PHARM EXAM 2 MCQS and Powerpoint Questions

1. A patient is receiving warfarin therapy to treat DVT, which PT/INR value indicates a therapeutic effect? a. 1.0 b. 2.5 c. 0.5 d. 4.0

2.5

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for quinidine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? a. "monitor your pulse rate and report changes" b. "remain upright for 30 minutes after taking this medication." c. "this medication can decrease digoxin levels" d. "this medication can cause urinary incontinence"

a. "monitor your pulse rate and report changes"

1. Which of the following should the nurse include when providing dietary teaching for the patient receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy? a. Avoid eating large amounts of food high in Vitamin K. b. Cranberry juice will provide you with needed nutrients while taking Coumadin. c. You must never eat spinach. d. You can only eat lettuce once a month.

a. Avoid eating large amounts of food high in Vitamin K.

1. A patient who is hypertensive and also suffers from BPH (benign prostatic hypertrophy) may be prescribed _____ a. Doxazosin (Alpha 1 blockers) b. Captopril (ACE inhibitor) c. Atenolol (Beta blockers) d. Losartan (Angiotensin II receptor blocker)

a. Doxazosin (Alpha 1 blockers)

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for losartan to treat hypertension. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following findings could indicate an adverse reaction to the drug and needs to be reported? a. Facial edema b. Sleepiness c. Peripheral edema d. Constipation

a. Facial edema

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking amiodarone to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking this drug? a. Grapefruit juice b. Milk c. Foods high in vitamin K d. NSAIDs

a. Grapefruit juice

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following manifestations is a potential adverse effect of this drug a. Headache b. Constipation c. Hypertension d. Hyperglycemia

a. Headache

A nurse is administering hydrochlorothiazide to a client who has gouty arthritis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings that indicated an adverse effect of this drug? a. Hyperuricemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypoglycemia

a. Hyperuricemia

1. When administering an alph-adrenergic drug for hypertension, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of what response? a. Hypotension b. Hyperkalemia c. Oliguria d. Respiratory distress

a. Hypotension

1. What is the mechanism of action for Aspirin? a. Inhibits cyclooxygenase in the platelet irreversibly preventing platelet aggregation b. Inhibits ADP receptors on platelets prolonging bleeding time by irreversibly inhibiting platelet aggregation c. Converts plasminogen to plasmin, dissolving fibrin clots d. Inhibits vitamin K dependent factors II, VII, IX, and X preventing clot formation

a. Inhibits cyclooxygenase in the platelet irreversibly preventing platelet aggregation

A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking atorvastatin and has a new prescription for gemfibrozil. The nurse should recognize that this drug combination places the client at an increased risk for which of the following adverse effects? a. Myopathy b. Hypoglycemia c. Irregular pulse d. Kidney failure

a. Myopathy

A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin captopril therapy. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report because it can indicate a need to discontinue drug therapy? a. Rash b. Distorted taste c. Swelling of the tongue d. Photosensitivity e. Dry cough

a. Rash b. Distorted taste c. Swelling of the tongue e. Dry cough

A nurse is caring for a client who has a depressive disorder and requires a prescription drug to treat hypertension. The nurse should recognize that which of the following antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated for this client? a. Reserpine b. Captopril c. Hydralazine d. Eplerenone

a. Reserpine

1. A patient who is taking a thyroid replacement medication tells the nurse that she is starting to experience cold intolerance, depression, constipation, and dry skin. What potential cause does the nurse a. inadequate doses of the medication. b. possible overdose of the medication. c. worsening of the underlying disease. d. drug interactions with another medication.

a. inadequate doses of the medication.

1. True or False: Patients who have peptic ulcer disease should avoid taking clopidogrel, because it can cause gastric bleeding.

true

1. True or False? The sublingual form of nitroglycerin will still be potent 2 months after opening.

true

1. Which coagulation modifier is a pregnancy category X drug? a. heparin b. alteplase c. warfarin d. clopidogrel

warfarin

A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus has developed hypertension. What is the blood pressure goal for this patient? A. Less than 110/80 mmHg B. Less than 130/84 mm Hg C. Less than 140/90 mm Hg D. Less than 130/80 mm

Less than 140/90 mm Hg

1. The patient is does not respond well to current medication therapy and is started on a milrinone infusion. The nurse will monitor which laboratory results during this infusion? Select all that apply a. Serum potassium levels b. Creatinine and BUN c. WBC count d. Liver function studies e. Platelet count

Liver function studies

1. Which anti-hypertensive drug class ends with "-SARTAN"? A. Alpha2-Adrenergic Receptor Stimulators (Agonists) B. Alpha1 Blockers C. Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARB) D. Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE )Inhibitor

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARB)

1. Which anti-hypertensive drug class ends with "-PRIL"? A. Alpha2-Adrenergic Receptor Stimulators (Agonists) B. Alpha1 Blockers C. Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARB) D. Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE )Inhibitor

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE )Inhibitor

1. A patient is receiving an IV infusion of a thrombolytic drug during treatment for an acute MI. The nurse notices that there is a slight amount of bleeding from the antecubital area where venous lab work was drawn. What will the nurse do first? a. Monitor the site for further bleeding. b. Apply pressure to the site with a gauze pad. c. Slow the rate of infusion of the thrombolytic drug. d. Stop the infusion of the thrombolytic drug.

Apply pressure to the site with a gauze pad.

1. What is blood pressure determined by? a. Cardiac Output b. Cardiac Input c. Systemic Vascular Resistance d. A & C e. B & C

A & C - cardiac output and Systemic Vascular resistance

1. Which statement reflects understanding in a patient when it comes to transdermal nitroglycerin patches? A. "I should have an 8 hour period without the patch on each day" B. "I can keep a patch on when taking cialis" C. "I should immediately go the ER if I develop a headache" D. "I should make sure to do 20 burpees every hour with a patch on to keep my blood pressure up"

A. "I should have an 8 hour period without the patch on each day"

1. If a patient is prescribed lidocaine a class Ib drug, which adverse effects should he/she be monitored for? (Select all that apply.) A. Hypertension B. Bradycardia C. Dysrhythmia D. Headache E. Anxiety

A. Hypertension B. Bradycardia C. Dysrhythmia E. Anxiety

1. When teaching a patient about their beta blocker medication, what would be important to include? A. Instruct them to report a HR lower than 60 beats/min B. Instruct them to report a HR lower than 50 beats/min C. Inform them to take these medications at the first hint of an anginal episode D. Inform them to discontinue the medication after 2 months of no anginal episode.

A. Instruct them to report a HR lower than 60 beats/min

1. What are the adverse effects of associated with Calcium Channel Blockers and Beta Blockers? (Select all that apply) A. Postural hypotension B. Dizziness C. Headache D. Edema

A. Postural hypotension B. Dizziness C. Headache D. Edema

1. Fill in the Blank: Beta blocker help by _______the heart rate __contractility, thereby _____ oxygen demands A. Slowing HR; decreasing contractility; decreasing demands B. Slowing HR; increasing contractility; decreasing demands C. Slowing HR; decreasing contractility; increasing demands D. Increasing HR; decreasing contractility; decreasing demands

A. Slowing HR; decreasing contractility; decreasing demands

The nurse would be correct in identifying which condition as a major complication of atrial fibrillation? A. Stroke B. Myocardial infarction (MI) C. Pulmonary edema D. Pneumonia

A. Stroke

Patients who are taking beta blockers for angina need to be taught which information? A. These drugs are for long-term prevention of angina episodes B. These drugs must be taken as soon as angina pain occurs C. These drugs will be discontinued if dizziness is experienced. D. These drugs need to be carried at all times in case angina occurs

A. These drugs are for long-term prevention of angina episodes

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving amiodarone. Which drug, if added to the patient's current medication regimen, would cause the nurse concern? A. Warfarin B. Ibuprofen C. Lidocaine D. Furosemide

A. Warfarin

1. Which of the following are consequences of Hypertension? a. Heart Disease b. Kidney Disease c. Stroke d. Retinopathy e. All of the Above

ALl of the Above

1. Which of these medication causes short-term asystole? A. Amiodarone B. Adenosine C. Atenzin D. Atropine

Adenosine

1. Which of the following drugs could be used for re-establishing patency of an occluded central IV catheter, due to it's thrombolytic effects? a. Warfarin b. Clopidogrel c. Desmopressin d. Alteplase

Alteplase

1. Which anti-anginal medication do you expect to be prescribed to a patient who suffers from Raynaud's disease? A. Metropolol B. Nitroglycerin C. Amlodipine D. Atenolol

Amlodipine

Which finding in the patient taking lisinopril would be an indication to discontinue the drug immediately and avoid taking it in the future? A. Heart failure B. Angioedema C. Albuminuria D. Cough

B. Angioedema

What is the purpose of antianginal drug therapy? A. To increase myocardial oxygen demand B. To increase blood flow to ischemic cardiac muscles C. To decrease blood flow to ischemic cardiac muscle D. To increase blood flow to peripheral arteries

B. To increase blood flow to ischemic cardiac muscles

1. Verapamil is classified on the Vaughan Williams classification as a class IV drug, which means it works by which mechanism of action? A. Blocking sodium channels and affecting phase 0 B. Prolongs action potential duration C. Blocks slow calcium channels D. Decreases spontaneous depolarization and affects phase 4

Blocks slow calcium channels

Before giving oral digoxin, the nurse discovers that the patient's radial pulse is 52 beats/min when assessed apically for 1 minute. What will be the nurse's next action? A. Give the dose B. Give half of the ordered dose C. Hold the dose and notify the physician D. Delay the dose until later

C. Hold the dose and notify the physician

As part of treatment for early heart failure, a patient is started on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse will monitor the patient's laboratory work for which potential effect? A. Hypoglycemia B. Proteinuria C. Hyperkalemia D. Agranulocytosis

C. Hyperkalemia

1. Class IV antidysrhythmics work via which mechanism? A. Sodium channel blockers B. Beta-adrenergic antagonists C. Potassium channel blockers D. Calcium channel blockers

Calcium channel blockers

Which statement regarding digoxin therapy and potassium levels is correct? A. Digoxin reduces the excretion of potassium in the kidneys B. High potassium levels increase the chance of digoxin toxicity C. Digoxin promotes the excretion of potassium in the kidneys D. Low potassium levels increase the chance of digoxin toxicity

D. Low potassium levels increase the chance of digoxin toxicity

1. Which coagulation modifier drug would be used to treat a patient with Hemophilia? A. Heparin B. Warfarin C. Alteplase D. Desmopressin

Desmopressin

What is an adverse drug event?1.)When administering angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, the nurse keeps in mind that which are possible adverse effects? (Select all that apply.) A. Dry cough B. Tremors C. Diarrhea D. Fatigue E. Restlessness F. Headaches

Dry Cough, Fatigue, Headaches

1. Which adverse effect does all antidysrhythmic drugs have in common? A. Bradycardia B. Dyspnea C. Dysrhythmias D. Tachycardias

Dysrhythmias

1. True or False: A patient on warfarin should incorporate large amounts of greens such as kale, spinach, lettuce, and Brussels sprouts into their diet.

False

1. True or False: Patient on beta blocker therapy can discontinue therapy at any time

False

1. True or false: Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor stimulators (Clonidine) would typically be prescribed first in order to treat hypertension.

False

1. The nurse has just administered the morning dose of a patient's lispro (Humalog) insulin. Just after the injection, the dietary department calls to inform the patient care unit that breakfast trays will be 45 minutes late. What will the nurse do next? a. Inform the patient of the delay. b. Check the patient's blood glucose levels. c. Call the dietary department to send a tray immediately. d. Give the patient food, such as cereal and skim milk, and juice.

Give the patient food, such as cereal and skim milk, and juice.

1. A 75-year-old man fell at home and hit his head against a table. His wife reports to their daughter that he does not have cuts or scratches but there is a small lump on his upper scalp. She does not see any blood. He is taking warfarin and a antidysrhythmic as part of his treatment for chronic atrial fibrillation. What is the main concern at this time. a. Pressure should be applied to the lump for 3-5 minutes b. He will need to take two doses of warfarin tonight to prevent blood clotting c. He needs to be examined for possible internal bleeding from the fall d. As long as there is no bleed, there is no concern

He needs to be examined for possible internal bleeding from the fall

1. Under which conditions might a beta Adrenergic Neuron Blocker like reserpine be indicated? A. First- line for hypertension B. Hypertension with tachycardia resistant to other treatments C. Patient with depressive mood D. Patient with gastrointestinal upset

Hypertension with tachycardia resistant to other treatments

1. Her physician has recommended that she start taking low-dose aspirin therapy as part of her treatment for transient ischemic attacks. What is the concern with taking these two drugs together? a. Increased risk of gastric ulcer b. Decreased action of the aspirin because of the interaction with the ginkgo c. Increased risk of bleeding because of the ginkgo d. Antagonism of the action of the aspirin because of the multivitamins

Increased risk of bleeding because of the ginkgo

1. When converting from IV heparin to oral warfarin (Coumadin) therapy, the prescriber monitors which of the following to determine the next appropriate dose of warfarin? a. Platelet levels b. aPTT c. Red blood cell count d. PT/INR

PT/INR

1. A 50 year old female presents with protruding eyes, enlargement of the thyroid due to Graves disease. Which medication is this patient most likely going to be treated with? a. Allopurinol b. Levothyroxine c. Methylphenidate d. Propylthiouracil

Propylthiouracil

1. Many patients taking an antihypertensive are also prescribed a beta blocker. Why? A. Rebound hypertension B. Reflex tachycardia C. Gastric reflux D. Essential tremor

Reflex tachycardia

A patient who has heart failure will be started on an oral ARB. While monitoring the patient's response to this drug therapy, which laboratory tests would be a priority? (Select all that apply.) A. Platelet count B. Serum potassium level C. Serum magnesium level D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) E. Creatinine level F. White blood cell count

Serum potassium level, Blood Urea Nitrogen, Creatinine Level

1. A patient with DVT is started on a Heparin drip, aPTT was done 4 hours later and the results came out to 90 seconds. Patients baseline aPTT is 30 seconds. What should the nurse do immediately? a. Slow the heparin drip per protocol b. Increase the heparin drip c. Stop the heparin drip and immediately notify the PCP d. Check the IV site for signs of infiltration

Stop the heparin drip and immediately notify the PCP

1. A patient is receiving an IV infusion of heparin and was started on warfarin therapy the night before. Which statement is most correct? a. The patient is receiving a double dose of anticoagulants b. The heparin therapy was ineffective, so warfarin was started c. The heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reached d. The heparin and warfarin work synergistically to provide anticoagulation

The heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reached

1. The nurse is preparing to educate a group of patients on the management of angina. Which drug groups are most often used to treat patients with angina?

The nitrates and nitrites, the beta blockers, and the CCBs are the drugs most often used to treat patients with angina pectoris.

1. A patient with diabetes has a new prescription for the ACE inhibitor Lisinopril. She questions this order because the physician has never told her that she has hypertension. What is the best explanation for this order? a. The doctor knows best b. The patient is confused c. This medication has cardioprotective properties d. This medication has a protective effect on the kidneys for patients with diabetes

This medication has a protective effect on the kidneys for patients with diabetes

The nurse notes in the patient's medication orders that the patient is receiving a lidocaine infusion. Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder? A. Bradycardia B. Complete heart block C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular dysrhythmia

Ventricular dysrhythmia

1. A patient who has been taking warfarin comes into the emergency room after falling and bumping his head. You notice major bruising and swelling. Which of the following drugs should the nurse expect to administer? a. Guaifenesin b. Rivaroxaban c. Vitamin K d. Acetylsalicylic Acid

Vitamin K

1. Which of the following are interventions one can take to reduce hypertension? (select all that apply) a. Eat a whole costco pizza and wash it down with a couple beers after work. b. Go on a daily run or attend A Zumba class c. Smoke a pack of cigarettes a day d. Follow the DASH diet by eating more vegetables, fruits, and whole grains, and limiting saturated fat and salt intake

b. Go on a daily run or attend A Zumba class d. Follow the DASH diet by eating more vegetables, fruits, and whole grains, and limiting saturated fat and salt intake

1. Which of the following statements regarding levothyroxine is incorrect? (select all that apply) a. It should be taken in the morning to avoid sleep disturbances b. It is better tolerated with food c. Cardiac dysrhythmia is an adverse effect d. It is contraindicated in pregnancy

b. It is better tolerated with food d. It is contraindicated in pregnancy

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for dobutamine. The nurse should clarify the prescription with the provider if the client is receiving which of the following types of drugs? a. ACE inhibitor b. MAOI c. General anesthetic d. Tricyclic antidepressant e. Beta blocker

b. MAOI c. General anesthetic e. Beta blocker

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking simvastatin. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following manifestations as an indication of serious adverse reaction that could require discontinuing drug therapy? a. Bronchospasm b. Muscle pain c. Lip numbness d. Somnolence

b. Muscle pain

1. The nurse is obtaining a medication history on a patient presenting with chest pain. What drug classification would necessitate the nurse informing the provider before beginning the prescribed nitroglycerin? a. Proton pump inhibitor b. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (erectile dysfunction medications) c. Inhaled beta blocker d. Aspirin

b. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (erectile dysfunction medications)

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking spironolactone to treat hypertension. The nurse should recognize that which of the following client lab values requires immediate intervention? a. Sodium 140 mEq/L b. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L c. Chloride 100 mEq/L d. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L

b. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L

A nurse should identify that which of the following drugs is used only for the short-term treatment of a cardiac dysrhythmias because of the serious adverse effects associated with long-term use? a. Quinidine b. Procainamide c. Nitroglycerin d. Verapamil

b. Procainamide

1. A patient is receiving oral quinidine. Which assessment finding is of most concern? a. Nausea b. Prolonged QT interval c. Diarrhea d. Occasional palpitations

b. Prolonged QT interval

1. A patient asks how to apply transdermal nitroglycerin. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Always apply the transdermal patch over the area of your chest where your heart is." b. "Keep the previous patch on for 1 full day so you always have two patches on at a time." c. "Apply the patch to hairless areas of the body." d. "First apply petroleum jelly to your body; then apply the transdermal patch."

c. "Apply the patch to hairless areas of the body."

1. What information will the nurse include when teaching the patients about taking beta-blocking drugs for the treatment of angina? a. "Call your health care provider if you heart rate is 64 beats/min." b. "These drugs are safe to use in patients who have asthma." c. "Call your health care provider if you experience a weight gain of 2 lb or more in 24 hours or 5 lb or more in 1 week." d. "Avoid taking these medications with grapefruit juice."

c. "Call your health care provider if you experience a weight gain of 2 lb or more in 24 hours or 5 lb or more in 1 week."

A nurse is caring for a client who will begin using transdermal nitroglycerin to treat angina pectoris. When speaking to the client about the drug, which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. Apply a new patch at the onset of anginal pain b. Apply the patch to dry skin and cover area with plastic wrap c. Apply the patch to a hairless area and rotate sites d. Apply a new patch when you start your day e. Remove patches for 10-12 hours each day

c. Apply the patch to a hairless area and rotate sites d. Apply a new patch when you start your day e. Remove patches for 10-12 hours each day

1. After the 0700 report, the day shift nurse notices that a patient has a 0730 dose of insulin due and goes to the automated dispensing machine to retrieve the insulin. The nurse sees that the night shift nurse had removed the 0730 dose of insulin, but the medication administration record has not been signed by the nurse. The patient is confused and says she "thinks" the night nurse gave her the insulin. The patient's blood glucose level is 142 mg/dL. What will the day shift nurse do? a. Give the insulin because it was not signed off. b. Hold the insulin because the patient thinks she received it, and it is recorded in the machine. c. Ask the charge nurse to call the night nurse at home to clarify whether the insulin was given. d. Report this to the nursing supervisor.

c. Ask the charge nurse to call the night nurse at home to clarify whether the insulin was given.

A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin taking epoetin. An increase in which of the following laboratory values should indicate to the nurse that the therapy is effective a. PT b. WBC c. HgB d. Platelets

c. HgB

1. The patient was taking metformin before this hospitalization. To facilitate better glucose control, the patient has been switched to insulin therapy while hospitalized. The patient asks the nurse why it is so important to time meals with the insulin injection and to give him an example of a long-acting insulin. Which drug will the nurse tell the patient is a long-acting insulin? a. Insulin glulisine b. Insulin isophane suspension (NPH) c. Insulin detemir d. Regular insulin

c. Insulin detemir

1. A patient with a history of HF presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing, cough, and edema of the lower extremities. The nurse anticipates administration of which type of medication? a. Positive chronotrope b. Negative chronotrope c. Positive inotrope d. Negative inotrope

c. Positive inotrope

1. The nurse enters the patient's room to complete the discharge process and finds the patient to be lying in bed unresponsive and breathing. The patient has a blood glucose reading of 48 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. Place a packet of table sugar in the patient's mouth. b. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Roll the patient to the side and administer the ordered glucagon. d. Have the patient drink orange juice.

c. Roll the patient to the side and administer the ordered glucagon.

A nurse caring for a client who has a new prescription for verapamil. The nurse should clarify the prescription with the provider if the client has a history of which of the following conditions? a. Migraine headaches b. Pancreatitis c. Second-degree AV block d. Angina pectoris

c. Second-degree AV block

1. A patient is receiving digoxin 0.25 mg/day as part of treatment for HF. The nurse assesses the patient before medication administration. Which assessment finding would be of most concern? a. Apical heart rate of 58 beats/min b. Ankle edema +1 bilaterally c. Serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L d. Serum digoxin level of 0.8 ng/mL

c. Serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L

1. A woman who has type 2 DM is now pregnant. She wants to know whether to take her oral antidiabetic medication. What instructions will she receive? a. She should continue the antidiabetic medication at the same dosage. b. The antidiabetic medication dosage will be increased gradually throughout her pregnancy. c. She will be switched to insulin therapy while she is pregnant. d. She will not receive any antidiabetic medication while pregnant and will need to monitor her dietary intake closely.

c. She will be switched to insulin therapy while she is pregnant.

1. A patient who has had an MI is taking a beta blocker. What is the main benefit of beta blocker therapy for this patient? a. Vasodilation of the coronary arteries b. Increased force of cardiac contraction c. Slowing of the heart rate d. Maintaining adequate BP

c. Slowing of the heart rate

1. A patient has been taking levothyroxine for 6 months. After this month's laboratory work, the nurse practitioner tells the nurse that the patient is "euthyroid." What does that term mean? a. The patient is experiencing hyperthyroidism. b. The patient is experiencing hypothyroidism. c. The patient's thyroid hormone levels are within normal limits. d. The patient's thyroid hormone levels are still fluctuating.

c. The patient's thyroid hormone levels are within normal limits.

1. A patient is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. What primary mechanism of ACE inhibitors will the nurse understand as the therapeutic action? a. To inhibit catecholamine release b. To inhibit acetylcholine release c. To inhibit aldosterone secretion d. To prevent vagal stimulation

c. To inhibit aldosterone secretion

1. The patient is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. What primary mechanism of ACE inhibitors will the nurse understand as the therapeutic action? a. To inhibit catecholamine release b. To inhibit acetylcholine release c. To inhibit aldosterone secretion d. To prevent vagal stimulation

c. To inhibit aldosterone secretion

1. A male patient who has a history of type 2 DM is admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia. The patient has many questions regarding his care and asks the nurse why everyone keeps telling him about HbA1C. What can the nurse inform the patient about the use of HbA1C in diabetes mellitus? a. Helps to identify which type of DM the patient has b. Will identify if he has an infection c. Will aid in monitoring patient adherence to treatment regimen for several months previously d. Represents current fasting blood glucose level

c. Will aid in monitoring patient adherence to treatment regimen for several months previously

1. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient about thyroid replacement therapy? a. "Take the medication before bed." b. "You will experience beneficial effects of the drug after 1 week of treatment." c. "Stop taking the drug if you experience insomnia." d. "Take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach."

d. "Take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach."

1. A patient has received an IV dose of adenosine, and almost immediately the heart monitor shows asystole. What should the nurse do next? a. Check the patient's pulse. b. Prepare to administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation. c. Set up for defibrillation. d. Continue to monitor the patient.

d. Continue to monitor the patient.

1. A patient is in the emergency department with new-onset atrial fibrillation. Which order for digoxin would most likely have the fastest therapeutic effect? a. Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily b. Digoxin 1 mg PO now; then 0.25 mg PO daily c. Digoxin 0.5 mg IV push daily d. Digoxin 1 mg IV push now; then 0.25 mg IV daily Rational: A digitalizing dose is often used to quickly bring

d. Digoxin 1 mg IV push now; then 0.25 mg IV daily

1. The patient is being discharged home with insulin lispro and insulin isophane suspension (NPH). Which information does the nurse include when providing discharge teaching to the patient? a. Store the insulins in the refrigerator. b. Shake the insulins for 1 full minute before use. c. Administer the injection at a 30-degree angle to your skin. d. Draw up the insulin lispro first and then draw up the NPH into the same syringe.

d. Draw up the insulin lispro first and then draw up the NPH into the same syringe.

1. A patient with extremely high blood pressure (BP) is in the emergency department. The physician will order therapy with nitroglycerin to manage the patient's BP. Which form of nitroglycerin is most appropriate? a. Sublingual spray b. Transdermal patch c. Oral capsule d. IV infusion

d. IV infusion

1. Which would be the best menu choice for a patient who is taking an antithyroid medication? a. A seafood platter b. Sushi c. Tofu burger d. Pasta with marinara sauce

d. Pasta with marinara sauce

1. A patient with type 1 DM is admitted to the medical unit with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He is placed on IV piggyback antibiotics, nebulizer treatments with albuterol, and an IV corticosteroid, and he is also taking a proton pump inhibitor for gastroesophageal reflux disease. He takes a dose of glargine insulin every evening. This evening the nurse notes that his blood glucose level is 170 mg/dL. The next morning, his fasting glucose level is 202 mg/dL. What is the most likely cause of his elevated glucose levels? a. The albuterol b. The antibiotics c. The proton pump inhibitor d. The corticosteroid

d. The corticosteroid

A nurse is caring for a client who has a GFR of 10mL/min and a reduced urine output. The nurse should clarify a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide for this client because of which of the following characteristics of the drug? a. The drug can cause hypoglycemia in clients who have a low urine output b. The drug does not reduce blood pressure for clients who have a low urine output c. The drug can increase the risk of pulmonary edema for clients who have renal deficiency d. The drug does not promote diuresis for clients who have renal insufficiency

d. The drug does not promote diuresis for clients who have renal insufficiency

1. The patient accidentally takes too much of the prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) and is readmitted to the hospital with bleeding. Which drug can the nurse anticipates administrating? a. Protamine sulfate b. Alteplase (Activase, Cathflo Activase) c. Reteplase (Retavase) d. Vitamin K

d. Vitamin K

1. Which of the following patients should the use of thrombolytics be avoided? (Select all that apply) a. A patient with an aneurysm b. A patient with uncontrolled hypertension c. A patient who had surgery in the past two weeks d. A patient with an arteriovenous malformation e. A patient with peptic ulcer disease f. All of the Above

f. All of the Above

1. TRUE OR FALSE: ADULTS 60 YEARS AND OLDER ARE CONSIDERED HYPERTENSIVE AT 140(SBP)/90 (DBP).

false

1. a hypertension diagnosis should be based on a single Blood pressure reading. a. tRUE b. fALSE

false

1. Nursing considerations for conversion of IV heparin to oral warfarin (Coumadin) therapy will include a. immediate discontinuation of IV heparin and administration of oral warfarin (Coumadin) therapy only. b. overlapping therapy of IV heparin and warfarin are for at least 5 days. c. monitoring the INR and stopping the IV heparin when the INR is 1.0.

overlapping therapy of IV heparin and warfarin are for at least 5 days.