Patient Interaction and Management

Which of the following blood pressure readings would indicate anaphylactic shock? A. Dramatic decrease in blood pressure. B. Dramatic increase in blood pressure. C. Diastolic pressure higher than a 140 mm Hg. D. Diastolic pressure between than 100 and 140 mm Hg.

A. Dramatic decrease in blood pressure.

An IR is used on multiple patients without being cleaned. One of these patients develops a serious skin infection. What term may be applied to the IR? A. Fomite. B. Host. C. Vector. D. Vehicle.

A. Fomite.

The term "parenteral" refers to medications given by: A. Injection. B. Mouth. C. Suppositories. D. Transdermal patches.

A. Injection.

Epistaxis is the term used to describe: A. Nosebleed. B. Difficulty breathing. C. Hives. D. Reddening of the skin.

A. Nosebleed.

Modesty and personal independence are most important to a child in which stage of development? A. Toddler. B. Preschool age. C. School age. D. Adolescence.

D. Adolescence.

Which of the following would be considered a severe contrast media reaction? A. Seizures. B. Heat and severe pain at the injection site. C. Diffuse hives and mild pruritis. D. Emesis at the conclusion of the injection.

A. Seizures.

What type of shock could result from a pulmonary embolus? A. Cardiogenic. B. Neurogenic. C. Anaphylactic. D. Hypovolemic.

A. Cardiogenic.

A patient has come to the imaging department for an intravenous urogram procedure. As you obtain that patient's medical history and screen the patient for allergies, which of the following should you ask about? (Select all that apply). A. Diabetes medication. B. Cardiovascular disease. C. Previous iodine contrast reactions. D. Any known allergies. E. Asthma.

A, B, C, D, and E.

Which of the following is/are included among the major categories of microorganisms? (Select all that apply). A. Fungus. B. Protozoa. C. Viruses. D. Bacteria.

A, B, C, and D.

Choose the sign/symptoms below that would indicate impending diabetic coma: (Select all that apply). A. Extreme thirst. B. Increased urination. C. Elevated blood pressure. D. Sweet/fruity smelling breath.

A, B, and D.

Which of the following are typical routes of contrast administration used in the medical imaging department? (Select all that apply). A. Antegrade. B. Retrograde. C. Intramuscular. D. Subcutaneous. E. Intrathecal. F. Sublingual.

A, B, and E.

In order for informed consent to be considered legal , which of the following condition(s) must be met? (Select all that apply). A. The patient must be mentally competent and of legal age. B. The patient must not revoke consent once the form is signed. C. The patient must give consent voluntarily. D. The patient must be sufficiently informed about the examination/treatment. E. The patient must have a family member or friend witness and sign the form. F. The patient must be granted a successful outcome.

A, C, and D.

Bacteria can be classified by which of the following? (Select all that apply). A. Shape. B. Presence of a tail or flagellum. C. Straining test. D. Type of capsid. E. Type of bud formed for reproduction. F. Oxygen requirement.

A, C, and E.

When working with a sterile field, which of the following statements is TRUE? (Select all that apply). A. Never turn your back on a sterile field. B. Trays are still considered sterile if fluid is spilled on the tray, as long as it's a sterile fluid. C. If you suspect that an object is contaminated, always assume that it is contaminated. D. Minimize the distance between yourself and the physician to reduce the likelihood of dropping an item. E. Avoid reaching across the sterile field. F. Sterile trays should be set up first thing in the morning for all cases requiring them.

A, C, and E.

Which of the following are considered as examples of a "symptoms" and not a "sign"? (Select all that apply). A. Anxiety. B. Bloody nose. C. Fatigue. D. Hypertension. E. Elevated Creatine Level. F. Malaise. G. Rash.

A, C, and F.

What radiographic examination(s) require the patient to be NPO for 8 to 12 hours? (Select all that apply). A. Barium enema. B. Small bowel follow through. C. Modified Esophagram. D. Barium swallow.

A, and B.

Select the situation(s) below for which a radiographer could be found guilty of a medical tort. (Select all that apply). A. Radiating a pregnant patient without first asking if there could be a chance of pregnancy. B. Radiating a pediatric patient without having a parent or legal guardian present. C. Posting a x-ray image on social media without removing patient identifiers. D. Throwing de-identified paper order requisitions into a public trashcan. E. Using a racial slur when communicating with a patient.

A, and C.

Which conditions could potentially cause a patient to experience syncope? (Select all that apply). A. The patient has had nothing by mouth (NPO) for 12 hours in preparation for a lower GI study. B. Patient has been lying on the right side for 20 minutes in preparation for a myelogram. C. The patient is under intense emotional stress before an imaging procedure. D. Patient is lying in the Fowler position on a cart in the waiting area.

A, and C.

Which of the following catheters are used for central vascular access? (Select all that apply). A. Hickman. B. Levin. C. Groshong D. Foley.

A, and C.

Which of the following conditions would require protective, expanded, or reverse isolation? (Select all that apply). A. Bone marrow transplant. B. Hepatitis B. C. Third-degree burns. D. Bacterial meningitis.

A, and C.

Which of the following may be used to identify a two-month-old infant for a portable radiographic examination? (Select all that apply). A. Comparing the name on the wristband with the name on the x-ray order. B. Comparing the infant's gender with the x-ray order. C. Comparing the medical record number on the wristband to the x-ray order. D. Asking the patient for their phone number and home address.

A, and C.

Heparin and Coumadin are examples of what type of drug? A. Anticoagulants. B. Antiarrhythmics. C. Antiemetics. D. Antianxiety.

A. Anticoagulants.

If a patient is scheduled for an UGI and small bowel radiological series, which type of radiographic contrast is contraindicated for the procedure if the patient is suspected of have a perforated ulcer? A. Barium. B. Air. C. Water soluble iodine. D. Carbon dioxide.

A. Barium.

The primary means of Hepatitis B transmission is via: A. Blood or body fluid. B. Sneezing or coughing. C. Vectors. D. Fomite.

A. Blood or body fluid.

Which of the following imaging modalities is most commonly used to diagnose osteoporosis. A. Bone densitometry. B. Computed tomography. C. Magnetic resonance imaging. D. Nuclear medicine.

A. Bone densitometry.

When interacting with a patient in Airborne Isolation with chicken pox (varicella), the health care worker should: A. Wear an N95 respirator mask. B. Wear a surgical mask. C. Only wear a mask if working within 3 feet of the patient. D. Leave the room door open at all times.

A. Wear an N95 respirator mask.

Why is it important for a radiographer to document any reaction to intravenous contrast media? (Select all that apply). A. Documentation of reactions to intravenous media is not necessary. B. Providers will need to review a patient's history of reaction to evaluate a risk versus benefit and the use of contrast media. C. Healthcare workers will need to have knowledge of what medications were used if any to stabilize after a patient's previous reaction. D. Patients may need pre-medication for future exams.

B, C, and D.

An example of a moderate allergic reaction to a contrast agent is: (Select all that apply). A. Metallic taste in the mouth. B. Bronchospasm. C. Cyanosis. D. Urticaria. E. Erythema.

B, D, and E.

Which of the following components is required for an infection to survive and be transmitted? (Select all that apply). A. Water or fluid. B. A pathogen. C. An immunosuppressed patient. D. A favorable environment for microorganism growth. E. Exogenous or endogenous transmission. F. Air.

B, D, and E.

The drug Nitroglycerin is indicated for the treatment of: (Select all that apply). A. Stroke. B. Heart attack. C. Angina. D. Hives.

B, and C.

A patient scheduled to receive intravenous contrast is severely overweight. The radiologist orders 40% more than the normal 50cc dose of contrast be used. The technologist should prepare how much of the contrast agent? A. 60cc. B. 70cc. C. 75cc. D. 90cc.

B. 70cc.

If a patient becomes severely hypotensive after administration of contrast media, and they do not respond to conservative treatment, which emergency medication can be administered intravenously? A. Benadryl. B. Atropine. C. Epinephrine. D. Lasix.

B. Atropine.

Which of the following terms would be appropriate if your patient's respiratory rate is severely decreased? A. Apnea B. Bradypnea. C. Dyspnea. D. Orthopnea.

B. Bradypnea.

A common group of drugs that are used to promote defacation are thermes: A. Emetics. B. Cathartics. C. Diuretics. D. Depressants.

B. Cathartics.

The bottom reading of a blood pressure test is the: A. Systolic reading. B. Diastolic reading. C. Cardia reading. D. Sinus reading.

B. Diastolic reading.

A disease caused by a healthcare professional or by medical treatment is known as a(n): A. Hospital acquired infection. B. Iatrogenic disease. C. Idiopathic disease. D. Septic infection.

B. Iatrogenic disease.

The vein of the antecubital fossa that is the first choice for venipuncture is the: A. Brachial. B. Median Cubital. C. Radial. D. Ulnar.

B. Median Cubital.

Which of the following veins is found in the antecubital fossa? A. Brachial. B. Median cubital. C. Radial. D. Anterior tibial.

B. Median cubital.

Which of the following is a radiographic procedure that is used to dilate a stenotic vessel? A. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy. B. Percutaneous angioplasty. C. Renal anteriography. D. Surgical nephrostomy.

B. Percutaneous angioplasty.

Systolic blood pressure can be defined as: A. The lowest point to which the blood pressure drops during relaxation of the ventricles. B. The highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricles. C. The difference between pressure in the right and left ventricles. D. The pressure in the pulmonary artery.

B. The highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricles.

Which of the following phrases describes a patient with orthopnea? A. The patient has a body temperature below 95.6 degrees F. B. The patient has difficulty breathing unless in the Fowler position. C. The patient is having cardiac arrhythmia. D. The patient is drowsy but responsive.

B. The patient has difficulty breathing unless in the Fowler position.

Anaphylactic shock may be seen in diagnostic imaging after the injection of iodinated contrast media. Which of the manifestations below would be early signs or symptoms of impending anaphylactic shock? (Select all that apply). A. Metallic taste. B. Seizure. C. Bronchospasm. D. Itching, especially of the palms or soles of the feet. E. Tightness of the chest. F. Onset hypertension.

C, D, and E.

Choose the signs/symptoms below that would indicate a patient is going into shock: (Select all that apply). A. Increased blood pressure. B. Increased urination. C. Pallor. D. Coughing. E. Increased heart rate. F. Diaphoresis.

C, E, and F.

For which of the conditions below would it be helpful to place the patient in the Trendelenburg? A. Asthma. B. Epistaxis. C. Vasovagal reaction. D. Shortness of breath.

C, Vasovagal reaction.

When caring for a patient with an IV, the solution should be positioned: A. At the level of the infusion site. B. 10-12 inches above the level of the infusion site. C. 18-24 inches above the level of the infusion site. D. 10-12 inches below the level of the infusion site.

C. 18-24 inches above the level of the infusion site.

The prime difference between an ionic and nonionic iodinated contrast agent is that: A. A nonionic contains less iodine. B. An ionic contains less iodine. C. A nonionic is considered to have lower osmolality. D. An ionic is less likely to produce an adverse reaction when administered intravascularly.

C. A nonionic is considered lower osmolality.

The medical condition, ketoacidosis refers to: A. Acute hypotension. B. Acute hypertension. C. Acute hyperglycemia. D. Acute hypoglycemia

C. Acute hyperglycemia.

Which law serves to protect patient data from inappropriate disclosure or use and safeguards patient information systems from unauthorized access? A. Federal Education Right to Privacy Act (FERPA). B. American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT) Care Bill. C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). D. Certified Federal Register.

C. Heath Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).

What is the best dose of administration , if a dose of Benadryl is needed for an anaphylactic type reaction to intravascular iodinated contrast? A. Orally. B. Intramuscular. C. Intravenously. D. Subcutaneously.

C. Intravenously.

The primary site of drug metabolism is the: A. Heart. B. Kidneys. C. Liver. D. Small Intestine.

C. Liver.

The terms monomer and dimer reflect the number of benzene rings in an iodinated media's molecular structure. What is the obvious advantage of a contrast media composed of dimers? A. More particles will dissociate in the solution. B. Higher osmolality. C. More iodine atoms can be added to a single molecule. D. The availability of three benzene rings.

C. More iodine can be added to a single molecule.

The hospice concept involves family-centered care with an emphasis on: A. Curative treatment. B. Dependent care measures. C. Palliative treatment. D. Therapeutic procedures.

C. Palliative treatment.

Children develop a fear of illness and death during which stage of childhood: A. Toddler. B. Preschool age. C. School age. D. Adolescence.

C. School age.

When taking a patient's history prior to intravenous (IV) contrast injection, what factors are NOT a consideration for contraindication? A. Renal insufficiency. B. Personal history of asthma. C. Sensitivity to aspirin. D. Previous reaction to contrast media.

C. Sensitivity to aspirin.

Which of the following would be an acceptable treatment for a patient suffering from epistaxis? A. Tilt head back while sitting upright in a chair and breathe through the nose. B. Place in recumbent position and breathe through mouth. C. Tilt head forward and breathe through mouth. D. Tilt head forward and blow the nose.

C. Tilt head back and breathe through mouth.

Which characteristic of iodinated contrast agent is defined as the resistance of liquid to flow? A. Miscibility. B. Toxicity. C. Viscosity. D. Osmolality.

C. Viscosity.

Which of the following MUST be included in every patient's medical record? (Select all that apply). A. Family history. B. Billing information. C. Hobbies and leisure activities. D. Medical history. E. Informed consent forms. F. Procedure orders.

D, E, and F.

A patient's pulse may be obtained by palpating which of the following vessels? (Select all that apply). A. Subclavian artery. B. Abdominal aorta. C. Cephalic vein. D. Axillary artery. E. Common carotid artery. F. Inferior vena cava. G. Brachial artery. H. Basilica vein.

D, E, and G.

One may say that the patient has tachycardia if the patient has a pulse rate higher than: A. 60 beats/minute. B. 80 beats/minute. C. 90 beats/minute. D. 100 beats/minute.

D. 100 beats/minute.

The proper medical term for a patient who suddenly turns pale and feels cold and clammy is: A. Apprehensive. B. Febrile. C. Hypertensive. D. Diaphoretic.

D. Diaphoretic.

What term describes the process of removing as many, but not all, infectious organisms as possible? A. Autoclaving. B. Surgical asepsis. C. Sterilization. D. Disinfection.

D. Disinfection.

What level of consent is assumed when a hospitalized patient undergoes a portable chest x-ray examination? A. Informed. B. Written. C. Legal. D. Implied.

D. Implied.

When obtaining a manual blood pressure reading, how is the diastolic number determined? A. It is the pressure measurement reading prior to inflating the blood pressure cuff. B. Is is the pressure measurement reading when the cuff has been inflated to maximum tolerable pressure. C. Is it the pressure measurement corresponding to the first heart sound heard when the pressure is released and the cuff is deflating. D. It is the pressure measurement corresponding to the last heart sound heard when the pressure is released and the cuff is deflating.

D. It is the pressure measurement corresponding to the last heart sound heard when the pressure is released and the cuff is deflating.

If a patient develops pulmonary edema after administration of contrast media , and they do not respond to conservative treatment, which emergency medication can be administered intravenously? A. Benadryl. B. Atropine. C. Epinephrine. D. Lasix.

D. Lasix.

Which of the following medications would most likely be given to a patient suffering from angina pectoris? A. Aspirin. B. Epinephrine. C. Heparin. D. Nitroglycerin.

D. Nitroglycerin.

Which of the following imaging modalities should be used if the results of a metastatic bone survey are inconclusive? A. Computed tomography. B. Arthrography. C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging. D. Nuclear Medicine.

D. Nuclear Medicine.