Ob test 2 4-10

40. Practice of the calendar rhythm method is based on the number of days in each menstrual cycle. The fertile period is determined after monitoring each cycle for 6 months. The beginning of the fertile period is estimated by subtracting 18 days from the longest cycle and 11 days from the shortest. If the womans cycles vary in length from 24 to 30 days, what would her fertile period be?

Day 6 to day 19 To avoid pregnancy, the couple must abstain from intercourse on days 6 through 19. Ovulation occurs on day 12 (plus or minus 2 days either way).

A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test. The first day of her last menstrual period (LMP) was September 10, 2013. Her expected date of birth (EDB) would be?

June 17, 2014`

A newly pregnant patient visits her providers office for the first prenatal appointment. To estimate accurate weight gain throughout the pregnancy, the nurse will be evaluating the appropriateness of weight for height using the body mass index (BMI). The patient weighs 51 kg and is 1.57 m tall.

The BMI is 20:7 BMI = weight divided by height squared. BMI = 51 kg/(1.57m)2, or 20.7. Prepregnant BMI can be classified into the following categories: <18.5, underweight or low; 18.5-24.9, normal; 25-29.9 overweight or high; and >30, obese

Biophysical risks include factors that originate with either the mother or the fetus and affect the functioning of either one or both. The nurse who provides prenatal care should have an understanding of these risk factors. Match the specific pregnancy problem with the related risk factor.

28. Premature rupture of membranes -c. Oligohydramnios 29. Advanced maternal age -d. Chromosomal abnormalities 30. Fetal congenital anomalies-a. Polyhydramnios 31. Abnormal placenta development- e. Intrauterine growth restriction (fetoplacental cause) 32. Smoking, alcohol, and illicit drug use-b. Intrauterine growth restriction (maternal cause) Each pregnancy problem can be attributed to a number of related risk factors. Polyhydramnios may also be the result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Other maternal causes of IUGR include hypertensive disorders, diabetes, chronic renal disease, vascular disease, thrombophilia, poor weight gain, and cyanotic heart disease. Fetoplacental causes of IUGR may be related to chromosomal abnormalities, congenital malformations, intrauterine infection, or genetic syndromes. Other contributors to oligohydramnios are renal agenesis, prolonged pregnancy, uteroplacental insufficiency, and paternal hypertensive disorders. Although advanced maternal age is a well-known cause of chromosomal abnormalities, other causes include parental chromosome rearrangements and pregnancy with autosomal trisomy

. A woman is 6 weeks pregnant. She has had a previous spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with the birth of a stillborn girl. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system

3-1-0-1-0 The correct calculation of this womans gravidity and parity is 3-1-0-1-0. Using the GPTAL system, this clients gravidity and parity information is calculated as follows: G: Total number of times the woman has been pregnant (she is pregnant for the third time) T: Number of pregnancies carried to term (she has had only one pregnancy that resulted in a fetus at term) P: Number of pregnancies that resulted in a preterm birth (none) A: Abortions or miscarriages before the period of viability (she has had one) L: Number of children born who are currently living (she has no living children)

Evaluation for infertility should be offered to couples who have failed to become pregnant after 1 year of regular intercourse or after 6 months if the woman is older than 35. Impaired fertility in women may be the result of numerous factors. Careful identification of the cause of infertility assists in determining the correct treatment plan. The nurse who chooses to work in the specialty of infertility must have an excellent understanding of these factors and causes. Match each factor affecting female infertility with the likely cause

35. Endometrial or myometrial tumors- c. Uterine 36. Anorexia-a. Ovarian 37. Isoimmunization -d. Vaginal/cervica 38. Thyroid dysfunction- or obesity- e. Other factors 39. Endometriosis-b. Tubal/peritoneal Ovarian factors include congenital anomalies, primary or secondary anovulation (anorexia), and medications. Tubal or peritoneal factors include congenital anomalies of the tubes, reduced tubal motility, inflammation, adhesions, and disruption owing to tubal pregnancy and endometriosis. Uterine factors include developmental anomalies of the uterus, endometrial and fibroid tumors, and Ashermans syndrome. Vaginalcervical factors include vaginal-cervical infections, inadequate cervical mucus, and isoimmunization (development of sperm antibodies). Other factors may include nutritional deficiencies, obesity, thyroid dysfunction, and idiopathic conditions.

All pregnant women should be instructed to recognize and report potential complications for each trimester of pregnancy. Match the sign or symptom with a possible cause.

36. Fetal jeopardy or intrauterine fetal death-d. Decreased fetal movement 37. Kidney infection or stones -c. Severe backache and flank pain 38. Gestational diabetes -e. Glycosuria 39. Hyperemesis gravidarum-a. Severe vomiting in early pregnancy 40. Hypertension, preeclampsia-b. Epigastric pain in late pregnancy

Herbal preparations have long been used for the management of menstrual problems, including dysmenorrhea, cramping and discomfort, and breast pain. For the nurse to counsel adequately the client who elects to use this alternative modality, it is important to understand the action of these herbal preparations. Match the herbal medicine with the appropriate action.

48. Fennel, dong quai -b. Uterotonic 49. Chaste tree fruit-e. Decreases prolactin levels 50. Black cohosh-d. Estrogen-like luteinizing hormone suppressant 51. Valerian, wild yam-a. Uterine antispasmodic 52. Ginger-d. Estrogen-like luteinizing hormone suppressant Herbal medicines may be valuable in treating dysmenorrhea; however, it is essential for women to understand that these therapies are not without potential toxicity and may cause drug interactions.

Which statement about pregnancy is accurate? a. A normal pregnancy lasts about 10 lunar months. b. A trimester is one third of a year. c. The prenatal period extends from fertilization to conception. d. The estimated date of confinement (EDC) is how long the mother will have to be bedridden after birth.

a. A normal pregnancy lasts about 10 lunar months. A lunar month lasts 28 days, or 4 weeks. Pregnancy spans 9 calendar months but 10 lunar months. A trimester is one third of a normal pregnancy, or about 13 to 14 weeks. The prenatal period covers the full course of pregnancy (prenatal means before birth). The EDC is now called the EDB, or estimated date of birth. It has nothing to do with the duration of bed rest.

. Which nutritional recommendation about fluids is accurate? a. A womans daily intake should be eight to ten glasses (2.3 L) of water, milk, or juice. b. Coffee should be limited to no more than two cups, but tea and cocoa can be consumed without worry. c. Of the artificial sweeteners, only aspartame has not been associated with any maternity health concerns. d. Water with fluoride is especially encouraged because it reduces the childs risk of tooth decay.

a. A womans daily intake should be eight to ten glasses (2.3 L) of water, milk, or juice. Eight to ten glasses is the standard for fluids; however, they should be the right fluids. All beverages containing caffeine, including tea, cocoa, and some soft drinks, should be avoided or drunk only in limited amounts. Artificial sweeteners, including aspartame, have no ill effects on the normal mother or fetus; however, mothers with phenylketonuria should avoid aspartame. No evidence indicates that prenatal fluoride consumption reduces childhood tooth decay.

. Prenatal testing for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is recommended for: a. All women, regardless of risk factors. b. A woman who has had more than one sexual partner. c. A woman who has had a sexually transmitted infection. d. A woman who is monogamous with her partner

a. All women, regardless of risk factors.Testing for the antibody to HIV is strongly recommended for all pregnant women. A HIV test is recommended for all women, regardless of risk factors. Women who test positive for HIV can be treated, reducing the risk of transmission to the fetus

A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have: a. Amenorrhea. c. Chadwicks sign. b. Positive pregnancy test. d. Hegars sign

a. Amenorrhea. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Presumptive signs of pregnancy are felt by the woman. A positive pregnancy test, the presence of Chadwicks sign, and the presence of Hegars sign all are probable signs of pregnancy.

A key finding from the Human Genome Project is: a. Approximately 20,000 genes make up the genome. b. All human beings are 80.99% identical at the DNA level. c. Human genes produce only one protein per gene; other mammals produce three proteins per gene. d. Single gene testing will become a standardized test for all pregnant clients in the future

a. Approximately 20,000 genes make up the genome. Approximately 20,500 genes make up the human genome; this is only twice as many as make up the genomes of roundworms and flies. Human beings are 99.9% identical at the DNA level. Most human genes produce at least three proteins. Single gene testing (e.g., alpha-fetoprotein) is already standardized for prenatal care

On vaginal examination of a 30-year-old woman, the nurse documents the following findings: profuse, thin, grayish white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor; complaint of pruritus. On the basis of these findings, the nurse suspects that this woman has: a. Bacterial vaginosis (BV). c. Trichomoniasis. b. Candidiasis. d. Gonorrhea

a. Bacterial vaginosis (BV). Most women with BV complain of a characteristic fishy odor. The discharge usually is profuse; thin; and white, gray, or milky in color. Some women also may have mild irritation or pruritus. The discharge associated with candidiasis is thick, white, and lumpy and resembles cottage cheese. Trichomoniasis may be asymptomatic, but women commonly have a characteristic yellowish-to-greenish, frothy, mucopurulent, copious, and malodorous discharge. Women with gonorrhea are often asymptomatic. They may have a purulent endocervical discharge, but discharge usually is minimal or absent.

. The nurse is assessing the knowledge of new parents with a child born with maple syrup urine disease (MSUD). This is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder, which means that: a. Both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed. b. Only one copy of the abnormal gene is required for the disorder to be expressed. c. The disorder occurs in males and heterozygous females. d. The disorder is carried on the X chromosome.

a. Both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed. MSUD is a type of autosomal recessive inheritance disorder in which both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed. MSUD is not an X-linked dominant or recessive disorder or an autosomal dominant inheritance disorder.

Periodic walking helps prevent thrombophlebitis. Pregnant women should avoid sitting or standing for long periods and crossing the legs at the knees. Pregnant women must wear lap belts and shoulder restraints. The most common injury to the fetus comes from injury to the mother. Metal detectors at airport security checkpoints do not harm fetuses a. Both prescription and over-the-counter (OTC) drugs that otherwise are harmless can be made hazardous by metabolic deficiencies of the fetus. b. The greatest danger of drug-caused developmental deficits in the fetus is seen in the final trimester. c. Killed-virus vaccines (e.g., tetanus) should not be given during pregnancy, but live-virus vaccines (e.g., measles) are permissible. d. No convincing evidence exists that secondhand smoke is potentially dangerous to the fetus.

a. Both prescription and over-the-counter (OTC) drugs that otherwise are harmless can be made hazardous by metabolic deficiencies of the fetus. Both prescription and OTC drugs that otherwise are harmless can be made hazardous by metabolic deficiencies of the fetus. This is especially true for new medications and combinations of drugs. The greatest danger of drug-caused developmental defects exists in the interval from fertilization through the first trimester, when a woman may not realize that she is pregnant. Live-virus vaccines should be part of postpartum care; killed-virus vaccines may be administered during pregnancy. Secondhand smoke is associated with fetal growth restriction and increases in infant mortality.

A woman was treated recently for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). She has intercourse occasionally and uses over-the-counter protection. On the basis of her history, what contraceptive method should she and her partner avoid? a. Cervical cap c. Vaginal film b. Condom d. Vaginal sheath

a. Cervical cap Women with a history of TSS should not use a cervical cap. Condoms, vaginal films, and vaginal sheaths are not contraindicated for a woman with a history of TSS

Which congenital malformations result from multifactorial inheritance (Select all that apply)? a. Cleft lip b. Congenital heart disease c. Cri du chat syndrome d. Anencephaly e. Pyloric stenosis

a. Cleft lip b. Congenital heart disease d. Anencephaly e. Pyloric stenosis All these congenital malformations are associated with multifactorial inheritance. Cri du chat syndrome is related to a chromosome deletion

The placenta allows exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the mother and fetus by: a. Contact between maternal blood and fetal capillaries within the chorionic villi. b. Interaction of maternal and fetal pH levels within the endometrial vessels. c. A mixture of maternal and fetal blood within the intervillous spaces. d. Passive diffusion of maternal carbon dioxide and oxygen into the fetal capillaries.

a. Contact between maternal blood and fetal capillaries within the chorionic villi. Fetal capillaries within the chorionic villi are bathed with oxygen-rich and nutrient-rich maternal blood within the intervillous spaces. The endometrial vessels are part of the uterus. There is no interaction with the fetal blood at this point. Maternal and fetal blood do not normally mix. Maternal carbon dioxide does not enter into the fetal circulation.

Which statement regarding acronyms in nutrition is accurate? a. Dietary reference intakes (DRIs) consist of recommended dietary allowances (RDAs), adequate intakes (AIs), and upper limits (ULs). b. RDAs are the same as ULs except with better data. c. AIs offer guidelines for avoiding excessive amounts of nutrients. d. They all refer to green leafy vegetables, whole grains, and fruit.

a. Dietary reference intakes (DRIs) consist of recommended dietary allowances (RDAs), adequate intakes (AIs), and upper limits (ULs). DRIs consist of RDAs, AIs, and ULs. AIs are similar to RDAs except that they deal with nutrients about which data are insufficient for certainty (RDA status). ULs are guidelines for avoiding excesses of nutrients for which excess is toxic. Green leafy vegetables, whole grains, and fruit are important, but they are not the whole nutritional story.

A woman is 16 weeks pregnant and has elected to terminate her pregnancy. The nurse knows that the most common technique used for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester is: a. Dilation and evacuation (D&E). b. Instillation of hypertonic saline into the uterine cavity. c. Intravenous administration of Pitocin. d. Vacuum aspiration.

a. Dilation and evacuation (D&E). The most common technique for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester is D&E. It is usually performed between 13 and 16 weeks. Hypertonic solutions injected directly into the uterus account for less than 1% of all abortions because other methods are safer and easier to use. Intravenous administration of Pitocin is used to induce labor in a woman with a third-trimester fetal demise. Vacuum aspiration is used for abortions in the first trimester

A woman is in for a routine prenatal checkup. You are assessing her urine for proteinuria. Which findings are considered normal (Select all that apply)? a. Dipstick assessment of trace to +1 c. Dipstick assessment of +2 b. <300 mg/24 hours d. >300 mg/24 hours

a. Dipstick assessment of trace to +1 b. <300 mg/24 hours Small amounts of protein in the urine are acceptable during pregnancy. The presence of protein in greater amounts may indicate renal problems. A dipstick assessment of +2 and >300 mg/24 hours are excessive amounts of protein in the urine and should be evaluated further

Appendicitis may be difficult to diagnose in pregnancy because the appendix is: a. Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the right. b. Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the left. c. Deep at McBurney point. d. Displaced downward and laterally, low and to the right.

a. Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the right. The appendix is displaced high and to the right, beyond McBurney point.

Fibrocystic changes in the breast most often appear in women in their 20s and 30s. The etiology is unknown, but it may be an imbalance of estrogen and progesterone. The nurse who cares for this client should be aware that treatment modalities are conservative. One proven modality that may provide relief is: a. Diuretic administration. b. Including caffeine daily in the diet. c. Increased vitamin C supplementation. d. Application of cold packs to the breast as necessary.

a. Diuretic administration. Diuretic administration plus a decrease in sodium and fluid intake are recommended. Although not supported by research, some advocate eliminating dimethylxanthines (caffeine) from the diet. Smoking should also be avoided, and alcohol consumption should be reduced. Vitamin E supplements are recommended; however, the client should avoid megadoses because this is a fat-soluble vitamin. Pain relief measures include applying heat to the breast, wearing a supportive bra, and taking nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.

. The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what other tool would be useful in confirming the diagnosis? a. Doppler blood flow analysis c. Amniocentesis b. Contraction stress test (CST) d. Daily fetal movement counts

a. Doppler blood flow analysis Doppler blood flow analysis allows the examiner to study the blood flow noninvasively in the fetus and the placenta. It is a helpful tool in the management of high risk pregnancies because of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), diabetes mellitus, multiple fetuses, or preterm labor. Because of the potential risk of inducing labor and causing fetal distress, CST is not performed on a woman whose fetus is preterm. Indications for amniocentesis include diagnosis of genetic disorders or congenital anomalies, assessment of pulmonary maturity, and diagnosis of fetal hemolytic disease, not IUGR. Fetal kick count monitoring is performed to monitor the fetus in pregnancies complicated by conditions that may affect fetal oxygenation. Although this may be a useful tool at some point later in this womans pregnancy, it is not used to diagnose IUGR.

The multiple marker test is used to assess the fetus for which condition? a. Down syndrome c. Congenital cardiac abnormality b. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Anencephaly

a. Down syndrome The maternal serum level of alpha-fetoprotein is used to screen for Down syndrome, neural tube defects, and other chromosome anomalies. The multiple marker test would not detect diaphragmatic hernia, congenital cardiac abnormality, or anencephaly. Additional testing, such as ultrasonography and amniocentesis, would be required to diagnose these conditions

A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is called: a. Ductal ectasia. c. Chronic cystic disease. b. Intraductal papilloma . d. Fibroadenoma

a. Ductal ectasia. Generally occurring in women approaching menopause, ductal ectasia results in a firm irregular mass in the breast, enlarged axillary nodes, and nipple discharge. Intraductal papillomas develop in the epithelium of the ducts of the breasts; as the mass grows, it causes trauma or erosion within the ducts. Chronic cystic disease causes pain and tenderness. The cysts that form are multiple, smooth, and well delineated. Fibroadenoma is evidenced by fibrous and glandular tissues. They are felt as firm, rubbery, and freely mobile nodules.

. A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to: a. Endometriosis. c. Primary dysmenorrhea. b. PMS. d. Secondary dysmenorrhea

a. Endometriosis. Symptoms of endometriosis can change over time and may not reflect the extent of the disease. Major symptoms include dysmenorrhea and deep pelvic dyspareunia (painful intercourse). Impaired fertility may result from adhesions caused by endometriosis. Although endometriosis may be associated with secondary dysmenorrhea, it is not a cause of primary dysmenorrhea or PMS. In addition, this woman is complaining of dyspareunia and infertility, which are associated with endometriosis, not with PMS or primary or secondary dysmenorrhea.

Which nutrients recommended dietary allowance (RDA) is higher during lactation than during pregnancy? a. Energy (kcal) c. Vitamin A b. Iron d. Folic acid

a. Energy (kcal) Needs for energy, protein, calcium, iodine, zinc, the B vitamins, and vitamin C remain greater than nonpregnant needs.

. The exact cause of breast cancer remains undetermined. Researchers have found that there are many common risk factors that increase a womans chance of developing a malignancy. It is essential for the nurse who provides care to women of any age to be aware of which of the following risk factors (Select all that apply)? a. Family history b. Late menarche c. Early menopause d. Race e. Nulliparity or first pregnancy after age 30

a. Family history d. Race e. Nulliparity or first pregnancy after age 30 Family history, race, and nulliparity are known risk factors for the development of breast cancer. Other risk factors include age, personal history of cancer, high socioeconomic status, sedentary lifestyle, hormone replacement therapy, recent use of oral contraceptives, never having breastfed a child, and drinking more than one alcoholic beverage per day. Early menarche and late menopause are risk factors for breast malignancy, not late menarche and early menopause

. Examples of sexual risk behaviors associated with exposure to a sexually transmitted infection (STI) include (Select all that apply): a. Fellatio. b. Unprotected anal intercourse. c. Multiple sex partners. d. Dry kissing. e. Abstinence.

a. Fellatio. b. Unprotected anal intercourse. c. Multiple sex partners. Engaging in these sexual activities increases the exposure risk and the possibility of acquiring an STI. Dry kissing and abstinence are considered safe sexual practices.

. The nurse caring for the laboring woman should know that meconium is produced by: a. Fetal intestines. c. Amniotic fluid. b. Fetal kidneys. d. The placenta

a. Fetal intestines. As the fetus nears term, fetal waste products accumulate in the intestines as dark green-to-black, tarry meconium.

A woman has a thick, white, lumpy, cottage cheeselike discharge, with patches on her labia and in her vagina. She complains of intense pruritus. The nurse practitioner would order which preparation for treatment? a. Fluconazole c. Clindamycin b. Tetracycline d. Acyclovir

a. Fluconazole Fluconazole, metronidazole, and clotrimazole are the drugs of choice to treat candidiasis. Tetracycline is used to treat syphilis. Clindamycin is used to treat bacterial vaginosis. Acyclovir is used to treat genital herpes

. Identify a goal of a patient with the following nursing diagnosis: Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements related to diet choices inadequate to meet nutrient requirements of pregnancy. a. Gain a total of 30 lb. b. Take daily supplements consistently. c. Decrease intake of snack foods. d. Increase intake of complex carbohydrates

a. Gain a total of 30 lb. A weight gain of 30 lb is one indication that the patient has gained a sufficient amount for the nutritional needs of pregnancy. A daily supplement is not the best goal for this patient. It does not meet the basic need of proper nutrition during pregnancy. Decreasing snack foods may be a problem and should be assessed; however, assessing weight gain is the best method of monitoring nutritional intake for this pregnant patient. Increasing the intake of complex carbohydrates is important for this patient, but monitoring the weight gain should be the end goal

The nurse must be cognizant that an individuals genetic makeup is known as his or her: a. Genotype . c. Karyotype. b. Phenotype. d. Chromotype.

a. Genotype. The genotype comprises all the genes the individual can pass on to a future generation. The phenotype is the observable expression of an individuals genotype. The karyotype is a pictorial analysis of the number, form, and size of an individuals chromosomes. Genotype refers to an individuals genetic makeup

. Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment: a. Has no known contraindications. b. Has fewer false-positive results. c. Is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise. d. Is slightly more expensive

a. Has no known contraindications. CST has several contraindications. NST has a high rate of false-positive results, is less sensitive than the CST, and is relatively inexpensive

During a clients physical examination the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is soft on palpation. The nurse would document this finding as: a. Hegars sign c. Chadwicks sign b. McDonalds sign d. Goodells sign

a. Hegars sign At approximately 6 weeks of gestation, softening and compressibility of the lower uterine segment occur; this is called Hegars sign. McDonalds sign indicates a fast food restaurant. Chadwicks sign is the blue-violet coloring of the cervix caused by increased vascularity; this occurs around the fourth week of gestation. Softening of the cervical tip is called Goodells sign, which may be observed around the sixth week of pregnancy

. Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes? a. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2 b. Human papillomavirus (HPV) c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

a. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2 The initial HSV genital infection is characterized by multiple painful lesions, fever, chills, malaise, and severe dysuria; it may last 2 to 3 weeks. Recurrent episodes of HSV infection commonly have only local symptoms that usually are less severe than the symptoms of the initial infection. With HPV infection, lesions are a chronic problem. HIV is a retrovirus. Seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within 6 to 12 weeks after the virus has entered the body. Severe depression of the cellular immune system associated with HIV infection characterizes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). AIDS has no cure. In most adults, the onset of CMV infection is uncertain and asymptomatic. However, the disease may become a chronic, persistent infection.

Along with gas exchange and nutrient transfer, the placenta produces many hormones necessary for normal pregnancy. These include (select all that apply) a. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) b. Insulin c. Estrogen d. Progesterone e. Testosterone

a. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) c. Estrogen d. Progesterone hCG causes the corpus luteum to persist and produce the necessary estrogens and progesterone for the first 6 to 8 weeks. Estrogens cause enlargement of the womans uterus and breasts; cause growth of the ductal system in the breasts; and, as term approaches, play a role in the initiation of labor. Progesterone causes the endometrium to change, providing early nourishment. Progesterone also protects against spontaneous abortion by suppressing maternal reactions to fetal antigens and reduces unnecessary uterine contractions. Other hormones produced by the placenta include hCT, hCA, and numerous growth factors. Human placental lactogen promotes normal nutrition and growth of the fetus and maternal breast development for lactation. This hormone decreases maternal insulin sensitivity and utilization of glucose, making more glucose available for fetal growth. If a Y chromosome is present in the male fetus, hCG causes the fetal testes to secrete testosterone necessary for the normal development of male reproductive structures.

Which symptom described by a patient is characteristic of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)? a. I feel irritable and moody a week before my period is supposed to start. b. I have lower abdominal pain beginning the third day of my menstrual period. c. I have nausea and headaches after my period starts, and they last 2 to 3 days d. I have abdominal bloating and breast pain after a couple days of my period

a. I feel irritable and moody a week before my period is supposed to start PMS is a cluster of physical, psychologic, and behavioral symptoms that begin in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and resolve within a couple of days of the onset of menses. Complaints of lower abdominal pain, nausea and headaches, and abdominal bloating all are associated with PMS. However, the timing reflected is inaccurate

In vitro fertilization-embryo transfer (IVF-ET) is a common approach for women with blocked fallopian tubes or unexplained infertility and for men with very low sperm counts. A husband and wife have arrived for their preprocedural interview. The husband asks the nurse to explain what the procedure entails. The nurses most appropriate response is: a. IVF-ET is a type of assisted reproductive therapy that involves collecting eggs from your wifes ovaries, fertilizing them in the laboratory with your sperm, and transferring the embryo to her uterus. b. A donor embryo will be transferred into your wifes uterus. c. Donor sperm will be used to inseminate your wife. d. Dont worry about the technical stuff; thats what we are here for.

a. IVF-ET is a type of assisted reproductive therapy that involves collecting eggs from your wifes ovaries, fertilizing them in the laboratory with your sperm, and transferring the embryo to her uterus. A womans eggs are collected from her ovaries, fertilized in the laboratory with sperm, and transferred to her uterus after normal embryonic development has occurred. The statement, A donor embryo will be transferred into your wifes uterus describes therapeutic donor insemination. Donor sperm will be used to inseminate your wife describes the procedure for a donor embryo. Dont worry about the technical stuff; thats what we are here for discredits the clients need for teaching and is an inappropriate response.

. The diagnosis of pregnancy is based on which positive signs of pregnancy (Select all that apply)? a. Identification of fetal heartbeat b. Palpation of fetal outline c. Visualization of the fetus d. Verification of fetal movement e. Positive hCG test

a. Identification of fetal heartbeat c. Visualization of the fetus d. Verification of fetal movement Identification of fetal heartbeat, visualization of the fetus, and verification of fetal movement all are positive, objective signs of pregnancy. Palpation of fetal outline and a positive hCG test are probable signs of pregnancy. A tumor also can be palpated. Medication and tumors may lead to false-positive results on pregnancy tests

The nurse caring for a pregnant client knows that her health teaching regarding fetal circulation has been effective when the client reports that she has been sleeping: a. In a side-lying position. b. On her back with a pillow under her knees. c. With the head of the bed elevated. d. On her abdomen.

a. In a side-lying positionOptimal circulation is achieved when the woman is lying at rest on her side. Decreased uterine circulation may lead to intrauterine growth restriction. Previously it was believed that the left lateral position promoted maternal cardiac output, enhancing blood flow to the fetus. However, it is now known that the side-lying position enhances uteroplacental blood flow. If a woman lies on her back with the pressure of the uterus compressing the vena cava, blood return to the right atrium is diminished. Although having the head of the bed elevated is recommended and ideal for later in pregnancy, the woman still must maintain a lateral tilt to the pelvis to avoid compression of the vena cava. Many women find lying on her abdomen uncomfortable as pregnancy advances. Side-lying is the ideal position to promote blood flow to the fetus

Congenital disorders refer to conditions that are present at birth. These disorders may be inherited and caused by environmental factors or maternal malnutrition. Toxic exposures have the greatest effect on development between 15 and 60 days of gestation. For the nurse to be able to conduct a complete assessment of the newly pregnant client, she should understand the significance of exposure to known human teratogens. These include(Select all that apply): a. Infections. b. Radiation. c. Maternal conditions. d. Drugs. e. Chemicals.

a. Infections. b. Radiation. c. Maternal conditions. d. Drugs. e. Chemicals. Exposure to radiation and numerous infections may result in profound congenital deformities. These include but are not limited to varicella, rubella, syphilis, parvovirus, cytomegalovirus, and toxoplasmosis. Certain maternal conditions such as diabetes and phenylketonuria may also affect organs and other parts of the embryo during this developmental period. Drugs such as antiseizure medication and some antibiotics as well as chemicals, including lead, mercury, tobacco, and alcohol, also may result in structural and functional abnormalities.

Nurses should be aware that the biophysical profile (BPP): a. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death. b. Is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of pregnancy. c. Consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index. d. Involves an invasive form of ultrasound examination

a. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death An abnormal BPP score is an indication that labor should be induced. The BPP evaluates the health of the fetus, requires many different measures, and is a noninvasive procedure

A first-time mother at 18 weeks of gestation comes for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit. The client tells the nurse that she is afraid that she is going into premature labor because she is beginning to have regular contractions. The nurse explains that this is the Braxton Hicks sign and teaches the client that this type of contraction: a. Is painless. c. Causes cervical dilation. b. Increases with walking . d. Impedes oxygen flow to the fetus.

a. Is painless. Uterine contractions can be felt through the abdominal wall soon after the fourth month of gestation. Braxton Hicks contractions are regular and painless and continue throughout the pregnancy. Although they are not painful, some women complain that they are annoying. Braxton Hicks contractions usually cease with walking or exercise. They can be mistaken for true labor; however, they do not increase in intensity or frequency or cause cervical dilation. In addition, they facilitate uterine blood flow through the intervillous spaces of the placenta and promote oxygen delivery to the fetus.

7. Nurses should a. Is perceived differently by women and men. b. Has a relatively stable prevalence among the overall population and throughout a womans potential reproductive years. c. Is more likely the result of a physical flaw in the woman than in her male partner. d. Is the same thing as sterilitybe aware that infertility:

a. Is perceived differently by women and men. Women tend to be more stressed about infertility tests and to place more importance on having children. The prevalence of infertility is stable among the overall population, but it increases with a womans age, especially after age 40. Of cases with an identifiable cause, about 40% are related to female factors, 40% to male factors, and 20% to both partners. Sterility is the inability to conceive. Infertility, or subfertility, is a state of requiring a prolonged time to conceive

You (the nurse) are reviewing the educational packet provided to a client about tubal ligation. What is an important fact you should point out (Select all that apply)? a. It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure. b. This is an effective form of 100% permanent sterilization. You wont be able to get pregnant. c. Sterilization offers some form of protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). d. Sterilization offers no protection against STIs. e. Yourmenstrualcyclewillgreatlyincreaseafteryoursterilization

a. It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure d. Sterilization offers no protection against STIs. A woman is unlikely to become pregnant after tubal ligation, although it is not 100% effective. Sterilization offers no protection against STIs. The menstrual cycle typically remains the same after a tubal ligation.

As relates to dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB), the nurse should be aware that: a. It is most commonly caused by anovulation. b. It most often occurs in middle age. c. The diagnosis of DUB should be the first considered for abnormal menstrual bleeding. d. The most effective medical treatment is steroids

a. It is most commonly caused by anovulation. Anovulation may occur because of hypothalamic dysfunction or polycystic ovary syndrome. DUB most often occurs when the menstrual cycle is being established or when it draws to a close at menopause. A diagnosis of DUB is made only after all other causes of abnormal menstrual bleeding have been ruled out. The most effective medical treatment is oral or intravenous estrogen

A maternity nurse should be aware of which fact about the amniotic fluid? a. It serves as a source of oral fluid and a repository for waste from the fetus. b. The volume remains about the same throughout the term of a healthy pregnancy. c. A volume of less than 300 mL is associated with gastrointestinal malformations. d. A volume of more than 2 L is associated with fetal renal abnormalities.

a. It serves as a source of oral fluid and a repository for waste from the fetus Amniotic fluid serves as a source of oral fluid, serves as a repository for waste from the fetus, cushions the fetus, and helps maintain a constant body temperature. The volume of amniotic fluid changes constantly. Too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios) is associated with renal abnormalities. Too much amniotic fluid (hydramnios) is associated with gastrointestinal and other abnormalities

A pregnant patient would like to know a good food source of calcium other than dairy products. Your best answer is: a. Legumes c. Lean meat b. Yellow vegetables d. Whole grains

a. Legumes Although dairy products contain the greatest amount of calcium, it also is found in legumes, nuts, dried fruits, and some dark green leafy vegetables. Yellow vegetables are rich in vitamin A. Lean meats are rich in protein and phosphorus. Whole grains are rich in zinc and magnesium.

With regard to protein in the diet of pregnant women, nurses should be aware that: a. Many protein-rich foods are also good sources of calcium, iron, and B vitamins. b. Many women need to increase their protein intake during pregnancy. c. As with carbohydrates and fat, no specific recommendations exist for the amount of protein in the diet. d. High-protein supplements can be used without risk by women on macrobiotic diets.

a. Many protein-rich foods are also good sources of calcium, iron, and B vitamins. Good protein sources such as meat, milk, eggs, and cheese have a lot of calcium and iron. Most women already eat a high-protein diet and do not need to increase their intake. Protein is sufficiently important that specific servings of meat and dairy are recommended. High-protein supplements are not recommended because they have been associated with an increased incidence of preterm births.

With regard to prenatal genetic testing, nurses should be aware that: a. Maternal serum screening can determine whether a pregnant woman is at risk of carrying a fetus with Down syndrome. b. Carrier screening tests look for gene mutations of people already showing symptoms of a disease. c. Predisposition testing predicts with near certainty that symptoms will appear. d. Presymptomatic testing is used to predict the likelihood of breast cancer

a. Maternal serum screening can determine whether a pregnant woman is at risk of carrying a fetus with Down syndrome. Maternal serum screening identifies the risk for the neural tube defect and the specific chromosome abnormality involved in Down syndrome. Carriers of some diseases, such as sickle cell disease, do not display symptoms. Predisposition testing determines susceptibility, such as for breast cancer. presymptomatic testing indicates that symptoms are certain to appear if the gene is present

. Transvaginal ultrasonography is often performed during the first trimester. While preparing your 6-week gestation patient for this procedure, she expresses concerns over the necessity for this test. The nurse should explain that this diagnostic test may be indicated for a number of situations (Select all that apply). a. Multifetal gestation b. Obesity c. Fetal abnormalities d. Amniotic fluid volume e. Ectopic pregnancy

a. Multifetal gestation b. Obesity c. Fetal abnormalities e. Ectopic pregnancy Transvaginal ultrasound is useful in obese women whose thick abdominal layers cannot be penetrated with traditional abdominal ultrasound. This procedure is also used for identifying multifetal gestation, ectopic pregnancy, estimating gestational age, confirming fetal viability, and identifying fetal abnormalities. Amniotic fluid volume is assessed during the second and third trimester. Conventional ultrasound would be used.

. Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus? a. Multiple-marker screening b. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio c. Biophysical profile d. Type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum

a. Multiple-marker screening Maternal serum can be analyzed for abnormal levels of alpha-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, and estriol. The multiple-marker screening may predict chromosomal defects in the fetus. The L/S ratio is used to determine fetal lung maturity. A biophysical profile is used for evaluating fetal status during the antepartum period. Five variables are used, but none is concerned with chromosomal problems. The blood type and crossmatch would not predict chromosomal defects in the fetus

. A patient has been prescribed adjuvant tamoxifen therapy. What common side effect might she experience? a. Nausea, hot flashes, and vaginal bleeding b. Vomiting, weight loss, and hair loss c. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea d. Hot flashes, weight gain, and headaches

a. Nausea, hot flashes, and vaginal bleeding Common side effects of tamoxifen therapy include hot flashes, nausea, vomiting, vaginal bleeding, menstrual irregularities, and rash. Weight loss, hair loss, diarrhea, weight gain, and headaches are not common side effects of tamoxifen.

A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline of approximately 120 beats/min without any decelerations. The interpretation of this test is said to be: a. Negative. c. Satisfactory. b. Positive. d. Unsatisfactory.

a. Negative. Adequate uterine activity necessary for a CST consists of the presence of three contractions in a 10-minute time frame. If no decelerations are observed in the FHR pattern with the contractions, the findings are considered to be negative. A positive CST indicates the presence of repetitive later FHR decelerations. Satisfactory and unsatisfactory are not applicable terms

. A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. During the assessment process, it is most important that the nurse: a. Obtain a history of menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months. b. Determine the clients weight gain and loss pattern for the previous year. c. Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes d. Explore the clients previous experiences with conception control.

a. Obtain a history of menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months. The calendar method of conception control is based on the number of days in each cycle, counting from the first day of menses. The fertile period is determined after the lengths of menstrual cycles have been accurately recorded for 6 months. Weight gain or loss may be partly related to hormonal fluctuations, but it has no bearing on use of the calendar method. Integumentary changes may be related to hormonal changes, but they are not indicators for use of the calendar method. Exploring previous experiences with conception control may demonstrate client understanding and compliancy, but it is not the most important aspect to assess for discussion of the calendar method.

The mucous plug that forms in the endocervical canal is called the: a. Operculum. c. Funic souffle. b. Leukorrhea d. Ballottement

a. Operculum. The operculum protects against bacterial invasion. Leukorrhea is the mucus that forms the endocervical plug (the operculum). The funic souffle is the sound of blood flowing through the umbilical vessels. Ballottement is a technique for palpating the fetus.

. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is associated with numerous pregnancy-related risk factors (Select all that apply). a. Poor nutrition b. Maternal collagen disease c. Gestational hypertension d. Premature rupture of membranes e. Smoking

a. Poor nutrition b. Maternal collagen disease c. Gestational hypertension e. Smoking Poor nutrition, maternal collagen disease, gestational hypertension, and smoking all are risk factors associated with IUGR. Premature rupture of membranes is associated with preterm labor, not IUGR

Most women with uncomplicated pregnancies can use the nurse as their primary source for nutritional information. The nurse or midwife should refer a client to a registered dietitian for in-depth nutritional counseling in the following situations (Select all that apply). a. Preexisting or gestational illness such as diabetes b. Ethnic or cultural food patterns c. Obesity d. Vegetarian diet e. Allergy to tree nuts

a. Preexisting or gestational illness such as diabetes b. Ethnic or cultural food patterns c. Obesity d. Vegetarian diet The nurse should be especially aware that conditions such as diabetes can require in-depth dietary planning and evaluation. To prevent issues with hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia and an increased risk for perinatal morbidity and mortality, this patient would benefit from a referral to a dietitian. Consultation with a dietitian may ensure that cultural food beliefs are congruent with modern knowledge of fetal development and that adjustments can be made to ensure that all nutritional needs are met. The obese pregnant patient may be under the misapprehension that because of her excess weight little or no weight gain is necessary. According to the Institute of Medicine, a client with a body mass index in the obese range should gain at least 7 kg to ensure a healthy outcome. This patient may require in-depth counseling on optimal food choices. The vegetarian client needs to have her dietary intake carefully assessed to ensure that the optimal combination of amino acids and protein intake is achieved. Very strict vegetarians (vegans) who consume only plant products may also require vitamin B and mineral supplementation. A patient with a food allergy would not alter that component of her diet during pregnancy; therefore, no additional consultation is necessary.

A woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus (or fetuses) reaching the stage of fetal viability is called a: a. Primipara. c. Multipara. b. Primigravida. d. Nulligravida.

a. Primipara. A primipara is a woman who has completed one pregnancy with a viable fetus. To remember terms, keep in mind: gravida is a pregnant woman; para comes from parity, meaning a viable fetus; primi means first; multimeans many; and null means none. A primigravida is a woman pregnant for the first time. A multipara is a woman who has completed two or more pregnancies with a viable fetus. A nulligravida is a woman who has never been pregnant.

. A new mother asks the nurse about the white substance covering her infant. The nurse explains that the purpose of vernix caseosa is to: a. Protect the fetal skin from amniotic fluid. b. Promote normal peripheral nervous system development. c. Allow transport of oxygen and nutrients across the amnion. d. Regulate fetal temperature.

a. Protect the fetal skin from amniotic fluid. Prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid during the fetal period could result in breakdown of the skin without the protection of the vernix caseosa. Normal development of the peripheral nervous system is dependent on nutritional intake of the mother. The amnion is the inner membrane that surrounds the fetus. It is not involved in the oxygen and nutrient exchange. The amniotic fluid aids in maintaining fetal temperature.

After you complete your nutritional counseling for a pregnant woman, you ask her to repeat your instructions so you can assess her understanding of the instructions given. Which statement indicates that she understands the role of protein in her pregnancy? a. Protein will help my baby grow. b. Eating protein will prevent me from becoming anemic. c. Eating protein will make my baby have strong teeth after he is born. d. Eating protein will prevent me from being diabetic.

a. Protein will help my baby grow. Protein is the nutritional element basic to growth. An adequate protein intake is essential to meeting the increasing demands of pregnancy. These demands arise from the rapid growth of the fetus; the enlargement of the uterus, mammary glands, and placenta; the increase in the maternal blood volume; and the formation of amniotic fluid. Iron intake prevents anemia. Calcium intake is needed for fetal bone and tooth development. Glycemic control is needed in diabetics; protein is one nutritional factor to consider, but this is not the primary role of protein intake.

. There is little consensus on the management of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). However, nurses can advise women on several self-help modalities that often improve symptoms. The nurse knows that health teaching has been effective when the client reports that she has adopted a number of lifestyle changes, including (Select all that apply): a. Regular exercise. b. Improved nutrition. c. A daily glass of wine. d. Smoking cessation. e. Oil of evening primrose

a. Regular exercise. b. Improved nutrition d. Smoking cessation. e. Oil of evening primrose These modalities may provide significant symptom relief in 1 to 2 months. If there is no improvement after these changes have been made, the patient may need to begin pharmacologic therapy. Women should decrease both their alcohol and caffeinated beverage consumption if they have PMDD.

Postcoital contraception with Ovral: a. Requires that the first dose be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. b. Requires that the woman take second and third doses at 24 and 36 hours after the first dose. c. Must be taken in conjunction with an IUD insertion. d. Is commonly associated with the side effect of menorrhagia

a. Requires that the first dose be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. Emergency contraception is most effective when used within 72 hours of intercourse; however, it may be used with lessened effectiveness 120 hours later. Insertion of the copper IUD within 5 days of intercourse may also be used and is up to 99% effective. The most common side effect of postcoital contraception is nausea

Eating small, frequent meals is the correct suggestion for a woman experiencing nausea and vomiting. A pregnant woman experiencing nausea and vomiting should avoid consuming fluids early in the day or when nauseated, but should compensate by drinking fluids at other times. A pregnant woman experiencing nausea and vomiting should reduce her intake of fried and other fatty foods

a. Several glasses of fluid. If no medical or obstetric problems contraindicate physical activity, pregnant women should get 30 minutes of moderate physical exercise daily. Liberal amounts of fluid should be consumed before, during, and after exercise because dehydration can trigger premature labor. The womans calorie intake should be sufficient to meet the increased needs of pregnancy and the demands of exercise.

Which behavior indicates that a woman is seeking safe passage for herself and her infant? a. She keeps all prenatal appointments . c. She drives her car slowly. b. She eats for two. d. She wears only low-heeled shoes

a. She keeps all prenatal appointments. The goal of prenatal care is to foster a safe birth for the infant and mother. Although eating properly, driving carefully, and using proper body mechanics all are healthy measures that a mother can take, obtaining prenatal care is the optimal method for providing safety for both herself and her baby.

Which contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%? a. Standard days c. Postovulation b. Periodic abstinence d. Coitus interruptus

a. Standard days The standard days variation on the calendar method has a failure rate of 12%. The periodic abstinence method has a failure rate of 25% or greater. The postovulation method has a failure rate of 25% or greater. The coitus interruptus method has a failure rate of 27% or greater

An essential component of counseling women regarding safe sex practices includes discussion regarding avoiding the exchange of body fluids. The physical barrier promoted for the prevention of sexually transmitted infections and human immunodeficiency virus is the condom. Nurses can help motivate clients to use condoms by initiating a discussion related to a number of aspects of condom use. The most important of these is: a. Strategies to enhance condom use. b. Choice of colors and special features. c. Leaving the decision up to the male partner. d. Places to carry condoms safely.

a. Strategies to enhance condom use. When the nurse opens discussion on safe sex practices, it gives the woman permission to clear up any concerns or misapprehensions that she may have regarding condom use. The nurse can also suggest ways that the woman can enhance her condom negotiation and communications skills. These include role-playing, rehearsal, cultural barriers, and situations that put the client at risk. Although women can be taught the differences among condoms, such as size ranges, where to purchase, and price, this is not as important as negotiating the use of safe sex practices. Women must address the issue of condom use with every sexual contact. Some men need time to think about this. If they appear reluctant, the woman may want to reconsider the relationship. Although not ideal, women may safely choose to carry condoms in shoes, wallets, or inside their bra. They should be taught to keep the condom away from heat. This information is important; however, it is not germane if the woman cannot even discuss strategies on how to enhance condom use.

. A woman has just moved to the United States from Mexico. She is 3 months pregnant and has arrived for her first prenatal visit. During her assessment interview, you discover that she has not had any immunizations. Which immunizations should she receive at this point in her pregnancy (Select all that apply)? a. Tetanus b. Diphtheria c. Chickenpox d. Rubella e. Hepatitis B

a. Tetanus b. Diphtheria e. Hepatitis B Immunization with live or attenuated live viruses is contraindicated during pregnancy because of potential teratogenicity. Vaccines consisting of killed viruses may be used. Immunizations that may be administered during pregnancy include tetanus, diphtheria, recombinant hepatitis B, and rabies vaccines. Live-virus vaccines include those for measles (rubeola and rubella), chickenpox, and mumps

. What important, immediate postoperative care practice should the nurse remember when caring for a woman who has had a mastectomy? a. The blood pressure (BP) cuff should not be applied to the affected arm. b. Venipuncture for blood work should be performed on the affected arm. c. The affected arm should be used for intravenous (IV) therapy. d. The affected arm should be held down close to the womans side.

a. The blood pressure (BP) cuff should not be applied to the affected arm. The affected arm should not be used for BP readings, IV therapy, or venipuncture. The affected arm should be elevated with pillows above the level of the right atrium.

As relates to the fathers acceptance of the pregnancy and preparation for childbirth, the maternity nurse should know that: a. The father goes through three phases of acceptance of his own. b. The fathers attachment to the fetus cannot be as strong as that of the mother because it does not start until after birth. c. In the last 2 months of pregnancy, most expectant fathers suddenly get very protective of their established lifestyle and resist making changes to the home. d. Typically men remain ambivalent about fatherhood right up to the birth of their child.

a. The father goes through three phases of acceptance of his own. A father typically goes through three phases of development to reach acceptance of fatherhood: the announcement phase, the moratorium phase, and the focusing phase. The father-child attachment can be as strong as the mother-child relationship and can also begin during pregnancy. In the last 2 months of pregnancy, many expectant fathers work hard to improve the environment of the home for the child. Typically the expectant fathers ambivalence ends by the first trimester, and he progresses to adjusting to the reality of the situation and then to focusing on his role.

. A pregnant womans biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. The nurses best response is: a. The test results are within normal limits. b. Immediate delivery by cesarean birth is being considered. c. Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score. d. An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding delivery.

a. The test results are within normal limits. The normal biophysical score ranges from 8 to 10 points if the amniotic fluid volume is adequate. A normal score allows conservative treatment of high-risk patients. Delivery can be delayed if fetal well-being is indicated. Scores less than 4 should be investigated, and delivery could be initiated sooner than planned. This score is within normal range, and no further testing is required at this time. The results of the biophysical profile are usually available immediately after the procedure is performed.

A physician prescribes clomiphene citrate (Clomid, Serophene) for a woman experiencing infertility. She is very concerned about the risk of multiple births. The nurses most appropriate response is: a. This is a legitimate concern. Would you like to discuss this further before your treatment begins? b. No one has ever had more than triplets with Clomid. c. Ovulation will be monitored with ultrasound so that this will not happen. d. Ten percent is a very low risk, so you dont need to worry too much

a. This is a legitimate concern. Would you like to discuss this further before your treatment begins? The incidence of multiple pregnancies with the use of these medications is significantly increased. The patients concern is legitimate and should be discussed so that she can make an informed decision. Stating that no one has ever had more than triplets is inaccurate and negates the patients concerns. Ultrasound cannot ensure that a multiple pregnancy will not occur. The percentage quoted in this statement is inaccurate. The comment dont worry discredits the patients concern

. A woman is in her seventh month of pregnancy. She has been complaining of nasal congestion and occasional epistaxis. The nurse suspects that: a. This is a normal respiratory change in pregnancy caused by elevated levels of estrogen. b. This is an abnormal cardiovascular change, and the nosebleeds are an ominous sign. c. The woman is a victim of domestic violence and is being hit in the face by her partner. d. The woman has been using cocaine intranasally.

a. This is a normal respiratory change in pregnancy caused by elevated levels of estrogen. Elevated levels of estrogen cause capillaries to become engorged in the respiratory tract. This may result in edema in the nose, larynx, trachea, and bronchi. This congestion may cause nasal stuffiness and epistaxis. Cardiovascular changes in pregnancy may cause edema in lower extremities. Determining that the woman is a victim of domestic violence and was hit in the face cannot be made on the basis of the sparse facts provided. If the woman had been hit in the face, she most likely would have additional physical findings. Determination of the use of cocaine by the woman cannot be made on the basis of the sparse facts provided.

To help a woman reduce the severity of nausea caused by morning sickness, the nurse might suggest that she: a. Try a tart food or drink such as lemonade or salty foods such as potato chips. b. Drink plenty of fluids early in the day. c. Brush her teeth immediately after eating. d. Never snack before bedtime

a. Try a tart food or drink such as lemonade or salty foods such as potato chips. Some women can tolerate tart or salty foods when they are nauseous. The woman should avoid drinking too much when nausea is most likely, but she should make up the fluid levels later in the day when she feels better. The woman should avoid brushing her teeth immediately after eating. A small snack of cereal and milk or yogurt before bedtime may help the stomach in the morning

While teaching the expectant mother about personal hygiene during pregnancy, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. Tub bathing is permitted even in late pregnancy unless membranes have ruptured. b. The perineum should be wiped from back to front. c. Bubble bath and bath oils are permissible because they add an extra soothing and cleansing action to the bath. d. Expectant mothers should use specially treated soap to cleanse the nipples

a. Tub bathing is permitted even in late pregnancy unless membranes have ruptured. The main danger from taking baths is falling in the tub. The perineum should be wiped from front to back. Bubble baths and bath oils should be avoided because they may irritate the urethra. Soap, alcohol, ointments, and tinctures should not be used to cleanse the nipples because they remove protective oils. Warm water is sufficient.

Many parents-to-be have questions about multiple births. Maternity nurses should be able to tell them that: a. Twinning and other multiple births are increasing because of the use of fertility drugs and delayed childbearing. b. Dizygotic twins (two fertilized ova) have the potential to be conjoined twins. c. Identical twins are more common in white families. d. Fraternal twins are same gender, usually male

a. Twinning and other multiple births are increasing because of the use of fertility drugs and delayed childbearing. If the parents-to-be are older and have taken fertility drugs, they would be very interested to know about twinning and other multiple births. Conjoined twins are monozygotic; they are from a single fertilized ovum in which division occurred very late. Identical twins show no racial or ethnic preference; fraternal twins are more common among African-American women. Fraternal twins can be different genders or the same gender. Identical twins are the same gender.

A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant, although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day, but she tells you that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are within normal limits. What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at this time? a. Ultrasound examination b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening c. Amniocentesis d. Nonstress test (NST)

a. Ultrasound examination An ultrasound examination could be done to confirm the pregnancy and determine the gestational age of the fetus. It is too early in the pregnancy to perform MSAFP screening, amniocentesis, or NST. MSAFP screening is performed at 16 to 18 weeks of gestation, followed by amniocentesis if MSAFP levels are abnormal or if fetal/maternal anomalies are detected. NST is performed to assess fetal well-being in the third trimester.

Signs and symptoms that a woman should report immediately to her health care provider include (Select all that apply): a. Vaginal bleeding. b. Rupture of membranes. c. Heartburn accompanied by severe headache. d. Decreased libido. e. Urinary frequency.

a. Vaginal bleeding. b. Rupture of membranes. c. Heartburn accompanied by severe headache. Vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, and severe headaches all are signs of potential complications in pregnancy. Clients should be advised to report these signs to the health care provider. Decreased libido and urinary frequency are common discomforts of pregnancy that do not require immediate health care interventions

A woman asks the nurse, What protects my babys umbilical cord from being squashed while the babys inside of me? The nurses best response is: a. Your babys umbilical cord is surrounded by connective tissue called Wharton jelly, which prevents compression of the blood vessels and ensures continued nourishment of your baby. b. Your babys umbilical floats around in blood anyway. c. You dont need to worry about things like that. d. The umbilical cord is a group of blood vessels that are very well protected by the placenta.

a. Your babys umbilical cord is surrounded by connective tissue called Wharton jelly, which prevents compression of the blood vessels and ensures continued nourishment of your baby. Your babys umbilical cord is surrounded by connective tissue called Wharton jelly, which prevents compression of the blood vessels and ensures continued nourishment of your baby is the most appropriate response. Your babys umbilical floats around in blood anyway is inaccurate. You dont need to worry about things like that is an inappropriate response. It negates the clients need for teaching and discounts her feelings. The placenta does not protect the umbilical cord. The cord is protected by the surrounding Wharton jelly

A client asks her nurse, My doctor told me that he is concerned with the grade of my placenta because I am overdue. What does that mean? The best response by the nurse is: a. Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby. b. Your placenta isnt working properly, and your baby is in danger. c. This means that we will need to perform an amniocentesis to detect if you have any placental damage. d. Dont worry about it. Everything is fine.

a. Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby An accurate and appropriate response is, Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby. Although Your placenta isnt working properly, and your baby is in danger may be valid, it does not reflect therapeutic communication techniques and is likely to alarm the client. An ultrasound, not an amniocentesis, is the method of assessment used to determine placental maturation. The response Dont worry about it. Everything is fine is not appropriate and discredits the clients concerns.

A womans obstetric history indicates that she is pregnant for the fourth time and all of her children from previous pregnancies are living. One was born at 39 weeks of gestation, twins were born at 34 weeks of gestation, and another child was born at 35 weeks of gestation. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system? a. 3-1-1-1-3 c. 3-0-3-0-3 b. 4-1-2-0-4 d. 4-2-1-0-3

b. 4-1-2-0-4 The correct calculation of this womans gravidity and parity is 4-1-2-0-4. The numbers reflect the womans gravidity and parity information. Using the GPTAL system, her information is calculated as: G: The first number reflects the total number of times the woman has been pregnant; she is pregnant for the fourth time. T: This number indicates the number of pregnancies carried to term, not the number of deliveries at term; only one of her pregnancies has resulted in a fetus at term. P: This is the number of pregnancies that resulted in a preterm birth; the woman has had two pregnancies in which she delivered preterm. A: This number signifies whether the woman has had any abortions or miscarriages before the period of viability; she has not. L: This number signifies the number of children born that currently are living; the woman has four children.

During the first trimester, a woman can expect which of the following changes in her sexual desire? a. An increase, because of enlarging breasts b. A decrease, because of nausea and fatigue c. No change d. An increase, because of increased levels of female hormones

b. A decrease, because of nausea and fatigue Maternal physiologic changes such as breast enlargement, nausea, fatigue, abdominal changes, perineal enlargement, leukorrhea, pelvic vasocongestion, and orgasmic responses may affect sexuality and sexual expression. Libido may be depressed in the first trimester but often increases during the second and third trimesters. During pregnancy, the breasts may become enlarged and tender; this tends to interfere with coitus, decreasing the desire to engage in sexual activity.

With regard to chromosome abnormalities, nurses should be aware that: a. They occur in approximately 10% of newborns. b. Abnormalities of number are the leading cause of pregnancy loss. c. Down syndrome is a result of an abnormal chromosome structure. d. Unbalanced translocation results in a mild abnormality that the child will outgrow.

b. Abnormalities of number are the leading cause of pregnancy loss. Aneuploidy is an abnormality of number that also is the leading genetic cause of mental retardation. Chromosome abnormalities occur in less than 1% of newborns. Down syndrome is the most common form of trisomal abnormality, an abnormality of chromosome number (47 chromosomes). Unbalanced translocation is an abnormality of chromosome structure that often has serious clinical effects

The nurse caring for a newly pregnant woman would advise her that ideally prenatal care should begin: a. Before the first missed menstrual period. b. After the first missed menstrual period. c. After the second missed menstrual period. d. After the third missed menstrual period

b. After the first missed menstrual period. Prenatal care ideally should begin soon after the first missed menstrual period. Regular prenatal visits offer opportunities to ensure the health of the expectant mother and her infant

A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is informed by the nurse that a danger sign of pregnancy could be: a. Constipation. b. Alteration in the pattern of fetal movement. c. Heart palpitations. d. Edema in the ankles and feet at the end of the day.

b. Alteration in the pattern of fetal movement. An alteration in the pattern or amount of fetal movement may indicate fetal jeopardy. Constipation, heart palpitations, and ankle and foot edema are normal discomforts of pregnancy that occur in the second and third trimesters

As relates to the structure and function of the placenta, the maternity nurse should be aware that: a. As the placenta widens, it gradually thins to allow easier passage of air and nutrients. b. As one of its early functions, the placenta acts as an endocrine gland. c. The placenta is able to keep out most potentially toxic substances such as cigarette smoke to which the mother is exposed. d. Optimal blood circulation is achieved through the placenta when the woman is lying on her back or standing

b. As one of its early functions, the placenta acts as an endocrine gland The placenta produces four hormones necessary to maintain the pregnancy. The placenta widens until week 20 and continues to grow thicker. Toxic substances such as nicotine and carbon monoxide readily cross the placenta into the fetus. Optimal circulation occurs when the woman is lying on her side

. To prevent gastrointestinal upset, clients should be instructed to take iron supplements: a. On a full stomach. c. After eating a meal. b. At bedtime. d. With milk.

b. At bedtime. Clients should be instructed to take iron supplements at bedtime. Iron supplements are best absorbed if they are taken when the stomach is empty. Bran, tea, coffee, milk, and eggs may reduce absorption. Iron can be taken at bedtime if abdominal discomfort occurs when it is taken between meals.

. Three servings of milk, yogurt, or cheese plus two servings of meat, poultry, or fish adequately supply the recommended amount of protein for a pregnant woman. Many patients are concerned about the increased levels of mercury in fish and may be afraid to include this source of nutrients in their diet. Sound advice by the nurse to assist the client in determining which fish is safe to consume would include: a. Canned white tuna is a preferred choice. b. Avoid shark, swordfish, and mackerel. c. Fish caught in local waterways are the safest. d. Salmon and shrimp contain high levels of mercury.

b. Avoid shark, swordfish, and mackerel. As a precaution, the pregnant patient should avoid eating all of these and the less common tilefish. High levels of mercury can harm the developing nervous system of the fetus. It is essential for the nurse to assist the client in understanding the differences between numerous sources of this product. A pregnant client can 12 ounces a week of canned light tuna; however, canned white, albacore, or tuna steaks contain higher levels of mercury and should be limited to no more than 6 ounces per week. It is a common misconception that fish caught in local waterways are the safest. Pregnant women and mothers of young children should check with local advisories about the safety of fish caught by families and friends in nearby bodies of water. If no information is available, these fish sources should be avoided, limited to less than 6 ounces, or the only fish consumed that week. Commercially caught fish that are low in mercury include salmon, shrimp, pollock, or catfish.

Which contraceptive method best protects against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? a. Periodic abstinence b. Barrier methods c. Hormonal methods d. They all offer about the same protection

b. Barrier methods Barrier methods such as condoms best protect against STIs and HIV. Periodic abstinence and hormonal methods (the pill) offer no protection against STIs or HIV.

Care management of a woman diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) most likely would include: a. Oral antiviral therapy. b. Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position. c. Antibiotic regimen continued until symptoms subside. d. Frequent pelvic examination to monitor the progress of healing.

b. Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position. A woman with acute PID should be on bed rest in a semi-Fowler position. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are used. Antibiotics must be taken as prescribed, even if symptoms subside. Few pelvic examinations should be conducted during the acute phase of the disease

A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labor and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the fetus? a. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies b. Biophysical profile (BPP) c. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening d. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)

b. Biophysical profile (BPP) Real-time ultrasound permits detailed assessment of the physical and physiologic characteristics of the developing fetus and cataloging of normal and abnormal biophysical responses to stimuli. BPP is a noninvasive, dynamic assessment of a fetus that is based on acute and chronic markers of fetal disease. An ultrasound for fetal anomalies would most likely have been performed earlier in the pregnancy. It is too late in the pregnancy to perform MSAFP screening. Also, MSAFP screening does not provide information related to fetal well-being. Indications for PUBS include prenatal diagnosis or inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of a fetus with IUGR, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus.

With regard to nutritional needs during lactation, a maternity nurse should be aware that: a. The mothers intake of vitamin C, zinc, and protein now can be lower than during pregnancy. b. Caffeine consumed by the mother accumulates in the infant, who may be unusually active and wakeful. c. Critical iron and folic acid levels must be maintained. d. Lactating women can go back to their prepregnant calorie intake.

b. Caffeine consumed by the mother accumulates in the infant, who may be unusually active and wakeful A lactating woman needs to avoid consuming too much caffeine. Vitamin C, zinc, and protein levels need to be moderately higher during lactation than during pregnancy. The recommendations for iron and folic acid are lower during lactation. Lactating women should consume about 500 kcal more than their prepregnancy intake, at least 1800 kcal daily overall.

. To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their cardiovascular system, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. A pregnant woman experiencing disturbed cardiac rhythm, such as sinus arrhythmia requires close medical and obstetric observation, no matter how healthy she otherwise may appear. b. Changes in heart size and position and increases in blood volume create auditory changes from 20 weeks to term. c. Palpitations are twice as likely to occur in twin gestations. d. All of the above changes likely will occur

b. Changes in heart size and position and increases in blood volume create auditory changes from 20 weeks to term. Auscultatory changes should be discernible after 20 weeks of gestation. A healthy woman with no underlying heart disease does not need any therapy. The maternal heart rate increases in the third trimester, but palpitations may not occur. Auditory changes are discernible at 20 weeks.

In presenting to obstetric nurses interested in genetics, the genetic nurse identifies the primary risk(s) associated with genetic testing as: a. Anxiety and altered family relationships. b. Denial of insurance benefits. c. High false-positive results associated with genetic testing. d. Ethnic and socioeconomic disparity associated with genetic testing

b. Denial of insurance benefits. Decisions about genetic testing are shaped by socioeconomic status and the ability to pay for the testing. Some types of genetic testing are expensive and are not covered by insurance benefits. Anxiety and altered family relationships, high false-positive results, and ethnic and socioeconomic disparity are factors that may be difficulties associated with genetic testing, but they are not risks associated with testing

. In teaching the pregnant adolescent about nutrition, the nurse should: a. Emphasize the need to eliminate common teen snack foods because they are too high in fat and sodium. b. Determine the weight gain needed to meet adolescent growth and add 35 lb. c. Suggest that she not eat at fast-food restaurants to avoid foods of poor nutritional value. d. Realize that most adolescents are unwilling to make dietary changes during pregnancy.

b. Determine the weight gain needed to meet adolescent growth and add 35 lb Adolescents should gain in the upper range of the recommended weight gain. They also need to gain weight that would be expected for their own normal growth. Changes in the diet should be kept at a minimum. Snack foods can be included in moderation, and other foods can be added to make up for the lost nutrients. Eliminating fast foods would make the adolescent appear different to her peers. The patient should be taught to choose foods that add needed nutrients. Adolescents are willing to make changes; however, they still have the need to be similar to their peers.

. Nurses, certified nurse-midwives, and other advanced practice nurses have the knowledge and expertise to assist women in making informed choices regarding contraception. A multidisciplinary approach should ensure that the womans social, cultural, and interpersonal needs are met. Which action should the nurse take first when meeting with a new client to discuss contraception? a. Obtain data about the frequency of coitus. b. Determine the womans level of knowledge about contraception and commitment to any particular method. c. Assess the womans willingness to touch her genitals and cervical mucus. d. Evaluate the womans contraceptive life plan.

b. Determine the womans level of knowledge about contraception and commitment to any particular method. This is the primary step of this nursing assessment and necessary before completing the process and moving on to a nursing diagnosis. Once the clients level of knowledge is determined, the nurse can interact with the woman to compare options, reliability, cost, comfort level, protection from sexually transmitted infections, and a partners willingness to participate. Although important, obtaining data about the frequency of coitus is not the first action that the nurse should undertake when completing an assessment. Data should include not only the frequency of coitus but also the number of sexual partners, level of contraceptive involvement, and partners objections. Assessing the womans willingness to touch herself is a key factor for the nurse to discuss should the client express interest in using one of the fertility awareness methods of contraception. The nurse must be aware of the clients plan regarding whether she is attempting to prevent conception, delay conception, or conceive.

The nurse should have knowledge of the purpose of the pinch test. It is used to: a. Check the sensitivity of the nipples. b. Determine whether the nipple is everted or inverted. c. Calculate the adipose buildup in the abdomen. d. See whether the fetus has become inactive.

b. Determine whether the nipple is everted or inverted. The pinch test is used to determine whether the nipple is everted or inverted. Nipples must be everted to allow breastfeeding.

Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy as a result of: a. Inadequate intake of iron. b. Dilution of hemoglobin concentration. c. The fetus establishing iron stores. d. Decreased production of erythrocytes.

b. Dilution of hemoglobin concentration. When blood volume expansion is more pronounced and occurs earlier than the increase in red blood cells, the woman has physiologic anemia, which is the result of dilution of hemoglobin concentration rather than inadequate hemoglobin. Inadequate intake of iron may lead to true anemia. There is an increased production of erythrocytes during pregnancy

A pregnant woman at 18 weeks of gestation calls the clinic to report that she has been experiencing occasional backaches of mild-to-moderate intensity. The nurse would recommend that she: a. Do Kegel exercises. c. Use a softer mattress. b. Do pelvic rock exercises. d. Stay in bed for 24 hours.

b. Do pelvic rock exercises. Pelvic rock exercises may help stretch and strengthen the abdominal and lower back muscles and relieve low back pain. Kegel exercises increase the tone of the pelvic area, not the back. A softer mattress may not provide the support needed to maintain proper alignment of the spine and may contribute to back pain. Stretching and other exercises to relieve back pain should be performed several times a day.

During her gynecologic checkup, a 17-year-old girl states that recently she has been experiencing cramping and pain during her menstrual periods. The nurse would document this complaint as: a. Amenorrhea. c. Dyspareunia. b. Dysmenorrhea. d. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS).

b. Dysmenorrhea. Dysmenorrhea is pain during or shortly before menstruation. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual flow. Dyspareunia is pain during intercourse. PMS is a cluster of physical, psychologic, and behavioral symptoms that begin in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and resolve within a couple of days of the onset of menses.

A pregnant woman experiencing nausea and vomiting should: a. Drink a glass of water with a fat-free carbohydrate before getting out of bed in the morning. b. Eat small, frequent meals (every 2 to 3 hours). c. Increase her intake of high-fat foods to keep the stomach full and coated. d. Limit fluid intake throughout the day.

b. Eat small, frequent meals (every 2 to 3 hours) Eating small, frequent meals is the correct suggestion for a woman experiencing nausea and vomiting. A pregnant woman experiencing nausea and vomiting should avoid consuming fluids early in the day or when nauseated, but should compensate by drinking fluids at other times. A pregnant woman experiencing nausea and vomiting should reduce her intake of fried and other fatty foods

. A woman has been diagnosed with a high risk pregnancy. She and her husband come into the office in a very anxious state. She seems to be coping by withdrawing from the discussion, showing declining interest. The nurse can best help the couple by: a. Telling her that the physician will isolate the problem with more tests. b. Encouraging her and urging her to continue with childbirth classes. c. Becoming assertive and laying out the decisions the couple needs to maked d. Downplaying her risks by citing success rate studies

b. Encouraging her and urging her to continue with childbirth classes The nurse can best help the woman and her husband regain a sense of control in their lives by providing support and encouragement (including active involvement in preparations and classes). The nurse can try to present opportunities for the couple to make as many choices as possible in prenatal care.

Which test used to diagnose the basis of infertility is done during the luteal or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle? a. Hysterosalpingogram b. Endometrial biopsy c. Laparoscopy d. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level

b. Endometrial biopsy Endometrial biopsy is scheduled after ovulation, during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. A hysterosalpingogram is scheduled 2 to 5 days after menstruation to avoid flushing potentially fertilized ovum out through a uterine tube into the peritoneal cavity. Laparoscopy usually is scheduled early in the menstrual cycle. Hormone analysis is performed to assess endocrine function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis when menstrual cycles are absent or irregular

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurses instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is: a. A positive pregnancy test. b. Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife. c. Braxton Hicks contractions. d. Quickening.

b. Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife Positive signs of pregnancy are attributed to the presence of a fetus, such as hearing the fetal heartbeat or palpating fetal movement. A positive pregnancy test and Braxton Hicks contractions are probable signs of pregnancy. Quickening is a presumptive sign of pregnancy

. Which finding in the urine analysis of a pregnant woman is considered a variation of normal? a. Proteinuria c. Bacteria in the urine. b. Glycosuria d. Ketones in the urine.

b. Glycosuria Small amounts of glucose may indicate physiologic spilling. The presence of protein could indicate kidney disease or preeclampsia. Urinary tract infections are associated with bacteria in the urine. An increase in ketones indicates that the patient is exercising too strenuously or has an inadequate fluid and food intake

To detect human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), most laboratory tests focus on the: a. virus. c .CD4 counts. b. HIV antibodies. d. CD8 counts.

b. HIV antibodies. The screening tool used to detect HIV is the enzyme immunoassay, which tests for the presence of antibodies to the virus. CD4 counts are associated with the incidence of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in HIV-infected individuals

A 25-year-old single woman comes to the gynecologists office for a follow-up visit related to her abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The test revealed that the patient has human papillomavirus (HPV). The client asks, What is that? Can you get rid of it? Your best response is: a. Its just a little lump on your cervix. We can freeze it off. b. HPV stands for human papillomavirus. It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that may lead to cervical cancer. c. HPV is a type of early human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). You will die from this. d. You probably caught this from your current boyfriend. He should get tested for this

b. HPV stands for human papillomavirus. It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that may lead to cervical cancer. It is important to inform the patient about STIs and the risks involved with HPV. The health care team has a duty to provide proper information to the patient, including information related to STIs. HPV and HIV are both viruses that can be transmitted sexually, but they are not the same virus. The onset of HPV can be insidious. Often STIs go unnoticed. Abnormal bleeding frequently is the initial symptom. The client may have had HPV before her current boyfriend. You cannot make any deductions from this limited information.

. Which of the following statements about the various forms of hepatitis is accurate? a. A vaccine exists for hepatitis C but not for hepatitis B. b. Hepatitis A is acquired by eating contaminated food or drinking polluted water. c. Hepatitis B is less contagious than human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). d. The incidence of hepatitis C is decreasing

b. Hepatitis A is acquired by eating contaminated food or drinking polluted water Contaminated milk and shellfish are common sources of infection with hepatitis A. A vaccine exists for hepatitis B but not for hepatitis C. Hepatitis B is more contagious than HIV. The incidence of hepatitis C is increasing

The viral sexually transmitted infection (STI) that affects most people in the United States today is: a. Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2). b. Human papillomavirus (HPV). c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV).

b. Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV infection is the most prevalent viral STI seen in ambulatory health care settings. HSV-2, HIV, and CMV all are viral STIs but are not the most prevalent viral STIs.

. With regard to the use of intrauterine devices (IUDs), nurses should be aware that: a. Return to fertility can take several weeks after the device is removed. b. IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse. c. IUDs offer the same protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) as the diaphragm. d. Consent forms are not needed for IUD insertion.

b. IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse. The woman has up to 8 days to insert the IUD after unprotected sex. Return to fertility is immediate after removal of the IUD. IUDs offer no protection for STIs. A consent form is required for insertion, as is a negative pregnancy test.

. The most important reason for evaluating the pattern of weight gain in pregnancy is to: a. Prevent excessive adipose tissue deposits b. Identify potential nutritional problems or complications of pregnancy c. Assess the need to limit caloric intake in obese women d. Determine cultural influences on the womans diet

b. Identify potential nutritional problems or complications of pregnancy Maternal and fetal risks in pregnancy are increased when the mother is significantly overweight. Excessive adipose tissue may occur with excess weight gain; however, this is not the reason for monitoring the weight gain pattern. It is important to monitor the pattern of weight gain to identify complications. The pattern of weight gain is not influenced by cultural influences.

. Which statement made by a lactating woman would lead the nurse to believe that the woman might have lactose intolerance? a. I always have heartburn after I drink milk. b. If I drink more than a cup of milk, I usually have abdominal cramps and bloating. c. Drinking milk usually makes me break out in hives. d. Sometimes I notice that I have bad breath after I drink a cup of milk.

b. If I drink more than a cup of milk, I usually have abdominal cramps and bloating. Abdominal cramps and bloating are consistent with lactose intolerance. One problem that can interfere with milk consumption is lactose intolerance, which is the inability to digest milk sugar because of a lack of the enzyme lactose in the small intestine. Milk consumption may cause abdominal cramping, bloating, and diarrhea people who are lactose intolerant, although many affected individuals can tolerate small amounts of milk without symptoms.

. To reassure and educate pregnant clients about the functioning of their kidneys in eliminating waste products, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. Increased urinary output makes pregnant women less susceptible to urinary infection. b. Increased bladder sensitivity and then compression of the bladder by the enlarging uterus results in the urge to urinate even if the bladder is almost empty. c. Renal (kidney) function is more efficient when the woman assumes a supine position. d. Using diuretics during pregnancy can help keep kidney function regular.

b. Increased bladder sensitivity and then compression of the bladder by the enlarging uterus results in the urge to urinate even if the bladder is almost empty. First bladder sensitivity and then compression of the bladder by the uterus result in the urge to urinate more often. Numerous anatomic changes make a pregnant woman more susceptible to urinary tract infection. Renal function is more efficient when the woman lies in the lateral recumbent position and less efficient when she is supine. Diuretic use during pregnancy can overstress the system and cause problems.

Cardiovascular system changes occur during pregnancy. Which finding would be considered normal for a woman in her second trimester? a. Less audible heart sounds (S1, S2) b. Increased pulse rate c. Increased blood pressure d. Decreased red blood cell (RBC) production

b. Increased pulse rate Between 14 and 20 weeks of gestation, the pulse increases about 10 to 15 beats/min, which persists to term. Splitting of S1 and S2 is more audible. In the first trimester, blood pressure usually remains the same as at the prepregnancy level, but it gradually decreases up to about 20 weeks of gestation. During the second trimester, both the systolic and the diastolic pressures decrease by about 5 to 10 mm Hg. Production of RBCs accelerates during pregnancy

. Which nursing intervention is necessary before a second-trimester transabdominal ultrasound? a. Place the woman NPO for 12 hours. b. Instruct the woman to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water. c. Administer an enema. d. Perform an abdominal preparation

b. Instruct the woman to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water When the uterus is still in the pelvis, visualization may be difficult. It is necessary to perform the test when the woman has a full bladder, which provides a window through which the uterus and its contents can be viewed. The woman needs a full bladder to elevate the uterus; therefore being NPO is not appropriate. Neither an enema nor an abdominal preparation is necessary for this procedure

You are a maternal-newborn nurse caring for a mother who just delivered a baby born with Down syndrome. What nursing diagnosis would be the most essential in caring for the mother of this infant? a. Disturbed body image c. Anxiety b. Interrupted family processes d. Risk for injury

b. Interrupted family processes This mother likely will experience a disruption in the family process related to the birth of a baby with an inherited disorder. Women commonly experience body image disturbances in the postpartum period; however, this is unrelated to giving birth to a child with Down syndrome. The mother likely will have a mix of emotions that may include anxiety, guilt, and denial, but this is not the most essential nursing diagnosis for this family. Risk for injury is not an applicable nursing diagnosis.

Maternal nutritional status is an especially significant factor of the many factors that influence the outcome of pregnancy because: a. It is very difficult to adjust because of peoples ingrained eating habits. b. It is an important preventive measure for a variety of problems. c. Women love obsessing about their weight and diets. d. A womans preconception weight becomes irrelevant.

b. It is an important preventive measure for a variety of problems Nutritional status draws so much attention not only for its effect on a healthy pregnancy and birth but also because significant changes are within relatively easy reach.

A patient in her first trimester complains of nausea and vomiting. She asks, Why does this happen? The nurses best response is: a. It is due to an increase in gastric motility. b. It may be due to changes in hormones. c. It is related to an increase in glucose levels. d. It is caused by a decrease in gastric secretions

b. It may be due to changes in hormones. Nausea and vomiting are believed to be caused by increased levels of hormones, decreased gastric motility, and hypoglycemia. Gastric motility decreases during pregnancy. Glucose levels decrease in the first trimester. Although gastric secretions decrease, this is not the main cause of nausea and vomiting.

. In the first trimester, ultrasonography can be used to gain information on: a. Amniotic fluid volume. b. Location of Gestational sacs c. Placental location and maturity. d. Cervical length.

b. Location of Gestational sacs During the first trimester, ultrasound examination is performed to obtain information regarding the number, size, and location of gestatials sacs; the presence or absence of fetal cardiac and body movements; the presences or absence of uterine abnormalities (e.g., bicornuate uterus or fibroids) or adnexal masses (e.g., ovarian cysts or an ectopic pregnancy); and pregnancy dating.

What type of cultural concern is the most likely deterrent to many women seeking prenatal care? a. Religion c. Ignorance b. Modesty d. Belief that physicians are evil

b. Modesty A concern for modesty is a deterrent to many women seeking prenatal care. For some women, exposing body parts, especially to a man, is considered a major violation of their modesty. Many cultural variations are found in prenatal care. Even if the prenatal care described is familiar to a woman, some practices may conflict with the beliefs and practices of a subculture group to which she belongs

In understanding and guiding a woman through her acceptance of pregnancy, a maternity nurse should be aware that: a. Nonacceptance of the pregnancy very often equates to rejection of the child. b. Mood swings most likely are the result of worries about finances and a changed lifestyle as well as profound hormonal changes. c. Ambivalent feelings during pregnancy usually are seen only in emotionally immature or very young mothers. d. Conflicts such as not wanting to be pregnant or childrearing and career-related decisions need not be addressed during pregnancy because they will resolve themselves naturally after birth.

b. Mood swings most likely are the result of worries about finances and a changed lifestyle as well as profound hormonal changes. Mood swings are natural and are likely to affect every woman to some degree. A woman may dislike being pregnant, refuse to accept it, and still love and accept the child. Ambivalent feelings about pregnancy are normal for mature or immature women, younger or older women. Conflicts such as not wanting to be pregnant or childrearing and career-related decisions need to be resolved. The baby ends the pregnancy but not all the issues.

FAMs are effective with proper vigilance about ovulatory changes in the body and adherence to coitus intervals. They are effective if used correctly by a woman with a regular menstrual cycle. The typical failure rate for all FAMs is 25% during the first year of use. FAMs have no associated health risks. The use of birth control has associated health risks. In addition, taking a pill daily requires compliance on the clients part

b. Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections, as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus and can cause genital lesions. The statement Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections, as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus and can cause genital lesions is true. Nonoxynol-9 may cause vaginal irritation, has no effect on the quality of sexual activity, and has no effect on penile sensitivity.

Risk factors tend to be interrelated and cumulative in their effect. While planning the care for a laboring client with diabetes mellitus, the nurse is aware that she is at a greater risk for: a. Oligohydramnios. c. Postterm pregnancy. b. Polyhydramnios. d. Chromosomal abnormalities.

b. Polyhydramnios Polyhydramnios (amniotic fluid >2000 mL) is 10 times more likely to occur in diabetic compared with nondiabetic pregnancies. Polyhydramnios puts the mother at risk for premature rupture of membranes, premature labor, and postpartum hemorrhage. Prolonged rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, intrauterine fetal death, and renal agenesis (Potter syndrome) all put the client at risk for developing oligohydramnios. Anencephaly, placental insufficiency, and perinatal hypoxia all contribute to the risk for postterm pregnancy. Maternal age older than 35 and balanced translocation (maternal and paternal) are risk factors for chromosome abnormalities

The maternity nurse understands that vascular volume increases 40% to 60% during pregnancy to: a. Compensate for decreased renal plasma flow. b. Provide adequate perfusion of the placenta. c. Eliminate metabolic wastes of the mother. d. Prevent maternal and fetal dehydration

b. Provide adequate perfusion of the placenta. The primary function of increased vascular volume is to transport oxygen and nutrients to the fetus via the placenta. Renal plasma flow increases during pregnancy. Assisting with pulling metabolic wastes from the fetus for maternal excretion is one purpose of the increased vascular volume.

. A mans wife is pregnant for the third time. One child was born with cystic fibrosis, and the other child is healthy. The man wonders what the chance is that this child will have cystic fibrosis. This type of testing is known as: a. Occurrence risk. c. Predictive testing b. Recurrence risk. d. Predisposition testing.

b. Recurrence risk. The couple already has a child with a genetic disease so they will be given a recurrence risk test. If a couple has not yet had children but are known to be at risk for having children with a genetic disease, they are given an occurrence risk test. Predictive testing is used to clarify the genetic status of an asymptomatic family member. Predisposition testing differs from presymptomatic testing in that a positive result does not indicate 100% risk of a condition developing.

. While interviewing a 31-year-old woman before her routine gynecologic examination, the nurse collects data about the clients recent menstrual cycles. The nurse should collect additional information with which statement? a. The woman says her menstrual flow lasts 5 to 6 days. b. She describes her flow as very heavy. c. She reports that she has had a small amount of spotting midway between her periods for the past 2 months. d. She says the length of her menstrual cycle varies from 26 to 29 days

b. She describes her flow as very heavy Menorrhagia is defined as excessive menstrual bleeding, in either duration or amount. Heavy bleeding can have many causes. The amount of bleeding and its effect on daily activities should be evaluated. A menstrual flow lasting 5 to 6 days is a normal finding. Mittlestaining, a small amount of bleeding or spotting that occurs at the time of ovulation (14 days before onset of the next menses), is considered normal. During her reproductive years, a woman may have physiologic variations in her menstrual cycle. Variations in the length of a menstrual cycle are considered normal.

A 31-year-old woman believes that she may be pregnant. She took an OTC pregnancy test 1 week ago after missing her period; the test was positive. During her assessment interview, the nurse inquires about the womans last menstrual period and asks whether she is taking any medications. The woman states that she takes medicine for epilepsy. She has been under considerable stress lately at work and has not been sleeping well. She also has a history of irregular periods. Her physical examination does not indicate that she is pregnant. She has an ultrasound scan, which reveals that she is not pregnant. What is the most likely cause of the falsepositive pregnancy test result? a. She took the pregnancy test too early. b. She takes anticonvulsants. c. She has a fibroid tumor. d. She has been under considerable stress and has a hormone imbalance

b. She takes anticonvulsants Anticonvulsants may cause false-positive pregnancy test results. OTC pregnancy tests use enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay technology, which can yield positive results 4 days after implantation. Implantation occurs 6 to 10 days after conception. If the woman were pregnant, she would be into her third week at this point (having missed her period 1 week ago). Fibroid tumors do not produce hormones and have no bearing on hCG pregnancy tests. Although stress may interrupt normal hormone cycles (menstrual cycles), it does not affect human chorionic gonadotropin levels or produce positive pregnancy test results.

The musculoskeletal system adapts to the changes that occur during pregnancy. A woman can expect to experience what change? a. Her center of gravity will shift backward. b. She will have increased lordosis. c. She will have increased abdominal muscle tone. d. She will notice decreased mobility of her pelvic joints.

b. She will have increased lordosis. An increase in the normal lumbosacral curve (lordosis) develops, and a compensatory curvature in the cervicodorsal region develops to help the woman maintain her balance. The center of gravity shifts forward. She will have decreased muscle tone. She will notice increased mobility of her pelvic joints

. A woman is at 14 weeks of gestation. The nurse would expect to palpate the fundus at which level? a. Not palpable above the symphysis at this time b. Slightly above the symphysis pubis c. At the level of the umbilicus d. Slightly above the umbilicus

b. Slightly above the symphysis pubis In normal pregnancies, the uterus grows at a predictable rate. It may be palpated above the symphysis pubis sometime between the twelfth and fourteenth weeks of pregnancy. As the uterus grows, it may be palpated above the symphysis pubis sometime between the twelfth and fourteenth weeks of pregnancy. The uterus rises gradually to the level of the umbilicus at 22 to 24 weeks of gestation

Which time-based description of a stage of development in pregnancy is accurate? a. Viability22 to 37 weeks since the last menstrual period (LMP) (assuming a fetal weight >500 g) b. Termpregnancy from the beginning of week 38 of gestation to the end of week 42 c. Pretermpregnancy from 20 to 28 weeks d. Postdatepregnancy that extends beyond 38 weeks

b. Termpregnancy from the beginning of week 38 of gestation to the end of week 42 Term is 38 to 42 weeks of gestation. Viability is the ability of the fetus to live outside the uterus before coming to term, or 22 to 24 weeks since LMP. Preterm is 20 to 37 weeks of gestation. Postdate or postterm is a pregnancy that extends beyond 42 weeks or what is considered the limit of full term

. A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant asks the nurse, Is it possible to tell by ultrasound if the baby is a boy or girl yet? The best answer is: a. A babys sex is determined as soon as conception occurs b. The baby has developed enough that we can determine the sex by examining the genitals through ultrasound. c. Boys and girls look alike until about 20 weeks after conception, and then they begin to look different. d. It might be possible to determine your babys sex, but the external organs look very similar right now.

b. The baby has developed enough that we can determine the sex by examining the genitals through ultrasound. Although gender is determined at conception, the external genitalia of males and females look similar through the ninth week. By the twelfth week, the external genitalia are distinguishable as male or female.

. With regard to the assessment of female, male, and couple infertility, nurses should be aware that: a. The couples religious, cultural, and ethnic backgrounds provide emotional clutter that does not affect the clinical scientific diagnosis. b. The investigation takes 3 to 4 months and a significant financial investment. c. The woman is assessed first; if she is not the problem, the male partner is analyzed. d. Semen analysis is for men; the postcoital test is for women.

b. The investigation takes 3 to 4 months and a significant financial investment. Fertility assessment and diagnosis take time, money, and commitment from the couple. Religious, cultural, and ethnic-bred attitudes about fertility and related issues always have an impact on diagnosis and assessment. Both partners are assessed systematically and simultaneously, as individuals and as a couple. Semen analysis is for men, but the postcoital test is for the couple

. An unmarried young woman describes her sex life as active and involving many partners. She wants a contraceptive method that is reliable and does not interfere with sex. She requests an intrauterine device (IUD). The nurses most appropriate response is: a. The IUD does not interfere with sex. b. The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) will be higher for you. c. The IUD will protect you from sexually transmitted infections (STIs). d. Pregnancy rates are high with IUDs.

b. The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) will be higher for you. Disadvantages of IUDs include an increased risk of PID in the first 20 days after insertion and the risks of bacterial vaginosis and uterine perforation. The IUD offers no protection against STIs or human immunodeficiency virus. Because this woman has multiple sex partners, she is at higher risk of developing a STI. The IUD does not protect against infection, as does a barrier method. Although the statement The IUD does not interfere with sex may be correct, it is not the most appropriate response. The IUD offers no protection from STIs. The typical failure rate of the IUD in the first year of use is 0.8%

With regard to the initial physical examination of a woman beginning prenatal care, maternity nurses should be cognizant of: a. Only women who show physical signs or meet the sociologic profile should be assessed for physical abuse. b. The woman should empty her bladder before the pelvic examination is performed. c. The distribution, amount, and quality of body hair are of no particular importance. d. The size of the uterus is discounted in the initial examination

b. The woman should empty her bladder before the pelvic examination is performed An empty bladder facilitates the examination; this is also an opportunity to get a urine sample easily for a number of tests. All women should be assessed for a history of physical abuse, particularly because the likelihood of abuse increases during pregnancy. Noting body hair is important because body hair reflects nutritional status, endocrine function, and hygiene. Particular attention is paid to the size of the uterus because it is an indication of the duration of gestation.

7. To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in the uterus, nurses should be aware that: a. Lightening occurs near the end of the second trimester as the uterus rises into a different position. b. The womans increased urinary frequency in the first trimester is the result of exaggerated uterine antireflexion caused by softening. c. Braxton Hicks contractions become more painful in the third trimester, particularly if the woman tries to exercise. d. The uterine souffle is the movement of the fetus.

b. The womans increased urinary frequency in the first trimester is the result of exaggerated uterine antireflexion caused by softening. The softening of the lower uterine segment is called Hegars sign. Lightening occurs in the last 2 weeks of pregnancy, when the fetus descends. Braxton Hicks contractions become more defined in the final trimester but are not painful. Walking or exercise usually causes them to stop. The uterine souffle is the sound made by blood in the uterine arteries; it can be heard with a fetal stethoscope.

A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs). The nurses most appropriate reply is: a. Theyre not very effective, and its very likely youll get pregnant. b. They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation. c. These methods have a few advantages and several health risks. d. You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry

b. They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation FAMs are effective with proper vigilance about ovulatory changes in the body and adherence to coitus intervals. They are effective if used correctly by a woman with a regular menstrual cycle. The typical failure rate for all FAMs is 25% during the first year of use. FAMs have no associated health risks. The use of birth control has associated health risks. In addition, taking a pill daily requires compliance on the clients part

The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that HPV be treated with clientapplied: a. Miconazole ointment. b. Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel. c. Penicillin given intramuscularly for two doses. d. Metronidazole by mouth.

b. Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel ailable treatments are imiquimod, podophyllin, and podofilox. Miconazole ointment is used to treat athletes foot. Intramuscular penicillin is used to treat syphilis. Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis

. Which statement about multifetal pregnancy is inaccurate? a. The expectant mother often develops anemia because the fetuses have a greater demand for iron. b. Twin pregnancies come to term with the same frequency as single pregnancies. c. The mother should be counseled to increase her nutritional intake and gain more weight. d. Backache and varicose veins often are more pronounced

b. Twin pregnancies come to term with the same frequency as single pregnancies. Twin pregnancies often end in prematurity. Serious efforts should be made to bring the pregnancy to term. A woman with a multifetal pregnancy often develops anemia, suffers more or worse backache, and needs to gain more weight. Counseling is needed to help her adjust to these conditions.

. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening indicates an elevated level. MSAFP screening is repeated and again is reported as higher than normal. What would be the next step in the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus? a. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies c. Biophysical profile (BPP) for fetal well-being d. Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies

b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies If MSAFP findings are abnormal, follow-up procedures include genetic counseling for families with a history of neural tube defect, repeated MSAFP screening, ultrasound examination, and possibly amniocentesis. Indications for use of PUBS include prenatal diagnosis of inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of fetuses with intrauterine growth restriction, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. BPP is a method of assessing fetal well-being in the third trimester. Before amniocentesis is considered, the client first would have an ultrasound for direct visualization of the fetus.

4. A 3-year-old girls mother is 6 months pregnant. What concern is this child likely to verbalize? a. How the baby will get out c. Whether her mother will die b. What the baby will eat d. What color eyes the baby has

b. What the baby will eat By age 3 or 4, children like to be told the story of their own beginning and accept its comparison with the present pregnancy. They like to listen to the fetal heartbeat and feel the baby move. Sometimes they worry about how the baby is being fed and what it wears. School-age children take a more clinical interest in their mothers pregnancy and may want to know, How did the baby get in there? and How will it get out? Whether her mother will die does not tend to be the focus of a childs questions about the impending birth of a sibling. The babys eye color does not tend to be the focus of childrens questions about the impending birth of a sibling

. A woman is 15 weeks pregnant with her first baby. She asks how long it will be before she feels the baby move. The best answer is: a. You should have felt the baby move by now. b. Within the next month, you should start to feel fluttering sensations. c. The baby is moving; however, you cant feel it yet. d. Some babies are quiet, and you dont feel them move.

b. Within the next month, you should start to feel fluttering sensations. Maternal perception of fetal movement usually begins 16 to 20 weeks after conception. Because this is her first pregnancy, movement is felt toward the later part of the 16- to 20-week time period. Stating that you should have felt the baby move by now is incorrect and may be alarming to the patient. Fetal movement should be felt by 16 to 20 weeks. If movement is not felt by the end of that time, further assessment will be necessary.

.A woman inquires about herbal alternative methods for improving fertility. Which statement by the nurse is the most appropriate when instructing the client in which herbal preparations to avoid while trying to conceive? a. You should avoid nettle leaf, dong quai, and vitamin E while you are trying to get pregnant. b. You may want to avoid licorice root, lavender, fennel, sage, and thyme while you are trying to conceive. c. You should not take anything with vitamin E, calcium, or magnesium. They will make you infertile. d. Herbs have no bearing on fertility.

b. You may want to avoid licorice root, lavender, fennel, sage, and thyme while you are trying to conceive. Herbs that a woman should avoid while trying to conceive include licorice root, yarrow, wormwood, ephedra, fennel, golden seal, lavender, juniper, flaxseed, pennyroyal, passionflower, wild cherry, cascara, sage, thyme, and periwinkle. Nettle leaf, dong quai, and vitamin E all promote fertility. Vitamin E, calcium, and magnesium may promote fertility and conception. All supplements and herbs should be purchased from trusted sources.

. A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. The nurses most appropriate response would be: a. This is a highly effective method, but it has some side effects. b. Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill. c. The pill will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication. d. This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history.

b. Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill. Because the liver metabolizes oral contraceptives, their effectiveness is reduced when they are taken simultaneously with anticonvulsants. The statement Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill is true, but it is not the most appropriate response. The anticonvulsant will reduce the effectiveness of the pill, not the other way around. The statement This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history does not teach the client that the effectiveness of the pill may be reduced because of her anticonvulsant therapy.

. While working with the pregnant woman in her first trimester, the nurse is aware that chorionic villus sampling (CVS) can be performed during pregnancy at: a. 4 weeks c. 10 weeks b. 8 weeks d. 14 weeks

c. 10 weeks CVS can be performed in the first or second trimester, ideally between 10 and 13 weeks of gestation. During this procedure, a small piece of tissue is removed from the fetal portion of the placenta. If performed after 9 completed weeks of gestation, the risk of limb reduction is no greater than in the general population

. A 27-year-old pregnant woman had a preconceptual body mass index (BMI) of 18.0. The nurse knows that this womans total recommended weight gain during pregnancy should be at least: a. 20 kg (44 lb). c. 12.5 kg (27.5 lb). b. 16 kg (35 lb) . d. 10 kg (22 lb).

c. 12.5 kg (27.5 lb). This woman has a normal BMI and should gain 11.5 to 16 kg during pregnancy. A weight gain of 20 kg would be unhealthy for most women. A weight gain 35 lb is the high end of the range of weight this woman should gain in her pregnancy. A weight gain of 22 lb would be appropriate for an obese woman

. If a patients normal prepregnancy diet contains 45 g of protein daily, how many more grams of protein should she consume per day during pregnancy? a. 5 c. 25 b. 10 d. 30

c. 25 The recommended intake of protein for the pregnant woman is 70 g. Intakes of 5, 10, or 15 g would be inadequate to meet protein needs during pregnancy. A protein intake of 30 g is more than is necessary and would add extra calories.

. At approximately _____ weeks of gestation, lecithin is forming on the alveolar surfaces, the eyelids open, and the fetus measures approximately 27 cm crown to rump and weighs approximately 1110 g. a. 20 c. 28 b. 24 d. 30

c. 28 These milestones human development occur at approximately 28 weeks

. The measurement of lecithin in relation to sphingomyelin (L/S ratio) is used to determine fetal lung maturity. Which ratio reflects maturity of the lungs? a. 1.4:1 c. 2:1 b. 1.8:1 d. 1:1

c. 2:1 A ratio of 2:1 indicates a two-to-one ratio of L/S, an indicator of lung maturity. Ratios of 1.4:1, 1.8:1, and 1:1 indicate immaturity of the fetal lungs.

. The nurse should know that once human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enters the body, seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within a. 6 to 10 days. c. 6 to 8 weeks. b. 2 to 4 weeks. d. 6 months.

c. 6 to 8 weeks. Seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within 6 to 8 weeks after the virus has entered the body.

Which patient is most at risk for fibroadenoma of the breast? a. A 38-year-old woman c. A 16-year-old girl b. A 50-year-old woman d. A 27-year-old woman

c. A 16-year-old girl Although it may occur at any age, fibroadenoma is most common in the teenage years. Ductal ectasia and intraductal papilloma become more common as a woman approaches menopause. Fibrocystic breast changes are more common during the reproductive years

. At 35 weeks of pregnancy a woman experiences preterm labor. Tocolytics are administered and she is placed on bed rest, but she continues to experience regular uterine contractions, and her cervix is beginning to dilate and efface. What would be an important test for fetal well-being at this time? a. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) b. Ultrasound for fetal size c. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity d. Nonstress test (NST)

c. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity Amniocentesis would be performed to assess fetal lung maturity in the event of a preterm birth. Indications for PUBS include prenatal diagnosis or inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of a fetus with intrauterine growth restriction, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. Typically, fetal size is determined by ultrasound during the second trimester and is not indicated in this scenario. NST measures the fetal response to fetal movement in a noncontracting mother.

A woman had unprotected intercourse 36 hours ago and is concerned that she may become pregnant because it is her fertile time. She asks the nurse about emergency contraception. The nurse tells her that: a. It is too late; she needed to begin treatment within 24 hours after intercourse. b. Preven, an emergency contraceptive method, is 98% effective at preventing pregnancy. c. An over-the-counter antiemetic can be taken 1 hour before each contraceptive dose to prevent nausea and vomiting. d. The most effective approach is to use a progestin-only preparation.

c. An over-the-counter antiemetic can be taken 1 hour before each contraceptive dose to prevent nausea and vomiting. To minimize the side effect of nausea that occurs with high doses of estrogen and progestin, the woman can take an over-the-counter antiemetic 1 hour before each dose. Emergency contraception is used within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy. Postcoital contraceptive use is 74% to 90% effective at preventing pregnancy. Oral emergency contraceptive regimens may include progestin-only and estrogenprogestin pills. Women with contraindications to estrogen use should use progestin-only pills.

A pregnant woman at 25 weeks gestation tells the nurse that she dropped a pan last week and her baby jumped at the noise. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a. That must have been a coincidence; babies cant respond like that. b. The fetus is demonstrating the aural reflex. c. Babies respond to sound starting at about 24 weeks of gestation. d. Let me know if it happens again; we need to report that to your midwife.

c. Babies respond to sound starting at about 24 weeks of gestation Babies respond to sound starting at about 24 weeks of gestation is an accurate statement. That must have been a coincidence; babies cant respond like that is inaccurate. Acoustic stimulations can evoke a fetal heart rate response. There is no such thing as an aural reflex. The statement, Let me know if it happens again; we need to report that to your midwife is not appropriate; it gives the impression that something is wrong

. Which meal would provide the most absorbable iron? a. Toasted cheese sandwich, celery sticks, tomato slices, and a grape drink b. Oatmeal, whole wheat toast, jelly, and low-fat milk c. Black bean soup, wheat crackers, orange sections, and prunes d. Red beans and rice, cornbread, mixed greens, and decaffeinated tea

c. Black bean soup, wheat crackers, orange sections, and prunes Food sources that are rich in iron include liver, meats, whole grain or enriched breads and cereals, deep green leafy vegetables, legumes, and dried fruits. In addition, the vitamin C in orange sections aids absorption. Dairy products and tea are not sources of iron.

. The drug of choice for treatment of gonorrhea is: a. Penicillin G. c. Ceftriaxone. b. Tetracycline. d. Acyclovir.

c. Ceftriaxone. Ceftriaxone is effective for treatment of all gonococcal infections. Penicillin is used to treat syphilis. Tetracycline is prescribed for chlamydial infections. Acyclovir is used to treat herpes genitalis.

. When evaluating a patient for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), the nurse should be aware that the most common bacterial STI is: a. Gonorrhea. c. Chlamydia. b. Syphilis. d. Candidiasis

c. Chlamydia. Chlamydia is the most common and fastest spreading STI among American women, with an estimated 3 million new cases each year. Gonorrhea and syphilis are bacterial STIs, but they are not the most common ones among American women. Candidiasis is caused by a fungus, not by bacteria

. Some pregnant clients may complain of changes in their voice and impaired hearing. The nurse can tell these clients that these are common reactions to: a. A decreased estrogen level. b. Displacement of the diaphragm, resulting in thoracic breathing. c. Congestion and swelling, which occur because the upper respiratory tract has become more vascular. d. Increased blood volume.

c. Congestion and swelling, which occur because the upper respiratory tract has become more vascular. Estrogen levels increase, causing the upper respiratory tract to become more vascular producing swelling and congestion in the nose and ears leading to voice changes and impaired hearing. The diaphragm is displaced, and the volume of blood is increased. However, the main concern is increased estrogen levels.

. The nurse is providing genetic counseling for an expectant couple who already have a child with trisomy 18. The nurse should: a. Tell the couple they need to have an abortion within 2 to 3 weeks. b. Explain that the fetus has a 50% chance of having the disorder. c. Discuss options with the couple, including amniocentesis to determine whether the fetus is affected. d. Refer the couple to a psychologist for emotional support.

c. Discuss options with the couple, including amniocentesis to determine whether the fetus is affected. Genetic testing, including amniocentesis, would need to be performed to determine whether the fetus is affected. The couple should be given information about the likelihood of having another baby with this disorder so that they can make an informed decision. A genetic counselor is the best source for determining genetic probability ratios. The couple eventually may need emotional support, but the status of the pregnancy must be determined first.

With regard to follow-up visits for women receiving prenatal care, nurses should be aware that: a. The interview portions become more intensive as the visits become more frequent over the course of the pregnancy. b. Monthly visits are scheduled for the first trimester, every 2 weeks for the second trimester, and weekly for the third trimester. c. During the abdominal examination, the nurse should be alert for supine hypotension. d. For pregnant women, a systolic blood pressure (BP) of 130 and a diastolic BP of 80 is sufficient to be considered hypertensive.

c. During the abdominal examination, the nurse should be alert for supine hypotension. The woman lies on her back during the abdominal examination, possibly compressing the vena cava and aorta, which can cause a decrease in blood pressure and a feeling of faintness. The interview portion of follow-up examinations is less extensive than in the initial prenatal visits, during which so much new information must be gathered. Monthly visits are routinely scheduled for the first and second trimesters; visits increase to every 2 weeks at week 28 and to once a week at week 36. For pregnant women hypertension is defined as a systolic BP of 140 or greater and a diastolic BP of 90 or greater.

In response to requests by the U.S. Public Health Service for new models of prenatal care, an innovative new approach to prenatal care known as centering pregnancy was developed. Which statement would accurately apply to the centering model of care? a. Group sessions begin with the first prenatal visit. b. At each visit, blood pressure, weight, and urine dipsticks are obtained by the nurse. c. Eight to 12 women are placed in gestational-age cohort groups. d. Outcomes are similar to those of traditional prenatal care.

c. Eight to 12 women are placed in gestational-age cohort groups. Gestational age cohorts comprise the groups, with approximately 8 to 12 women in each group. This group remains intact throughout the pregnancy. Individual follow-up visits are scheduled as needed. Group sessions begin at 12 to 16 weeks of gestation and end with an early postpartum visit. Before group sessions the client has an individual assessment, physical examination, and history. At the beginning of each group meeting, clients measure their own blood pressure, weight, and urine dips and enter these in their record. Fetal heart rate assessment and fundal height are obtained by the nurse. Results evaluating this approach have been very promising. In a study of adolescent clients, there was a decrease in low-birth-weight infants and an increase in breastfeeding rates.

Which diagnostic test is used to confirm a suspected diagnosis of breast cancer? a. Mammogram c. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) b. Ultrasound d. CA 15.3

c. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA When a suspicious mammogram is noted or a lump is detected, diagnosis is confirmed by FNA, core needle biopsy, or needle localization biopsy. Mammography is a clinical screening tool that may aid early detection of breast cancers. Transillumination, thermography, and ultrasound breast imaging are being explored as methods of detecting early breast carcinoma. CA 15.3 is a serum tumor marker that is used to test for residual disease.

. A couple comes in for an infertility workup, having attempted to get pregnant for 2 years. The woman, 37, has always had irregular menstrual cycles but is otherwise healthy. The man has fathered two children from a previous marriage and had a vasectomy reversal 2 years ago. The man has had two normal semen analyses, but the sperm seem to be clumped together. What additional test is needed? a. Testicular biopsy b. Antisperm antibodies c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level d. Examination for testicular infection

c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level The woman has irregular menstrual cycles. The scenario does not indicate that she has had any testing related to this irregularity. Hormone analysis is performed to assess endocrine function of the hypothalamic-pituitaryovarian axis when menstrual cycles are absent or irregular. Determination of blood levels of prolactin, FSH, luteinizing hormone (LH), estradiol, progesterone, and thyroid hormones may be necessary to diagnose the cause of irregular menstrual cycles. A testicular biopsy would be indicated only in cases of azoospermia (no sperm cells) or severe oligospermia (low number of sperm cells). Antisperm antibodies are produced by a man against his own sperm. This is unlikely to be the case here because the man has already produced children. Examination for testicular infection would be done before semen analysis. Infection would affect spermatogenesis.

. In the past, factors to determine whether a woman was likely to develop a high risk pregnancy were evaluated primarily from a medical point of view. A broader, more comprehensive approach to high-risk pregnancy has been adopted today. There are now four categories based on threats to the health of the woman and the outcome of pregnancy. Which of the following is not one of these categories? a. Biophysical c. Geographic b. Psychosocial d. Environmental

c. Geographic This category is correctly referred to as sociodemographic risk. These factors stem from the mother and her family. Ethnicity may be one of the risks to pregnancy; however, it is not the only factor in this category. Low income, lack of prenatal care, age, parity, and marital status also are included. Biophysical is one of the broad categories used for determining risk. These include genetic considerations, nutritional status, and medical and obstetric disorders. Psychosocial risks include smoking, caffeine, drugs, alcohol, and psychologic status. All of these adverse lifestyles can have a negative effect on the health of the mother or fetus. Environmental risks are risks that can affect both fertility and fetal development. These include infections, chemicals, radiation, pesticides, illicit drugs, and industrial pollutants.

A couple is trying to cope with an infertility problem. They want to know what they can do to preserve their emotional equilibrium. The nurses most appropriate response is: a. Tell your friends and family so they can help you. b. Talk only to other friends who are infertile because only they can help. c. Get involved with a support group. Ill give you some names. d. Start adoption proceedings immediately because it is very difficult to obtain an infant

c. Get involved with a support group. Ill give you some names. Venting negative feelings may unburden the couple. A support group may provide a safe haven for the couple to share their experiences and gain insight from others experiences. Although talking about their feelings may unburden them of negative feelings, infertility can be a major stressor that affects the couples relationships with family and friends. Limiting their interactions to other infertile couples may be a beginning point for addressing psychosocial needs, but depending on where the other couple is in their own recovery process, this may or may not help them. The statement about adoption proceedings is not supportive of the psychosocial needs of this couple and may be detrimental to their well-being.

. Injectable progestins (DMPA, Depo-Provera) are a good contraceptive choice for women who: a. Want menstrual regularity and predictability. b. Have a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer. c. Have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily. d. Are homeless or mobile and rarely receive health care.

c. Have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily. Advantages of DMPA include a contraceptive effectiveness comparable to that of combined oral contraceptives with the requirement of only four injections a year. Disadvantages of injectable progestins are prolonged amenorrhea and uterine bleeding. Use of injectable progestin carries an increased risk of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. To be effective, DMPA injections must be administered every 11 to 13 weeks. Access to health care is necessary to prevent pregnancy or potential complications.

. To provide the patient with accurate information about dental care during pregnancy, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. Dental care can be dropped from the priority list because the woman has enough to worry about and is getting a lot of calcium anyway. b. Dental surgery, in particular, is contraindicated because of the psychologic stress it engenders. c. If dental treatment is necessary, the woman will be most comfortable with it in the second trimester. d. Dental care interferes with the expectant mothers need to practice conscious relaxation

c. If dental treatment is necessary, the woman will be most comfortable with it in the second trimester. The second trimester is best for dental treatment because that is when the woman will be able to sit most comfortably in the dental chair. Dental care such as brushing with fluoride toothpaste is especially important during pregnancy because nausea during pregnancy may lead to poor oral hygiene. Emergency dental surgery is permissible, but the mother must clearly understand the risks and benefits. Conscious relaxation is useful, and it may even help the woman get through any dental appointments; it is not a reason to avoid them

. When providing care to the prenatal patient, the nurse understands that pica is defined as: a. Intolerance of milk products c. Ingestion of nonfood substances b. Iron deficiency anemia d. Episodes of anorexia and vomiting

c. Ingestion of nonfood substances The practice of eating substances not normally thought of as food is called pica. Clay or dirt and solid laundry starch are the substances most commonly ingested. Intolerance of milk products is referred to as lactose intolerance. Pica may produce iron deficiency anemia if proper nutrition is decreased. Pica is not related to anorexia and vomiting.

A woman has a breast mass that is not well delineated and is nonpalpable, immobile, and nontender. This is most likely: a. Fibroadenoma. c. Intraductal papilloma. b. Lipoma. d. Mammary duct ectasia.

c. Intraductal papilloma. Intraductal papilloma is the only benign breast mass that is nonpalpable. Fibroadenoma is well delineated, palpable, and movable. Lipoma is palpable and movable. Mammary duct ectasia is not well delineated and is immobile, but it is palpable and painful.

Which minerals and vitamins usually are recommended to supplement a pregnant womans diet? a. Fat-soluble vitamins A and D c. Iron and folate b. Water-soluble vitamins C and B6 d. Calcium and zinc

c. Iron and folate Iron generally should be supplemented, and folic acid supplements often are needed because folate is so important. Fat-soluble vitamins should be supplemented as a medical prescription, as vitamin D might be for lactose-intolerant women. Water-soluble vitamin C sometimes is consumed in excess naturally; vitamin B6 is prescribed only if the woman has a very poor diet. Zinc sometimes is supplemented. Most women obtain enough calcium through their regular diet.

The nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that contraction stress test (CST): a. Sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation. b. Is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated. c. Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. d. Is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured

c. Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. No late decelerations is good news. Vibroacoustic stimulation is sometimes used with NST. CST is invasive if stimulation is by intravenous oxytocin but not if by nipple stimulation and is contraindicated if the membranes have ruptured

. While instructing a couple regarding birth control, the nurse should be aware that the method called natural family planning: a. Is the same as coitus interruptus, or pulling out. b. Uses the calendar method to align the womans cycle with the natural phases of the moon. c. Is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic church. d. Relies on barrier methods during fertility phases

c. Is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic church. Natural family planning is another name for periodic abstinence, which is the accepted way to pass safely through the fertility phases without relying on chemical or physical barriers. Natural family planning is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic church. Pulling out is not the same as periodic abstinence, another name for natural family planning. The phases of the moon are not part of the calendar method or any method

. With regard to endometriosis, nurses should be aware that: a. It is characterized by the presence and growth of endometrial tissue inside the uterus. b. It is found more often in African-American women than in white or Asian women. c. It may worsen with repeated cycles or remain asymptomatic and disappear after menopause. d. It is unlikely to affect sexual intercourse or fertility

c. It may worsen with repeated cycles or remain asymptomatic and disappear after menopause Symptoms vary among women, ranging from nonexistent to incapacitating. With endometriosis, the endometrial tissue is outside the uterus. Symptoms vary among women, ranging from nonexistent to incapacitating. Endometriosis is found equally in white and African-American women and is slightly more prevalent in Asian women. Women can experience painful intercourse and impaired fertility.

. A couple has been counseled for genetic anomalies. They ask you, What is karyotyping? Your best response is: a. Karyotyping will reveal if the babys lungs are mature. b. Karyotyping will reveal if your baby will develop normally. c. Karyotyping will provide information about the gender of the baby and the number and structure of the chromosomes. d. Karyotyping will detect any physical deformities the baby has.

c. Karyotyping will provide information about the gender of the baby and the number and structure of the chromosomes. Karyotyping provides genetic information such as gender and chromosome structure. The L/S, not karyotyping, reveals lung maturity. Although karyotyping can detect genetic anomalies, the range of normal is nondescriptive. Although karyotyping can detect genetic anomalies, not all such anomalies display obvious physical deformities. The term deformities is a nondescriptive word. Physical anomalies may be present that are not detected by genetic studies (e.g., cardiac malformations).

When assessing a patient for amenorrhea, the nurse should be aware that this is unlikely to be caused by: a. Anatomic abnormalities. c. Lack of exercise. b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus. d. Hysterectomy

c. Lack of exercise. Lack of exercise is not a cause of amenorrhea. Strenuous exercise may cause amenorrhea. Anatomic abnormalities, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and hysterectomy all are possible causes of amenorrhea.

To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their breasts, nurses should be aware that: a. The visibility of blood vessels that form an intertwining blue network indicates full function of Montgomerys tubercles and possibly infection of the tubercles b. The mammary glands do not develop until 2 weeks before labor. c. Lactation is inhibited until the estrogen level declines after birth. d. Colostrum is the yellowish oily substance used to lubricate the nipples for breastfeeding.

c. Lactation is inhibited until the estrogen level declines after birth. Lactation is inhibited until after birth. The visible blue network of blood vessels is a normal outgrowth of a richer blood supply. The mammary glands are functionally complete by midpregnancy. Colostrum is a creamy, white-to-yellow premilk fluid that can be expressed from the nipples before birth.

Pregnant adolescents are at high risk for _____ because of lower body mass indices (BMIs) and fad dieting. a. Obesity c. Low-birth-weight babies b. Diabetes d. High-birth-weight babies

c. Low-birth-weight babies Adolescents tend to have lower BMIs because they are still developing and may follow unsafe nutritional practices. In addition, the fetus and still-growing mother appear to compete for nutrients. These factors, along with inadequate weight gain, lend themselves to a higher incidence of low-birth-weight babies. Obesity, diabetes, and high-birth-weight babies are conditions associated with higher BMIs.

. The nurse providing education regarding breast care should explain to the woman that fibrocystic changes in breasts are: a. A disease of the milk ducts and glands in the breasts. b. A premalignant disorder characterized by lumps found in the breast tissue. c. Lumpiness with pain and tenderness found in varying degrees in the breast tissue of healthy women during menstrual cycles. d. Lumpiness accompanied by tenderness after menses

c. Lumpiness with pain and tenderness found in varying degrees in the breast tissue of healthy women during menstrual cycles. Fibrocystic changes are palpable thickenings in the breast usually associated with pain and tenderness. The pain and tenderness fluctuate with the menstrual cycle. Fibrocystic changes are not premalignant changes.

With regard to the development of the respiratory system, maternity nurses should be understand that: a. The respiratory system does not begin developing until after the embryonic stage. b. The infants lungs are considered mature when the lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is 1:1, at about 32 weeks. c. Maternal hypertension can reduce maternal-placental blood flow, accelerating lung maturity. d. Fetal respiratory movements are not visible on ultrasound scans until at least 16 weeks.

c. Maternal hypertension can reduce maternal-placental blood flow, accelerating lung maturity A reduction in placental blood flow stresses the fetus, increases blood levels of corticosteroids, and accelerates lung maturity. Development of the respiratory system begins during the embryonic phase and continues into childhood. The infants lungs are mature when the L/S ratio is 2:1, at about 35 weeks. Lung movements have been seen on ultrasound scans at 11 weeks

A 36-year-old woman has been given a diagnosis of uterine fibroids. When planning care for this patient, the nurse should know that: a. Fibroids are malignant tumors of the uterus that require radiation or chemotherapy b. Fibroids increase in size during the perimenopausal period. c. Menorrhagia is a common finding. d. The woman is unlikely to become pregnant as long as the fibroids are in her uterus.

c. Menorrhagia is a common finding. The major symptoms associated with fibroids are menorrhagia and the physical effects produced by large myomas. Fibroids are benign tumors of the smooth muscle of the uterus, and their etiology is unknown. Fibroids are estrogen sensitive and shrink as levels of estrogen decline. Fibroids occur in 25% of women of reproductive age and are seen in 2% of pregnant women

Management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides care for a client with this condition should be aware that the optimal pharmacologic therapy for pain relief is: a. Acetaminophen. b. Oral contraceptives (OCPs). c. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). d. Aspirin.

c. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) NSAIDs are prostaglandin inhibitors and show the strongest research results for pain relief. Often if one NSAID is not effective, another one can provide relief. Approximately 80% of women find relief from NSAIDs. Preparations containing acetaminophen are less effective for dysmenorrhea because they lack the antiprostaglandin properties of NSAIDs. OCPs are a reasonable choice for women who also want birth control. The benefit of OCPs is the reduction of menstrual flow and irregularities. OCPs may be contraindicated for some women and have numerous potential side effects. NSAIDs are the drug of choice. If a woman is taking NSAID, she should avoid

With regard to the initial visit with a client who is beginning prenatal care, nurses should be aware that: a. The first interview is a relaxed, get-acquainted affair in which nurses gather some general impressions. b. If nurses observe handicapping conditions, they should be sensitive and not inquire about them because the client will do that in her own time. c. Nurses should be alert to the appearance of potential parenting problems, such as depression or lack of family support. d. Because of legal complications, nurses should not ask about illegal drug use; that is left to physicians.

c. Nurses should be alert to the appearance of potential parenting problems, such as depression or lack of family support. Besides these potential problems, nurses need to be alert to the womans attitude toward health care. The initial interview needs to be planned, purposeful, and focused on specific content. A lot of ground must be covered. Nurses must be sensitive to special problems, but they do need to inquire because discovering individual needs is important. People with chronic or handicapping conditions forget to mention them because they have adapted to them. Getting information on drug use is important and can be done confidentially. Actual testing for drug use requires the clients consent.

. A patient at 24 weeks of gestation contacts the nurse at her obstetric providers office to complain that she has cravings for dirt and gravel. The nurse is aware that this condition is known as ________ and may indicate anemia. a. Ptyalism c. Pica b. Pyrosis d. Decreased peristalsis

c. Pica Pica (a desire to eat nonfood substances) is an indication of iron deficiency and should be evaluated. Ptyalism (excessive salivation), pyrosis (heartburn), and decreased peristalsis are normal findings of gastrointestinal change during pregnancy. Food cravings during pregnancy are normal.

While taking a diet history, the nurse might be told that the expectant mother has cravings for ice chips, cornstarch, and baking soda. This represents a nutritional problem known as: a. Preeclampsia . c. Pica. b. Pyrosis. d. Purging.

c. Pica The consumption of foods low in nutritional value or of nonfood substances (e.g., dirt, laundry starch) is called pica.

When evaluating a patient whose primary complaint is amenorrhea, the nurse must be aware that lack of menstruation is most often the result of: a. Stress. c. Pregnancy. b. Excessive exercise . d. Eating disorders

c. Pregnancy. Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual flow, is most often a result of pregnancy. Although stress, excessive exercise, and eating disorders all may be contributing factors, none is the most common factor associated with amenorrhea.

Which statement concerning cyclic perimenstrual pain and discomfort (CPPD) is accurate? a. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a milder form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) and more common in younger women. b. Secondary dysmenorrhea is more intense and medically significant than primary dysmenorrhea. c. Premenstrual syndrome is a complex, poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms. d. The causes of PMS have been well established

c. Premenstrual syndrome is a complex, poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms. PMS may manifest with one or more of a hundred or so physical and psychologic symptoms. PMDD is a more severe variant of PMS. Secondary dysmenorrhea is characterized by more muted pain than that seen in primary dysmenorrhea; the medical treatment is much the same. The cause of PMS is unknown. It may be a collection of different problems

. During pregnancy, many changes occur as a direct result of the presence of the fetus. Which of these adaptations meet this criteria? a. Leukorrhea b. Development of the operculum c. Quickening d. Ballottement e. Lightening

c. Quickening d. Ballottement e. Lightening Leukorrhea is a white or slightly gray vaginal discharge that develops in response to cervical stimulation by estrogen and progesterone. Quickening is the first recognition of fetal movements or feeling life. Quickening is often described as a flutter and is felt earlier in multiparous women than in primiparas. Lightening occurs when the fetus begins to descend into the pelvis. This occurs 2 weeks before labor in the nullipara and at the start of labor in the multipara. Mucus fills the cervical canal creating a plug otherwise known as the operculum. The operculum acts as a barrier against bacterial invasion during the pregnancy. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus is referred to as ballottement

The nurse should be aware that the partners main role in pregnancy is to: a. Provide financial support. b. Protect the pregnant woman from old wives tales. c. Support and nurture the pregnant woman. d. Make sure the pregnant woman keeps prenatal appointments.

c. Support and nurture the pregnant woman The partners main role in pregnancy is to nurture the pregnant woman and respond to her feelings of vulnerability. In older societies, the man enacted the ritual couvade. Changing cultural and professional attitudes have encouraged fathers participation in the birth experience over the past 30 years

. A woman will be taking oral contraceptives using a 28-day pack. The nurse should advise this woman to protect against pregnancy by: a. Limiting sexual contact for one cycle after starting the pill. b. Using condoms and foam instead of the pill for as long as she takes an antibiotic. c. Taking one pill at the same time every day. d. Throwing away the pack and using a backup method if she misses two pills during week 1 of her cycle.

c. Taking one pill at the same time every day. To maintain adequate hormone levels for contraception and to enhance compliance, clients should take oral contraceptives at the same time each day. If contraceptives are to be started at any time other than during normal menses or within 3 weeks after birth or abortion, another method of contraception should be used through the first week to prevent the risk of pregnancy. Taken exactly as directed, oral contraceptives prevent ovulation, and pregnancy cannot occur. No strong pharmacokinetic evidence indicates a link between the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and altered hormone levels in oral contraceptive users. If the client misses two pills during week 1, she should take two pills a day for 2 days, finish the package, and use a backup method the next 7 consecutive days.

. The labor and delivery nurse is preparing a bariatric patient for an elective cesarean birth. Which piece of specialized equipment is unnecessary when providing care for this pregnant woman. a. Extra long surgical instruments b. Wide surgical table c. Temporal thermometer d. Increased diameter blood pressure cuff

c. Temporal thermometer Obstetricians today are seeing more morbidly obese pregnant women weighing 400, 500, and 600 pounds. To manage their conditions and to meet their logistical needs, a new medical subspecialty bariatric obstetrics has arisen. Extra-wide blood pressure cuffs, scales that can accommodate up to 880 pounds, and extra-wide surgical tables designed to hold the weight of these women are used. Special techniques for ultrasound examination and longer surgical instruments for cesarean birth are also required. A temporal thermometer can be used for a pregnant patient of any size.

When nurses help their expectant mothers assess the daily fetal movement counts, they should be aware that: a. Alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity. b. Kick counts should be taken every half hour and averaged every 6 hours, with every other 6-hour stretch off. c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours. d. Obese mothers familiar with their bodies can assess fetal movement as well as average-size women.

c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours No movement in a 12-hour period is cause for investigation and possibly intervention. Alcohol and cigarette smoke temporarily reduce fetal movement. The mother should count fetal activity (kick counts) two or three times daily for 60 minutes each time. Obese women have a harder time assessing fetal movement.

. In practical terms regarding genetic health care, nurses should be aware that: a. Genetic disorders affect people of all socioeconomic backgrounds, races, and ethnic groups equally. b. Genetic health care is more concerned with populations than individuals. c. The most important of all nursing functions is providing emotional support to the family during counseling. d. Taking genetic histories is the province of large universities and medical centers

c. The most important of all nursing functions is providing emotional support to the family during counseling. Nurses should be prepared to help with various stress reactions from a couple facing the possibility of a genetic disorder. Although anyone may have a genetic disorder, certain disorders appear more often in certain ethnic and racial groups. Genetic health care is highly individualized because treatments are based on the phenotypic responses of the individual. Individual nurses at any facility can take a genetic history, although larger facilities may have better support services

Sally comes in for her first prenatal examination. This is her first child. She asks you (the nurse), How does my baby get air inside my uterus? The correct response is: a. The babys lungs work in utero to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide. b. The baby absorbs oxygen from your blood system. c. The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream. d. The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical artery to the babys abdomen.

c. The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream The placenta functions by supplying oxygen and excreting carbon dioxide to the maternal bloodstream. The fetal lungs do not function for respiratory gas exchange in utero. The baby does not simply absorb oxygen from a womans blood system. Blood and gas transport occur through the placenta. The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical vein and not the artery.

With regard to amniocentesis, nurses should be aware that: a. Because of new imaging techniques, amniocentesis is now possible in the first trimester. b. Despite the use of ultrasound, complications still occur in the mother or infant in 5% to 10% of cases. c. The shake test, or bubble stability test, is a quick means of determining fetal maturity. d. The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid is always cause for concern.

c. The shake test, or bubble stability test, is a quick means of determining fetal maturity. Diluted fluid is mixed with ethanol and shaken. After 15 minutes, the bubbles tell the story. Amniocentesis is possible after the fourteenth week of pregnancy when the uterus becomes an abdominal organ. Complications occur in less than 1% of cases; many have been minimized or eliminated through the use of ultrasound. Meconium in the amniotic fluid before the beginning of labor is not usually a problem.

. A womans cousin gave birth to an infant with a congenital heart anomaly. The woman asks the nurse when such anomalies occur during development. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a. We dont really know when such defects occur. b. It depends on what caused the defect. c. They occur between the third and fifth weeks of development. d. They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development

c. They occur between the third and fifth weeks of development. The cardiovascular system is the first organ system to function in the developing human. Blood vessel and blood formation begins in the third week, and the heart is developmentally complete in the fifth week. We dont really know when such defects occur is an inaccurate statement. Regardless of the cause, the heart is vulnerable during its period of development, the third to fifth weeks. They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development is an inaccurate statement.

A pregnant womans diet consists almost entirely of whole grain breads and cereals, fruits, and vegetables. The nurse would be most concerned about this womans intake of: a. Calcium. c. Vitamin B12. b. Protein. d. Folic acid.

c. Vitamin B12. This diet is consistent with that followed by a strict vegetarian (vegan). Vegans consume only plant products. Because vitamin B12 is found in foods of animal origin, this diet is deficient in vitamin B12

After a mastectomy a woman should be instructed to perform all of the following except: a. Emptying surgical drains twice a day and as needed. b. Avoiding lifting more than 4.5 kg (10 lb) or reaching above her head until given permission by her surgeon. c. Wearing clothing with snug sleeves to support the tissue of the arm on the operative side. d. Reporting immediately if inflammation develops at the incision site or in the affected arm.

c. Wearing clothing with snug sleeves to support the tissue of the arm on the operative side. The woman should not be advised to wear snug clothing. Rather, she should be advised to avoid tight clothing, tight jewelry, and other causes of decreased circulation in the affected arm. As part of the teaching plan, the woman should be instructed to empty surgical drains, to avoid lifting more than 10 lb or reaching above her head, and to report the development of incision site inflammation.

With regard to a womans reordering of personal relationships during pregnancy, the maternity nurse should understand that: a. Because of the special motherhood bond, a womans relationship with her mother is even more important than with the father of the child. b. Nurses need not get involved in any sexual issues the couple has during pregnancy, particularly if they have trouble communicating them to each other. c. Women usually express two major relationship needs during pregnancy: feeling loved and valued and having the child accepted by the father. d. The womans sexual desire is likely to be highest in the first trimester because of the excitement and because intercourse is physically easier.

c. Women usually express two major relationship needs during pregnancy: feeling loved and valued and having the child accepted by the father. Love and support help a woman feel better about her pregnancy. The most important person to the pregnant woman is usually the father. Nurses can facilitate communication between partners about sexual matters if, as is common, they are nervous about expressing their worries and feelings. The second trimester is the time when a womans sense of well-being, along with certain physical changes, increases her desire for sex. Desire is decreased in the first and third trimesters

A father and mother are carriers of phenylketonuria (PKU). Their 2-year-old daughter has PKU. The couple tells the nurse that they are planning to have a second baby. Because their daughter has PKU, they are sure that their next baby wont be affected. What response by the nurse is most accurate? a. Good planning; you need to take advantage of the odds in your favor. b. I think youd better check with your doctor first. c. You are both carriers, so each baby has a 25% chance of being affected. d. The ultrasound indicates a boy, and boys are not affected by PKU

c. You are both carriers, so each baby has a 25% chance of being affected. The chance is one in four that each child produced by this couple will be affected by PKU disorder. This couple still has an increased likelihood of having a child with PKU. Having one child already with PKU does not guarantee that they will not have another. These parents need to discuss their options with their physician. However, an opportune time has presented itself for the couple to receive correct teaching about inherited genetic risks. No correlation exists between gender and inheritance of the disorder because PKU is an autosomal recessive disorder.

A pregnant woman at 10 weeks of gestation jogs three or four times per week. She is concerned about the effect of exercise on the fetus. The nurse should inform her: a. You dont need to modify your exercising any time during your pregnancy. b. Stop exercising because it will harm the fetus. c. You may find that you need to modify your exercise to walking later in your pregnancy, around the seventh month. d. Jogging is too hard on your joints; switch to walking now

c. You may find that you need to modify your exercise to walking later in your pregnancy, around the seventh month. Typically running should be replaced with walking around the seventh month of pregnancy. The nurse should inform the woman that she may need to reduce her exercise level as the pregnancy progresses. Physical activity promotes a feeling of well-being in pregnant women. It improves circulation, promotes relaxation and rest, and counteracts boredom. Simple measures should be initiated to prevent injuries, such as warm-up and stretching exercises to prepare the joints for more strenuous exercise

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is an important biochemical marker for pregnancy and the basis for many tests. A maternity nurse should be aware that: a. hCG can be detected 2.5 weeks after conception. b. The hCG level increases gradually and uniformly throughout pregnancy. c. Much lower than normal increases in the level of hCG may indicate a postdate pregnancy. d. A higher than normal level of hCG may indicate an ectopic pregnancy or Down syndrome.

d. A higher than normal level of hCG may indicate an ectopic pregnancy or Down syndrome. Higher levels also could be a sign of multiple gestation. hCG can be detected 7 to 8 days after conception. The hCG level fluctuates during pregnancy: peaking, declining, stabilizing, and increasing again. Abnormally slow increases may indicate impending miscarriage.

A nurse practitioner performs a clinical breast examination on a woman diagnosed with fibroadenoma. The nurse knows that fibroadenoma is characterized by: a. Inflammation of the milk ducts and glands behind the nipples. b. Thick, sticky discharge from the nipple of the affected breast. c. Lumpiness in both breasts that develops 1 week before menstruation. d. A single lump in one breast that can be expected to shrink as the woman ages

d. A single lump in one breast that can be expected to shrink as the woman ages Fibroadenomas are characterized by discrete, usually solitary lumps smaller than 3 cm in diameter. Fibroadenomas increase in size during pregnancy and shrink as the woman ages. Inflammation of the milk ducts is associated with mammary duct ectasia, not fibroadenoma. A thick, sticky discharge is associated with galactorrhea, not fibroadenoma. Lumpiness before menstruation is associated with fibrocystic changes of the breast.

Some of the embryos intestines remain within the umbilical cord during the embryonic period because the: a. Umbilical cord is much larger at this time than it will be at the end of pregnancy. b. Intestines begin their development within the umbilical cord. c. Nutrient content of the blood is higher in this location. d. Abdomen is too small to contain all the organs while they are developing.

d. Abdomen is too small to contain all the organs while they are developing. The abdominal contents grow more rapidly than the abdominal cavity, so part of their development takes place in the umbilical cord. By 10 weeks of gestation, the abdomen is large enough to contain them. Intestines begin their development within the umbilical cord, but only because the liver and kidneys occupy most of the abdominal cavity. Blood supply is adequate in all areas.

. A woman who is 14 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that she always had a glass of wine with dinner before she became pregnant. She has abstained during her first trimester and would like to know if it is safe for her to have a drink with dinner now. The nurse would tell her: a. Since youre in your second trimester, theres no problem with having one drink with dinner. b. One drink every night is too much. One drink three times a week should be fine. c. Since youre in your second trimester, you can drink as much as you like. d. Because no one knows how much or how little alcohol it takes to cause fetal problems, the best course is to abstain throughout your pregnancy

d. Because no one knows how much or how little alcohol it takes to cause fetal problems, the best course is to abstain throughout your pregnancy The statement Because no one knows how much or how little alcohol it takes to cause fetal problems, the best course is to abstain throughout your pregnancy is accurate. A safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy has not yet been established. Although the consumption of occasional alcoholic beverages may not be harmful to the mother or her developing fetus, complete abstinence is strongly advised

Nafarelin is currently used as a treatment for mild-to-severe endometriosis. The nurse should tell a woman taking this medication that the drug: a. Stimulates the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), thereby stimulating ovarian activity. b. Should be sprayed into one nostril every other day. c. Should be injected into subcutaneous tissue BID. d. Can cause her to experience some hot flashes and vaginal dryness

d. Can cause her to experience some hot flashes and vaginal dryness. Nafarelin is a GnRH agonist, and its side effects are similar to effects of menopause. The hypoestrogenism effect results in hot flashes and vaginal dryness. Nafarelin is a GnRH agonist that suppresses the secretion of GnRH and is administered twice daily by nasal spray.

. A pregnant womans diet history indicates that she likes the following list of foods. The nurse would encourage this woman to consume more of which food to increase her calcium intake? a. Fresh apricots c. Spaghetti with meat sauce b. Canned clams d. Canned sardines

d. Canned sardines Sardines are rich in calcium. Fresh apricots, canned clams, and spaghetti with meat sauce are not high in calcium.

The nurse providing care in a womens health care setting must be aware regarding which sexually transmitted infection that can be successfully treated and cured? a. Herpes b. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) c. Venereal warts d. Chlamydia

d. Chlamydia The usual treatment for infection by the bacterium Chlamydia is doxycycline or azithromycin. Concurrent treatment of all sexual partners is needed to prevent recurrence. There is no known cure for herpes, and treatment focuses on pain relief and preventing secondary infections. Because there is no known cure for AIDS, prevention and early detection are the primary focus of care management. Condylomata acuminata are caused by human papillomavirus. No treatment eradicates the virus

The _____ is/are responsible for oxygen and carbon dioxide transport to and from the maternal bloodstream. a. Decidua basalis c. Germ layer b. Blastocyst d. Chorionic villi

d. Chorionic villi Chorionic villi are fingerlike projections that develop out of the trophoblast and extend into the blood-filled spaces of the endometrium. The villi obtain oxygen and nutrients from the maternal bloodstream and dispose of carbon dioxide and waste products into the maternal blood. The decidua basalis is the portion of the decidua (endometrium) under the blastocyst where the villi attach. The blastocyst is the embryonic development stage after the morula. Implantation occurs at this stage. The germ layer is a layer of the blastocyst

The major source of nutrients in the diet of a pregnant woman should be composed of: a. Simple sugars c. Fiber b. Fats d. Complex carbohydrates

d. Complex carbohydrates Complex carbohydrates supply the pregnant woman with vitamins, minerals, and fiber. The most common simple carbohydrate is table sugar, which is a source of energy but does not provide any nutrients. Fats provide 9 kcal in each gram, in contrast to carbohydrates and proteins, which provide only 4 kcal in each gram. Fiber is supplied primarily by complex carbohydrates.

To reassure and educate their pregnant clients about changes in their blood pressure, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. A blood pressure cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too low; a cuff that is too large produces a reading that is too high. b. Shifting the clients position and changing from arm to arm for different measurements produces the most accurate composite blood pressure reading at each visit. c. The systolic blood pressure increases slightly as pregnancy advances; the diastolic pressure remains constant. d. Compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava by the uterus contributes to hemorrhoids in the later stage of term pregnancy

d. Compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava by the uterus contributes to hemorrhoids in the later stage of term pregnancy Compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava also leads to varicose veins in the legs and vulva. The tightness of a cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too high; similarly the looseness of a cuff that is too large results in a reading that is too low. Because maternal positioning affects readings, blood pressure measurements should be obtained in the same arm and with the woman in the same position. The systolic blood pressure generally remains constant but may decline slightly as pregnancy advances. The diastolic blood pressure first decreases and then gradually increases.

When counseling a client about getting enough iron in her diet, the maternity nurse should tell her that: a. Milk, coffee, and tea aid iron absorption if consumed at the same time as iron. b. Iron absorption is inhibited by a diet rich in vitamin C. c. Iron supplements are permissible for children in small doses. d. Constipation is common with iron supplements

d. Constipation is common with iron supplements Constipation can be a problem. Milk, coffee, and tea inhibit iron absorption when consumed at the same time as iron. Vitamin C promotes iron absorption. Children who ingest iron can get very sick and even die.

The nurse must watch for what common complications in a patient who has undergone a transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous (TRAM) flap? a. Axillary edema and tissue necrosis b. Delayed wound healing and muscle contractions c. Delayed wound healing and axillary edema d. Delayed wound healing and hematoma

d. Delayed wound healing and hematoma Postoperative care focuses on monitoring the skin flap for signs of decreased capillary refill, hematoma, infection, and necrosis. Axillary edema and muscle contractions are not common complications of TRAM flaps

In their role of implementing a plan of care for infertile couples, nurses should: a. Be comfortable with their sexuality and nonjudgmental about others to counsel their clients effectively. b. Know about such nonmedical remedies as diet, exercise, and stress management c. Be able to direct clients to sources of information about what herbs to take that might help and which ones to avoid. d. Do all of the above plus be knowledgeable about potential drug and surgical remedies.

d. Do all of the above plus be knowledgeable about potential drug and surgical remedies. Nurses should be open to and ready to help with a variety of medical and nonmedical approaches

Women with an inadequate weight gain during pregnancy are at higher risk of giving birth to an infant with: a. Spina bifida. c. Diabetes mellitus. b. Intrauterine growth restriction . d. Down syndrome

d. Down syndrome. Both normal-weight and underweight women with inadequate weight gain have an increased risk of giving birth to an infant with intrauterine growth restriction. Spina bifida, diabetes mellitus, and Down syndrome are not associated with inadequate maternal weight gain.

A woman in week 34 of pregnancy reports that she is very uncomfortable because of heartburn. The nurse would suggest that the woman: a. Substitute other calcium sources for milk in her diet. b. Lie down after each meal. c. Reduce the amount of fiber she consumes. d. Eat five small meals daily

d. Eat five small meals daily. Eating small, frequent meals may help with heartburn, nausea, and vomiting. Substituting other calcium sources for milk, lying down after eating, and reducing fiber intake are inappropriate dietary suggestions for all pregnant women and do not alleviate heartburn.

Nutrition is one of the most significant factors influencing the outcome of a pregnancy. It is an alterable and important preventive measure for various potential problems, such as low birth weight and prematurity. While completing the physical assessment of the pregnant client, the nurse can evaluate the clients nutritional status by observing a number of physical signs. Which sign would indicate that the client has unmet nutritional needs? a. Normal heart rate, rhythm, and blood pressure b. Bright, clear, shiny eyes c. Alert, responsive, and good endurance d. Edema, tender calves, and tingling

d. Edema, tender calves, and tingling The physiologic changes of pregnancy may complicate the interpretation of physical findings. Lower extremity edema often occurs when caloric and protein deficiencies are present; however, it may also be a common physical finding during the third trimester. It is essential that the nurse complete a thorough health history and physical assessment and request further laboratory testing if indicated. A malnourished pregnant patient may display rapid heart rate, abnormal rhythm, enlarged heart, and elevated blood pressure. A patient receiving adequate nutrition has bright, shiny eyes with no sores and moist, pink membranes. Pale or red membranes, dryness, infection, dull appearance of the cornea, or blue sclerae all are signs of poor nutrition. This client is well nourished. Cachexia, listlessness, and tiring easily would be indications of poor nutritional status.

The phenomenon of someone other than the mother-to-be experiencing pregnancy-like symptoms such as nausea and weight gain applies to the: a. Mother of the pregnant woman. c. Sister of the pregnant woman. b. Couples teenage daughter. d. Expectant father.

d. Expectant father. An expectant fathers experiencing pregnancy-like symptoms is called the couvade syndrome

. A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is pregnant. The following information is obtained: She is 24 years old with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. She admits to having used cocaine several times during the past year and drinks alcohol occasionally. Her blood pressure (BP) is 108/70 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 72 beats/min, and her respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min. The family history is positive for diabetes mellitus and cancer. Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD). Which characteristics place the woman in a high risk category? a. Blood pressure, age, BMI b. Drug/alcohol use, age, family history c. Family history, blood pressure, BMI d. Family history, BMI, drug/alcohol abuse

d. Family history, BMI, drug/alcohol abuse Her family history of NTD, low BMI, and substance abuse all are high risk factors of pregnancy. The womans BP is normal, and her age does not put her at risk. Her BMI is low and may indicate poor nutritional status, which would be a high risk. The womans drug/alcohol use and family history put her in a high risk category, but her age does not. The womans family history puts her in a high risk category. Her BMI is low and may indicate poor nutritional status, which would be high risk. Her BP is normal.

Although remarkable developments have occurred in reproductive medicine, assisted reproductive therapies are associated with numerous legal and ethical issues. Nurses can provide accurate information about the risks and benefits of treatment alternatives so couples can make informed decisions about their choice of treatment. Which issue would not need to be addressed by an infertile couple before treatment? a. Risks of multiple gestation b. Whether or how to disclose the facts of conception to offspring c. Freezing embryos for later use d. Financial ability to cover the cost of treatment

d. Financial ability to cover the cost of treatment Although the method of payment is important, obtaining this information is not the responsibility of the nurse. Many states have mandated some form of insurance to assist couples with coverage for infertility. Risk of multiple gestation is a risk of treatment of which the couple needs to be aware. To minimize the chance of multiple gestation, generally only three or fewer embryos are transferred. The couple should be informed that there may be a need for multifetal reduction. Nurses can provide anticipatory guidance on this matter. Depending on the therapy chosen, there may be a need for donor oocytes, sperm, embryos, or a surrogate mother. Couples who have excess embryos frozen for later transfer must be fully informed before consenting to the procedure. A decision must be made regarding the disposal of embryos in the event of death or divorce or if the couple no longer wants the embryos at a future time.

A pregnant womans diet may not meet her need for folates. A good source of this nutrient is: a. Chicken c. Potatoes b. Cheese d. Green leafy vegetables

d. Green leafy vegetables Sources of folates include green leafy vegetables, whole grains, fruits, liver, dried peas, and beans. Chicken and cheese are excellent sources of protein but are poor in folates. Potatoes contain carbohydrates and vitamins and minerals but are poor in folates.

Informed consent concerning contraceptive use is important because some of the methods: a. Are invasive procedures that require hospitalization b. Require a surgical procedure to insert c. May not be reliable d. Have potentially dangerous side effects

d. Have potentially dangerous side effects To make an informed decision about the use of contraceptives, it is important for couples to be aware of potential side effects. The only contraceptive method that is a surgical procedure and requires hospitalization is sterilization. Some methods have greater efficacy than others, and this should be included in the teaching

While you are assessing the vital signs of a pregnant woman in her third trimester, the patient complains of feeling faint, dizzy, and agitated. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a. Have the patient stand up and retake her blood pressure. b. Have the patient sit down and hold her arm in a dependent position. c. Have the patient lie supine for 5 minutes and recheck her blood pressure on both arms. d. Have the patient turn to her left side and recheck her blood pressure in 5 minutes.

d. Have the patient turn to her left side and recheck her blood pressure in 5 minutes Blood pressure is affected by maternal position during pregnancy. The supine position may cause occlusion of the vena cava and descending aorta. Turning the pregnant woman to a lateral recumbent position alleviates pressure on the blood vessels and quickly corrects supine hypotension. Pressures are significantly higher when the patient is standing. This option causes an increase in systolic and diastolic pressures. The arm should be supported at the same level of the heart. The supine position may cause occlusion of the vena cava and descending aorta, creating hypotension.

. A woman is 3 months pregnant. At her prenatal visit, she tells the nurse that she doesnt know what is happening; one minute shes happy that she is pregnant, and the next minute she cries for no reason. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Dont worry about it; youll feel better in a month or so. b. Have you talked to your husband about how you feel? c. Perhaps you really dont want to be pregnant. d. Hormonal changes during pregnancy commonly result in mood swings

d. Hormonal changes during pregnancy commonly result in mood swings. The statement Hormonal changes during pregnancy commonly result in mood swings is accurate and the most appropriate response by the nurse. The statement Dont worry about it; youll feel better in a month or so dismisses the clients concerns and is not the most appropriate response. Although women should be encouraged to share their feelings, Have you talked to your husband about how you feel is not the most appropriate response and does not provide the client with a rationale for the psychosocial dynamics of her pregnancy. Perhaps you really dont want to be pregnant is completely inappropriate and deleterious to the psychologic well-being of the woman. Hormonal and metabolic adaptations often cause mood swings in pregnancy. The womans responses are normal. She should be reassured about her feelings.

. For what reason would breastfeeding be contraindicated? a. Hepatitis B b. Everted nipples c. History of breast cancer 3 years ago d. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive

d. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive Women who are HIV positive are discouraged from breastfeeding. Although hepatitis B antigen has not been shown to be transmitted through breast milk, as an added precaution infants born to HBsAg-positive women should receive the hepatitis B vaccine and immune globulin immediately after birth. Everted nipples are functional for breastfeeding. Newly diagnosed breast cancer would be a contraindication to breastfeeding

. What represents a typical progression through the phases of a womans establishing a relationship with the fetus? a. Accepts the fetus as distinct from herselfaccepts the biologic fact of pregnancyhas a feeling of caring and responsibility b. Fantasizes about the childs gender and personalityviews the child as part of herselfbecomes introspective c. Views the child as part of herselfhas feelings of well-beingaccepts the biologic fact of pregnancy d. I am pregnant.I am going to have a baby.I am going to be a mother.

d. I am pregnant.I am going to have a baby.I am going to be a mother. The woman first centers on herself as pregnant, then on the baby as an entity separate from herself, and then on her responsibilities as a mother. The expressions, I am pregnant, I am going to have a baby, and I am going to be a mother sum up the progression through the three phases.

To determine the cultural influence on a patients diet, the nurse should first: a. Evaluate the patients weight gain during pregnancy b. Assess the socioeconomic status of the patient c. Discuss the four food groups with the patient d. Identify the food preferences and methods of food preparation common to that culture

d. Identify the food preferences and methods of food preparation common to that culture Understanding the patients food preferences and how she prepares food will assist the nurse in determining whether the patients culture is adversely affecting her nutritional intake. Evaluation of a patients weight gain during pregnancy should be included for all patients, not just for patients who are culturally different. The socioeconomic status of the patient may alter the nutritional intake but not the cultural influence. Teaching the food groups to the patient should come after assessing food preferences.

The most basic information a maternity nurse should have concerning conception is that: a. Ova are considered fertile 48 to 72 hours after ovulation. b. Sperm remain viable in the womans reproductive system for an average of 12 to 24 hours. c. Conception is achieved when a sperm successfully penetrates the membrane surrounding the ovum. d. Implantation in the endometrium occurs 6 to 10 days after conception.

d. Implantation in the endometrium occurs 6 to 10 days after conception. After implantation, the endometrium is called the decidua. Ova are considered fertile for about 24 hours after ovulation. Sperm remain viable in the womans reproductive system for an average of 2 to 3 days. Penetration of the ovum by the sperm is called fertilization. Conception occurs when the zygote, the first cell of the new individual, is formed.

To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in the cervix, vagina, and position of the fetus, nurses should be aware that: a. Because of a number of changes in the cervix, abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) tests are much easier to evaluate. b. Quickening is a technique of palpating the fetus to engage it in passive movement. c. The deepening color of the vaginal mucosa and cervix (Chadwicks sign) usually appears in the second trimester or later as the vagina prepares to stretch during labor. d. Increased vascularity of the vagina increases sensitivity and may lead to a high degree of arousal, especially in the second trimester.

d. Increased vascularity of the vagina increases sensitivity and may lead to a high degree of arousal, especially in the second trimester. Increased sensitivity and an increased interest in sex sometimes go together. This frequently occurs during the second trimester. Cervical changes make evaluation of abnormal Pap tests more difficult. Quickening is the first recognition of fetal movements by the mother. Ballottement is a technique used to palpate the fetus. Chadwicks sign appears from the sixth to eighth weeks.

. Which statement is true about the term contraceptive failure rate? a. It refers to the percentage of users expected to have an accidental pregnancy over a 5-year span. b. It refers to the minimum level that must be achieved to receive a government license. c. It increases over time as couples become more careless. d. It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users.

d. It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users. Contraceptive effectiveness varies from couple to couple, depending on how well a contraceptive method is used and how well it suits the couple. The contraceptive failure rate measures the likelihood of accidental pregnancy in the first year only. Failure rates decline over time because users gain experience.

Nurses should be aware of the strengths and limitations of various biochemical assessments during pregnancy, including that: a. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is becoming more popular because it provides early diagnosis. b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended only for women at risk for neural tube defects. c. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is one of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome. d. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures

d. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures. MSAFP is a screening tool, not a diagnostic tool. CVS provides a rapid result, but it is declining in popularity because of advances in noninvasive screening techniques. MSAFP screening is recommended for all pregnant women. MSAFP screening, not PUBS, is part of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome.

. A woman has come to the clinic for preconception counseling because she wants to start trying to get pregnant in 3 months. She can expect the following advice: a. Discontinue all contraception now b. Lose weight so that you can gain more during pregnancy. c. You may take any medications you have been taking regularly. d. Make sure that you include adequate folic acid in your diet.

d. Make sure that you include adequate folic acid in your diet. A healthy diet before conception is the best way to ensure that adequate nutrients are available for the developing fetus. A womans folate or folic acid intake is of particular concern in the periconception period. Neural tube defects are more common in infants of women with a poor folic acid intake. Depending on the type of contraception used, discontinuing all contraception may not be appropriate advice. Losing weight is not appropriate advice. Depending on the type of medication the woman is taking, continuing its use may not be appropriate

. One of the alterations in cyclic bleeding that occurs between periods is called: a. Oligomenorrhea. c. Leiomyoma. b. Menorrhagia. d. Metrorrhagia

d. Metrorrhagia. Metrorrhagia is bleeding between periods. It can be caused by progestin injections and implants. Oligomenorrhea is infrequent or scanty menstruation. Menorrhagia is excessive menstruation. Leiomyoma is a common cause of excessive bleeding

Which statement about a condition of pregnancy is accurate? a. Insufficient salivation (ptyalism) is caused by increases in estrogen. b. Acid indigestion (pyrosis) begins early but declines throughout pregnancy. c. Hyperthyroidism often develops (temporarily) because hormone production increases. d. Nausea and vomiting rarely have harmful effects on the fetus and may be beneficial.

d. Nausea and vomiting rarely have harmful effects on the fetus and may be beneficial. Normal nausea and vomiting rarely produce harmful effects, and nausea and vomiting periods may be less likely to result in miscarriage or preterm labor. Ptyalism is excessive salivation, which may be caused by a decrease in unconscious swallowing or stimulation of the salivary glands. Pyrosis begins in the first trimester and intensifies through the third trimester. Increased hormone production does not lead to hyperthyroidism in pregnant women.

. With regard to dysmenorrhea, nurses should be aware that: a. It is more common in older women. b. It is more common in leaner women who exercise strenuously. c. Symptoms can begin at any point in the ovulatory cycle. d. Pain usually occurs in the suprapubic area or lower abdomen

d. Pain usually occurs in the suprapubic area or lower abdomen Pain is described as sharp and cramping or sometimes as a dull ache. It may radiate to the lower back or upper thighs. Dysmenorrhea is more common in women 17 to 24 years old, women who smoke, and women who are obese. Symptoms begin with menstruation or sometimes a few hours before the onset of flow.

The nurse caring for the pregnant client must understand that the hormone essential for maintaining pregnancy is: a. Estrogen. b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). c. Oxytocin. d. Progesterone.

d. Progesterone. Progesterone is essential for maintaining pregnancy; it does so by relaxing smooth muscles. This reduces uterine activity and prevents miscarriage. Estrogen plays a vital role in pregnancy, but it is not the primary hormone for maintaining pregnancy. hCG levels increase at implantation but decline after 60 to 70 days. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions.

The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is: a. Nonreactive c. Negative b. Positive d. Reactive

d. Reactive The NST is reactive (normal) when two or more FHR accelerations of at least 15 beats/min (each with a duration of at least 15 seconds) occur in a 20-minute period. A nonreactive result means that the heart rate did not accelerate during fetal movement. A positive result is not used with NST. Contraction stress test (CST) uses positive as a result term. A negative result is not used with NST. CST uses negative as a result term.

The two primary areas of risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are: a. Sexual orientation and socioeconomic status. b. Age and educational level. c. Large number of sexual partners and race. d. Risky sexual behaviors and inadequate preventive health behaviors.

d. Risky sexual behaviors and inadequate preventive health behaviors Risky sexual behaviors and inadequate preventive health behaviors put a person at risk for acquiring or transmitting an STI. Although low socioeconomic status may be a factor in avoiding purchasing barrier protection, sexual orientation does not put one at higher risk. Younger individuals and individuals with less education may be unaware of proper prevention techniques; however, these are not the primary areas of risk for STIs. Having a large number of sexual partners is a risk-taking behavior, but race does not increase the risk for STIs.

A man smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. He wants to know if smoking is contributing to the difficulty he and his wife are having getting pregnant. The nurses most appropriate response is: a. Your sperm count seems to be okay in the first semen analysis. b. Only marijuana cigarettes affect sperm count. c. Smoking can give you lung cancer, even though it has no effect on sperm. d. Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm.

d. Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm. Use of tobacco, alcohol, and marijuana may affect sperm counts. Your sperm count seems to be okay in the first semen analysis is inaccurate. Sperm counts vary from day to day and depend on emotional and physical status and sexual activity. A single analysis may be inconclusive. A minimum of two analyses must be performed several weeks apart to assess male fertility.

Numerous changes in the integumentary system occur during pregnancy. Which change persists after birth? a. Epulis c. Telangiectasia b. Chloasma d. Striae gravidarum

d. Striae gravidarum Striae gravidarum, or stretch marks, reflect separation within the underlying connective tissue of the skin. They usually fade after birth, although they never disappear completely. An epulis is a red, raised nodule on the gums that bleeds easily. Chloasma, or mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead, especially in dark-complexioned pregnant women. Chloasma usually fades after the birth. Telangiectasia, or vascular spiders, are tiny, star-shaped or branchlike, slightly raised, pulsating end-arterioles usually found on the neck, thorax, face, and arms. They occur as a result of elevated levels of circulating estrogen. These usually disappear after birth.

. A woman currently uses a diaphragm and spermicide for contraception. She asks the nurse what the major differences are between the cervical cap and diaphragm. The nurses most appropriate response is: a. No spermicide is used with the cervical cap, so its less messy. b. The diaphragm can be left in place longer after intercourse. c. Repeated intercourse with the diaphragm is more convenient. d. The cervical cap can safely be used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later.

d. The cervical cap can safely be used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later. The cervical cap can be inserted hours before sexual intercourse without the need for additional spermicide later. No additional spermicide is required for repeated acts of intercourse. Spermicide should be used inside the cap as an additional chemical barrier. The cervical cap should remain in place for 6 hours after the last act of intercourse. Repeated intercourse with the cervical cap is more convenient because no additional spermicide is needed.

Barrier methods such as condoms best protect against STIs and HIV. Periodic abstinence and hormonal methods (the pill) offer no protection against STIs or HIV.

d. The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements. The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements. Toxic shock syndrome can occur in some diaphragm users, but it is not a consequence of taking oral contraceptive pills. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is lighter than in normal menstruation and lasts a couple of days. Oral contraceptive pills offer protection against the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancers.

The nurse who is teaching a group of women about breast cancer would tell the women that: a. Risk factors identify more than 50% of women who will develop breast cancer. b. Nearly 90% of lumps found by women are malignant. c. One in 10 women in the United States will develop breast cancer in her lifetime. d. The exact cause of breast cancer is unknown.

d. The exact cause of breast cancer is unknown. The exact cause of breast cancer is unknown. Risk factors help to identify less than 30% of women in whom breast cancer eventually will develop. Women detect about 90% of all breast lumps. Of this 90%, only 20% to 25% are malignant. One in eight women in the United States will develop breast cancer in her lifetime.

With regard to the estimation and interpretation of the recurrence of risks for genetic disorders, nurses should be aware that: a. With a dominant disorder, the likelihood of the second child also having the condition is 100%. b. An autosomal recessive disease carries a one in eight risk of the second child also having the disorder. c. Disorders involving maternal ingestion of drugs carry a one in four chance of being repeated in the second child. d. The risk factor remains the same no matter how many affected children are already in the family

d. The risk factor remains the same no matter how many affected children are already in the family. Each pregnancy is an independent event. The risk factor (e.g., one in two, one in four) remains the same for each child, no matter how many children are born to the family. In a dominant disorder, the likelihood of recurrence in subsequent children is 50% (one in two). An autosomal recessive disease carries a one in four chance of recurrence. In disorders involving maternal ingestion of drugs, subsequent children would be at risk only if the mother continued to take drugs; the rate of risk would be difficult to calculate.

In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination, nurses should explain to their clients that: a. Both require the woman to have a full bladder. b. The abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester c. Initially the transvaginal examination can be painful. d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.

d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail and allows intrauterine pregnancies to be diagnosed earlier. The abdominal examination requires a full bladder; the transvaginal examination requires an empty bladder. The transvaginal examination is more useful in the first trimester; the abdominal examination works better after the first trimester. Neither method should be painful, although with the transvaginal examination the woman feels pressure as the probe is moved.

A 22-year-old woman pregnant with a single fetus has a preconception body mass index (BMI) of 24. When she was seen in the clinic at 14 weeks of gestation, she had gained 1.8 kg (4 lb) since conception. How would the nurse interpret this? a. This weight gain indicates possible gestational hypertension. b. This weight gain indicates that the womans infant is at risk for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). c. This weight gain cannot be evaluated until the woman has been observed for several more weeks. d. The womans weight gain is appropriate for this stage of pregnancy

d. The womans weight gain is appropriate for this stage of pregnancy. The statement The womans weight gain is appropriate for this stage of pregnancy is accurate. This womans BMI is within the normal range. During the first trimester, the average total weight gain is only 1 to 2.5 kg. Although weight gain does indicate possible gestational hypertension, it does not apply to this patient. The desirable weight gain during pregnancy varies among women. The primary factor to consider in making a weight gain recommendation is the appropriateness of the prepregnancy weight for the womans height. A commonly used method of evaluating the appropriateness of weight for height is the BMI. Although weight gain does indicate risk for IUGR, this does not apply to this patient. Weight gain should occur at a steady rate throughout the pregnancy. The optimal rate of weight gain also depends on the stage of the pregnancy

Which of the following statements is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions? a. They are performed only for maternal health. b. They can be achieved through surgical procedures or with drugs. c. They are mostly performed in the second trimester. d. They can be either elective or therapeutic.

d. They can be either elective or therapeutic. Medical abortions are performed through the use of medications (rather than surgical procedures). They are mostly done in the first trimester, and they can be either elective (the womans choice) or therapeutic (for reasons of maternal or fetal health).

5. In her work with pregnant women of various cultures, a nurse practitioner has observed various practices that seemed strange or unusual. She has learned that cultural rituals and practices during pregnancy seem to have one purpose in common. Which statement best describes that purpose? a. To promote family unity b. To ward off the evil eye c. To appease the gods of fertility d. To protect the mother and fetus during pregnancy

d. To protect the mother and fetus during pregnancy The purpose of all cultural practices is to protect the mother and fetus during pregnancy. Although many cultures consider pregnancy normal, certain practices are expected of women of all cultures to ensure a good outcome. Cultural prescriptions tell women what to do, and cultural proscriptions establish taboos. The purposes of these practices are to prevent maternal illness resulting from a pregnancy-induced imbalanced state and to protect the vulnerable fetus.

A 40-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool would be appropriate to suggest to her at this time? a. Biophysical profile (BPP) b. Amniocentesis c. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening d. Transvaginal ultrasound

d. Transvaginal ultrasound Ultrasound would be performed at this gestational age for biophysical assessment of the infant. BPP would be a method of biophysical assessment of fetal well-being in the third trimester. Amniocentesis is performed after the fourteenth week of pregnancy. MSAFP screening is performed from week 15 to week 22 of gestation (weeks 16 to 18 are ideal).

When a nurse is counseling a woman for primary dysmenorrhea, which nonpharmacologic intervention might be recommended? a. Increasing the intake of red meat and simple carbohydrates b. Reducing the intake of diuretic foods such as peaches and asparagus c. Temporarily substituting physical activity for a sedentary lifestyle d. Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping

d. Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping Heat minimizes cramping by increasing vasodilation and muscle relaxation and minimizing uterine ischemia. Dietary changes such as eating less red meat may be recommended for women experiencing dysmenorrhea. Increasing the intake of diuretics, including natural diuretics such as asparagus, cranberry juice, peaches, parsley, and watermelon, may help ease the symptoms associated with dysmenorrhea. Exercise has been found to help relieve menstrual discomfort through increased vasodilation and subsequent decreased ischemia

. Which symptom is considered a first-trimester warning sign and should be reported immediately by the pregnant woman to her health care provider? a. Nausea with occasional vomiting c. Urinary frequency b. Fatigue d. Vaginal bleeding

d. Vaginal bleeding Signs and symptoms that must be reported include severe vomiting, fever and chills, burning on urination, diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and vaginal bleeding. These symptoms may be signs of potential complications of the pregnancy. Nausea with occasional vomiting, fatigue, and urinary frequency are normal first-trimester complaints. Although they may be worrisome or annoying to the mother, they usually are not indications of pregnancy problems.

. Which vitamins or minerals can lead to congenital malformations of the fetus if taken in excess by the mother? a. Zinc c. Folic acid b. Vitamin D d. Vitamin A

d. Vitamin A Zinc, vitamin D, and folic acid are vital to good maternal and fetal health and are highly unlikely to be consumed in excess. Vitamin A taken in excess causes a number of problems. An analog of vitamin A appears in prescribed acne medications, which must not be taken during pregnancy.

When discussing work and travel during pregnancy with a pregnant patient, nurses should instruct them that: a. Women should sit for as long as possible and cross their legs at the knees from time to time for exercise. b. Women should avoid seat belts and shoulder restraints in the car because they press on the fetus. c. Metal detectors at airport security checkpoints can harm the fetus if the woman passes through them a number of times. d. While working or traveling in a car or on a plane, women should arrange to walk around at least every hour or so.

d. While working or traveling in a car or on a plane, women should arrange to walk around at least every hour or so. Periodic walking helps prevent thrombophlebitis. Pregnant women should avoid sitting or standing for long periods and crossing the legs at the knees. Pregnant women must wear lap belts and shoulder restraints. The most common injury to the fetus comes from injury to the mother. Metal detectors at airport security checkpoints do not harm fetuses

Which pregnant woman should restrict her weight gain during pregnancy? a. Woman pregnant with twins b. Woman in early adolescence c. Woman shorter than 62 inches or 157 cm d. Woman who was 20 pounds overweight before pregnancy

d. Woman who was 20 pounds overweight before pregnancy A weight gain of 5 to 9 kg will provide sufficient nutrients for the fetus. Overweight and obese women should be advised to lose weight before conception to achieve the best pregnancy outcomes. A higher weight gain in twin gestations may help prevent low birth weights. Adolescents need to gain weight toward the higher acceptable range, which provides for their own growth as well as for fetal growth. In the past, women of short stature were advised to restrict their weight gain; however, evidence to support these guidelines has not been found.

A healthy 60-year-old African-American woman regularly receives her health care at the clinic in her neighborhood. She is due for a mammogram. At her previous clinic visit, her physician, concerned about the 3week wait at the neighborhood clinic, made an appointment for her to have a mammogram at a teaching hospital across town. She did not keep her appointment and returned to the clinic today to have the nurse check her blood pressure. What would be the most appropriate statement for the nurse to make to this patient? a. Do you have transportation to the teaching hospital so that you can get your mammogram? b. Im concerned that you missed your appointment; let me make another one for you. c. Its very dangerous to skip your mammograms; your breasts need to be checked. d. Would you like me to make an appointment for you to have your mammogram here?

d. Would you like me to make an appointment for you to have your mammogram here? This statement is nonjudgmental and gives the patient options as to where she may have her mammogram. Furthermore, it is an innocuous way to investigate the reasons the patient missed her previous appointment. African-American women often have the perception that they are treated with prejudice by health care providers. Questioning the potential lack of transportation may promote this perception. African-American women report not participating in early breast cancer screening because breast cancer comes by chance and getting it is determined by a higher power. Expressing concern and offering to schedule another appointment is a reflection of the nurses beliefs, not those of the client. Suggesting that it is dangerous to skip a mammogram can be perceived as judgmental and derogatory. It may alienate and embarrass the patient.

. A woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of contraception. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse, My period is due in a few days, and my temperature has not gone up. The nurses most appropriate response is: a. This probably means that youre pregnant. b. Dont worry; its probably nothing. c. Have you been sick this month? d. You probably didnt ovulate during this cycle

d. You probably didnt ovulate during this cycle. The absence of a temperature decrease most likely is the result of lack of ovulation. Pregnancy cannot occur without ovulation (which is being measured using the BBT method). A comment such as Dont worry; its probably nothing discredits the clients concerns. Illness would most likely cause an increase in BBT.

A woman who is 8 months pregnant asks the nurse, Does my baby have any antibodies to fight infection? The most appropriate response by the nurse is: a. Your baby has all the immune globulins necessary: IgG, IgM, and IgA. b. Your baby wont receive any antibodies until he is born and you breastfeed him.c. Your baby does not have any antibodies to fight infection. d. Your baby has IgG and IgM

d. Your baby has IgG and IgM During the third trimester, the only immune globulins that crosses the placenta, IgG, provides passive acquired immunity to specific bacterial toxins. The fetus produces IgM by the end of the first trimester. IgA is not produced by the baby. By the third trimester, the fetus has IgG and IgM. Breastfeeding supplies the baby with IgA. Your baby does not have any antibodies to fight infection is an inaccurate statement.

The recommended treatment for the prevention of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission to the fetus during pregnancy is: a. Acyclovir. c. Podophyllin. b. Ofloxacin. d. Zidovudine

d. Zidovudine. Perinatal transmission of HIV has decreased significantly in the past decade as a result of prophylactic administration of the antiretroviral drug zidovudine to pregnant women in the prenatal and perinatal periods. Acyclovir is an antiviral treatment for HSV. Ofloxacin is an antibacterial treatment for gonorrhea. Podophyllin is a solution used in the treatment of human papillomavirus.