OPH 112: Chapter 8 quiz

Which of the following tests determines the presence and location of defects in the central portion of the visual field:

Amsler Grid Test

Of the following, which test evaluates disturbances or defects in the central portion of the visual field

Amsler grid test

Which of the following is NOT part of the comprehensive eye examination

Greeting the patient

Which of the following instruments measures the intraocular pressure by indenting the cornea by a weight of a given amount:

Schiotz tonometer

The test used to measure tear deficiency during a comprehensive eye exam is

Schirmer

Corneal sensitivity testing is performed by touching the central portion of the cornea with a sterile wisp of cotton.

True

If a pinhole acuity test is found to significantly improve a patient's poor visual acuity, the patient probably has

a refractive error

Children may not complain of double vision because they have a compensatory mechanism which means the eyes ignore the second object. If this is not diagnosed early they may develop

amblyopia

To determine the safety of dilation, the procedure that absolutely must be performed prior to dilating a patient is

anterior chamber evaluation

The technique used to measure the force required to flatten a small area of the central cornea is

applanation tonometry

Close examination of the lids, lashes, cornea, and lens can be accomplished with the

biomicroscope

In normal consensual reaction, when a light is directed into the pupil of one eye, the pupil of the other eye

constricts

If an eye misalignment is detected it can further be evaluated with the

cover-uncover test

In the Snellen acuity recording 20/100, the number 100 represents the

distance in feet at which the letters could be seen by a person with "normal" visual acuity.

The recommended timing for a comprehensive eye examination of young adults age 20 to 39 years is which of the following:

every 3 to 5 yrs

The measurement for the prominence of the eyeball in relationship to the bony orbital rim is done with an instrument called

exophthalmometer

What part of the comprehensive medical eye examination includes the inspection of the visual parts of the adnexa, external globe, and anterior chamber

external examination

Having a patient follow a finger in the six cardinal positions of gaze is a method of evaluating

extraocular muscle function

There is a direct correlation to intraocular pressure and blood pressure

false

Jaeger notations, Snellen M units, the point system, and distance equivalents, are various units of measuring

near visual acuity

This has been found to be an important parameter in the diagnostic evaluation of glaucoma

pachymetry

The titmus fly test assesses the patients degree of

stereopsis

Gonioscopy is a procedure used to view the

structures of the anterior chamber angle

On a Snellen chart there are characters that appear in numeric notation, for example 20/20, 20/30, 20/40. The top number as printed on the chart represents which of the following:

the distance in feet at which the test was performed

Which of the following refers to the ability to discern fine visual detail:

visual acuity

If a patient were to volunteer information that you believe could be compromising, what would be your next step:

write it on a separate sheet of paper

Which of the following is NOT included in the history interview:

last visual acuity

The prism and alternate cover test is used to

measure the extent of deviation in the misaligned eye

Which of the following is the correct units of measurement to express intraocular pressure:

mm Hg

Adult near visual acuity charts are designed to read at the distance of

14 inches

The Farnsworth-Munsel color vision test consists of _____ pastel colored chips of similar brightness but subtly different hues.

15

Asymptomatic patients between the ages of 40 and 64 should have a comprehensive medical eye examination every

2 to 4 years

Which of the following visual acuity measurements would require an additional test with the pinhole occluder:

20/40

In an ocular alignment and motility examination, how many principal properties of the visual system are observed:

3

A reading of 3 on the Goldmann tonometer dial indicates an intraocular pressure of

30mmHg

The Schirmer test measures the patient's tear output and helps confirm the diagnosis of dry eye. To perform this test, the examiner places one end of a strip of filter paper in the patient's outer fornix and waits for what period of time before removing it:

5 mins

20 feet is equal to how many meters:

6

Evaluation of ocular motility is important in revealing possible weakness, paralysis, or restriction of the ______ extraocular muscles.

6

How many aspects of eye function and anatomy are generally evaluated in the comprehensive examination?

8

Color vision testing measures the ability to perceive color and is usually an inherited condition-passed from the

Mother to son

Of the following, which is the collective term for the retina, optic disc, and macula:

fundus

Diplopia is double vision (seeing 2 objects) and it can prevent

fusion

The Worth 4-Dot test is used to assess

fusion, diplopia, suppression

In visual acuity assessment, the Brightness Acuity Test (BAT) is used to evaluate______________when there are opacities in ocular media.

glare

When recording the patient's chief complaint, the ophthalmic medical assistant should

include only the facts as stated by the patient

Indirect ophthalmoscopy provides a

inverted, stereoscopic, virtual view of the fundus