removed easily if pregnancy occurs. b) The implants require a lower hormonal dose than other hormonal contraceptive methods. c) The implants provide effective, continuous contraception that isn't user dependent. d) The implants cost less over the long term than other contraceptive methods.

c) The implants provide effective, continuous contraception that isn't user dependent. Although all of the options accurately describe features of subdermal contraceptive implants, the main advantage of this contraceptive method is effective, continuous contraception that isn't user dependent. The effectiveness of other methods, such as the condom, diaphragm, and oral contraceptives, depends at least partly on the user's knowledge, skills, and motivation.

The nurse is addressing primary prevention with a group of college students. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention measure? a) Testicular examinations for the male students b) HIV screening c) Use of condoms and safer sex practices d) Annual Pap smears for the female students

c) Use of condoms and safer sex practices Safer sex practices, which include using condoms, are examples of primary prevention measures. HIV screening, annual Pap smears, and testicular examinations are secondary prevention measures.

A nurse is planning care for a 25-year-old female client who has just been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. The client asks the nurse, "How could this have happened?" The nurse responds to the question based on the most frequent mode of HIV transmission, which is: a) sharing food utensils with an HIV-positive person without proper cleaning of the utensils. b) hugging an HIV-positive sexual partner without using barrier precautions. c) having sexual intercourse with an HIV-positive person without using a condom. d) inhaling cocaine.

c) having sexual intercourse with an HIV-positive person without using a condom. HIV infection is transmitted through blood and body fluids, particularly vaginal and seminal fluids. A blood transfusion is one way the disease can be contracted. Other modes of transmission are sexual intercourse with an infected partner and sharing IV needles with an infected person. Women now have the highest rate of newly diagnosed HIV infection. Many of these women have contracted HIV from unprotected sex with male partners. HIV cannot be transmitted by hugging, inhaling cocaine, or sharing utensils.

To confirm a finding of primary syphilis, the nurse would observe which of the following on the external genitalia? a. A highly variable skin rash b. A yellow-green vaginal discharge c. A nontender, indurated ulcer d. A localized gumma formation

c. A nontender, indurated ulcer

Women who drink alcohol during pregnancy: *a.* Often produce more alcohol dehydrogenase *b.* Usually become intoxicated faster than before *c.* Can give birth to an infant with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder *d.* Gain fewer pounder throughout the gestation

c. Can give birth to an infant with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder

Which contraceptive methods offer protection against STIs? a. Oral contraceptives b. withdrawal c. latex condom d. IUC

c. latex condom

The nurse is evaluating a female client's understanding of how to prevent sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands how to protect herself? a) "I will be sure to take antibiotics to prevent an STD." b) "I need to be sure to take my birth control pills." c) "I will always douche after sexual intercourse." d) "I will be sure my partner uses a condom."

d) "I will be sure my partner uses a condom." Barrier contraceptives must be used to protect against STDs. Birth control pills and douching are not effective for the prevention of STDs. Prophylactic antibiotics are not used to prevent the acquisition of STDs.

What is most important for the nurse to teach a client newly diagnosed with genital herpes? a) A urologist should be seen only when lesions occur. b) Determine if your partner has received a vaccine against herpes. c) Oral sex is permissible without a barrier. d) Use condoms at all times during sexual intercourse.

d) Use condoms at all times during sexual intercourse. The client should be taught to abstain from sexual intercourse while lesions are present. Condoms should always be used as the virus can be shed without lesions. Multiple partners would promote the spread of genital herpes. There is no vaccine available to prevent genital herpes. Although periodic examinations should be advised, a urologist does not necessarily need to be seen when lesions occur.

The nurse's discharge teaching plan for the woman with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) should reinforce which of the following potentially life-threatening complications? a. Involuntary infertility b. Chronic pelvic pain c. Depression d. Ectopic pregnancy

d. Ectopic pregnancy

When providing prenatal education to a pregnant woman with asthma, which of the following would be important for the nurse to do? *a.* Explain that she should avoid steroid during her pregnancy *b.* Demonstrate how to assess her blood glucose levels *c.* Teach correct administration of subcutaneous bronchodilators *d.* Ensure she seeks treatment for any acute exacerbation

d. Ensure she seeks treatment for any acute exacerbation

After teaching a woman about hyperemesis gravidarum and how it differs from the typical nausea and vomiting of pregnancy, which statement by the woman indicates that the teaching was successful?

"I need to avoid strong odors, perfumes, or flavors."

A woman is suspected of having abruptio placentae. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess as a classic symptom?

"Knife-like" abdominal pain

A nurse is reviewing a new prescription for ferrous sulfate with a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I will take this pill with my breakfast." B. "I will take this medication with a glass of milk." C. "I plan to drink more orange juice while taking this pill." D. "I plan to add more calcium-rich foods to my diet while taking this medication."

C. "I plan to drink more orange juice while taking this pill." A diet with increased vitamin C improves the absorption of ferrous sulfate.

A woman is being discharged after receiving treatment for a hydatidiform molar pregnancy. The nurse should include which of the following in her discharge teaching?

Do not become pregnant for at least a year; use contraceptives to prevent it

A pregnant woman, approximately 12 weeks' gestation, comes to the emergency department after calling her health care provider's office and reporting moderate vaginal bleeding. Assessment reveals cervical dilation and moderately strong abdominal cramps. She reports that she has passed some tissue with the bleeding. The nurse interprets these findings to suggest which of the following?

Inevitable abortion

When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia, the nurse explains to her that this drug is given to?

Prevent Seizures

RhoGAM is given to Rh-negative women to prevent maternal sensitization. In addition to pregnancy, Rh-negative women would also receive this medication after which of the following?

Therapeutic or spontaneous abortion