Personal Training Quizzes (11-23)

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?

Sagittal

Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?

Speed

What phase of the OPT model aims to improve movement patterns and enhances stabilization of the systems?

Stabilization Endurance Training

This stage of training focuses on drills, that help improve conditioning using linear, multidirectional, and sport-specific activities performed as conditioning.

Stage 5

What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?

Stretch-shortening cycle

When clients are participating in plyometrics training they must wear ____ and train on a ____.

Supportive shoes; proper surface

What is an informal cardiorespiratory assessment used to gauge the intensity of an activity based on a clients ability to hold a conversation.

Talk Test

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?

core strength

What are three types of flexibility techniques recommended by NASM?

foam rolling, static stretching and dynamic stretching

What are the 5 kinetic checkpoints when observing a client during the static posture assessment?

foot and ankle, knees, Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), shoulders and head

Speed, agility and quickness have which of the following benefits?

improved top speed, change of direction, acceleration and deceleration

An effective core training program should have the following three functional outcomes...

intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability and movement efficiency

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, vs percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?

it accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate

Plyometric training is often called _____ or _____ training.

jump; reactive

Balance training improves which two aspects of injury resistance?

landing mechanics and fall risk

NASM classifies the core into two categories ____ and _____ muscles.

local; global

How is a general warm-up best defined?

low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following

What are two scientific theories behind self-myofascial rollong?

mechanical and neuro-physiological

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?

motor unit recruitment

Plyometrics help to enhance an individual's

movement quality, landing mechanics and power

Flexibility is defined as the following:

normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

Scientific evidence supports core training for the following:

optimizing posture, performance, injury resistance and rehabilitation

What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction?

pattern overload

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure the muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?

push-up test

Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program?

quality of movement

Which of the following examples of training exercises is NOT a from os cardiorespiratory fitness?

resistance training

The local muscles of the core include which muscles?

rotatores, multifidus, transverse abdominis, diaphragm, pelvic floor, and quadratus lumborum

What are five fundamental movement patterns?

squatting, hip hinge, pulling, pushing and vertical pressing

Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?

standing

Balance training improves which two aspects of performance?

static and dynamic balance

What are the three types of balance classifications?

static, semi-dynamic and dynamic

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?

synergistic dominance

Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements?

take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site

What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults?

the environment

What would NOT be a reason to terminate an exercise test?

the individual is tired from the test

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus?

the knees collapsing inward

What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle?

tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance

What is the most important reason that a CPT should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?

to ensure safety

The "drawing-in" maneuver activates the ____ muscle(s) while the "abdominal bracing" maneuver co-activates the ____ muscle(s).

transverse abdominis; global

The body's kinetic chain can be further classified into ___ regional chains; ____ kinetic chain and ____ kinetic chain.

two; upper, lower

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?

validity

What are the three balance systems?

vision, vestibular and somatosensory

When designing an effective plyometric exercise program, exercises should progress from

- dual-foot drills before progressing to single-foot drills - low-intensity to medium-intensity to high-intensity - simple, to intermediate, to advanced movements

What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?

12 inches

What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?

150 minutes

What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate?

208 - (0.7x age)

What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?

3.5 mL/kg/min

NASM recommended to hold a static stretch for ___ seconds for ____ sets.

30 seconds; 1 to 3

The Jackson-Pollock has two skinfold measurement protocols. A ___ site and a ___ site protocol.

7; 3

If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what should his clients heart rate be?

80 beats per minute

How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined?

Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

Integrated training combines ___ of exercise into ____ system(s).

All forms of exercise; one

Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?

Altered movement patterns

Which muscles are typically under active when the feet turn out?

Anterior and posterior tibialis

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g, jogging or running)?

At least 3 times a week

All fitness professionals should be certified in ____ and ____ to further ensure client safety?

CPR; AED

What are three different types of body composition measurements?

Circumference, skinfold and bioelectrical impedance

Which muscle would be considered under active, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?

Gluteus maximus

Which anatomical structure(s) help override the CNS to relax the target muscle during the lengthening reaction?

Golgi tendon organ

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

Hip flexors and lumbar extensors

Which of the following global muscle's primary action is hip flexion?

Iliopsoas

Which factor will be reduced through training/ exercising with correct posture?

Muscle imbalances

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?

Muscular Development

What principle describes the nervous system's ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement?

Neuromuscular efficienty

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological mechanism?

Reciprocal inhibition

Three benefits for training balance include:

Reduce fall risk, improve lower extremity muscle strength and proprioception

According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will NOT include which of the following factors?

Rehabilitation

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?

Reliability

In an integrated training program, what would the portion of the training session that promotes and increase in muscle strength and hypertrophy and is effective at improving bone density and enhance cardiovascular health?

Resistance training

The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics?

anterior cruciate ligament injury

When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?

autogenic inhibition

In order to balance, someone must maintain what point within their base of support?

center of gravity

Balance is the ability to maintain the ____ within a person's ____.

center of gravity; base of support

From the list of items provided, which of the following are NOT considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training?

Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?

Dynamic posture assessment

What does the overhead squat assessment measure according to NASM?

Dynamic posture, core stability and neuromuscular control

What are three components of the stretch-shortening cycle?

Eccentric, amortization and concentric

What is a specific benefit from teaching core training to clients?

Enhanced posture and spine health

How often is it recommended to reassess clientele?

Every month

What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment?

Femur parallel to ground

What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) program, represent?

Frequency, Intensity, Type, Time, enjoyment, volume, progression

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?

It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work

An effective balance program should challenge an individual's _____.

Limits of stability

Which muscle should be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?

Lower trapezius

What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads?

Maximal Strength Training

A BMI of 31 is considered which classification?

Obese

Which form should be filled out by the client to determine their health risks?

PAR-Q+

Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus and adducted and internally rotated hips?

Pes planus distortion syndrom

Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?

Posterior

What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?

Postural distortions

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?

Power Training

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?

Previous injury

Which of the following tests is used to measure acceleration, deceleration, agility and control?

Pro shuffle

The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach?

Progressive overload

Resting heart rate should be taken at the ____ for ______ seconds.

Radial pulse; 60 seconds

What is the most valid measure of aerobic fitness?

VO2 max

Which of the following is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory fitness?

VO2max

When is a muscle considered overactive?

When it is in a state of elevated activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be help in a chronic state of contraction

What does BMI (body mass index) assess for?

Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height

Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?

Wobble board