Operational Procedures - Level 4
Where is the best position following a heavier aeroplane?
Upwind and above its flight path.
In the event of total HF radio failure enroute:
VHF or extended VHF should be used.
A flight may be conducted under VFR only if:
VMC exists along the route to be flown under VFR.
Astronomical (earth rate) precession is:
Valid whether the aircraft is on the ground or in the air
In categorising aeroplanes for the determination of operating minima, how is the indicated airspeed at threshold Vat calculated?
Vat = Vso x 1,3
In MNPS Airspace between FL285 and FL410 inclusive, what is the vertical separation?
1000ft.
The Cat I minimum decision height is:
200 feet.
To taxi an aeroplane, the person at the controls must be:
authorised by the operator.
An airplane creates a wake turbulence when:
generating lift.
In windshear associated with a microburst, you experience a 40kts headwind. Coming out of the microburst, you will experience a windshear of:
-80 kts.
When braking action is poor, the measured braking coefficient is:
0.25 or lower.
For a turbo-propeller aircraft, at the flight preparation stage, the landing distance required at the alternate aerodrome must be less than the landing distance available multiplied by a factor of:
0.7
For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:
0.7.
The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 7 and 30 is:
1
What is the major factor causing wake turbulence? 1. Wing Tip Vortices. 2. Engines. 3. High Lift Devices. 4. Size of the landing gear.
1
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the: 1. water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2. speed is greater than 123 kt. 3. water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4. speed is greater than 95 kt. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1 and 2.
A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes: 1. on himself/herself 2. in his/her hand luggage 3. in his/her checked luggage The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2
An aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 Bar is in danger of dynamic hydroplaning if: 1. The aeroplane speed is in excess of 107 kts. 2. The water depth is equal to the tyre tread depth. 3. The aeroplane speed is in excess of 95 kts. 4. The water depth is equal to half the tyre tread depth.
1, 2
In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off by: 1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft 2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft 3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft 4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2
We would know that the automatic pressurization system has malfunctioned if: 1. There is a change in environmental sounds. 2. The cabin barometer indicates a sharp rise. 3. The differential pressure between the exterior and the interior becomes equal. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3
A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1. mist in the cabin 2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft 3. expansion of body gases 4. blast of air released violently from the lungs The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4
The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account: 1. equipment available for navigation 2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways 3. composition of the flight crew 4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas 5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
In a pressurisation malfunction: 1. Noise increases. 2. Change in RCDI. 3. Pressure differential decreases
1, 2, 3.
When you have been unlawfully interfered with, the state in which you land is required to inform certain people: 1. State of the Operator. 2. ICAO 3. State of registration of aircraft. 4. JAA.
1, 2, 3.
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will: 1. set the maximum take-off thrust 2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker 3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps) 4. keep the airplanes current configuration 5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 4.
In the JAR-OPS, a runway is considered wet when: 1. It is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water. 2. The amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance. 3. The amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water. 4. It bears stagnant sheets of water. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 3
For stable clouds: 1. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0° C and -10° C. 2. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0° C and -15° C. 3. Icing becomes rare at t < -18° C 4- icing becomes rare at t < -30° C. 4. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03mm. 5. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2mm. Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements?
1, 3, 5
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1. Flies above the glide path. 2. Flies below the glide path. 3. Has an increasing true airspeed. 4. Has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is:
1, 3.
The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in case of an emergency landing are: 1. legs together and feet flat on the floor 2. head resting against the back of the front seat 3. forearms on the armrests 4. seat belt very tightly fastened 5. head resting on the forearm The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 4, 5
A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054° W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. An aircraft is following a true course of 330° . At position 80° N 140° E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be:
136° .
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when: 1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water. 2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance. 3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water. 4. it bears stagnant sheets of water. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1.3
What is the minimum longitudinal separation between 2 aeroplanes flying at the same Mach number in MNPS Airspace?
10 minutes.
According with the noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B, as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching:
1000 ft.
Oxygen should be supplied for all crewmembers and some passengers above which altitude:
10000ft.
The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left wing is:
110° .
The validity period of a flight track system, organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during a westbound flight normally is:
1130 UTC to 1900 UTC at 30 degrees West.
DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
136.000 Kg or more.
A Type 2 FDR shall be capable of recording at least:
15 parameters and the last 25 hours of operation.
If airworthiness documents do not shown any additional correction factor for landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:
15%.
The net flight path gradient in the event of an engine failure must be:
1500 feet positive above the aerodrome.
What are the VFR operating minima in class E airspace?
1500m horizontal and 300m vertical distance from cloud, flight visibility of 8km above 10000ft AMSL and 5km below 10000ft AMSL.
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than ... seats unless a public address system is installed.
19
In the ICAO standard atmosphere, the temperature at FL360 is equal to:
217 Kelvin.
A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire 2. a hydrocarbon fire 3. a fabric fire 4. an electrical fire 5. a wood fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
2, 3, 4
An air traffic control unit may request an aircraft to report its position when flying east-west north of 700N between 100W and 500W, every:
20° of longitude.
For how long is a SNOWTAM valid?
24 hours.
SVFR may not be commenced when the visibility is less than:
3 km
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing?
3 minutes.
Which errors in estimates minutes shall be reported by aircraft over flying the North Atlantic?
3 or more.
To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use: 1. a water fire-extinguisher 2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher 3. a Halon fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
3, 4
Medical equipment is to be carried on aircraft usually in the form of first aid kit. On aeroplanes certified to carry more than a specified number of passengers, a kit for use by medically qualified personnel is to be carried (emergency medical kit) if any point on the planned route is more than 60 minutes flying time from an aerodrome at which qualified medical assistance could be expected to be available. The specified number of passengers is:
30
At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1.500 ft.
When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is:
300 m (1.000 ft).
At the planning stage for a Class B performance aircraft, what minimum climb gradient do you use?
300ft min climb speed with all engines operating.
Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the normal position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only?
32000 ft.
A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
3600 m
A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
3600 m.
If your ETA at a significant point on a NAT track changes by how much must you inform ATC?
3min or more.
The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 201 and 300 is:
4
The operator may not operate aircraft that do not conform to the ditching requirements over water further away from a suitable landing field than:
400nm or 120min at cruise speed.
The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 301 and 400 is:
5
Where there are no facilities at an aerodrome the minimum take-off RVR is:
500 m.
A modern aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is greater than:
5700kg.
For GPWS, a specified number of warnings is to be given for hazardous conditions. The number is:
6
The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 401 and 500 is:
6
A polar track is a route which part of the length crosses an area where the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field is less than:
6 micro-teslas.
The minimum lateral separation applied in the NAT region is...
60 NM.
For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
What is the maximum cabin altitude at which an aeroplane can he flown without provision of breathing oxygen for crew and passengers?
700hPa (10000 ft).
A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least?
75 m.
Following a rapid decompression, above what height does a lack of 02 affect performance:
8000 ft.
En-route in a 3 or more engined aircraft and with 2 engines inoperative the maximum time the aeroplane shall be away from an aerodrome is:
90 minutes.
Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome?
A refuse tip in close proximity.
Actions taken by the flight operations officer or flight dispatcher shall not conflict with procedures established by:
ATC.
Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given?
Air Operators Certificate.
Which of the following forms or information are NOT required to be carried on all flights? 1. The Operational Flight Plan (OFP) 2. Mass and balance Documentation 3. NOTAMS 4. The Technical Log 5. Maps and Charts 6. Passenger and cargo manifests.
All are required except 4.
If you have a fire in a toilet, what fire extinguishers would you use:
All available in sequence.
What is an ATC System Loop Error?
All of these statements are true.
Where the maximum approved seating capacity of passengers is greater than 31 but less than 60, how many Halon fire extinguishers are required?
At least one.
A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
At or prior entering the NAT region.
One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I)
At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
When are passengers briefed on the use of oxygen for a flight that is planned to operate at FL 290.
Before T/O.
GPWS must be carried on all turbine engined aircraft where the C of A was first issued on or after the 1 July 1979 if:
Both a & b.
In high ambient temperatures ( 30° C) and at relative humidity as low as 40%, in air free from cloud, fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing
Can occur but only at low power settings.
The purpose of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is to enable the .... to determine whether a flight may commence or continue from any intermediate stop, should .... become inoperative.
Commander, any instrumentation or system.
When are all flight crew members required to be at their duty stations?
For routine take-offs and landings.
For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest?
Freezing rain.
In a SNOWTAM information is given concerning friction measurements (breaking co-efficient x 100) in which field of the message?
H
Noise abatement procedures are established in accordance with:
ICAO Doc8168.
The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are listed in the:
ICAO document named Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of dangerous products.
An AOC may be revoked, suspended or varied if the Authority deems it necessary. On what grounds can this action be taken?
If the operator is unable to comply with the safety requirements.
Where is the number and composition of the flight crew specified?
In JAR-OPS 1.
When may the operating minima for an aerodrome be exceeded?
In an emergency.
Considering additional take off requirements regarding aeroplane mass:
In determining the runway length available account shall be taken of any loss encountered due to the alignment of the aeroplane.
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9.3 Km (5.0 NM) shall be applied when a:
LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1.000.ft).
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.
An aeroplane with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 4.500 kg is classified as ... according to the ICAO wake turbulence categories.
Light
To which situation is 3 mins wake turbulence separation applied?
Light following a medium departing from a runway intersection on a parallel runway less than 760m apart.
Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?
Long grass.
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.
Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxiing to the holding point, what do you consult first?
MEL.
MNPS is the abbreviation for:
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
The total number of Oxygen dispensing units in an aircraft must:
Neither a & b.
Which statement is correct concerning turns on noise abatement procedures?
No turns should be coincident with a reduction in power.
What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?
Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority.
What is the minimum number of life saving jackets and individual floatation devices, required on board of an aircraft:
One for each crew member and one for each passenger on board.
Flying to Europe in MNPS at 1000UTC crossing 0300W:
Out of organised route track system.
The terminal VOR transmits the following weather data. When do you expect carburettor icing?
Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +10° C Dew Point (DEWP): +7° C.
A flight to Europe is expected to be at 0300W at 0030UTC. Where will you be?
Outside the organised track system.
DH is used in a:
Precision approach.
What is required for navigation in IMC?
Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until the visual point.
From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be observed:
Red.
The WARS is the area to the east of ... extending eastwards to ... and south to...
San Francisco, 60W, 27N
Who is responsible for ensuring that the regulatory procedures for the transportation of dangerous goods is complied with?
Sender.
Noise abatement for landing:
Should not preclude the use of thrust reverse.
Where an aeroplane is dry leased out to a non-JAA operator who is an operator certified by an ICAO contracting State, responsibility has to be assumed for the maintenance of the aeroplane. Who is responsible for assuming the responsibility?
The Authority of the State of the Operator who is receiving the aeroplane.
Regarding the FDR and CVR, which of the following statements is true:
The CVR monitors all human voice exchanges on the flight deck throughout the flight keeping the last 30 minutes as a hard copy.
Who should sign an Operational Flight Plan (OFP)?
The Commander and the Operations Officer/Flight Dispatcher (where applicable).
Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:
The ICAO document entitled Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.
Which of the following statements concerning the MEL is correct?
The MEL allows aeroplanes to be flown with unserviceability which would otherwise require immediate rectification.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the construction and location of a flight data recorder?
The flight data recorder is fitted with a floatation device and an underwater location aid.
When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?
The threshold is more than 2m below the ARP.
Any operator is required to grant the Authority access to the organisation and the aeroplanes. What is the purpose of this?
To ensure continued compliance with JAR-OPS.
What action is required in flight for a fire in an air conditioned cargo hold?
Turn off the ventilation and put out the fire.
Each pilot must undertake a proficiency check:
Twice within any period of one year.
Under which conditions will ice form on the airframe?
Water in a liquid state, ambient air temperature below 0° C and airframe temperature below 0° C.
An aerodrome is suitable as a take-off alternate if:
Weather conditions must be at or above the aerodrome minima at the time of take-off.
What is WATRS?
West Atlantic Route System.
Passengers are to be secured in their seats by means of seatbelts or harnesses during take-off and landing, turbulence and an emergency. When also must they be secured?
Whenever it is considered necessary.
When planning a minimum time route, the air isochrone is taken over the ground isochrone and wind vector KK is plotted from point K (original point) to K to achieve heading and ground speed. What is the wind used?
Wind at K.
A CAT II operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with:
a DA below 200ft but not lower than 100ft, and a runway visual range of not less than 300m.
MDA is:
a specified altitude in a Non-precision Approach or Circling Approach below which the descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
all available extinguishers in sequence.
A visual approach is defined as:
an approach when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain.
A flight control system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the ..., ... and ..., can be completed automatically.
approach, flare, landing
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1.000 ft or descend 500 ft, if:
at FL410.
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if:
below FL 410.
When braking action is medium, the measured braking coefficient is:
between 0.30 and 0.35.
A dry runway is one which:
can be wet if it has specially prepared grooved or porous surfaces, which maintain effectively dry breaking action.
The longitudinal separation minima currently used in the NAT MNPSA are based on:
clock minutes.
The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a:
combination of the terms: poor, medium, good.
A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:
contaminated.
In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must:
continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by him.
Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is on board:
crash axes or crowbars.
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
depth of the standing water on the runway.
Wake turbulence starts:
during rotation and stops as soon as the airplanes wheels touch the ground.
Astronomic precession is:
existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying.
After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft will:
flies below the climb-out path.
The operator must nominate post holders, acceptable to the authority for:
flight operations, maintenance, crew training, ground operations.
When a destination alternate is not required for aeroplanes with turbine power units, the fuel and oil carried must be at least sufficient to:
fly 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above the flight planned aerodrome at standard conditions and to carry additional fuel for 15 minutes holding at 1500ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
Which equation relates to transport wander in polar and trans-oceanic areas? (Where gm = ch long, Lm = mean lat, Lo = tangent of mean lat)
gm x sin Lm.
In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
great circle line.
Where minimum navigation performance is prescribed by Regional Air Navigation Agreements, an aeroplane shall be fitted with equipment which:
has been authorised by the State of the operator.
You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may present a bird strike hazard, you must:
immediately inform the appropriate ground station.
During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30° W meridian at 1000 UTC; you will normally be:
in random airspace.
A class D fire is a fire:
involving combustible metals.
Smoking on board of an aeroplane:
is not allowed in those areas of the cabin where oxygen is being supplied and outside designated smoking areas.
According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
is procedure A.
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:
is very smooth and dirty.
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.
While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the preselected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshear in final phase you must:
maintain aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution.
When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance.
Which of the following factors affect aircraft performance:
mass, temperature, wind.
It is recommended that first aid kits should be positioned:
near exits.
A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be:
nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response.
After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:
only from front or rear side.
Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:
operation manual.
The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous materials are specified in the:
operation manual.
During an approach procedure which involves noise abatement, the aeroplane is to be in the final landing configuration at any point after passing the ... or at a point ... from the threshold of the landing runway, whichever is earlier.
outer marker, 5NM
When flying above optimum altitude:
range reduces.
A type 1 Flight Data Recorder (FDR) must be able to:
record 32 parameters in total to determine flight path, speed, engine power, altitude, configuration, ...
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see the:
red steady light.
Commanders of aircraft are to have on board all the essential information concerning:
search and rescue service in the areas over which the aeroplane will be flown.
Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
temperature of the brakes.
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
the airline operator.
During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:
the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot.
For a flight conducted under IFR the pilot must request and receive a clearance form ATC this request for clearance must include the following basic items:
the departure aerodrome, the departure aerodrome alternate, the route, destination, destination alternate.
If information indicates that at ETA a landing at the destination would not be possible in accordance with the established aerodrome operating minima, then:
the flight shall not be continued towards the intended destination.
An aeroplane shall carry:
the maintenance manuals and wiring diagrams.
The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority.
The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:
the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority.
For a propeller driven aeroplane, sufficient fuel must he carried to cater for flight to:
the nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and then remain airborne for a further 45 minutes.
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual.
The MEL (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
the operator.
Regarding the issue of an AOC, the Authority must be satisfied that:
the organisation is financially well managed.
The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with the following operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by the controller:
the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750 metres.
ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:
the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials.
Circling is defined as:
the visual phase of an instrument approach to bring an aeroplane into a position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach.
The validity period of a certificate of airworthiness varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is maintained. If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:
three years.
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of. 3 minutes shall be applied:
to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less 760 m.
It is recommended that the journey log book should he retained:
to provide a continuous record of the last 6 months operations.
During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
to put on the oxygen mask.
Normally, in the event of ditching, it is recommended that the gear is... and the flaps are...
up, down.
To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
useless because the toxic cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the:
ventilation of the cargo compartment.
The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of:
viscous hydroplaning.
Apart from aquaplaning and reduced breaking efficiency, what other hazards are associated with heavy rain contamination of runways:
water ingress into engines can cause flame-out.
According to ICAO Document 8168 Part V, when using Procedure B for noise abatement, when must you reduce power?
when flap retraction is complete.
The NO SMOKING sign must be illuminated:
when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.