Pharm exam 5 evolve
The nurse identifies which statements about penicillins as true? (Select all that apply.) A. Penicillins are the safest antibiotics available. B. The principal adverse effect of penicillins is allergic reaction. C. A patient who is allergic to penicillin always has a cross-allergy to cephalosporins. D. A patient who is allergic to penicillin is also allergic to vancomycin, erythromycin, and clindamycin. E. Penicillins are normally eliminated rapidly by the kidneys but can accumulate to harmful levels if renal function is severely impaired.
A, B, E
A patient is receiving penicillin G [Bicillin C-R]. Which assessment should the nurse monitor as an indicator of an undesired effect? A. Cardiac rhythm B. Serum sodium level C. Lung sounds D. Red blood cell (RBC) count
A. Cardiac rhythm
A patient develops flushing, rash, and pruritus during an IV infusion of vancomycin [Vancocin]. Which action should a nurse take? A. Reduce the infusion rate. C. Administer diphenhydramine [Benadryl]. C. Change the IV tubing. D. Check the patency of the IV.
A. Reduce the infusion rate.
Which are examples of the improper use of antibiotic therapy? (Select all that apply.) A. Using surgical drainage as an adjunct to antibiotic therapy B. Treating a viral infection C. Basing treatment on sensitivity reports D. Treating fever in an immunodeficient patient E. Using dosing that results in a superinfection
B, E
A nurse is administering a daily dose of tobramycin at 1000. At which time should the nurse obtain the patient's blood sample to determine the trough level? A. 8:00 AM B. 9:00 AM C. 11:30 AM D. 12:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM
A patient who has acute cystitis is receiving treatment with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. Which manifestation should indicate to a nurse that the patient's condition is worsening? A. Incontinence B. Flank pain C. 3+ pedal edema D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
B. Flank pain
Which cardiovascular finding does the nurse identify as a possible adverse effect of erythromycin [Ery-Tab] therapy? A. Heart rate of 52 beats/min B. Prolonged QT interval C. Jugular vein distention D. Grade III diastolic murmur
B. Prolonged QT interval
It is most important for the nurse to assess a patient taking itraconazole [Sporanox] for the development of what? A. Hair loss B. Skin rash C. Pedal edema D. Joint pain
C. Pedal edema
The nurse is aware that acute cystitis occurs most often in which patient population? A. Older-adult male patients B. Children younger than 12 years C. Women of child-bearing age D. Women older than 50 years
C. Women of child-bearing age
A nurse assessing a patient who is 12 years old should associate which complication with the patient's receiving tetracycline as a younger child? A. Delay in long bone growth B. Early onset of puberty C. Severe face and body acne D. Discoloration of the teeth
D. Discoloration of the teeth
Which test is the most widely used method for assessing drug sensitivity? A. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) B. Minimum bacterial concentration (MBC) C. Broth dilution D. Disk diffusion
D. Disk diffusion
The nurse identifies appropriate use of antimicrobials to prevent infection in which situations? (Select all that apply.) A. Cardiac surgery B. Recurrent urinary tract infections in women C. Anemia D. Treatment of fever of unknown origin E. Hysterectomy
A, B, E
Which instructions will the nurse include when teaching a patient about cephalosporin therapy? (Select all that apply.) A. "Notify your healthcare provider if you develop diarrhea." B. "Take aspirin if you develop a headache." C. "Notify your healthcare provider if you develop a rash." D. "Cephalosporins may not be taken with food." E. "Do not take cephalosporins if you have lactose intolerance."
A, C
The nurse identifies rifampin as useful in the treatment of which disorders? (Select all that apply.) A. Tuberculosis B. Active meningococcal infection C. Leprosy D. Prophylaxis of meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae E. C. difficile infection
A, C, D
Which outcomes should a nurse establish when planning care for a patient taking methenamine [Mandelamine]? (Select all that apply.) A. Maintains a urine pH of 5.5 or lower. B. Consumes 3000 mL of liquid daily. C. Uses an enteric-coated formulation. D. Avoids sulfonamide medications. E. No elevation in liver enzymes.
A, C, D
The nurse identifies which statements about frequent urinary tract reinfections as true? (Select all that apply.) A. Reinfections are considered frequent if the individual has three or more a year. B. Prophylactic therapy should continue for at least 2 months. C. If reinfection is associated with sexual intercourse, the risk can be reduced by instructing the patient to void after intercourse. D. Single-dose nitrofurantoin 50 mg taken 1 hour before intercourse has been found to reduce the rate of reinfection. E. If a symptomatic episode occurs, the standard therapy for acute cystitis should be used.
A, C, E
A nurse is administering an oral dose of itraconazole [Sporanox] to a patient at 10:00 AM. The nurse should administer a prescribed dose of famotidine [Pepcid] at which time? A. 9:00 AM B. 10:00 AM C. 10:30 AM D. 11:00 AM
A. 9:00 AM
A patient is receiving local applications of mafenide [Sulfamylon] to burn areas. Before application, it is most important for the nurse to do what? A. Administer a pain medication. B. Obtain a set of vital signs. C. Auscultate the lung fields. D. Obtain a signed consent form.
A. Administer a pain medication.
Both IV ampicillin/sulbactam [Unasyn] and gentamicin are ordered for a patient. When administering these medications, the nurse will do what? A. Ensure that separate IV solutions are used. B. Use two different peripheral IV sites. C. Administer the gentamicin first. D. There are no necessary precautions.
A. Ensure that separate IV solutions are used.
The nurse is working with a patient who has a UTI. Because patient adherence to a medication regimen is a concern, the nurse anticipates use of which medication? A. Fosfomycin B. Amoxicillin C. Cephalexin D. Trimethoprim
A. Fosfomycin
Which approach should a nurse take when administering an oral dose of levofloxacin [Levaquin]? A. Give the medication with or without food. B. Administer the drug with an oral dose of a magnesium-based antacid. C. Premedicate the patient with diphenhydramine [Benadryl]. D. Administer the drug with milk products.
A. Give the medication with or without food.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA). When taking the patient's history, a nurse recognizes which information as the most important? A. Plays a contact sport and is an athlete B. Currently resides in a long-term care facility C. Did not complete the last course of antibiotics D. Had gallbladder surgery in the previous month
A. Plays a contact sport and is an athlete
When ceftriaxone is administered intravenously, it is most important for the nurse to avoid mixing it with what? A. Ringer's lactate B. Normal saline C. Sterile water D. D5 0.45% NS
A. Ringer's lactate
A nurse should teach a patient to observe for which side effects when taking ampicillin? A. Skin rash and loose stools B. Reddened tongue and gums C. Digit numbness and tingling D. Bruising and petechiae
A. Skin rash and loose stools
A patient is receiving an aminoglycoside (tobramycin) antibiotic. A nurse asks the patient to choose daily meal selections, to which the patient responds, "Oh, dear, I don't want another IV." The nurse makes which assessment about the patient's response? A. Some hearing loss may have occurred. B. The confusion is due to the hospital stay. C. A nutrition consult most likely is needed. D. The patient has a family history of dementia.
A. Some hearing loss may have occurred.
The nurse identifies which drug as a short-acting tetracycline? A. Tetracycline (generic) B. Declomycin C. Vibramycin D. Minocin
A. Tetracycline (generic)
After completing a course of ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a skin infection, the patient says, "I took the whole bottle of pills, but my infection hasn't gotten any better." Which additional information should the nurse recognize as most significant? A. The patient takes antacids on a daily basis. B. The medication was stored in a cool, dry area. C. The patient did not use sunscreen while taking the ciprofloxacin [Cipro]. D. The patient took two doses of diphenhydramine [Benadryl] while on ciprofloxacin [Cipro] therapy.
A. The patient takes antacids on a daily basis.
A patient who has a vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) infection is receiving linezolid [Zyvox]. Which laboratory result indicates that the patient is having an adverse effect? A. White blood cell (WBC) count of 1200 units/L B. Hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 18 g/dL C. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/dL D. Glucose level of 200 mg/dL
A. White blood cell (WBC) count of 1200 units/L
A nurse is assessing the effects of antimicrobial therapy in a patient with pneumonia. The nurse should establish which outcomes when planning care? (Select all that apply.) A. Potassium level of 4 mEq/dL B. Reduction of fever C. Sterile sputum cultures D. Oxygen saturation of 98% E. Elastic skin turgor
B, C, D
When performing a skin test for penicillin allergy, the nurse will do what? (Select all that apply.) A. Inject a tiny amount of the allergen subcutaneously. B. Observe for a local allergic response. C. Have epinephrine readily available. D. Have respiratory support readily available. E. Administer diphenhydramine [Benadryl] as the first-line agent should anaphylaxis occur
B, C, D
A nurse assesses the history of a patient who has had multiple complicated UTIs for which risk factors? (Select all that apply.) A. Female gender, child-bearing age B. Indwelling catheter C. Prostate hypertrophy D. Fair skin tone E. Urinary tract stones
B, C, E
Which statements about CDAD associated with clindamycin therapy does the nurse identify as true? (Select all that apply.) A. Leukopenia commonly occurs. B. It is a potentially fatal condition. C. Patients usually experience abdominal pain. D. Anticholinergics are effective in treating the diarrhea. E. Clindamycin therapy should be discontinued and vancomycin started.
B, C, E
Which instruction should a nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient who is to start taking tetracycline? A. "You may stop taking the pills when you begin to feel better." B. "Use sunscreen and protective clothing when outdoors." C. "You'll have to come back to the clinic for a weekly blood work." D. "Take the medication with yogurt or milk so you won't have nausea."
B. "Use sunscreen and protective clothing when outdoors."
When caring for a patient receiving mafenide [Sulfamylon] for treatment of a severe burn, it is most important for the nurse to monitor which laboratory value? A. Blood glucose level B. Acid-base status C. Sodium level D. Peak mafenide level
B. Acid-base status
When administering an aminoglycoside to a patient with myasthenia gravis, it is most important for the nurse to assess what? A. Deep tendon reflexes B. Breath sounds C. Eyelid movement D. Muscle strength
B. Breath sounds
The nurse identifies which host factor as the most important when choosing an antimicrobial drug? A. Age B. Competent immune function C. Genetic heritage D. Previous medication reactions
B. Competent immune function
A nurse planning care for a patient who is receiving nystatin [Mycostatin] should establish which outcome on the care plan? A. Relief of nasal congestion B. Decrease in mouth pain C. Productive cough D. Absence of urticaria
B. Decrease in mouth pain
A patient is taking nitrofurantoin [Macrodantin]. Which finding should a nurse recognize as an indication that the treatment is having an undesired effect? A. Hyperpigmentation of the palms B. Dyspnea with chills C. Gum irritation with bleeding D. Scalp tenderness and thinning hair
B. Dyspnea with chills
Most cases (more than 80%) of uncomplicated, community-acquired urinary tract infection (UTI) are caused by which bacteria? A. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. Escherichia coli C. Enterobacter spp. D. Pseudomonas spp.
B. Escherichia coli
What does the nurse identify as an adverse effect of clindamycin [Cleocin] therapy? A. Cyanosis and gray discoloration of the skin. B. Frequent loose, watery stools with mucus and blood. C. Reduction in all blood cells produced in the bone marrow. D. Elevated bilirubin, with dark urine and jaundice.
B. Frequent loose, watery stools with mucus and blood.
A patient who takes multiple antibiotics starts to experience diarrheal stools. The nurse anticipates administration of which antibiotic if a stool sample tests positive for Clostridium difficile? A. Rifaximin [Xifaxan] B. Metronidazole [Flagyl] C. Daptomycin [Cubicin] D. Gemifloxacin [Factive]
B. Metronidazole [Flagyl]
A patient is taking daptomycin [Cubicin]. The nurse should obtain a creatine phosphokinase (CPK) level when the patient shows what? A. Increased urination and urinary urgency B. Muscle pain and weakness C. Abdominal bloating and diarrhea D. Headache and visual disturbances
B. Muscle pain and weakness
A patient taking a sulfonamide is breast-feeding an infant. Which complication in the infant would the nurse associate with kernicterus? A. Hemolytic anemia B. Neurologic deficits C. Hepatocellular failure D. Ophthalmic infection
B. Neurologic deficits
What is the minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)? A. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic needed to suppress bacterial growth completely B. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic needed to reduce the number of bacterial colonies by 99.9% C. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic needed to produce effects D. The lowest dose of an antibiotic needed to eradicate bacteria
B. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic needed to reduce the number of bacterial colonies by 99.9%
The nurse knows that there is an increased risk of ototoxicity in a patient receiving an aminoglycoside if which level is high? A. Concentration B. Trough C. Peak D. Dose
B. Trough
A patient is scheduled to receive intravenous amphotericin B. Which medication should a nurse administer as pretreatment before the infusion? A. 10 units of regular insulin intravenously B. 20 mg famotidine [Pepcid] in 50 mL of 5% dextrose C. 50 mg of diphenhydramine [Benadryl] and 650 mg of acetaminophen D. 1 g of calcium gluconate in 100 mL of normal saline
C. 50 mg of diphenhydramine [Benadryl] and 650 mg of acetaminophen
An antimicrobial medication that has selective toxicity has which characteristic? A. Ability to transfer DNA coding B. Ability to suppress bacterial resistance C. Ability to avoid injuring host cells D. Ability to act against a specific microbe
C. Ability to avoid injuring host cells
The nurse notices tan lines around the arms of a female patient who is taking levofloxacin [Levaquin]. Which action should the nurse take? A. No action is needed, because this is a temporary but expected side effect. B. Continue the antibiotic with an anti-inflammatory medication. C. Advise the patient to avoid sun exposure and wear sun screen when outside. D. Discontinue the medication.
C. Advise the patient to avoid sun exposure and wear sun screen when outside.
When providing patient teaching for oral sulfonamide therapy, the nurse should instruct the patient to take the sulfonamide in what way? A. At mealtime, when food is available B. With soy or nonmilk products C. Between meals with a full cup of water D. On awakening before breakfast
C. Between meals with a full cup of water
The nurse identifies which medication as posing a significant risk of causing confusion, somnolence, psychosis, and visual disturbances in elderly patients? A. Metronidazole [Flagyl] B. Rifampin [Rifadin] C. Ciprofloxacin [Cipro] D. Daptomycin [Cubicin]
C. Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]
A patient who is receiving ceftriaxone has all of these medications ordered. The nurse monitors the patient for an adverse effect related to an interaction with which medication? A. Regular insulin B. Ampicillin [Polycillin] C. Naproxen [Naprosyn] D. Bisacodyl [Dulcolax]
C. Naproxen [Naprosyn]
Before administering a cephalosporin to a patient, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for an allergy history to what? A. Soy products B. Peanuts C. Penicillins D. Opioids
C. Penicillins
A nurse observes a red streak and palpates the vein as hard and cordlike at the intravenous (IV) site of a patient receiving cefepime [Maxipime]. Which assessment should the nurse make about the IV site? A. An allergic reaction has developed to the drug solution. B. The drug has infiltrated the extravascular tissues. C. Phlebitis of the vein used for the antibiotic has developed. D. Local infection from bacterial contamination has occurred.
C. Phlebitis of the vein used for the antibiotic has developed.
A nurse removes a central line access device once the patient no longer requires intravenous (IV) antibiotics. This action is an example of which strategy to prevent antimicrobial resistance established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)? A. Preventing transmission B. Proper diagnosis C. Preventing infection D. Prudent antibiotic use
C. Preventing infection
A patient is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin]. The nurse identifies what as the most common toxic effect of vancomycin therapy? A. Ototoxicity B. Hepatotoxicity C. Renal toxicity D. Cardiac toxicity
C. Renal toxicity
A patient who has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is receiving trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]. Which response should a nurse expect if the medication is achieving the desired effect? A. Increase in CD4 T cells B. Increased appetite and weight gain C. Resolution of pneumonia D. Decrease in joint pain
C. Resolution of pneumonia
The nurse identifies tigecycline [Tygacil] as a derivative of what? A. Penicillins B. Cephalosporins C. Tetracyclines D. Macrolides
C. Tetracyclines
An immunocompromised patient who is receiving piperacillin/tazobactam [Zosyn] develops oozing and bleeding from the gums. Which additional data should the nurse determine? A. Whether the patient has a fever above 100.5°F B. Whether the patient reports any painful teeth C. The most recent platelet count D. The last time mouth care was given
C. The most recent platelet count
A nurse is teaching a patient who is scheduled to start taking itraconazole [Sporanox]. Which statement by the patient would indicate understanding of the teaching? A. "I'll take diphenhydramine [Benadryl] before this medication so I don't have a reaction." B. "It's important to remember to wear sunscreen while taking this medicine." C. "I'll avoid citrus foods, such as oranges and grapefruits, while taking this medication." D. "If I notice my skin turning yellow or feel any nausea, I'll notify my healthcare provider."
D. "If I notice my skin turning yellow or feel any nausea, I'll notify my healthcare provider."
A patient who is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin] IV for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection asks a nurse, "Why can't I take this medicine in a pill?" Which response should the nurse make? A. "The prescription could be changed, because vancomycin comes in two forms." B. "You're allergic to penicillin, and this is the only way this medication can be given." C. "It will cause too much loss of appetite and nausea if given in the oral form." D. "It is more effective by IV, because the pill form will stay in the digestive tract."
D. "It is more effective by IV, because the pill form will stay in the digestive tract."
Thirty minutes after receiving an intramuscular (IM) injection of penicillin G [Pfizerpen], a patient reports itching and redness at the injection site. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Elevate the lower legs. B. Place an ice pack on the site. C. Make sure the patient stays calm. D. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine.
D. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine.
A patient is to begin taking nitrofurantoin [Macrodantin]. The nurse should teach the patient that which manifestation should be the priority to report to the healthcare provider? A. Headache and drowsiness B. Brown-colored urine C. Nausea and vomiting D. Muscle weakness and tingling
D. Muscle weakness and tingling
Which enteral aminoglycoside would the nurse expect to be ordered preoperatively for a patient having intestinal surgery? A. Gentamicin B. Tobramycin C. Amikacin D. Neomycin
D. Neomycin
With the exception of pyelonephritis, the nurse is aware that most urinary tract infections are treated by which method? A. IV antibiotics at the hospital B. IV antibiotics in the urgent care setting C. IM antibiotics at the primary physician's office D. Oral antibiotics in the home setting
D. Oral antibiotics in the home setting
A patient is receiving amphotericin B. The nurse identifies which medication as useful in preventing adverse effects of amphotericin B? A. Furosemide [Lasix] B. Insulin C. Vitamin K D. Potassium
D. Potassium
A patient who is receiving an aminoglycoside (gentamicin) has a urinalysis result with all of these findings. Which finding should a nurse associate most clearly with an adverse effect of gentamicin? A. White blood cells (WBCs) B. Glucose C. Ketones D. Protein
D. Protein
A nurse should recognize that which sulfonamide, applied topically, has the greatest therapeutic benefit for burns? A. Sulfadiazine B. Trimethoprim [Primsol] C. Sulfacetamide [Bleph-10] D. Silver sulfadiazine [Silvadene]
D. Silver sulfadiazine [Silvadene]
A microbe acquires antibiotic resistance by which means? A. Development of medication resistance in the host B. Overriding of the minimum bactericidal concentration C. Incorrect dosing, which contributes to ribosome mutations D. Transfer of DNA coding to other bacteria
D. Transfer of DNA coding to other bacteria
The nurse should include which instructions when teaching a patient about tigecycline therapy? (Select all that apply.) A. "Use sunscreen when you are outside." B. "If you have diarrhea more than five times a day, notify your healthcare provider." C. "Avoid using this drug if you are pregnant." D. "Stop taking the drug if you experience nausea." E. "Stop taking the drug if you experience vomiting."
A, B, C
Before administering an aminoglycoside, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Asthma C. Hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus
A. Myasthenia gravis
A patient has acquired an infection while in the hospital. The nurse identifies this type of infection as what? A. Superinfection B. Suprainfection C. Nosocomial infection D. Resistant infection
C. Nosocomial infection
The nurse identifies terbinafine [Lamisil] as useful for treating which conditions? (Select all that apply.) A. Onychomycosis B. Tinea corporis C. Oropharyngeal candidiasis D. Vulvovaginal candidiasis E. Tinea pedis
A, B, E
The healthcare provider orders levofloxacin [Levaquin] 500 mg PO every day for 7 days. The available medication is levofloxacin 250-mg tablets. How many tablets should the patient take each day? A. 0.5 tablet B. 1 tablet C. 1.5 tablets D. 2 tablets
D. 2 tablets
It is most important for the nurse to assess a patient receiving a cephalosporin for the development of which manifestation of antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis (AAPMC)? A. Rigidity B. Ileus C. Ascites D. Diarrhea
D. Diarrhea
Before administering trimethoprim, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? A. Heart failure B. Alcoholism C. Diabetes D. Emphysema
B. Alcoholism
Before administering intravenous (IV) penicillin, the nurse should do what? A. Flush the IV site with normal saline. B. Assess the patient for allergies. C. Review the patient's intake and output record. D. Determine the latest creatinine clearance result.
B. Assess the patient for allergies.
The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a sulfonamide for treatment of a urinary tract infection. To monitor the patient for the most severe response to sulfonamide therapy, the nurse will assess for what? A. Diarrhea B. Skin rash and lesions C. Hypertension D. Bleeding
B. Skin rash and lesions
The development of a new infection as a result of the elimination of normal flora by an antibiotic is referred to as what? A. Resistant infection B. Superinfection C. Nosocomial infection D. Allergic reaction
B. Superinfection
A nurse monitors a patient who is receiving an aminoglycoside (gentamicin) for symptoms of vestibular damage. Which finding should the nurse expect the patient to have first? A. Unsteadiness B. Vertigo C. Headache D. Dizziness
C. Headache
A patient who is receiving an aminoglycoside develops flaccid paralysis and impaired breathing. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering? A. Magnesium sulfate [Epsom salt] B. Potassium chloride [K-Dur] C. Sodium bicarbonate [Citrocarbonate] D. Calcium gluconate [Kalcinate]
D. Calcium gluconate [Kalcinate]
A patient taking gemifloxacin develops a rash. The nurse anticipates the healthcare provider to take which action? A. No action is needed, because this is a temporary but expected side effect. B. Continue the antibiotic with an anti-inflammatory medication. C. Cut the dose of medication in half. D. Discontinue the medication.
D. Discontinue the medication.
Which statements about vancomycin [Vancocin] does the nurse identify as true? (Select all that apply.) A. Vancomycin is the most widely used antibiotic in U.S. hospitals. B. Vancomycin is effective in the treatment of Clostridium difficile infection. C. Vancomycin is effective in the treatment of MRSA infections. D. Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also allergic to vancomycin. E. The major toxicity of vancomycin therapy is liver failure.
A, B, C
The nurse identifies which statements about Stevens-Johnson syndrome as true? (Select all that apply.) A. Patients with Stevens-Johnson syndrome have a mortality rate of about 25%. B. Toxemia is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome. C. Short-acting sulfonamides do not induce Stevens-Johnson syndrome. D. Patients with Stevens-Johnson syndrome usually are hypothermic. E. Lesions of the mucous membranes are a characteristic of Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
A, B, E
Which medications does the nurse identify as having antibacterial properties? (Select all that apply.) A. Rifampin B. Zidovudine C. Imipenem D. Amphotericin B E. Amantadine
A, C
A nurse should recognize that antibiotic prophylaxis is appropriate in patients with which medical conditions? (Select all that apply.) A. Aortic valve replacement B. Ruptured appendix C. Bronchitis D. Neutropenia E. Chickenpox
A, D
Which manifestations does the nurse associate with the development of hemolytic anemia? (Select all that apply.) A. Urticaria B. Fever C. Pallor D. Jaundice E. Diarrhea
B, C, D
Which instructions should a nurse provide to a patient who is to start taking amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]? A. "Take Augmentin once per day and only at bedtime." B. "Augmentin may be taken with food or meals." C. "Avoid taking Augmentin with grapefruit juice." D. "Use a minimal amount of liquid to swallow the Augmentin."
B. "Augmentin may be taken with food or meals."
Which statements about ototoxicity and aminoglycosides does the nurse identify as true? (Select all that apply.) A. The risk of ototoxicity is related primarily to excessive peak levels. B. The first sign of impending cochlear damage is headache. C. The first sign of impending vestibular damage is headache. D. Ototoxicity is largely irreversible. E. Use of aminoglycosides for less than 10 days is recommended to avoid ototoxicity.
C, D, E
When providing teaching for a patient starting flucytosine [Ancobon] therapy, the nurse identifies what as the priority concern? A. "You will have weekly blood draws to monitor your liver function." B. "Another very strong medication may be needed in addition to this one." C. "You'll need to report any symptoms of bruising, fever, and fatigue." D. "The dose is 10 pills, so take a few at a time over a 15-minute interval."
C. "You'll need to report any symptoms of bruising, fever, and fatigue."
A patient who takes ciprofloxacin [Cipro] and runs 6 miles daily tells a nurse about heel and calf tenderness. The nurse anticipates the healthcare provider to take which action? A. No action is needed, because this is a temporary but expected side effect. B. Continue the antibiotic with an anti-inflammatory medication. C. Slow the running pace and walk more. D. Discontinue the medication, because severe damage can result.
D. Discontinue the medication, because severe damage can result.
Which antifungal agent is used as a one-time oral dose to treat vaginal yeast infections? A. Nystatin [Mycostatin] B. Caspofungin [Cancidas] C. Voriconazole [Vfend] D. Fluconazole [Diflucan]
D. Fluconazole [Diflucan]
Which laboratory result should a nurse monitor more frequently when a patient is receiving clarithromycin [Biaxin] and warfarin [Coumadin]? A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) B. Platelet count C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) D. International normalized ratio (INR)
D. International normalized ratio (INR)