Pharma Entrance Exam Questions
10-20% of sulfonamides are excreted in the urine in an active form? True False
False
A higher therapeutic index means that the drug can easily be overdosed? True False
False
A typical side effect of glucocorticoid therapy is loss of appetite? True False
False
ACE inhibitors act very rapidly and intravenous application is recommended in life-threatening conditions? True False
False
Amantadine and rimantadine inhibit the release of virus? True False
False
Anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoids can only be achieved with high doses? True False
False
Antibiotic resistance genes encoded on chromosomes have a bigger impact on the spread of resistance compared to genes on plasmids? True False
False
Application of xylazine is contraindicated in cats? True False
False
Approx. 50% of hypotonic crystalloid infusions is distributed in the IS fluid compartment? True False
False
Approx. 70-80% of isotonic crystalloid infusions is distributed in the IV fluid compartment? True False
False
As the generations of cephalosporins increase, their effectiveness against gram-negative bacteria decreases? True False
False
Azaperone is a neuroleptic agent that can only be used in dogs? True False
False
Azithromycin can only penetrate the airways and bone in very small amounts, so it is suitable for the treatment of infections of these organs? True False
False
Barbiturates do not have a muscle relaxant effect? True False
False
Because of its high protein binding, carprofen can cross the blood-milk barrier in dairy cattle? True False
False
Biofilms can be formed only in inanimate objects? True False
False
Capsules and tablets are generally used in farm animals due to their large size, the use of powders is more common in small animal practice? a. True b False
False
Change in pH value influences the efficacy of strong acid disinfectants, but it does not change the effect of weak acid disinfectants? True False
False
Clavulanic acid is a very stable compound, so intravenous preparations containing amoxicillin clavulanic acid can be used in their aqueous solution for 3-4 days? True False
False
Clindamycin may be used in the therapy of gastrointestinal infections of pigs caused by Lawsonia intracellularis and Brachyspira hyodysenteriae? True False
False
Clopidogrel should not be used in cats only in dogs? True False
False
Decreasing the blood glucose levels is a possible side effects of glucocorticoids? True False
False
Dembrexine is mainly used for the treatment of feline asthma? True False
False
Diazinon breaks down into diazoxone, which is a safer and more effective compound, so it is advisable to prepare anti-parasitic bath water at least one day in advance? a. True b False
False
Diclofenac is an anti-inflammatory drug that can be used safely in dogs? True False
False
Disinfectants and antiseptic have more than one target, therefore pathogens are not able to develop resistance against these compounds? True False
False
Due to its low therapeutic index, oclacitinib cannot be used in increased dose? True False
False
During the preparation of the suppositories, the suppositories must be formed one by one from the heated mass by hand and then packaged and placed in a refrigerator? a. True b False
False
Eye drops usually have shorter duration of action than eye ointments, therefore eye drops should be administered less frequently on a daily basis? True False
False
Febantel is a prodrug, that is metabolized to albendazole in the body? True False
False
Florfenicol belongs to AMEG category D, meaning its use is almost risk-free from a human health point of view? True False
False
Generally, if the drug has high affinity to the receptor, higher dose is needed and the drug's effect develops slowly? True False
False
GnRH analogues are often used orally? True False
False
Guaifenesin decreases ciliary movement and enhances mucus secretion? True False
False
HES infusions with higher average molecular weight have longer half-life, however, the risk of liver side effects is also higher in case of them? True False
False
HES infusions with higher molar substitution have longer half-life, however the risk of liver side effects is also higher in case of them? True False
False
If the therapeutic index of a drug is small, it is difficult to overdose? True False
False
If we increase the dose of time-dependent bactericidal antibiotics, it will result in a quicker killing of bacteria? True False
False
Imepitoin is an important agent in the management of status epilpeticus? True False
False
In case of external drug administration, systemic effects cannot occur? True False
False
In case of transformation, the resistance gene is transmitted by a bacteriophage? True False
False
In status epilepticus, propofol is administered intramuscularly? True False
False
In the case of ointments, it is not necessary to write "Externally" on the prescription, because it is never used internally? True False
False
In the so-called on-target effect, the harmful effect of the substance occurs when it binds to the wrong receptor? True False
False
In the treatment of BRDC, penicillins and cefalosporins can be active against both fastidious Gram-negative bacteria and mycoplasmae? True False
False
In the treatment of BRDC, penicillins and cephalosporins can be active against both fastidious gram-negative bacteria and mycoplasma? True False
False
In the treatment of dehydration, dose of rehydrating infusion can be calculated by dividing the dehydration percentage with the bodyweight? True False
False
Isoflurane is an injectable anaesthetic? True False
False
Itraconazole can be used in dogs, but it should not be used in cats due to its toxicity? True False
False
Lidocaine can be administered orally for long-term therapy? True False
False
Lidocaine causes pronounced Vasodilation? True False
False
Lincomycin can be used with high safety in the treatment of respiratory tract infections in horses True False
False
Lincosamides and macrolides have different spectra, the former being more effective against gram-negative bacteria, while the latter is only effective against gram-positive? True False
False
Lipophilic solutions are recommended for intravenous administration due to their short half life? True False
False
Lokivetmab and oklacitinib have antiinflammatory and analgesic properties? True False
False
Long-acting parasympatholytics are mainly used for diagnostic ophthalmic purposes? True False
False
Loperamide is given in severe bacterial enteritis? True False
False
Medetomidine is an alpha-2-antagonist? True False
False
Metomidate belongs to the steroid anaesthetics? True False
False
Mexiletine should be administered intravenously? True False
False
Mycophenolate mofetil is an immunosuppressive agent that belongs to the group of alkylating agents? True False
False
Oclatinib primarily inhibits the enzyme JAK-2? True False
False
Of the macrolide group, tulathromycin, gamithromycin and tilipyrosin have the worst tissue distribution? True False
False
Only ionised drugs cross biological membranes by diffusion? True False
False
Opioids generally cause dysphoria in dogs and euphoria in cats? True False
False
Opioids have mucolytic effect in the respiratory tract? True False
False
Penicillins can be effectively combined with bacteriostatic antibiotics? True False
False
Per os absorption of aminoglycosides is excellent , but their distribution is poor? a. True b False
False
Pharmacokinetics deals with absorption and excretion, while pharmacodynamics deals with metabolism and excretion? True False
False
Phenoxymethyl-penicillin is used parenteral in pigs for the treatment of necrotizing enteritis caused by Clostridium perfringens C? True False
False
Phenoxymethylpenicillin is used parenterally in swine for treatment of clostridium perfringens C necrotic enteritis? True False
False
Potentiated sulfonamides are effective against mycoplasma and mycobacterium species? True False
False
Powder for external use is suitable for wound healing with talc filler? True False
False
Propofol has a marked analgesic effect? True False
False
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is highly sensitive to florfenicol? True False
False
Rifamycin is not effective against gram-positive bacteria? a. True b False
False
Second generation fluoroquinolones are not effective against intracellular pathogens? True False
False
Short-acting tetracyclines should be administered once daily by orally, while long-acting tetracyclines should be administered every 2 days? True False
False
Side effects of glucocorticoids include muscle hypertrophy, increased calcium absorption and collagen synthesis? True False
False
The distribution of diaminopyrimidines in the body is very poor, they do not cross biological membranes? True False
False
The long-term management of epilepsy must be started if the status epilepticus lasted for more than one minute? True False
False
The mechanism of action of tetracyclines is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis at the 50s subunit of the ribosome? True False
False
The renal toxicity of NSAIDs is generally reduced during anaesthesia? True False
False
Theobromine inhibits the catecholamine uptake? True False
False
Tiamulin is a concentration-dependent bactericidal antibacterial agent? True False
False
Tilvalosin is used only in the therapy of enteric infections? a. True b False
False
Tilvalosin may be used to treat gastrointestinal tract infections caused by Escherichia coli and salmonella? True False
False
Topically applied procaine has fast onset of action? a. True b False
False
Valnemulin is a time-dependent bactericidal antibacterial agent? a. True b False
False
Valnemulin is excellent for the treatment of diarrhea caused by Salmonella? True False
False
Absorption and distribution of fluconazole are excellent, it enters CNS? True False
True
Acepromazine can be used for sedation of aggressive animals, eg. to alleviate handling during veterinary investigations and transport? True False
True
Acorlein-caused haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mesna? True False
True
Acrolein caused haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mesna? True False
True
Acrolein-casued haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mesna? True False
True
Acrolein-caused haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mesna? True False
True
Acrolein-caused hemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mensa? a True b. False
True
Amfotericin B is used in life-threatening conditions due to its severe side effects? a True b. False
True
Amide type local anaesthetics are largely degraded by hepatic inactivation? True False
True
Aminoglycosides are positively charged, cationic polar and hydrophilic compounds? True False
True
Amlodipine is mainly used in cat hypertension, verapamil and diltiazem are applied as antiarrhytmic agents? True False
True
Among the premixes we can distinguish between medicated premix and feed supplements, and their fillers are feed-like, e.g. wheat bran? a True b. False
True
Amoxicillin can be used for the treatment of mastitis in cattle via intramammary infusion, because it's penetration through the blood- milk barrier is not enough when given parenterally? True False
True
Amoxicillin is used orally and parenterally in pigs? True False
True
Atropine can be used in case of uveitis and organophosphate toxicosis? True False
True
Average daily fluid uptake of dogs is 40-60 ml/kg/day? True False
True
Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive agent that belongs to the purine analogue group? True False
True
Bacitracin is ineffective against gram-negative bacteria? True False
True
Benzylpenicillin-Na/K has an average duration of action of 4-6 hours? True False
True
Butyl-scopolamine can be used to treat horse colic? True False
True
Carprofen is safe for use in most mammalian animals? True False
True
Cats generally tolerate glucocorticoid therapy better than dogs? True False
True
Clindamycin can be used for the treatment of wounds caused by streptococci and staphylococci,oral cavity infections and sinusitis? a True b. False
True
Clotrimazole can be used against yeasts and dermatophytes? True False
True
Codeine and butorphanol are also used for cough suppression in dogs? True False
True
Cross-resistance between macrolides and pleuromutilins is possible? True False
True
Cyclophosphamide is an immunosuppressive agent belonging to the group of alkylating agents? True False
True
Cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, lomustine can be applied orally? a True b. False
True
Cyclosporine can be used safely in dogs and cats in the therapy of autoimmune diseases? True False
True
Despite the excellent distribution of lincomycin, it does not cross the blood-brain barrier? True False
True
Diazepam may cause paradoxical reaction in cats? True False
True
Diazinon can cause irreversible inhibition of AchE? True False
True
Dogs are more sensitive to cyclophosphamide treatment compared to cats? True False
True
During the use of prolonged-acting insulin derivatives, moderate hyperglycemia may result due to a rebound effect? True False
True
EPO and darbepoetin-alpha should be applied parenterally only? True False
True
EPO can be used to treat anaemia as a result of chronic kidney failure or cancer only after hematocrit level determination? True False
True
Ester-type local anaesthetics are hydrolysed primarily by plasma esterases? True False
True
First-generation quinolone carboxylic acids have a narrow spectrum and are effective against gram-negative rods and coliforms? True False
True
Gentamicin has anti-Pseudomonas aeguginosa activity? a True b. False
True
Glucocorticoids cause lymphocyte apoptosis? True False
True
Gram-negative fastidious bacteria are generally more susceptible to tilmicosin than mycoplasmas? True False
True
Idoxuridine can be used locally to treat herpes virus-caused keratitis in cats? True False
True
If long-term prednisolone is to be used, 48-hour administration (alternate day therapy) is recommended? True False
True
If we increase the dose of concentration-dependent bactericidal antibiotics, it will result in a quicker killing of bacteria? True False
True
In case of oral drug administration, adsorbents and antacids can decrease absorption? True False
True
In dogs, typical side effects of glucocorticoids include skin scaling, thinning and alopecia? True False
True
In fish, the WP is determined in degree days, which is the cumulative sum of daily water temperature? True False
True
In status epilepticus, levetiracetam may be administered by intravenous or rectal route of administration> True False
True
In the calculation of the therapeutic index, the drugs LD50 value is divided with their ED50 value? True False
True
In the ligand-receptor binding, a high dissociation constant means lower affinity of the ligand to the receptor? True False
True
It is recommended to monitor monocyte neutrophil and eosinophil granulocyte counts during long-term oclatinib therapy? True False
True
Local anaesthetics have decreased activity in inflamed or hypoxic? a True b. False
True
Long acting tetracyclines have an excellent distribution, even crossing the blood brain barrier, making them suitable for the treatment of neurological infections? True False
True
Medetomidine is authorised to use mainly in dogs and cats? True False
True
Mupirocin can be used to eliminate MRSA strains? a True b. False
True
Nitrofurans are bactericidal in their mode of action? True False
True
Oclatinib is very well absorbed after per os administration True False
True
Orthosteric agonist binds to the receptor at the same place where its ligand binds, while allosteric agonist binds to a different site? True False
True
Package of authorised veterinary medicines should always include information about the active substance, dosage form, concentration and target species of the product? True False
True
Phenobarbital can be used for the longterm control of epilepsy as well as for the treatment of status epilepticus? True False
True
Potassium bromide should only be used in epilepsy in dogs because it causes severe pulmonary edema in cats? True False
True
Powder for internal use can be direct administered in capsule? a. True b. False
True
Pus and tissue debris greatly impair the effectiveness of sulfonamides? True False
True
Salinomycin and diclazuril are coccidiostatic agents that are authorized for rabbits as well? True False
True
Salmeterol has long duration of action up to 12 hours? True False
True
Side effect of doxorubicin treatment can be cardiotoxicity? True False
True
Some NSAIDs decrease aggregation of thrombocytes by decreasing TXA synthesis? True False
True
Spectinomycin has a bacteriostatic mode of action? True False
True
Structure-dependent drug action can occur via receptors and other targets (e.g. enzymes, DNA, transporters) as well? True False
True
Tetracycline antibiotics can be broken down into toxic anhydrotetracyclines? True False
True
The MAO-inhibitor selegiline can be used in dogs the slow down the progrediation of old age dementia? True False
True
The antibacterial spectrum of azithromycin and clarithromycin includes staphylococci and streptococci? True False
True
The average duration of action of benzylpenicillin-procaine is 12-24 hours? True False
True
The canine congestive heart failure stage B1 do not need any treatment? True False
True
The eye drops are sterile, the original formulations are can be used for 28 days after opening? a True b. False
True
The first generation of cephalosporins has the most pronounced efficacy against gram-positive bacteria? True False
True
The lower the therapeutic index of an active substance, the closer its ED50 value is to its LD50 value? True False
True
The methylxanthines block the adenosine receptor? True False
True
The mutant selection window (MSW) means the concentration range between MIC and MPC values of antibiotics? True False
True
The solutions can be administered by a wide variety of routes, enterally, parenteral and topically too? True False
True
Tiletamine belongs to the group of NMDA receptor antagonists, also called dissociative anaesthetics? True False
True
Tulathromycin and gamithromycin are effective against anaerobic bacteria, making them suitable for the treatment of foot-end infections in ruminants? True False
True
Tulathromycin is ion trapped in white blood cells due to the ionisation of amino groups intracellularly in the presence of many protons? True False
True
When sulfonamides are administered to domestic rabbits and poultry, vitamin K deficiency may occur, leading to bleeding? True False
True
While using chloramphenicol wearing gloves is recommended to avoid the possible development of aplastic anaemia as a side effect of the usage? True False
True
prostaglandin-E increases mucin secretion in the gastric mucosa? True False
True
For potential sulfonamides, what is the sulfonmide:diaminopyrimidine ratio for our drugs? a 5:1 b. 1:1 c. 100:1 d. 20:1
a 5:1
Which of the following is true for the spectrum of nitroimidazoles? a Both b. Neither c. They are also effective against protozoa. d. Are effective against anaerobic bacteria
a Both
AMEG category A agents are? a Penicillins against Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. None of these c. Narrow spectrum penicillin d. Non-broad spectrum penicillins
a Penicillins against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a cattle (BW: 400kg), if the dose is 0.5mg/kg (BW) and the concentration of the product is 20mg/ml? a. 10ml b. 40ml c. 2ml d. 100ml
a. 10ml
How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a horse (BW: 400kg) if the dose is 0.6 mg/kg (BW) and the concentration of the product is 20mg/ml (m x d/c)? a. 12ml b. 10ml c. 40ml d. 2ml
a. 12ml
How much 40% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100ml of 10% solution? a. 25ml b. 12.5ml c. 50ml d. 75ml
a. 25ml
Pair the drugs to the appropriate description: a. A full agonist opioid with a potent analgesic effect, requiring 15-30 minutes form administration for analgesia to develop, depending on the route of administration → ? b. A potent full agonist opioid used in veterinary practice as a painkiller and cough suppressant. → ? c. Agonist-antagonist opioids with weak-to-moderate analgesic effect → ? d. One of the most potent analgesic opioid, also used as a transdermal patch in veterinary medicine → ? e. Long-acting partial agonist opioid that binds strongly to opioid receptors and may reduce the analgesic effect of full agonists when used in combination with them → ? (Options: Morphine, Tramadol, Butorphanol, Fentanyl, Buprenorphine)
a. A full agonist opioid with a potent analgesic effect, requiring 15-30 minutes form administration for analgesia to develop, depending on the route of administration → Morphine b. A potent full agonist opioid used in veterinary practice as a painkiller and cough suppressant. → Tramadol c. Agonist-antagonist opioids with weak-to-moderate analgesic effect → Butorphanol d. One of the most potent analgesic opioid, also used as a transdermal patch in veterinary medicine → Fentanyl e. Long-acting partial agonist opioid that binds strongly to opioid receptors and may reduce the analgesic effect of full agonists when used in combination with them → Buprenorphine
Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description: a. A medicine active against adult Dirofilaria → ? b. This antiparasitic is effective against Taenia and Giardia species → ? c. Macrocyclic lactone that active against nematodes and ectoparasites → ? d. Antiparasitic agent only effective against intestinal nematodes → ? e. Antiparasitic agent only effective against tapeworms → ? (Options: Melarsomine, Fenbendazole, Selamectin, Pyrantel embonate, Praziquantel)
a. A medicine active against adult Dirofilaria → Melarsomine b. This antiparasitic is effective against Taenia and Giardia species → Fenbendazole c. Macrocyclic lactone that active against nematodes and ectoparasites → Selamectin d. Antiparasitic agent only effective against intestinal nematodes → Pyrantel embonate e. Antiparasitic agent only effective against tapeworms → Praziquantel
Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description: a. Active substance for the treatment of coccidiosis via drinking water → ? b. Triazine coccidiostat for use in chemoprophylaxis via feed → ? c. Semi Divalent ionophore coccidiostat → ? d. Divalent ionophore coccidiostat → ? e. Monovalent ionophore coccidiostat → ? (Options: toltrazuril, diclazuril, maduramycin, lazalocid, salinomycin)
a. Active substance for the treatment of coccidiosis via drinking water → toltrazuril b. Triazine coccidiostat for use in chemoprophylaxis via feed → diclazuril c. Semi Divalent ionophore coccidiostat → maduramycin d. Divalent ionophore coccidiostat → lazalocid e. Monovalent ionophore coccidiostat → salinomycin
Which statement is true? a. All three b. Opioids act at the site of nociception. c. Opioids have a very good analgesic effect. d. Opioids have antidiarrheal and cough suppressant effects
a. All three
Which of the following processes involves the formation of toxic metabolites? a. Both b. Neither c. Reactions leading to glutathione deficiency d. Modification of sulfhydryl groups
a. Both
In horses, penicillins can be effective in the treatment of...? a. Both of them b. Strangles c. None of them d. Abscesses, wound infections
a. Both of them
Which of the following substance groups can reduce high blood pressure? a. Both of them b. None of them c. ATII receptor antagonists d. ACE inhibitors
a. Both of them
Which of the following substances can have antiarrhytmic effect? a. Both of them b. Propranolol c. None of them d. Sotalol
a. Both of them
Which of the following substances can have urethra sphincter relaxing effect? a. Both of them b. None of them c. Phenoxybenzamine d. Doxazosin
a. Both of them
Which of the following substances can increase mucociliary movement? a. Both of them b. Bromhexin c. N-acetylcysteine d. None of them
a. Both of them
Which substance decreases the production of aqueous humour? a. Both of them b. Dorzolamide c. None of them d. Timolol
a. Both of them
Give the order of clearance of the amides, start with the fastest: a. Bupivacaine → ? b. Mepivacaine → ? c. Lidocaine → ? d. Prilocaine → ? (Options: 1, 2, 3, 4)
a. Bupivacaine → 4 b. Mepivacaine → 3 c. Lidocaine → 2 d. Prilocaine → 1
Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: a. Can be used also in pituitary-dependent Cushing's syndrome → ? b. It is use in hyperthyroidism → ? c. It inhibits the alpha-glycosidase activity in the gastrointestinal tract → ? d. Only indicated in hypothyroidism if the first-choice therapy has failed → ? e. It can be used in ketosis and fatty liver treatment in cattle which are non-responsive to glucose → ? (Options: Trilostane, Thiamazole, Acarbose, Liothyronine, Insulin)
a. Can be used also in pituitary-dependent Cushing's syndrome → Trilostane b. It is use in hyperthyroidism → Thiamazole c. It inhibits the alpha-glycosidase activity in the gastrointestinal tract → Acarbose d. Only indicated in hypothyroidism if the first-choice therapy has failed → Liothyronine e. It can be used in ketosis and fatty liver treatment in cattle which are non-responsive to glucose → Insulin
Which of the following adverse reactions is specific to fluoroquinolones? a. Genotixic and fetal effects b. Reversible retinopathy and risk of complete loss of vision when enrofloxacin is given in cats c. Allergy d. Vitamin K deficiency
b. Reversible retinopathy and risk of complete loss of vision when enrofloxacin is given in cats
In canine congestive heart failure stage D, it is effective to dilate the pulmonary arteries? a. Pimobendan b. Sildenafil c. Ramipril d. Telmisartan
b. Sildenafil
Against which of the following pathogens are aminoglycosides NOT effective? a. Salmonella spp. b. Streptococcus spp. c. E. coli d. Staphylococcus spp.
b. Streptococcus spp.
Which statement is true about opioids? a. They act only in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, where the sensory nerves are switched. b. They act at three sites: supraspinal, spinal and peripheral. c. They act only supraspinally. d. Act only peripherally, at the site of pain.
b. They act at three sites: supraspinal, spinal and peripheral.
The competitive antagonist of 3B-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase enzyme? a. Cabergoline b. Trilostan c. Denaverin d. Terbutalin
b. Trilostan
Antibacterial agent topically used in Gr-otitis exerna:? a. Metronidazole b. polymixin-B c. Spectinomycin d. Pradofloxacin
b. polymixin-B
Which is not part of GMP (good manufacturing practice)? a. Quality management b. Self control c Innovation d. Quality control
c Innovation
How much 40% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100ml of 5% solution? a. 25ml b. 50ml c. 12.5ml d. 75ml
c. 12.5ml
How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a swine (BW: 100kg) if the dose is 0.4mg/kg (BW) and the concentration of the product is 20mg/ml? a. 100ml b. 10ml c. 2ml d. 40ml
c. 2ml
Povidone iodine can be used for? a. Mammary gland disinfection b. Skin disinfection c. All of them d. Mucus membrane disinfection
c. All of them
What is the spectrum of action of sulfonamides? a. Coccidial action b. Gram-positive antibacterial action c. All of them d. Gram-negative antibacterial action
c. All of them
How can gentamicin be used in adult ruminants? a. Orally b. Both of them c. As injection d. None of them
c. As injection
The side chains of beta-lactam antibiotics are responsible for..? a. None of the above b. The spectrum of the antibiotic c. Both d. The pharmacokinetic properties of the antibiotics
c. Both
Which of the following drug actions is structure-dependent? a. None of them b. Inhibition of enzymes c. Both of them d. Activation of receptors
c. Both of them
Which of the following substances might cause heart remodelling? a. Furosemide b. ACE inhibitors c. Both of them d. None of them
c. Both of them
Primary choice cephalosporin to treat canine pyoderma systemically? a. Cefotaxime b. Cefoperazone c. Cephalexin d. Cefquinome
c. Cephalexin
Which of the following agents is characterized by low absorption after oral administration in pigs? a. Tiamulin b. Florfenicol c. Colistin d. Enrofloxacin
c. Colistin
It can cause colic symptoms, tremor, sweating in horses? a. Altrenogest b. eCG c. Dinoprost d. None of these
c. Dinoprost
Which drug would you use to treat anaplasmal infections in dogs? a. Neomycin b. Amoxicillin c. Doxicillin/Doxycyline d. Bacitracin
c. Doxicillin/Doxycyline
Which of the following agents has excellent absorption after oral administration in pigs? a. Amoxicillin b. Colistin c. Florfenicol d. Gentamicin
c. Florfenicol
Antiparasitic agent licensed for oral use in poultry against bird mite (Dermanyssus gallinae)? a. Deltamethrin b. Moxidectin c. Fluraflaner d. Fipronil
c. Fluraflaner
Which of the following side effect is specific to fluoroquinolones? a. Allergy b. Genotoxic and fetal effects c. Inhibition of growth of cartilage in young animals d. Aplastic anemia
c. Inhibition of growth of cartilage in young animals
What are the central nervous system effects of first generation antihistamines? a. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor in the appropriate tissue b. Off-target effect on the inappropriate receptor in the inappropriate tissue c. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor but not in the appropriate tissue d. Off-target effect on the inappropriate receptor but in the appropriate tissue
c. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor but not in the appropriate tissue
In these animals, porto-renal system should be considered in case of injectable drug administration? a. Bees b. Mammals c. Reptiles d. Fish
c. Reptiles
Which of the following substances can be used for the treatment of proliferative enteropathy caused by Lawsonia intracellularis in swine? a. Colistin b. Doxycycline c. Tiamulin d. Clindamycin
c. Tiamulin
What is the indication for fourth generation fluoroquilones? a. UTIs and gastrointestinal tract infections b. Respiratory infections, pyoderma, osteomyelitis, prostatitis, eye infections c. Gingivitis, periodontitis meningitis, meningoencephalitis. d. All
d All
Which of the following pathogens is florfenicol effective against? a. Aeromonas salmonicida b. None c. Vibrio anguillarum d Both
d Both
Which AMEG category do the 3-4th generation cephalosporins fall into? a. "C" b. "D" c. "A" d. "B"
d. "B"
How much 20% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100ml of 5% solution? a. 75ml b. 50ml c. 12.5ml d. 25ml
d. 25ml
Which antibiotic group can be used in severe, life- threatening infection of horses? a. Cefalosporins b. Aminoglycosides c. Fluoroquinolones d. All of them
d. All of them
Which of the following can sulfonamides be used to treat? a. Nocardia asteriodes b. Toxoplasma gondii c. Listeria monsocytogenes d. All of them
d. All of them
Which of the following substance groups have got bronchodilatory effect? a. Anticholinergic drugs b. Sympathomimetics c. Xanthine derivatives d. All of them e. None of them
d. All of them
Which of the following effects are considered to be adverse effects of drugs? a. Toxic metabolic formation b. Damaging immune response c. Idiosyncratic response d. All three
d. All three
Which of the following is the pharmacological action of NSAIDs? a. Anti-inflammatory b. Antipyretic c. Analgesic d. All three
d. All three
Which of the following drugs is characterised by a spasmolytic effect? a. Flunixin-meglumine b. None c. Metamizole d. All two
d. All two
Which of the following side effects are typical of phenicols? a. Yellow discoloration of bones b. Explicit kidney damage c. Photosensitization d. Anaemia, immunosuppression
d. Anaemia, immunosuppression
What are the side effects of polymyxins? a. neurotoxicity via flaccid paralysis b. nephrotoxicity c. none of these d. Both
d. Both
Which of the following substances can have antibiotics penetration enhancing effects? a. N-acetylcysteine b. None of them c. Bromhexin d. Both of them
d. Both of them
Which substance acts via nonspecific physical interaction? a. None of them b. Magnesium sulphate c. Mannitol d. Both of them
d. Both of them
Specific symptom in toxicosis caused by diazinon? a. Tachycardia b. Vomiting c. Enophtalmus d. Depression
d. Depression
Which of the equations are true for most drugs? a. TD50 b. None of them c. TD50>LD50 d. ED50
d. ED50
Penicillins are...? a. Inhibitors of folate synthesis b. Inhibitors of protein synthesis c. DNA damaging agents d. Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
d. Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
This drug can inhibit the CYP450 enzymes? a. Codeine b. Phenobarbital c. Gentamicin d. Ketoconazole
d. Ketoconazole
Which of the following substance groups has got diuretic effect? a. ATII receptor antagonists b. Both of them c. Ca2+ channel blockers d. None of them
d. None of them
For the treatment of canine gastric ulcers the recommended substance(s) is (are): a. Famotidine b. Sucralphate c. Famotidine + omeprazole d. Omeprazole
d. Omeprazole
Opioids pharmacological effects include? a. Expectorant effect b. Laxative effect c. All of them d. Sedation
d. Sedation
Which statement is not true for tylosin? a. can be used in dogs to treat antibiotic responsive enteropathy b. its tablet form does not need to be coated c. macrolide antibiotic d. only extra label can be used in farm animals
d. only extra label can be used in farm animals
Which of the following aminoglycoside agents has specific antiprotozoal activity? a. obramycin b. amikacin c. gentamicin d. paromomycin
d. paromomycin
Which of the following aminoglycoside active substances is typically used as an eye drop? a. apramycin b. paromomycin c. spectinomycin d. tobramycin
d. tobramycin
Narrow spectrum penicillins include? a. Ampicillin b. Benzylpenicillin-procaine c. Amoxicillin d. Piperacillin
b. Benzylpenicillin-procaine
Which of the following agents is suitable for the treatment of enteritis caused by clostridia? a. Vancomycin b. Both c. Neither d. Bacitracin
b. Both
Which of the following is a first-generation antihistamine? a. Dimenhydrinate b. Both c. None d. Hydroxyzine
b. Both
Which of the following drugs can be effective in the treatment of Moraxella bovis keratoconjunctivitis in cattle? a. None of them b. Both of them c. Chlortetracycline d. Florfenicol
b. Both of them
Which of the following substances can cause azotaemia? a. None of them b. Both of them c. Enalapril d. Lisinopril
b. Both of them
Which of the following substances have positive inotropic effect? a. Pimobendan b. Both of them c. Digoxin d. None of them
b. Both of them
Agent used for the long-term management of phonophobia in dogs? a. Acepromazine b. Clomipramine c. Selegiline d. Cefovecin
b. Clomipramine
Behaviour modifier agent for the management acral lick dermatitis in the dog? a. Teobromine b. Clomipramine c. Diazepam d. Trilostane
b. Clomipramine
Which of the following agents has excellent absorption after oral administration in pigs? a. Amoxicillin b. Florfenicol c. Gentamicin d. Colistin
b. Florfenicol
Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: a. Allosteric activator of GABA(A) → ? b. Alpha-2-antagonist → ? c. This tranquilizer is not appropriate for oral use → ? d. Potent alpha-2 agonist licensed also for equine use → ? e. Alpha-2-agonist sedative and also a potent emetic agent in cats → ? (Options: Midazolam, Atipamezole, Azaperone, Detomidine, Xylazine)
a. Allosteric activator of GABA(A) → Midazolam b. Alpha-2-antagonist → Atipamezole c. This tranquilizer is not appropriate for oral use → Azaperone d. Potent alpha-2 agonist licensed also for equine use → Detomidine e. Alpha-2-agonist sedative and also a potent emetic agent in cats → Xylazine
Pair the substances to the appropriate description" a. An antibacterial agent used both orally and parenterally in pigs, one of the main indications is enteritis caused by Escherichia coli → ? b. A drug of the AMEG B category with very low absorption from the gastrointestinal tract, most commonly indicated for enteritis caused by Escherichia coli → ? c. An antibacterial agent used orally only in pigs and poultry species, to which the bacterial species Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is almost always sensitive → ? d. An antibacterial agent with excellent pharmacokinetic properties used for the treatment of infectious diseases of pigs and poultry species caused by mycoplasmas. → ? e. Substance used parenterally in pigs only, Streptococcus suis is sensitive to this substance in almost all cases → ? (Options: Gentamicin, Colistin, Phenoxymethyl-penicillin, Tiamulin, Procaine penicillin)
a. An antibacterial agent used both orally and parenterally in pigs, one of the main indications is enteritis caused by Escherichia coli → Gentamicin b. A drug of the AMEG B category with very low absorption from the gastrointestinal tract, most commonly indicated for enteritis caused by Escherichia coli → Colistin c. An antibacterial agent used orally only in pigs and poultry species, to which the bacterial species Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is almost always sensitive → Phenoxymethyl-penicillin d. An antibacterial agent with excellent pharmacokinetic properties used for the treatment of infectious diseases of pigs and poultry species caused by mycoplasmas. → Tiamulin e. Substance used parenterally in pigs only, Streptococcus suis is sensitive to this substance in almost all cases → Procaine penicillin
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: a. Animals must be served with drinking water prior to bathing with this antiparasitic agent to avoid intoxicosis → ? b. Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase mostly used in companion animals → ? c. Less safe antiparasitic agent against scabies, demodicosis and ticks → ? d. As part of the "double defence" prevention for heart worm infestation used in dogs → ? e. Pyrethroid used also in cats in antiparasitic collars → flumethrin f. Organophosphate e!ective agains varroosis in honey bees → ? (Options: diazinon, propoxur, amitraz, permethrin, coumaphos)
a. Animals must be served with drinking water prior to bathing with this antiparasitic agent to avoid intoxicosis → diazinon b. Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase mostly used in companion animals → propoxur c. Less safe antiparasitic agent against scabies, demodicosis and ticks → amitraz d. As part of the "double defence" prevention for heart worm infestation used in dogs → permethrin e. Pyrethroid used also in cats in antiparasitic collars → flumethrin f. Organophosphate e!ective agains varroosis in honey bees → coumaphos
Pair the active ingredients to the appropriate description: a. Antibacterial agent of the treatment diseases of pig and poultry species caused by pasteurella and mycoplasma → ? b. Broad-spectrum AMEG C antibacterial agent with execellent absorption for pigs and poultry, indications include enteritis and colibacilosis caused by Escherichia coli, mycoplasma and Gram-negative nutritional pathogens → ? c. An antibacterial agent used for the treatment of Escherichia coli in pigs and poultry species with low absorption from the gatstrointestinal tract. → ? d. Antibacterial agent of AMEG category C with excellent pharmacokinetic properties for the treatment of staphylococcal diseases in intestinal species → ? e. An oral antibacterial agent for the treatment of entercoccosis in poultry → ? (Options: Doxycycline, Florfenicol, Apramycin, Lincomycin, Amoxicillin)
a. Antibacterial agent of the treatment diseases of pig and poultry species caused by pasteurella and mycoplasma → Doxycycline b. Broad-spectrum AMEG C antibacterial agent with execellent absorption for pigs and poultry, indications include enteritis and colibacilosis caused by Escherichia coli, mycoplasma and Gram-negative nutritional pathogens → Florfenicol c. An antibacterial agent used for the treatment of Escherichia coli in pigs and poultry species with low absorption from the gatstrointestinal tract. → Apramycin d. Antibacterial agent of AMEG category C with excellent pharmacokinetic properties for the treatment of staphylococcal diseases in intestinal species → Lincomycin e. An oral antibacterial agent for the treatment of entercoccosis in poultry → Amoxicillin
Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description: a. Antibacterial agent used mostly topically with the possible side effect of aplastic anemia → ? b. Antimicrobial agent used in canine chronic colitis with the possible decrease in tear production (KCS) as side effects → ? c. Antibacterial agent used in canine antibiotic responsive diarrhea (ARD) → ? d. Antimicrobial agent used canine Giardiosis → ? e. Fluoroquinlone used orally also in anal sacculitis → ? f. Antibacterial agent used in canine Campylobacter enteritis → ? (Options: Chloramphenicol, Sulfasalazine, Tylosin, Metronidazole, Pradofloxacin, Azithromycin)
a. Antibacterial agent used mostly topically with the possible side effect of aplastic anemia → Chloramphenicol b. Antimicrobial agent used in canine chronic colitis with the possible decrease in tear production (KCS) as side effects → Sulfasalazine c. Antibacterial agent used in canine antibiotic responsive diarrhea (ARD) → Tylosin d. Antimicrobial agent used canine Giardiosis → Metronidazole e. Fluoroquinlone used orally also in anal sacculitis → Pradofloxacin f. Antibacterial agent used in canine Campylobacter enteritis → Azithromycin
Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: a. Biguanide disinfectant → ? b. It is an oxidizing agent → ? c. Belongs to the alkalies disinfectants → ? d. Cationic detergent → ? e. Halogen-containing disinfectant → ? (Options: chlorhexidine, hydrogen peroxide, calcium hydroxide, quaternary ammonium compounds, povidone iodine)
a. Biguanide disinfectant → chlorhexidine b. It is an oxidizing agent → hydrogen peroxide c. Belongs to the alkalies disinfectants → calcium hydroxide d. Cationic detergent → quaternary ammonium compounds e. Halogen-containing disinfectant → povidone iodine
In which of the following conditions is the use of oclacitinib contraindicated? a. Both b. None c. Noncancerous diseases d. Demodicosis
a. Both
Which of the following agents has anti-endotoxin activity? a. Both b. Meloxicam c. None d. Flunixin-meglumine
a. Both
Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement: a. Anticonvulsant agent given also intranasally in status epilepticus → ? b. Antiepileptic agent with minimal side effects applied TID-QID PO for long-term management of epilepsy → ? c. Antiepileptic agent used long-term safely in liver and kidney failure patient as well → ? d. Antiepileptic agent inducing microsomal CYP enzymes in the liver → ? e. Antiepileptic agent recommended to use only in the human medicine → ? f. Antiepileptic agent with the possible side effects of: polyphagia, pruritus, paraparesis, pancreatitis → ? (Options: midazolam, levetiracetam, imepitoin, phenobarbital, primidone, KBr)
a. Anticonvulsant agent given also intranasally in status epilepticus → midazolam b. Antiepileptic agent with minimal side effects applied TID-QID PO for long-term management of epilepsy → levetiracetam c. Antiepileptic agent used long-term safely in liver and kidney failure patient as well → imepitoin d. Antiepileptic agent inducing microsomal CYP enzymes in the liver → phenobarbital e. Antiepileptic agent recommended to use only in the human medicine → primidone f. Antiepileptic agent with the possible side effects of: polyphagia, pruritus, paraparesis, pancreatitis → KBr
Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement: a. Anticonvulsive anaesthetic agent given as IV bolus or continuous rate infusion (CRI) → ? b. Antiepileptic agent for long-term use, efficiency of it should be evaluated within 2-3 weeks after the initiation of the therapy → ? c. Antiepileptic agent effective as phenobarbital but with the possible side effect of 3rd eyelid prolapse → ? d. Anticonvulsive agent given in status epilepticus or for performing euthanasia aswell → ? e. Antieplieptic agent for long-term use, it can cause severe respiratory distress in cats → ? (Options: Propofol, phenobarbital, Imepitoin, Pentobarbital, KBr)
a. Anticonvulsive anaesthetic agent given as IV bolus or continuous rate infusion (CRI) → Propofol b. Antiepileptic agent for long-term use, efficiency of it should be evaluated within 2-3 weeks after the initiation of the therapy → phenobarbital c. Antiepileptic agent effective as phenobarbital but with the possible side effect of 3rd eyelid prolapse → Imepitoin d. Anticonvulsive agent given in status epilepticus or for performing euthanasia aswell → Pentobarbital e. Antieplieptic agent for long-term use, it can cause severe respiratory distress in cats → KBr
Match: a. Antiemetic agent potentially increasing the clinical signs of pseudopregnancy → ? b. Antiemetic agent having central and peripheral effect as well, suitable for increasing the motility of the duodenum → ? c. Antiemeetic agnet used to avoid hypersensitivity reaction caused by vaccination → ? d. Peripheral antiemetic suitable for emesis from all types of origin → ? e. Used in dogs, applied SC, non readministerable opioid emetic agent → ? f. Serotonin antagonist antiemetic used PO/IV in chemotherapy induced vomiting → ? (Options: Acepromazine, metoclopramide, dimenhydrinate, maropitant, apomorphine, ondansetrone)
a. Antiemetic agent potentially increasing the clinical signs of pseudopregnancy → Acepromazine b. Antiemetic agent having central and peripheral effect as well, suitable for increasing the motility of the duodenum → metoclopramide c. Antiemeetic agnet used to avoid hypersensitivity reaction caused by vaccination → dimenhydrinate d. Peripheral antiemetic suitable for emesis from all types of origin → maropitant e. Used in dogs, applied SC, non readministerable opioid emetic agent → apomorphine f. Serotonin antagonist antiemetic used PO/IV in chemotherapy induced vomiting → ondansetrone
Pair the antibiotics to their typical indication in ruminants: a. Apramycin → ? b. Cefoperazone → ? c. Gamithromycin → d. Colistin → ? e. Oxacillin → ? (Options: diarrhoea in calves; Gram -positive and gram-negative mastitis; respiratory infections; Gram-positive mastitis)
a. Apramycin → diarrhoea in calves b. Cefoperazone → Gram -positive and gram-negative mastitis c. Gamithromycin → respiratory infections d. Colistin → diarrhoea in calves e. Oxacillin → Gram-positive mastitis
Pair the active substances to their therapeutical indication(s): a. Atipamezole → ? b. Phenylpropanolamine → ? c. Salbutamol → ? d. Adrenaline → ? e. Propanolol → ? f. Dopamine → ? g. Timolole → ? h. Salmeterol → ? i. Xylazine → ? (Options: antidote for toxicosis caused by alpha 2 receptor agonists; urinary incontinence due to poor mucle tone in the urethral sphincter; acute asthma attacks; anaphylaxis, cardiac stop, local bleeding; arrhythmia, hypertension; dose-dependant, low dose increases urinary output, renal blood flow. Medium dose increases cardiac output and high dose can result in pressor effects; glaucoma, hypertension; maintenance therapy of RAO, feline asthma; emesis induction, pain reduction, for sedation)
a. Atipamezole → antidote for toxicosis caused by alpha 2 receptor agonists b. Phenylpropanolamine → urinary incontinence due to poor mucle tone in the urethral sphincter c. Salbutamol → acute asthma attacks d. Adrenaline → anaphylaxis, cardiac stop, local bleeding, e. Propanolol → arrhythmia, hypertension f. Dopamine → dose-dependant, low dose increases urinary output, renal blood flow. Medium dose increases cardiac output and high dose can result in pressor effects g. Timolole → glaucoma, hypertension h. Salmeterol → maintenance therapy of RAO, feline asthma i. Xylazine → emesis induction, pain reduction, for sedation
Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description: a. ? → it can inhibit formation of synechia in uveitis b. ? → antihistamine used in allergic conjunctivitis c. ? → anti-inflammatory drug used in milder case of corneal ulcer d. ? → mast cell stabiliser used in allergic conjunctivitis e. ? → anti-inflammatory drug usd in uveitis if the cornea is intact (Options: Atropine, Azelastine, Bromfenac, Sodium chromoglycate, Prednisolone)
a. Atropine → it can inhibit formation of synechia in uveitis b. Azelastine → antihistamine used in allergic conjunctivitis c. Bromfenac → anti-inflammatory drug used in milder case of corneal ulcer d. Sodium chromoglycate → mast cell stabiliser used in allergic conjunctivitis e. Prednisolone → anti-inflammatory drug usd in uveitis if the cornea is intact
Pair each agent with the route of administration? a. Benzylpeniciilin-procanine/benzathin → ? b. Benzylpenicillin-Na/K → ? c. Phenoxymethylpenicillin → ? d. Cloxacillin → ? (Options: IM/SC, IV/IM/SC, PO, mainly udder infusion)
a. Benzylpeniciilin-procanine/benzathin → IM/SC b. Benzylpenicillin-Na/K → IV/IM/SC c. Phenoxymethylpenicillin → PO d. Cloxacillin → mainly udder infusion
Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action: a. Benzylpenicillin-benzathine → ? b. Tulathromycin → ? c. Tildipirosin → ? d. Benzylpenicillin-procaine → ? e. benzylpenicillin-Na/K → ? (Options: 72-96 hours, 6-10 days, 18-23 days, 12-24 hours, 4-6 hours)
a. Benzylpenicillin-benzathine → 72-96 hours b. Tulathromycin → 6-10 days c. Tildipirosin → 18-23 days d. Benzylpenicillin-procaine → 12-24 hours e. benzylpenicillin-Na/K → 4-6 hours
Pair each drug with its characteristic property: a. Cefotaxime → ? b. Ceftiofur → ? c. Cefovecin → ? d. Cefalexin → ? e. Ceftazidime → ? f. Cefazolin→ ? (Options: highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood-brain barriterm-275er, which makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis; 0 days on milk for WP; companion animal with several weeks duration of action; primary active ingredient in skin infections; effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa; used preoperatively to prevent wound infections)
a. Cefotaxime → highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood-brain barrier, which makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis b. Ceftiofur → 0 days on milk for WP c. Cefovecin → companion animal with several weeks duration of action d. Cefalexin → primary active ingredient in skin infections e. Ceftazidime → effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa f. Cefazolin → used preoperatively to prevent wound infections
Which agents are suitable for the treatment of pseudomonas aeruginosa infection? a. Ceftazidime and cefoperazone b. Cefalexin and cefapirin c. Ceftriaxone and cefotaxime d. Cefuroxime and cefaclor
a. Ceftazidime and cefoperazone
Which agents have such excellent pharmacokinetics that they are the most important drugs for the treatment of meningitis after crossing the blood-brain barrier? a. Ceftraixone and cefotaxime b. Ceftazidime and cefoperazone c. Cefuroxime and cefaclor d. Cefalexin and cefapirin
a. Ceftraixone and cefotaxime
Primary choice cephalosporine to treat canine pyoderma systemically? a. Cephalexin b. Cefoperazone c. Cefquinome d. Cefotaxime
a. Cephalexin
An AVM (authorised for cattle) has the following WPs: cattle meat: 0 days, cattle milk: 0 hours. How long should the WP be in the following cases? a. Chicken eggs → ? b. Goat meat → ? c. Swine meat → ? (Options: 10 days, 0 days, 1 day)
a. Chicken eggs → 10 days b. Goat meat → 0 days c. Swine meat → 1 day
Pair the active substances to their categories! a. Clenbuterole → ? b. Aminophylline → ? c. Zafirlukast → ? d. Beclomethasone → ? e. Zileuton → ? f. Propentophylline → ? g. Nedocromil → ? h. Ipratropium → ? i. Fluticasone → ? j. Terbutaline → ? (Options: sympathomimetics, methylxanthine derivatives, leukotriene receptor antagonists, glucocorticoids, chromones, parasympatholytics)
a. Clenbuterole → sympathomimetics b. Aminophylline → methylxanthine derivatives c. Zafirlukast → leukotriene receptor antagonists d. Beclomethasone → glucocorticoids e. Zileuton → leukotriene synthesis inhibitor f. Propentophylline → methylxanthine derivatives g. Nedocromil → chromones h. Ipratropium → parasympatholytics i. Fluticasone → glucocorticoids j. Terbutaline → sympathomimetics
Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: a. Contraindicated to use epileptic and pseudopregnant animals → ? b. In porcine patients optimal outside temperature should be provided to the animal when this drug is administered → ? c. It can cause hyperglycaemia and it is contraindicated in late pregnancy → ? d. Should be used cautiously together with aminoglycosides → ? e. Generally safe agent, but rarely it may cause liver toxicity → ? (Options: Chlorpromazine, Azaperone, Xylazine, Diazepam, Phenobarbital)
a. Contraindicated to use epileptic and pseudopregnant animals → Chlorpromazine b. In porcine patients optimal outside temperature should be provided to the animal when this drug is administered → Azaperone c. It can cause hyperglycaemia and it is contraindicated in late pregnancy → Xylazine d. Should be used cautiously together with aminoglycosides → Diazepam e. Generally safe agent, but rarely it may cause liver toxicity → Phenobarbital
Which of these substances causes immunosuppression? a. Cyclophosphamide b. Nimesulide c. Gamithromycin d. Ipratropium
a. Cyclophosphamide
Pair the substances used in constipation and diarrhoea to their corresponding statements: a. Decreases the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins → ? b. GI tract motility increaser used in irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), crossing the BBB → ? c. Adstringent, vasoconstrictor antidiarrheal agent → ? d. Diuretic used primarily in non-dehydrated large animals having ad libitum drinking water supply → ? e. Osmotic diuretic used also in hepatic encephalopathy, administered orally or per rectum → ? f. Expanded due to absorption of moisture mechanically increases the motility of the GI tract helping passing the stool → ? (Options: liquid paraffin, loperamide, tannic acid, MgSO4, lactulose, indigestible fibres)
a. Decreases the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins → liquid paraffin b. GI tract motility increaser used in irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), crossing the BBB → loperamide c. Adstringent, vasoconstrictor antidiarrheal agent → tannic acid d. Diuretic used primarily in non-dehydrated large animals having ad libitum drinking water supply → MgSO4 e. Osmotic diuretic used also in hepatic encephalopathy, administered orally or per rectum → lactulose f. Expanded due to absorption of moisture mechanically increases the motility of the GI tract helping passing the stool → indigestible fibres
Pair the substances used for stomach ulcer prevention and treatment to their corresponding statements: a. Degraded by the stomach juice, bounds to the damaged mucosa f the stomach wall, less suitable for the treatment of gastric ulceration but rather suitable for binding phosporus → ? b. PGE-analogue used exclusively for the prevention of gastric ulcers induced by NSAIDs → ? c. Possible, but not effective antidote for acetaminophen (paracetmol) toxicosis, CYP enzyme inhibitor, not frequently used H2-antagonist → ? d. If used for more than 3-4 weeks due to rebound effect administation must be discontinued gradually → ? e. H2-antagonist used in cats long-term every other day (ADT) → ? (Options: Aluminium-hydroxide, Misoprostol, Cimetidine, Omeprazole, Famotidine)
a. Degraded by the stomach juice, bounds to the damaged mucosa f the stomach wall, less suitable for the treatment of gastric ulceration but rather suitable for binding phosporus → Aluminium-hydroxide b. PGE-analogue used exclusively for the prevention of gastric ulcers induced by NSAIDs → Misoprostol c. Possible, but not effective antidote for acetaminophen (paracetmol) toxicosis, CYP enzyme inhibitor, not frequently used H2-antagonst → Cimetidine d. If used for more than 3-4 weeks due to rebound effect administation must be discontinued gradually → Omeprazole e. H2-antagonist used in cats long-term every other day (ADT) → Famotidine
In the case of bacitracin, which is the metal ion with which its compound leads to a 10-20x increase in potency? a. Zinc b. Manganese c. Copper d. Iron
a. Zinc
How can vancomycin be administered in each indication? a. both b. Clostridium-associated pseudomonal colitis per os c. none of these d. life-threatening MRSA-associated septicaemia IV
a. both
Pair the active substance to their categories: a Doxasozine → ? b Xylazine → ? c. Phenylpropanolamine → ? d Tetrizoline → ? e Xylometazoline → ? f Atenolole → ? g Atripamezole → ? h Prazosine → ? i Metoprolole → ? j Romifidine → ? (Options: alpha receptor antagonists, alpha receptor agonists, beta receptor antagonists,
a. Doxasozine → alpha receptor antagonists b. Xylazine → alpha receptor agonists c.Phenylpropanolamine → alpha receptor agonists d. Tetrizoline → alpha receptor agonists e. Xylometazoline → alpha receptor agonists f. Atenolole → beta receptor antagonists g. Atripamezole → alpha receptor antagonists h. Prazosine → alpha receptor antagonists i. Metoprolole → beta receptor antagonists j. Romifidine → alpha receptor agonists
Pair the substances used in atopic dermatitis with the corresponding statement: a. Effective in acute and chronic cases, can be applied orally, locally and parenterally as well → ? b. Not used for the treatment of atopic dermatitis → ? c. The least effective from the listed substances for the treatment of atopic dermatitis, however starting its administration prior to the allergy season might handle the symptoms → ? d. Used only in chronic cases for long term treatment due to the delayed onset of action → ? e. Applied once parenterally provides long-acting effect → ? f. Anti-inflammatory and in case of long term application Immunosuppressive agent decreasing the levels of IL, 2, 4, 6, 13, 3L → ? (Options: Prednisolone, bedinvetmab, hydroxyzin, cyclosporine, Lokivetmab, oclatinib)
a. Effective in acute and chronic cases, can be applied orally, locally and parenterally as well → Prednisolone b. Not used for the treatment of atopic dermatitis → bedinvetmab c. The least effective from the listed substances for the treatment of atopic dermatitis, however starting its administration prior to the allergy season might handle the symptoms → hydroxyzin d. Used only in chronic cases for long term treatment due to the delayed onset of action → cyclosporine e. Applied once parenterally provides long-acting effect → Lokivetmab f. Anti-inflammatory and in case of long term application Immunosuppressive agent decreasing the levels of IL, 2, 4, 6, 13, 3L → oclatinib
Pair liquid dose forms according to whether intravenous administration is possible: a. Emulsion → ? b. Oily solution → ? c. Microemulsion → ? d. Aqueous solution → ? e. Microsuspension → ? f. Suspension → ? (Options: should not be administered intravenously, can be administered intravenously)
a. Emulsion → should not be administered intravenously b. Oily solution → should not be administered intravenously c. Microemulsion → can be administered intravenously d. Aqueous solution → can be administered intravenously e. Microsuspension → can be administered intravenously f. Suspension → Should not be administered intravenously
This animal is the most sensitive to chloramine? a. Fish b. Horse c. Cat d. Chihuahua
a. Fish
Pair the antifungal drugs to their mechanims of action: a. Fungal mitosis inhibitor → ? b. Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor → ? c. Plasma membrane stability inhibitor (polyene) → ? (Options: Griseofulvin, Terbinafin, Nystatin)
a. Fungal mitosis inhibitor → Griseofulvin b. Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor → Terbinafin c. Plasma membrane stability inhibitor (polyene) → Nystatin
Pair the quinolone carboxylic acid generations with the statement about them: a. Generation 1 → ? b. Generation 2 → ? c. Generation 3 → ? d. Generation 4 → ? (Options: their spectrum is narrow, they are effective against Gram-negative rods and coliforms, anti-pseudomonas activity appears, anti-streptococcus efficacy is shown, anaerobic efficacy is shown)
a. Generation 1 → their spectrum is narrow, they are effective against Gram-negative rods and coliforms b. Generation 2 → anti-pseudomonas activity appears c. Generation 3 → anti-streptococcus efficacy is shown d. Generation 4 → anaerobic efficacy is shown
Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description? a. Given also in canine Isospora canis infection → ? b. Primary choice of drug in Borrelia burgdorferi infection → ? c. Primary choice of drug in canine bacterial prostatitis → ? d. The veterinary formulation of the substance is given PO, SC, IM for UTI and pyoderma cases. Covers anaerobic bacteria as well → ? e. Given SC for oral cavity infections with 10-14 days of duration of action → ? (Options: sulfamethoxazole trimethoprim, doxycycline, enrofloxacin, amoxicillin clavulanic-acid, cefovecin)
a. Given also in canine Isospora canis infection → sulfamethoxazole trimethoprim b. Primary choice of drug in Borrelia burgdorferi infection → doxycycline c. Primary choice of drug in canine bacterial prostatitis → enrofloxacin d. The veterinary formulation of the substance is given PO, SC, IM for UTI and pyoderma cases. e. Covers anaerobic bacteria as well → amoxicillin clavulanic-acid f. Given SC for oral cavity infections with 10-14 days of duration of action → cefovecin
Pair each drug with the appropriate indication: a. Gram-negative bacterial mastitis → ? b. Meningitis → ? c. UTIs → ? d. Gram-positive bacterial mastitis → ? (Options: cefoperazone, ceftriaxone, cefovecin, cefapirin)
a. Gram-negative bacterial mastitis → cefoperazone b. Meningitis → ceftriaxone c. UTIs → cefovecin d. Gram-positive bacterial mastitis → cefapirin
Pair the active substances to their categories: a. Guaifenesin → ? b. Carbocysteine → ? c. Bromhexin → ? d. Codein → ? e. N-acetlcysteine → ? f. Dextrometorphan → ? g. Butorphanol → ? h. Dembrexine → ? i. Hydrocodon → ? j. Tramadol → ? (Options: expectorants, mucolytics, antitussives)
a. Guaifenesin → expectorants b. Carbocysteine → mucolytics c. Bromhexin → expectorants d. Codein → antitussives e. N-acetlcysteine → mucolytics f. Dextrometorphan → antitussives g. Butorphanol → antitussives h. Dembrexine → expectorants i. Hydrocodon → antitussives j. Tramadol → antitussives
Pair the active substances to their categories: a. Ipratropium → ? b. Pralidoxime → ? c. Atropine → ? d. Neostigmine → ? e. Glycopyrrolate → ? f. Pyridostigmine → ? g. Tropicamide → ? h. Butyl-scopolamine → ? i. Pilocarpine → ? j. Betanechol → ? (Options: parasympatholytics, enzyme reactivators, parasympathomimetics)
a. Ipratropium → parasympatholytics b. Pralidoxime → enzyme reactivators c. Atropine → parasympatholytics d. Neostigmine → parasympathomimetics e. Glycopyrrolate → parasympatholytics f. Pyridostigmine → parasympathomimetics g. Tropicamide → parasympatholytics h. Butyl-scopolamine → parasympatholytics i. Pilocarpine → parasympathomimetics j. Betanechol → parasympathomimetics
What is the mechanism of action of rifamycin? a. Protein synthesis inhibition b. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibition c. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis d. Detergent action
b. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibition
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: a. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin esterase → ? b. Glu-mediated Chloride-ion channel and GABA-agonist antiparasitic agent given also topically → ? c. Monoamino-oxidase inhibitor antiparasitic agent → ? d. Glu-mediated chloride ion channel and GABA-antagonist antiparasitic agent given orally → ? e. Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas → ? f. Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect → ? (Options: Amitraz, Iotilaner, Coumaphos, Moxidectin, Indoxacarb, deltamethrin)
a. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin esterase → Coumaphos b. Glu-mediated Chloride-ion channel and GABA-agonist antiparasitic agent given also topically → Moxidectin c. Monoamino-oxidase inhibitor antiparasitic agent → Amitraz d. Glu-mediated chloride ion channel and GABA-antagonist antiparasitic agent given orally → Lotilaner e. Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas → Indoxacarb f. Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect → deltamethrin
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: a. Isoxazoline eliminated by the kidney → ? b. GABA-antagonist agent effective against ticks and fleas, in case of 3-10 times overdose CNS signs can occur in dogs → ? c. Antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas → ? d. GABA-antagonist antiparasitic agent not recommended to use in rabbits → e. Juvenile hormone analogue antiparasitic agent → ? f. Antiparasitic agent with relatively longer elimination halflife due to enterohepatic recirculation → fluralaner (Options: afoxolaner, piriprol, imidacloprid, fipronil, metopren, fluralaner)
a. Isoxazoline eliminated by the kidney → afoxolaner b. GABA-antagonist agent effective against ticks and fleas, in case of 3-10 times overdose CNS signs can occur in dogs → piriprol c. Antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas → imidacloprid d. GABA-antagonist antiparasitic agent not recommended to use in rabbits → fipronil e. Juvenile hormone analogue antiparasitic agent → metopren f. Antiparasitic agent with relatively longer elimination halflife due to enterohepatic recirculation → fluralaner
Match: a. It can be used in ERU (equine recurrent uveitis) as an implant → ? b. Short acting parasympatholytic that is used for fundus examination → ? c. Prostaglandin analogue used for the treatment of glaucoma → ? d. Long acting parasympatholytic used for the treatment of glaucoma → ? e. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used for the treatment of glaucoma → ? (Options: cyclosporine, tropicamide, latanoprost, none of them, dorzolamide)
a. It can be used in ERU (equine recurrent uveitis) as an implant → cyclosporine b. Short acting parasympatholytic that is used for fundus examination → tropicamide c. Prostaglandin analogue used for the treatment of glaucoma → latanoprost d. Long acting parasympatholytic used for the treatment of glaucoma → none of them e. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used for the treatment of glaucoma → dorzolamide
Match: a. It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, Cestoda and Trematoda → ? b. Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes → ? c. Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against bloodsucking worms → ? d. Macrocyclic lactone, active against nematodes and ectoparasites → ? e. Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke → ? (Options: Albendazole, Levamisole, Closantel, Ivermectin, triclabendazole)
a. It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, Cestoda and Trematoda → Albendazole b. Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes → Levamisole c. Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against bloodsucking worms → Closantel d. Macrocyclic lactone, active against nematodes and ectoparasites → Ivermectin e. Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke → triclabendazole
Pair the active substances to the appropriate description: a. It is used in feline hyperthyroidism → ? b. It is used in hyperadrenocorticism → ? c. It is used in Addison's disease → ? d. As side effects it may cause hypoglycemia → ? e. It is used in hypothyroidism → ? (Options: Methimazole, Trilostane, Fludrocortisone acetate, Insulin, Levothyroxine)
a. It is used in feline hyperthyroidism → Methimazole b. It is used in hyperadrenocorticism → Trilostane c. It is used in Addison's disease → Fludrocortisone acetate d. As side effects it may cause hypoglycemia → Insulin e. It is used in hypothyroidism → Levothyroxine
Pair the antifungal drugs to their characterizations: a. Locally applied allylamine derivative → ? b. Locally applied imidazole derivative → ? c. Locally and systematically applied allylamine derivative → ? d. Parenterally applied polyene → ? e. Systematically applied triazole derivative → ? (Options: naftifine, clotrimazole, terbinafin, amphotericin-B, itraconazole)
a. Locally applied allylamine derivative → naftifine b. Locally applied imidazole derivative → clotrimazole c. Locally and systematically applied allylamine derivative → terbinafin d. Parenterally applied polyene → amphotericin-B e. Systematically applied triazole derivative → itraconazole
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: a. Macrocyclic lactone effective against fleas → ? b. Orally given ectoparasiticidal agent with one month duration of action → ? c. Repellent antiparasitic substance with 'knock down' effect → ? d. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase → ? e. It's antidote for the case of intoxication: atipamezole → ? f. Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase → ? (Options: selamectin, afoxolaner, deltametrin, diazinon, amitraz, propoxur)
a. Macrocyclic lactone effective against fleas → selamectin b. Orally given ectoparasiticidal agent with one month duration of action → afoxolaner c. Repellent antiparasitic substance with 'knock down' effect → deltametrin d. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase → diazinon e. It's antidote for the case of intoxication: atipamezole → amitraz f. Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase → propoxur
Pair the active substances to their mechanisms of action! a. dicoumarol derivatives → ? b. vitamin K → ? c. Dalteparin → ? d. Clopidogrel → ? e. Protamine → ? f. Heparin → ? g. acetylsalicylic acid → ? (Options: disturbances in synthesis of a few blood clotting factors, antagonist of coumarin derivatives, antithrombin activators, ADP receptor inhibitors, antidote for heparin, antithrombin activators, COX inhibitors)
a. dicoumarol derivatives → disturbances in synthesis of a few blood clotting factors b. vitamin K → antagonist of coumarin derivatives c. Dalteparin → antithrombin activators d. Clopidogrel → ADP receptor inhibitors e. Protamine → antidote for heparin f. Heparin → antithrombin activators g. acetylsalicylic acid → COX inhibitors
Which is the first choice antibiotic for the treatment of Lawsonia intracellularis proliferative enteropathy in foals? a. Amoxicillin b. Doxycycline c. Enrofloxacin d. Tiamulin
b. Doxycycline
Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description: a. Macrolid antibiotic agent used in combination with metronidazole in oral cavity infections → ? b. Primary choice, topically used antibacterial agent in Gr+ otitis externa → ? c. Antimicrobial agent used in feline Tritichominas infection possibly causing CNS signs as side effects → ? d. Aminoglycoside agent used primary topically or orally otherwise given is highly toxic → ? e. Antibacterial agent used also for its immunomodulatory and antiinflammatory effect → ? f. Antibacterial agent used topically in P aeruginosa otitis externa → ? (Options: Spiramycin, florfenicol, ronidazole, Neomycin, doxycycline, polimixin-B)
a. Macrolid antibiotic agent used in combination with metronidazole in oral cavity infections → Spiramycin b. Primary choice, topically used antibacterial agent in Gr+ otitis externa → florfenicol c. Antimicrobial agent used in feline Tritichominas infection possibly causing CNS signs as side effects → ronidazole d. Aminoglycoside agent used primary topically or orally otherwise given is highly toxic → Neomycin e. Antibacterial agent used also for its immunomodulatory and antiinflammatory effect → doxycycline f. Antibacterial agent used topically in P aeruginosa otitis externa → polimixin-B
It may causes follicular cysts or pyometra in small animals? a. Megestrol acetate b. eCG c. Cloprostenol d. Fertirelin
a. Megestrol acetate
Put the local anaesthetics according to their toxicity in increasing order: a. Mepivacaine → ? b. Procaine → ? c. Bupicaine → ? d. Lidocaine → ? (Options: 1, 2, 3, 4)
a. Mepivacaine → 1 b. Procaine → 2 c. Bupicaine → 4 d. Lidocaine → 3
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: a. Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas → ? b. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase → ? c. Glu-mediated Clorid-ion channel an GABA-agonist antiparasitic agent given also topically → ? d. Monoamino-oxidase inhibitor antiparasitic agent → ? e. Glu-mediated clorid-ion channel and GABA-antagonist antiparasic agent given orally → ? f. Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect → ? (Options: Indoxacarb, Coumaphos, Moxidectin, Amitraz, Lotilaner, Deltamethrin)
a. Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas → Indoxacarb b. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase → Coumaphos c. Glu-mediated Clorid-ion channel an GABA-agonist antiparasitic agent given also topically → Moxidectin d. Monoamino-oxidase inhibitor antiparasitic agent → Amitraz e. Glu-mediated clorid-ion channel and GABA-antagonist antiparasic agent given orally → Lotilaner f. Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect → Deltamethrin
Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description: a. Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke → ? b. Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against blood sucking worms → ? c. Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes → ? d. It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, cestoda and trematoda → ? e. Macrocyclic lactone active against nematodes and ectoparasites → ? (Options: Triclabendazole, Closantel, Levamisole, Albendazole, Ivermectin)
a. Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke → Triclabendazole b. Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against blood sucking worms → Closantel c. Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes → Levamisole d. It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, cestoda and trematoda → Albendazole e. Macrocyclic lactone active against nematodes and ectoparasites → Ivermectin
Match: a. Neomycin → ? b. Amikacin → ? c. Paromomycin → ? d. Tobramycin → ? e. Streptomycin → ? f. Spectinomycin → ? (Options: the most toxic aminoglycoside, the safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity, also has antiparasitic activity, also used as eye drops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity, used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins; with pronounced antimycoplasma activity)
a. Neomycin → the most toxic aminoglycoside b. Amikacin → the safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomoans aeruginosa activity c. Paromomycin → also has antiparasitic activity d. Tobramycin → also used as eye drops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity e. Streptomycin → used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins f. Spectinomycin → With pronounced antimycoplasma activity
Pair the following hormones and hormonal agents with the typical route of administration during veterinary practice: a. Norgestomet → ? b. Methimazole → ? c. hCG (hormone chorionic gonadotropin) → ? d. Deslorelin → ? e. Lente insulin → ? f. Buzerelin → ? g. Acarbose → ? h. Glipizide → ? i. Altrenogest → ? (Options: subcutaneous implant, orally, injection)
a. Norgestomet → subcutaneous implant b. Methimazole → orally c. hCG (hormone chorionic gonadotropin) → injection d. Deslorelin → subcutaneous implant e. Lente insulin → Injection f. Buzerelin → injection g. Acarbose → orally h. Glipizide → orally i. Altrenogest → orally
Match: a. Oral drug for oestrus synchronization in horses → ? b. Used in dogs to treat hormone-dependent urinary incontinence due to sphincter dysfunction → ? c. Used for induction of abortion in dogs → ? d. Vaginal drug delivery system for the regulation of oestrus cycle of cows and heifers → ? e. Active substance for injection to prevent oestrus in dogs and cats → ? (Options: altrenogest, estriol, aglepristone, progesterone, proligestone)
a. Oral drug for oestrus synchronization in horses → altrenogest b. Used in dogs to treat hormone-dependent urinary incontinence due to sphincter dysfunction → estriol c. Used for induction of abortion in dogs → aglepristone d. Vaginal drug delivery system for the regulation of oestrus cycle of cows and heifers → progesterone e. Active substance for injection to prevent oestrus in dogs and cats → proligestone
Pair the liquid dose forms with the descriptions of them: a. its solute is only solid → ? b. heterogeneous disperse, its precipitate is solid → ? c. heterogeneous disperse, its precipitate is liquid → ? d. its solute is only liquid → ? e. homogeneous disperse, it has no precipitate → ? f. its solute can be solid/liquid/gas → ? (Options: suspension, emulsion, solution)
a. its solute is only solid → suspension b. heterogeneous disperse, its precipitate is solid → suspension c. heterogeneous disperse, its precipitate is liquid → emulsion d. its solute is only liquid → emulsion e. homogeneous disperse, it has no precipitate → solution f. its solute can be solid/liquid/gas → solution
Pair the substances used for stomach ulcer prevention and treatment to their corresponding statements: a. PGE-analogue used exclusively for the prevention of gastric ulcers induced by NSAID's → ? b. H2-antagonnist used in cats long-term every other day (ADT) → ? c. Degraded by the stomach juice, bind to the damaged mucosa of the stomach wall, less suitable for the treatment of gastric ulceration but rather suitable for binding phosphorus → ? d. If used for more than 3-4 weeks due to rebound effect administration must be discontinued gradually → ? e. Possible, but not effective antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) toxicosis, CYP enzyme inhibitor, not frequently used H2-antagonist → ? (Options: misoprostol, famotidine, Aluminium hydroxide, Omeprazole, Cimetidine)
a. PGE-analogue used exclusively for the prevention of gastric ulcers induced by NSAID's → misoprostol b. H2-antagonnist used in cats long-term every other day (ADT) → famotidine c. Degraded by the stomach juice, bind to the damaged mucosa of the stomach wall, less suitable for the treatment of gastric ulceration but rather suitable for binding phosphorus → Aluminium hydroxide d. If used for more than 3-4 weeks due to rebound effect administration must be discontinued gradually → Omeprazole e. Possible, but not effective antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) toxicosis, CYP enzyme inhibitor, not frequently used H2-antagonist → Cimetidine
Give the order of disappearance of nervous function after local anaesthetic administration? a. Pain - 1 b. Warmth - 2 c. Touch - 3 d. Deep pressure - 4 e. Motor function - 5 (Options: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5)
a. Pain - 1 b. Warmth - 2 c. Touch - 3 d. Deep pressure - 4 e. Motor function - 5
What are the chemical properties of aminoglycosides that determine their pharmacokinetics? a. Positively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds b. Negatively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds c. Negatively charged, apolar and lipophilic compounds d. Negatively charged, apolar and hydrophilic compounds
a. Positively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds
Pair the active substance to their categories: a. Quinidine → ? b. Mexiletine → ? c. Amlodipine → ? d. Lidocaine → ? e. Diltiazem → ? (Options: Na+ channel blockers, membrane stabilizers; Ca2+ channel blocker)
a. Quinidine → Na+ channel blockers, membrane stabilizers b. Mexiletine → Na+ channel blockers, membrane stabilizers c. Amlodipine → Ca2+ channel blocker d. Lidocaine → Na+ channel blockers, membrane stabilizers e. Diltiazem → Ca2+ channel blockers
Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: a. Short-acting respiratory stimulant → ? b. Inhibits phosphodiesterase enzyme and it is a potent bronchodilator, can be used in the treatment of asthma → ? c. Methylxanthine with weakest direct cardiac effect → ? d. Glycine antagonist that causes severe convulsions → ? e. Antidote for poisoning by GABA-ergic CNS depressants → ? (Options: doxapram, theophylline, caffeine, strychnine, picrotoxin)
a. Short-acting respiratory stimulant → doxapram b. Inhibits phosphodiesterase enzyme and it is a potent bronchodilator, can be used in the treatment of asthma → theophylline c. Methylxanthine with weakest direct cardiac effect → caffeine d. Glycine antagonist that causes severe convulsions → strychnine e. Antidote for poisoning by GABA-ergic CNS depressants → picrotoxin
Which of the following agents has a marked inhibitory effect on T-cells? a. Tacrolimus b. Lokivetmab c. Sulfasalazine d. Oclacitinib
a. Tacrolimus
Pair the substances used for inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements: a. The most potent antiemetic applied IV in the small animal practice → ? b. Peripheral emetic agent acting as irritant on the pharyngeal and stomach mucosa → ? c. Antiemetic agent that is an antidote for the side effects of ropinirole → ? d. Used in dogs, applied into the conjunctival sack, non readministerable opioid emetic agent → ? e. Used in cats, applied IV or IM emetic agent → ? f. Used in dogs, applied into the conjunctival sack, readministerable dopamine-agonist agent → ? (Options: maropitant, hydrogen-peroxide, metoclopramide, apomorphine, xylazine, ropinirole)
a. The most potent antiemetic applied IV in the small animal practice → maropitant b. Peripheral emetic agent acting as irritant on the pharyngeal and stomach mucosa → hydrogen-peroxide c. Antiemetic agent that is an antidote for the side effects of ropinirole → metoclopramide d. Used in dogs, applied into the conjunctival sack, non readministerable opioid emetic agent → apomorphine e. Used in cats, applied IV or IM emetic agent → xylazine f. Used in dogs, applied into the conjunctival sack, readministerable dopamine-agonist agent → ropinirole
Which statement is true about opioids? a. They exert their powerful analgesic effect through the mu receptors. b. They cause bradycardia as a side effect via the delta receptors. c. They cause obstipation as a side effect through kappa receptors via inhibition of the myenteric plexus d. A their antitussive effects are exerted through the kappa receptors.
a. They exert their powerful analgesic effect through the mu receptors.
Match: a. When overdosed, mainly orally, alpha-2 agonist side effects are seen → ? b. Izoxazoline safe in pregnant dogs → ? c. Pirethroid effective against varrosis in honey bees → ? d. Macrocyclic lacton highly effective against scabies, demodicosis and myasis → ? e. Antiparasitic agent that can be sequestered by intralipid emulsion infusion (ILE) from the bloodstream in case of intoxication → ? f. Inhibits metamorphosis → ? (Options: amitraz, fluraflaner, fluvalinate, moxidectin, permethrin, piriproxifen)
a. When overdosed, mainly orally, alpha-2 agonist side effects are seen → amitraz b. Izoxazoline safe in pregnant dogs → fluraflaner c. Pirethroid effective against varrosis in honey bees → fluvalinate d. Macrocyclic lacton highly effective against scabies, demodicosis and myasis → moxidectin e. Antiparasitic agent that can be sequestered by intralipid emulsion infusion (ILE) from the bloodstream in case of intoxication → permethrin f. Inhibits metamorphosis → piriproxifen
Match: a. White powder, its watery solution can be used to disinfect the walls of stables → ? b. Less potent disinfectant, it does not kill bacterial spores → ? c. Corrosive agent, its mechanism is the formation of short life free oxygen radicals → ? d. Non-corrosive but irritative disinfectant, less influenced by impurities → ? e. It is a combination of halogen disinfectant and a cationic detergent → ? (Options: chlorinated lime, ethyl alcohol, sodium hypochlorite, glutaraldehyde, benzalkonium chloride)
a. White powder, its watery solution can be used to disinfect the walls of stables → chlorinated lime b. Less potent disinfectant, it does not kill bacterial spores → ethyl alcohol c. Corrosive agent, its mechanism is the formation of short life free oxygen radicals → sodium hypochlorite d. Non-corrosive but irritative disinfectant, less influenced by impurities → glutaraldehyde e. It is a combination of halogen disinfectant and a cationic detergent → benzalkonium chloride
Pair each drug group with the corresponding bacteria according to potency: a. penicillinase-stable penicillins → ? b. narrow spectrum penicillins → ? c. Anti-Pseudomonas penicillins → ? d. broad spectrum penicillins → ? (Options: - Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus uberis - Bacillus, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, P. multocida - Streptococcus, Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, E. coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Bacillus, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, E. coli, Salmonella)
a. penicillinase-stable penicillins → Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus uberis b. narrow spectrum penicillins → Bacillus, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, P. multocida c. Anti-Pseudomonas penicillins → Streptococcus, Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, E. coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. broad spectrum penicillins → Bacillus, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, E. coli, Salmonella
Which agent would you use in the therapy of Bordetella bronchiseptica-associated distortive rhinitis in pigs? a. Colistin b Oxytetracycline c. Metronidazole d. Chloramphenicol
b Oxytetracycline
The main indications for penicillinase-stable penicllins inclde... a. Urinary tract infections, oral infections and bite wounds b Tuberculosis c. All of these d. Infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b Tuberculosis
How are fluoroquinolones excreted in the first place? a. Active form via the liver b. Active form via the kidneys c. Inactive form via the kidney d. Inactive form via the liver
b. Active form via the kidneys
Which of the statements is TRUE for Monobactams? a. Extremely resistant to Gram-negative beta-lactamases, but ineffective against Gram Positive bacteria. b. All Three. c. They are classified as AMEG "A" d. Aztreonam can only be administered parenterally, tigemonam can be administered per os
b. All Three.
Which of the following substances has sedative hypnotic effect? a. Xylazine b. Romifidine c. Medetomidine d. None of them e. All of them
e. All of them
What is the MIC value of an antibiotic? a. Mean inhibitory concentration b. Maximum inhibitory concentration c. Minimum bactericidal concentration d. Maximum bactericidal concentration e. Mean bactericidal concentration f. Minimum inhibitory concentration
f. Minimum inhibitory concentration