Pharma Entrance Exam Questions

10-20% of sulfonamides are excreted in the urine in an active form? True False

False

A higher therapeutic index means that the drug can easily be overdosed? True False

False

A typical side effect of glucocorticoid therapy is loss of appetite? True False

False

ACE inhibitors act very rapidly and intravenous application is recommended in life-threatening conditions? True False

False

Amantadine and rimantadine inhibit the release of virus? True False

False

Anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoids can only be achieved with high doses? True False

False

Antibiotic resistance genes encoded on chromosomes have a bigger impact on the spread of resistance compared to genes on plasmids? True False

False

Application of xylazine is contraindicated in cats? True False

False

Approx. 50% of hypotonic crystalloid infusions is distributed in the IS fluid compartment? True False

False

Approx. 70-80% of isotonic crystalloid infusions is distributed in the IV fluid compartment? True False

False

As the generations of cephalosporins increase, their effectiveness against gram-negative bacteria decreases? True False

False

Azaperone is a neuroleptic agent that can only be used in dogs? True False

False

Azithromycin can only penetrate the airways and bone in very small amounts, so it is suitable for the treatment of infections of these organs? True False

False

Barbiturates do not have a muscle relaxant effect? True False

False

Because of its high protein binding, carprofen can cross the blood-milk barrier in dairy cattle? True False

False

Biofilms can be formed only in inanimate objects? True False

False

Capsules and tablets are generally used in farm animals due to their large size, the use of powders is more common in small animal practice? a. True b False

False

Change in pH value influences the efficacy of strong acid disinfectants, but it does not change the effect of weak acid disinfectants? True False

False

Clavulanic acid is a very stable compound, so intravenous preparations containing amoxicillin clavulanic acid can be used in their aqueous solution for 3-4 days? True False

False

Clindamycin may be used in the therapy of gastrointestinal infections of pigs caused by Lawsonia intracellularis and Brachyspira hyodysenteriae? True False

False

Clopidogrel should not be used in cats only in dogs? True False

False

Decreasing the blood glucose levels is a possible side effects of glucocorticoids? True False

False

Dembrexine is mainly used for the treatment of feline asthma? True False

False

Diazinon breaks down into diazoxone, which is a safer and more effective compound, so it is advisable to prepare anti-parasitic bath water at least one day in advance? a. True b False

False

Diclofenac is an anti-inflammatory drug that can be used safely in dogs? True False

False

Disinfectants and antiseptic have more than one target, therefore pathogens are not able to develop resistance against these compounds? True False

False

Due to its low therapeutic index, oclacitinib cannot be used in increased dose? True False

False

During the preparation of the suppositories, the suppositories must be formed one by one from the heated mass by hand and then packaged and placed in a refrigerator? a. True b False

False

Eye drops usually have shorter duration of action than eye ointments, therefore eye drops should be administered less frequently on a daily basis? True False

False

Febantel is a prodrug, that is metabolized to albendazole in the body? True False

False

Florfenicol belongs to AMEG category D, meaning its use is almost risk-free from a human health point of view? True False

False

Generally, if the drug has high affinity to the receptor, higher dose is needed and the drug's effect develops slowly? True False

False

GnRH analogues are often used orally? True False

False

Guaifenesin decreases ciliary movement and enhances mucus secretion? True False

False

HES infusions with higher average molecular weight have longer half-life, however, the risk of liver side effects is also higher in case of them? True False

False

HES infusions with higher molar substitution have longer half-life, however the risk of liver side effects is also higher in case of them? True False

False

If the therapeutic index of a drug is small, it is difficult to overdose? True False

False

If we increase the dose of time-dependent bactericidal antibiotics, it will result in a quicker killing of bacteria? True False

False

Imepitoin is an important agent in the management of status epilpeticus? True False

False

In case of external drug administration, systemic effects cannot occur? True False

False

In case of transformation, the resistance gene is transmitted by a bacteriophage? True False

False

In status epilepticus, propofol is administered intramuscularly? True False

False

In the case of ointments, it is not necessary to write "Externally" on the prescription, because it is never used internally? True False

False

In the so-called on-target effect, the harmful effect of the substance occurs when it binds to the wrong receptor? True False

False

In the treatment of BRDC, penicillins and cefalosporins can be active against both fastidious Gram-negative bacteria and mycoplasmae? True False

False

In the treatment of BRDC, penicillins and cephalosporins can be active against both fastidious gram-negative bacteria and mycoplasma? True False

False

In the treatment of dehydration, dose of rehydrating infusion can be calculated by dividing the dehydration percentage with the bodyweight? True False

False

Isoflurane is an injectable anaesthetic? True False

False

Itraconazole can be used in dogs, but it should not be used in cats due to its toxicity? True False

False

Lidocaine can be administered orally for long-term therapy? True False

False

Lidocaine causes pronounced Vasodilation? True False

False

Lincomycin can be used with high safety in the treatment of respiratory tract infections in horses True False

False

Lincosamides and macrolides have different spectra, the former being more effective against gram-negative bacteria, while the latter is only effective against gram-positive? True False

False

Lipophilic solutions are recommended for intravenous administration due to their short half life? True False

False

Lokivetmab and oklacitinib have antiinflammatory and analgesic properties? True False

False

Long-acting parasympatholytics are mainly used for diagnostic ophthalmic purposes? True False

False

Loperamide is given in severe bacterial enteritis? True False

False

Medetomidine is an alpha-2-antagonist? True False

False

Metomidate belongs to the steroid anaesthetics? True False

False

Mexiletine should be administered intravenously? True False

False

Mycophenolate mofetil is an immunosuppressive agent that belongs to the group of alkylating agents? True False

False

Oclatinib primarily inhibits the enzyme JAK-2? True False

False

Of the macrolide group, tulathromycin, gamithromycin and tilipyrosin have the worst tissue distribution? True False

False

Only ionised drugs cross biological membranes by diffusion? True False

False

Opioids generally cause dysphoria in dogs and euphoria in cats? True False

False

Opioids have mucolytic effect in the respiratory tract? True False

False

Penicillins can be effectively combined with bacteriostatic antibiotics? True False

False

Per os absorption of aminoglycosides is excellent , but their distribution is poor? a. True b False

False

Pharmacokinetics deals with absorption and excretion, while pharmacodynamics deals with metabolism and excretion? True False

False

Phenoxymethyl-penicillin is used parenteral in pigs for the treatment of necrotizing enteritis caused by Clostridium perfringens C? True False

False

Phenoxymethylpenicillin is used parenterally in swine for treatment of clostridium perfringens C necrotic enteritis? True False

False

Potentiated sulfonamides are effective against mycoplasma and mycobacterium species? True False

False

Powder for external use is suitable for wound healing with talc filler? True False

False

Propofol has a marked analgesic effect? True False

False

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is highly sensitive to florfenicol? True False

False

Rifamycin is not effective against gram-positive bacteria? a. True b False

False

Second generation fluoroquinolones are not effective against intracellular pathogens? True False

False

Short-acting tetracyclines should be administered once daily by orally, while long-acting tetracyclines should be administered every 2 days? True False

False

Side effects of glucocorticoids include muscle hypertrophy, increased calcium absorption and collagen synthesis? True False

False

The distribution of diaminopyrimidines in the body is very poor, they do not cross biological membranes? True False

False

The long-term management of epilepsy must be started if the status epilepticus lasted for more than one minute? True False

False

The mechanism of action of tetracyclines is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis at the 50s subunit of the ribosome? True False

False

The renal toxicity of NSAIDs is generally reduced during anaesthesia? True False

False

Theobromine inhibits the catecholamine uptake? True False

False

Tiamulin is a concentration-dependent bactericidal antibacterial agent? True False

False

Tilvalosin is used only in the therapy of enteric infections? a. True b False

False

Tilvalosin may be used to treat gastrointestinal tract infections caused by Escherichia coli and salmonella? True False

False

Topically applied procaine has fast onset of action? a. True b False

False

Valnemulin is a time-dependent bactericidal antibacterial agent? a. True b False

False

Valnemulin is excellent for the treatment of diarrhea caused by Salmonella? True False

False

Absorption and distribution of fluconazole are excellent, it enters CNS? True False

True

Acepromazine can be used for sedation of aggressive animals, eg. to alleviate handling during veterinary investigations and transport? True False

True

Acorlein-caused haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mesna? True False

True

Acrolein caused haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mesna? True False

True

Acrolein-casued haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mesna? True False

True

Acrolein-caused haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mesna? True False

True

Acrolein-caused hemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mensa? a True b. False

True

Amfotericin B is used in life-threatening conditions due to its severe side effects? a True b. False

True

Amide type local anaesthetics are largely degraded by hepatic inactivation? True False

True

Aminoglycosides are positively charged, cationic polar and hydrophilic compounds? True False

True

Amlodipine is mainly used in cat hypertension, verapamil and diltiazem are applied as antiarrhytmic agents? True False

True

Among the premixes we can distinguish between medicated premix and feed supplements, and their fillers are feed-like, e.g. wheat bran? a True b. False

True

Amoxicillin can be used for the treatment of mastitis in cattle via intramammary infusion, because it's penetration through the blood- milk barrier is not enough when given parenterally? True False

True

Amoxicillin is used orally and parenterally in pigs? True False

True

Atropine can be used in case of uveitis and organophosphate toxicosis? True False

True

Average daily fluid uptake of dogs is 40-60 ml/kg/day? True False

True

Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive agent that belongs to the purine analogue group? True False

True

Bacitracin is ineffective against gram-negative bacteria? True False

True

Benzylpenicillin-Na/K has an average duration of action of 4-6 hours? True False

True

Butyl-scopolamine can be used to treat horse colic? True False

True

Carprofen is safe for use in most mammalian animals? True False

True

Cats generally tolerate glucocorticoid therapy better than dogs? True False

True

Clindamycin can be used for the treatment of wounds caused by streptococci and staphylococci,oral cavity infections and sinusitis? a True b. False

True

Clotrimazole can be used against yeasts and dermatophytes? True False

True

Codeine and butorphanol are also used for cough suppression in dogs? True False

True

Cross-resistance between macrolides and pleuromutilins is possible? True False

True

Cyclophosphamide is an immunosuppressive agent belonging to the group of alkylating agents? True False

True

Cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, lomustine can be applied orally? a True b. False

True

Cyclosporine can be used safely in dogs and cats in the therapy of autoimmune diseases? True False

True

Despite the excellent distribution of lincomycin, it does not cross the blood-brain barrier? True False

True

Diazepam may cause paradoxical reaction in cats? True False

True

Diazinon can cause irreversible inhibition of AchE? True False

True

Dogs are more sensitive to cyclophosphamide treatment compared to cats? True False

True

During the use of prolonged-acting insulin derivatives, moderate hyperglycemia may result due to a rebound effect? True False

True

EPO and darbepoetin-alpha should be applied parenterally only? True False

True

EPO can be used to treat anaemia as a result of chronic kidney failure or cancer only after hematocrit level determination? True False

True

Ester-type local anaesthetics are hydrolysed primarily by plasma esterases? True False

True

First-generation quinolone carboxylic acids have a narrow spectrum and are effective against gram-negative rods and coliforms? True False

True

Gentamicin has anti-Pseudomonas aeguginosa activity? a True b. False

True

Glucocorticoids cause lymphocyte apoptosis? True False

True

Gram-negative fastidious bacteria are generally more susceptible to tilmicosin than mycoplasmas? True False

True

Idoxuridine can be used locally to treat herpes virus-caused keratitis in cats? True False

True

If long-term prednisolone is to be used, 48-hour administration (alternate day therapy) is recommended? True False

True

If we increase the dose of concentration-dependent bactericidal antibiotics, it will result in a quicker killing of bacteria? True False

True

In case of oral drug administration, adsorbents and antacids can decrease absorption? True False

True

In dogs, typical side effects of glucocorticoids include skin scaling, thinning and alopecia? True False

True

In fish, the WP is determined in degree days, which is the cumulative sum of daily water temperature? True False

True

In status epilepticus, levetiracetam may be administered by intravenous or rectal route of administration> True False

True

In the calculation of the therapeutic index, the drugs LD50 value is divided with their ED50 value? True False

True

In the ligand-receptor binding, a high dissociation constant means lower affinity of the ligand to the receptor? True False

True

It is recommended to monitor monocyte neutrophil and eosinophil granulocyte counts during long-term oclatinib therapy? True False

True

Local anaesthetics have decreased activity in inflamed or hypoxic? a True b. False

True

Long acting tetracyclines have an excellent distribution, even crossing the blood brain barrier, making them suitable for the treatment of neurological infections? True False

True

Medetomidine is authorised to use mainly in dogs and cats? True False

True

Mupirocin can be used to eliminate MRSA strains? a True b. False

True

Nitrofurans are bactericidal in their mode of action? True False

True

Oclatinib is very well absorbed after per os administration True False

True

Orthosteric agonist binds to the receptor at the same place where its ligand binds, while allosteric agonist binds to a different site? True False

True

Package of authorised veterinary medicines should always include information about the active substance, dosage form, concentration and target species of the product? True False

True

Phenobarbital can be used for the longterm control of epilepsy as well as for the treatment of status epilepticus? True False

True

Potassium bromide should only be used in epilepsy in dogs because it causes severe pulmonary edema in cats? True False

True

Powder for internal use can be direct administered in capsule? a. True b. False

True

Pus and tissue debris greatly impair the effectiveness of sulfonamides? True False

True

Salinomycin and diclazuril are coccidiostatic agents that are authorized for rabbits as well? True False

True

Salmeterol has long duration of action up to 12 hours? True False

True

Side effect of doxorubicin treatment can be cardiotoxicity? True False

True

Some NSAIDs decrease aggregation of thrombocytes by decreasing TXA synthesis? True False

True

Spectinomycin has a bacteriostatic mode of action? True False

True

Structure-dependent drug action can occur via receptors and other targets (e.g. enzymes, DNA, transporters) as well? True False

True

Tetracycline antibiotics can be broken down into toxic anhydrotetracyclines? True False

True

The MAO-inhibitor selegiline can be used in dogs the slow down the progrediation of old age dementia? True False

True

The antibacterial spectrum of azithromycin and clarithromycin includes staphylococci and streptococci? True False

True

The average duration of action of benzylpenicillin-procaine is 12-24 hours? True False

True

The canine congestive heart failure stage B1 do not need any treatment? True False

True

The eye drops are sterile, the original formulations are can be used for 28 days after opening? a True b. False

True

The first generation of cephalosporins has the most pronounced efficacy against gram-positive bacteria? True False

True

The lower the therapeutic index of an active substance, the closer its ED50 value is to its LD50 value? True False

True

The methylxanthines block the adenosine receptor? True False

True

The mutant selection window (MSW) means the concentration range between MIC and MPC values of antibiotics? True False

True

The solutions can be administered by a wide variety of routes, enterally, parenteral and topically too? True False

True

Tiletamine belongs to the group of NMDA receptor antagonists, also called dissociative anaesthetics? True False

True

Tulathromycin and gamithromycin are effective against anaerobic bacteria, making them suitable for the treatment of foot-end infections in ruminants? True False

True

Tulathromycin is ion trapped in white blood cells due to the ionisation of amino groups intracellularly in the presence of many protons? True False

True

When sulfonamides are administered to domestic rabbits and poultry, vitamin K deficiency may occur, leading to bleeding? True False

True

While using chloramphenicol wearing gloves is recommended to avoid the possible development of aplastic anaemia as a side effect of the usage? True False

True

prostaglandin-E increases mucin secretion in the gastric mucosa? True False

True

For potential sulfonamides, what is the sulfonmide:diaminopyrimidine ratio for our drugs? a 5:1 b. 1:1 c. 100:1 d. 20:1

a 5:1

Which of the following is true for the spectrum of nitroimidazoles? a Both b. Neither c. They are also effective against protozoa. d. Are effective against anaerobic bacteria

a Both

AMEG category A agents are? a Penicillins against Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. None of these c. Narrow spectrum penicillin d. Non-broad spectrum penicillins

a Penicillins against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a cattle (BW: 400kg), if the dose is 0.5mg/kg (BW) and the concentration of the product is 20mg/ml? a. 10ml b. 40ml c. 2ml d. 100ml

a. 10ml

How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a horse (BW: 400kg) if the dose is 0.6 mg/kg (BW) and the concentration of the product is 20mg/ml (m x d/c)? a. 12ml b. 10ml c. 40ml d. 2ml

a. 12ml

How much 40% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100ml of 10% solution? a. 25ml b. 12.5ml c. 50ml d. 75ml

a. 25ml

Pair the drugs to the appropriate description: a. A full agonist opioid with a potent analgesic effect, requiring 15-30 minutes form administration for analgesia to develop, depending on the route of administration → ? b. A potent full agonist opioid used in veterinary practice as a painkiller and cough suppressant. → ? c. Agonist-antagonist opioids with weak-to-moderate analgesic effect → ? d. One of the most potent analgesic opioid, also used as a transdermal patch in veterinary medicine → ? e. Long-acting partial agonist opioid that binds strongly to opioid receptors and may reduce the analgesic effect of full agonists when used in combination with them → ? (Options: Morphine, Tramadol, Butorphanol, Fentanyl, Buprenorphine)

a. A full agonist opioid with a potent analgesic effect, requiring 15-30 minutes form administration for analgesia to develop, depending on the route of administration → Morphine b. A potent full agonist opioid used in veterinary practice as a painkiller and cough suppressant. → Tramadol c. Agonist-antagonist opioids with weak-to-moderate analgesic effect → Butorphanol d. One of the most potent analgesic opioid, also used as a transdermal patch in veterinary medicine → Fentanyl e. Long-acting partial agonist opioid that binds strongly to opioid receptors and may reduce the analgesic effect of full agonists when used in combination with them → Buprenorphine

Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description: a. A medicine active against adult Dirofilaria → ? b. This antiparasitic is effective against Taenia and Giardia species → ? c. Macrocyclic lactone that active against nematodes and ectoparasites → ? d. Antiparasitic agent only effective against intestinal nematodes → ? e. Antiparasitic agent only effective against tapeworms → ? (Options: Melarsomine, Fenbendazole, Selamectin, Pyrantel embonate, Praziquantel)

a. A medicine active against adult Dirofilaria → Melarsomine b. This antiparasitic is effective against Taenia and Giardia species → Fenbendazole c. Macrocyclic lactone that active against nematodes and ectoparasites → Selamectin d. Antiparasitic agent only effective against intestinal nematodes → Pyrantel embonate e. Antiparasitic agent only effective against tapeworms → Praziquantel

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description: a. Active substance for the treatment of coccidiosis via drinking water → ? b. Triazine coccidiostat for use in chemoprophylaxis via feed → ? c. Semi Divalent ionophore coccidiostat → ? d. Divalent ionophore coccidiostat → ? e. Monovalent ionophore coccidiostat → ? (Options: toltrazuril, diclazuril, maduramycin, lazalocid, salinomycin)

a. Active substance for the treatment of coccidiosis via drinking water → toltrazuril b. Triazine coccidiostat for use in chemoprophylaxis via feed → diclazuril c. Semi Divalent ionophore coccidiostat → maduramycin d. Divalent ionophore coccidiostat → lazalocid e. Monovalent ionophore coccidiostat → salinomycin

Which statement is true? a. All three b. Opioids act at the site of nociception. c. Opioids have a very good analgesic effect. d. Opioids have antidiarrheal and cough suppressant effects

a. All three

Which of the following processes involves the formation of toxic metabolites? a. Both b. Neither c. Reactions leading to glutathione deficiency d. Modification of sulfhydryl groups

a. Both

In horses, penicillins can be effective in the treatment of...? a. Both of them b. Strangles c. None of them d. Abscesses, wound infections

a. Both of them

Which of the following substance groups can reduce high blood pressure? a. Both of them b. None of them c. ATII receptor antagonists d. ACE inhibitors

a. Both of them

Which of the following substances can have antiarrhytmic effect? a. Both of them b. Propranolol c. None of them d. Sotalol

a. Both of them

Which of the following substances can have urethra sphincter relaxing effect? a. Both of them b. None of them c. Phenoxybenzamine d. Doxazosin

a. Both of them

Which of the following substances can increase mucociliary movement? a. Both of them b. Bromhexin c. N-acetylcysteine d. None of them

a. Both of them

Which substance decreases the production of aqueous humour? a. Both of them b. Dorzolamide c. None of them d. Timolol

a. Both of them

Give the order of clearance of the amides, start with the fastest: a. Bupivacaine → ? b. Mepivacaine → ? c. Lidocaine → ? d. Prilocaine → ? (Options: 1, 2, 3, 4)

a. Bupivacaine → 4 b. Mepivacaine → 3 c. Lidocaine → 2 d. Prilocaine → 1

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: a. Can be used also in pituitary-dependent Cushing's syndrome → ? b. It is use in hyperthyroidism → ? c. It inhibits the alpha-glycosidase activity in the gastrointestinal tract → ? d. Only indicated in hypothyroidism if the first-choice therapy has failed → ? e. It can be used in ketosis and fatty liver treatment in cattle which are non-responsive to glucose → ? (Options: Trilostane, Thiamazole, Acarbose, Liothyronine, Insulin)

a. Can be used also in pituitary-dependent Cushing's syndrome → Trilostane b. It is use in hyperthyroidism → Thiamazole c. It inhibits the alpha-glycosidase activity in the gastrointestinal tract → Acarbose d. Only indicated in hypothyroidism if the first-choice therapy has failed → Liothyronine e. It can be used in ketosis and fatty liver treatment in cattle which are non-responsive to glucose → Insulin

Which of the following adverse reactions is specific to fluoroquinolones? a. Genotixic and fetal effects b. Reversible retinopathy and risk of complete loss of vision when enrofloxacin is given in cats c. Allergy d. Vitamin K deficiency

b. Reversible retinopathy and risk of complete loss of vision when enrofloxacin is given in cats

In canine congestive heart failure stage D, it is effective to dilate the pulmonary arteries? a. Pimobendan b. Sildenafil c. Ramipril d. Telmisartan

b. Sildenafil

Against which of the following pathogens are aminoglycosides NOT effective? a. Salmonella spp. b. Streptococcus spp. c. E. coli d. Staphylococcus spp.

b. Streptococcus spp.

Which statement is true about opioids? a. They act only in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, where the sensory nerves are switched. b. They act at three sites: supraspinal, spinal and peripheral. c. They act only supraspinally. d. Act only peripherally, at the site of pain.

b. They act at three sites: supraspinal, spinal and peripheral.

The competitive antagonist of 3B-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase enzyme? a. Cabergoline b. Trilostan c. Denaverin d. Terbutalin

b. Trilostan

Antibacterial agent topically used in Gr-otitis exerna:? a. Metronidazole b. polymixin-B c. Spectinomycin d. Pradofloxacin

b. polymixin-B

Which is not part of GMP (good manufacturing practice)? a. Quality management b. Self control c Innovation d. Quality control

c Innovation

How much 40% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100ml of 5% solution? a. 25ml b. 50ml c. 12.5ml d. 75ml

c. 12.5ml

How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a swine (BW: 100kg) if the dose is 0.4mg/kg (BW) and the concentration of the product is 20mg/ml? a. 100ml b. 10ml c. 2ml d. 40ml

c. 2ml

Povidone iodine can be used for? a. Mammary gland disinfection b. Skin disinfection c. All of them d. Mucus membrane disinfection

c. All of them

What is the spectrum of action of sulfonamides? a. Coccidial action b. Gram-positive antibacterial action c. All of them d. Gram-negative antibacterial action

c. All of them

How can gentamicin be used in adult ruminants? a. Orally b. Both of them c. As injection d. None of them

c. As injection

The side chains of beta-lactam antibiotics are responsible for..? a. None of the above b. The spectrum of the antibiotic c. Both d. The pharmacokinetic properties of the antibiotics

c. Both

Which of the following drug actions is structure-dependent? a. None of them b. Inhibition of enzymes c. Both of them d. Activation of receptors

c. Both of them

Which of the following substances might cause heart remodelling? a. Furosemide b. ACE inhibitors c. Both of them d. None of them

c. Both of them

Primary choice cephalosporin to treat canine pyoderma systemically? a. Cefotaxime b. Cefoperazone c. Cephalexin d. Cefquinome

c. Cephalexin

Which of the following agents is characterized by low absorption after oral administration in pigs? a. Tiamulin b. Florfenicol c. Colistin d. Enrofloxacin

c. Colistin

It can cause colic symptoms, tremor, sweating in horses? a. Altrenogest b. eCG c. Dinoprost d. None of these

c. Dinoprost

Which drug would you use to treat anaplasmal infections in dogs? a. Neomycin b. Amoxicillin c. Doxicillin/Doxycyline d. Bacitracin

c. Doxicillin/Doxycyline

Which of the following agents has excellent absorption after oral administration in pigs? a. Amoxicillin b. Colistin c. Florfenicol d. Gentamicin

c. Florfenicol

Antiparasitic agent licensed for oral use in poultry against bird mite (Dermanyssus gallinae)? a. Deltamethrin b. Moxidectin c. Fluraflaner d. Fipronil

c. Fluraflaner

Which of the following side effect is specific to fluoroquinolones? a. Allergy b. Genotoxic and fetal effects c. Inhibition of growth of cartilage in young animals d. Aplastic anemia

c. Inhibition of growth of cartilage in young animals

What are the central nervous system effects of first generation antihistamines? a. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor in the appropriate tissue b. Off-target effect on the inappropriate receptor in the inappropriate tissue c. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor but not in the appropriate tissue d. Off-target effect on the inappropriate receptor but in the appropriate tissue

c. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor but not in the appropriate tissue

In these animals, porto-renal system should be considered in case of injectable drug administration? a. Bees b. Mammals c. Reptiles d. Fish

c. Reptiles

Which of the following substances can be used for the treatment of proliferative enteropathy caused by Lawsonia intracellularis in swine? a. Colistin b. Doxycycline c. Tiamulin d. Clindamycin

c. Tiamulin

What is the indication for fourth generation fluoroquilones? a. UTIs and gastrointestinal tract infections b. Respiratory infections, pyoderma, osteomyelitis, prostatitis, eye infections c. Gingivitis, periodontitis meningitis, meningoencephalitis. d. All

d All

Which of the following pathogens is florfenicol effective against? a. Aeromonas salmonicida b. None c. Vibrio anguillarum d Both

d Both

Which AMEG category do the 3-4th generation cephalosporins fall into? a. "C" b. "D" c. "A" d. "B"

d. "B"

How much 20% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100ml of 5% solution? a. 75ml b. 50ml c. 12.5ml d. 25ml

d. 25ml

Which antibiotic group can be used in severe, life- threatening infection of horses? a. Cefalosporins b. Aminoglycosides c. Fluoroquinolones d. All of them

d. All of them

Which of the following can sulfonamides be used to treat? a. Nocardia asteriodes b. Toxoplasma gondii c. Listeria monsocytogenes d. All of them

d. All of them

Which of the following substance groups have got bronchodilatory effect? a. Anticholinergic drugs b. Sympathomimetics c. Xanthine derivatives d. All of them e. None of them

d. All of them

Which of the following effects are considered to be adverse effects of drugs? a. Toxic metabolic formation b. Damaging immune response c. Idiosyncratic response d. All three

d. All three

Which of the following is the pharmacological action of NSAIDs? a. Anti-inflammatory b. Antipyretic c. Analgesic d. All three

d. All three

Which of the following drugs is characterised by a spasmolytic effect? a. Flunixin-meglumine b. None c. Metamizole d. All two

d. All two

Which of the following side effects are typical of phenicols? a. Yellow discoloration of bones b. Explicit kidney damage c. Photosensitization d. Anaemia, immunosuppression

d. Anaemia, immunosuppression

What are the side effects of polymyxins? a. neurotoxicity via flaccid paralysis b. nephrotoxicity c. none of these d. Both

d. Both

Which of the following substances can have antibiotics penetration enhancing effects? a. N-acetylcysteine b. None of them c. Bromhexin d. Both of them

d. Both of them

Which substance acts via nonspecific physical interaction? a. None of them b. Magnesium sulphate c. Mannitol d. Both of them

d. Both of them

Specific symptom in toxicosis caused by diazinon? a. Tachycardia b. Vomiting c. Enophtalmus d. Depression

d. Depression

Which of the equations are true for most drugs? a. TD50 b. None of them c. TD50>LD50 d. ED50

d. ED50

Penicillins are...? a. Inhibitors of folate synthesis b. Inhibitors of protein synthesis c. DNA damaging agents d. Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

d. Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

This drug can inhibit the CYP450 enzymes? a. Codeine b. Phenobarbital c. Gentamicin d. Ketoconazole

d. Ketoconazole

Which of the following substance groups has got diuretic effect? a. ATII receptor antagonists b. Both of them c. Ca2+ channel blockers d. None of them

d. None of them

For the treatment of canine gastric ulcers the recommended substance(s) is (are): a. Famotidine b. Sucralphate c. Famotidine + omeprazole d. Omeprazole

d. Omeprazole

Opioids pharmacological effects include? a. Expectorant effect b. Laxative effect c. All of them d. Sedation

d. Sedation

Which statement is not true for tylosin? a. can be used in dogs to treat antibiotic responsive enteropathy b. its tablet form does not need to be coated c. macrolide antibiotic d. only extra label can be used in farm animals

d. only extra label can be used in farm animals

Which of the following aminoglycoside agents has specific antiprotozoal activity? a. obramycin b. amikacin c. gentamicin d. paromomycin

d. paromomycin

Which of the following aminoglycoside active substances is typically used as an eye drop? a. apramycin b. paromomycin c. spectinomycin d. tobramycin

d. tobramycin

Narrow spectrum penicillins include? a. Ampicillin b. Benzylpenicillin-procaine c. Amoxicillin d. Piperacillin

b. Benzylpenicillin-procaine

Which of the following agents is suitable for the treatment of enteritis caused by clostridia? a. Vancomycin b. Both c. Neither d. Bacitracin

b. Both

Which of the following is a first-generation antihistamine? a. Dimenhydrinate b. Both c. None d. Hydroxyzine

b. Both

Which of the following drugs can be effective in the treatment of Moraxella bovis keratoconjunctivitis in cattle? a. None of them b. Both of them c. Chlortetracycline d. Florfenicol

b. Both of them

Which of the following substances can cause azotaemia? a. None of them b. Both of them c. Enalapril d. Lisinopril

b. Both of them

Which of the following substances have positive inotropic effect? a. Pimobendan b. Both of them c. Digoxin d. None of them

b. Both of them

Agent used for the long-term management of phonophobia in dogs? a. Acepromazine b. Clomipramine c. Selegiline d. Cefovecin

b. Clomipramine

Behaviour modifier agent for the management acral lick dermatitis in the dog? a. Teobromine b. Clomipramine c. Diazepam d. Trilostane

b. Clomipramine

Which of the following agents has excellent absorption after oral administration in pigs? a. Amoxicillin b. Florfenicol c. Gentamicin d. Colistin

b. Florfenicol

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: a. Allosteric activator of GABA(A) → ? b. Alpha-2-antagonist → ? c. This tranquilizer is not appropriate for oral use → ? d. Potent alpha-2 agonist licensed also for equine use → ? e. Alpha-2-agonist sedative and also a potent emetic agent in cats → ? (Options: Midazolam, Atipamezole, Azaperone, Detomidine, Xylazine)

a. Allosteric activator of GABA(A) → Midazolam b. Alpha-2-antagonist → Atipamezole c. This tranquilizer is not appropriate for oral use → Azaperone d. Potent alpha-2 agonist licensed also for equine use → Detomidine e. Alpha-2-agonist sedative and also a potent emetic agent in cats → Xylazine

Pair the substances to the appropriate description" a. An antibacterial agent used both orally and parenterally in pigs, one of the main indications is enteritis caused by Escherichia coli → ? b. A drug of the AMEG B category with very low absorption from the gastrointestinal tract, most commonly indicated for enteritis caused by Escherichia coli → ? c. An antibacterial agent used orally only in pigs and poultry species, to which the bacterial species Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is almost always sensitive → ? d. An antibacterial agent with excellent pharmacokinetic properties used for the treatment of infectious diseases of pigs and poultry species caused by mycoplasmas. → ? e. Substance used parenterally in pigs only, Streptococcus suis is sensitive to this substance in almost all cases → ? (Options: Gentamicin, Colistin, Phenoxymethyl-penicillin, Tiamulin, Procaine penicillin)

a. An antibacterial agent used both orally and parenterally in pigs, one of the main indications is enteritis caused by Escherichia coli → Gentamicin b. A drug of the AMEG B category with very low absorption from the gastrointestinal tract, most commonly indicated for enteritis caused by Escherichia coli → Colistin c. An antibacterial agent used orally only in pigs and poultry species, to which the bacterial species Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is almost always sensitive → Phenoxymethyl-penicillin d. An antibacterial agent with excellent pharmacokinetic properties used for the treatment of infectious diseases of pigs and poultry species caused by mycoplasmas. → Tiamulin e. Substance used parenterally in pigs only, Streptococcus suis is sensitive to this substance in almost all cases → Procaine penicillin

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: a. Animals must be served with drinking water prior to bathing with this antiparasitic agent to avoid intoxicosis → ? b. Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase mostly used in companion animals → ? c. Less safe antiparasitic agent against scabies, demodicosis and ticks → ? d. As part of the "double defence" prevention for heart worm infestation used in dogs → ? e. Pyrethroid used also in cats in antiparasitic collars → flumethrin f. Organophosphate e!ective agains varroosis in honey bees → ? (Options: diazinon, propoxur, amitraz, permethrin, coumaphos)

a. Animals must be served with drinking water prior to bathing with this antiparasitic agent to avoid intoxicosis → diazinon b. Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase mostly used in companion animals → propoxur c. Less safe antiparasitic agent against scabies, demodicosis and ticks → amitraz d. As part of the "double defence" prevention for heart worm infestation used in dogs → permethrin e. Pyrethroid used also in cats in antiparasitic collars → flumethrin f. Organophosphate e!ective agains varroosis in honey bees → coumaphos

Pair the active ingredients to the appropriate description: a. Antibacterial agent of the treatment diseases of pig and poultry species caused by pasteurella and mycoplasma → ? b. Broad-spectrum AMEG C antibacterial agent with execellent absorption for pigs and poultry, indications include enteritis and colibacilosis caused by Escherichia coli, mycoplasma and Gram-negative nutritional pathogens → ? c. An antibacterial agent used for the treatment of Escherichia coli in pigs and poultry species with low absorption from the gatstrointestinal tract. → ? d. Antibacterial agent of AMEG category C with excellent pharmacokinetic properties for the treatment of staphylococcal diseases in intestinal species → ? e. An oral antibacterial agent for the treatment of entercoccosis in poultry → ? (Options: Doxycycline, Florfenicol, Apramycin, Lincomycin, Amoxicillin)

a. Antibacterial agent of the treatment diseases of pig and poultry species caused by pasteurella and mycoplasma → Doxycycline b. Broad-spectrum AMEG C antibacterial agent with execellent absorption for pigs and poultry, indications include enteritis and colibacilosis caused by Escherichia coli, mycoplasma and Gram-negative nutritional pathogens → Florfenicol c. An antibacterial agent used for the treatment of Escherichia coli in pigs and poultry species with low absorption from the gatstrointestinal tract. → Apramycin d. Antibacterial agent of AMEG category C with excellent pharmacokinetic properties for the treatment of staphylococcal diseases in intestinal species → Lincomycin e. An oral antibacterial agent for the treatment of entercoccosis in poultry → Amoxicillin

Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description: a. Antibacterial agent used mostly topically with the possible side effect of aplastic anemia → ? b. Antimicrobial agent used in canine chronic colitis with the possible decrease in tear production (KCS) as side effects → ? c. Antibacterial agent used in canine antibiotic responsive diarrhea (ARD) → ? d. Antimicrobial agent used canine Giardiosis → ? e. Fluoroquinlone used orally also in anal sacculitis → ? f. Antibacterial agent used in canine Campylobacter enteritis → ? (Options: Chloramphenicol, Sulfasalazine, Tylosin, Metronidazole, Pradofloxacin, Azithromycin)

a. Antibacterial agent used mostly topically with the possible side effect of aplastic anemia → Chloramphenicol b. Antimicrobial agent used in canine chronic colitis with the possible decrease in tear production (KCS) as side effects → Sulfasalazine c. Antibacterial agent used in canine antibiotic responsive diarrhea (ARD) → Tylosin d. Antimicrobial agent used canine Giardiosis → Metronidazole e. Fluoroquinlone used orally also in anal sacculitis → Pradofloxacin f. Antibacterial agent used in canine Campylobacter enteritis → Azithromycin

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: a. Biguanide disinfectant → ? b. It is an oxidizing agent → ? c. Belongs to the alkalies disinfectants → ? d. Cationic detergent → ? e. Halogen-containing disinfectant → ? (Options: chlorhexidine, hydrogen peroxide, calcium hydroxide, quaternary ammonium compounds, povidone iodine)

a. Biguanide disinfectant → chlorhexidine b. It is an oxidizing agent → hydrogen peroxide c. Belongs to the alkalies disinfectants → calcium hydroxide d. Cationic detergent → quaternary ammonium compounds e. Halogen-containing disinfectant → povidone iodine

In which of the following conditions is the use of oclacitinib contraindicated? a. Both b. None c. Noncancerous diseases d. Demodicosis

a. Both

Which of the following agents has anti-endotoxin activity? a. Both b. Meloxicam c. None d. Flunixin-meglumine

a. Both

Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement: a. Anticonvulsant agent given also intranasally in status epilepticus → ? b. Antiepileptic agent with minimal side effects applied TID-QID PO for long-term management of epilepsy → ? c. Antiepileptic agent used long-term safely in liver and kidney failure patient as well → ? d. Antiepileptic agent inducing microsomal CYP enzymes in the liver → ? e. Antiepileptic agent recommended to use only in the human medicine → ? f. Antiepileptic agent with the possible side effects of: polyphagia, pruritus, paraparesis, pancreatitis → ? (Options: midazolam, levetiracetam, imepitoin, phenobarbital, primidone, KBr)

a. Anticonvulsant agent given also intranasally in status epilepticus → midazolam b. Antiepileptic agent with minimal side effects applied TID-QID PO for long-term management of epilepsy → levetiracetam c. Antiepileptic agent used long-term safely in liver and kidney failure patient as well → imepitoin d. Antiepileptic agent inducing microsomal CYP enzymes in the liver → phenobarbital e. Antiepileptic agent recommended to use only in the human medicine → primidone f. Antiepileptic agent with the possible side effects of: polyphagia, pruritus, paraparesis, pancreatitis → KBr

Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement: a. Anticonvulsive anaesthetic agent given as IV bolus or continuous rate infusion (CRI) → ? b. Antiepileptic agent for long-term use, efficiency of it should be evaluated within 2-3 weeks after the initiation of the therapy → ? c. Antiepileptic agent effective as phenobarbital but with the possible side effect of 3rd eyelid prolapse → ? d. Anticonvulsive agent given in status epilepticus or for performing euthanasia aswell → ? e. Antieplieptic agent for long-term use, it can cause severe respiratory distress in cats → ? (Options: Propofol, phenobarbital, Imepitoin, Pentobarbital, KBr)

a. Anticonvulsive anaesthetic agent given as IV bolus or continuous rate infusion (CRI) → Propofol b. Antiepileptic agent for long-term use, efficiency of it should be evaluated within 2-3 weeks after the initiation of the therapy → phenobarbital c. Antiepileptic agent effective as phenobarbital but with the possible side effect of 3rd eyelid prolapse → Imepitoin d. Anticonvulsive agent given in status epilepticus or for performing euthanasia aswell → Pentobarbital e. Antieplieptic agent for long-term use, it can cause severe respiratory distress in cats → KBr

Match: a. Antiemetic agent potentially increasing the clinical signs of pseudopregnancy → ? b. Antiemetic agent having central and peripheral effect as well, suitable for increasing the motility of the duodenum → ? c. Antiemeetic agnet used to avoid hypersensitivity reaction caused by vaccination → ? d. Peripheral antiemetic suitable for emesis from all types of origin → ? e. Used in dogs, applied SC, non readministerable opioid emetic agent → ? f. Serotonin antagonist antiemetic used PO/IV in chemotherapy induced vomiting → ? (Options: Acepromazine, metoclopramide, dimenhydrinate, maropitant, apomorphine, ondansetrone)

a. Antiemetic agent potentially increasing the clinical signs of pseudopregnancy → Acepromazine b. Antiemetic agent having central and peripheral effect as well, suitable for increasing the motility of the duodenum → metoclopramide c. Antiemeetic agnet used to avoid hypersensitivity reaction caused by vaccination → dimenhydrinate d. Peripheral antiemetic suitable for emesis from all types of origin → maropitant e. Used in dogs, applied SC, non readministerable opioid emetic agent → apomorphine f. Serotonin antagonist antiemetic used PO/IV in chemotherapy induced vomiting → ondansetrone

Pair the antibiotics to their typical indication in ruminants: a. Apramycin → ? b. Cefoperazone → ? c. Gamithromycin → d. Colistin → ? e. Oxacillin → ? (Options: diarrhoea in calves; Gram -positive and gram-negative mastitis; respiratory infections; Gram-positive mastitis)

a. Apramycin → diarrhoea in calves b. Cefoperazone → Gram -positive and gram-negative mastitis c. Gamithromycin → respiratory infections d. Colistin → diarrhoea in calves e. Oxacillin → Gram-positive mastitis

Pair the active substances to their therapeutical indication(s): a. Atipamezole → ? b. Phenylpropanolamine → ? c. Salbutamol → ? d. Adrenaline → ? e. Propanolol → ? f. Dopamine → ? g. Timolole → ? h. Salmeterol → ? i. Xylazine → ? (Options: antidote for toxicosis caused by alpha 2 receptor agonists; urinary incontinence due to poor mucle tone in the urethral sphincter; acute asthma attacks; anaphylaxis, cardiac stop, local bleeding; arrhythmia, hypertension; dose-dependant, low dose increases urinary output, renal blood flow. Medium dose increases cardiac output and high dose can result in pressor effects; glaucoma, hypertension; maintenance therapy of RAO, feline asthma; emesis induction, pain reduction, for sedation)

a. Atipamezole → antidote for toxicosis caused by alpha 2 receptor agonists b. Phenylpropanolamine → urinary incontinence due to poor mucle tone in the urethral sphincter c. Salbutamol → acute asthma attacks d. Adrenaline → anaphylaxis, cardiac stop, local bleeding, e. Propanolol → arrhythmia, hypertension f. Dopamine → dose-dependant, low dose increases urinary output, renal blood flow. Medium dose increases cardiac output and high dose can result in pressor effects g. Timolole → glaucoma, hypertension h. Salmeterol → maintenance therapy of RAO, feline asthma i. Xylazine → emesis induction, pain reduction, for sedation

Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description: a. ? → it can inhibit formation of synechia in uveitis b. ? → antihistamine used in allergic conjunctivitis c. ? → anti-inflammatory drug used in milder case of corneal ulcer d. ? → mast cell stabiliser used in allergic conjunctivitis e. ? → anti-inflammatory drug usd in uveitis if the cornea is intact (Options: Atropine, Azelastine, Bromfenac, Sodium chromoglycate, Prednisolone)

a. Atropine → it can inhibit formation of synechia in uveitis b. Azelastine → antihistamine used in allergic conjunctivitis c. Bromfenac → anti-inflammatory drug used in milder case of corneal ulcer d. Sodium chromoglycate → mast cell stabiliser used in allergic conjunctivitis e. Prednisolone → anti-inflammatory drug usd in uveitis if the cornea is intact

Pair each agent with the route of administration? a. Benzylpeniciilin-procanine/benzathin → ? b. Benzylpenicillin-Na/K → ? c. Phenoxymethylpenicillin → ? d. Cloxacillin → ? (Options: IM/SC, IV/IM/SC, PO, mainly udder infusion)

a. Benzylpeniciilin-procanine/benzathin → IM/SC b. Benzylpenicillin-Na/K → IV/IM/SC c. Phenoxymethylpenicillin → PO d. Cloxacillin → mainly udder infusion

Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action: a. Benzylpenicillin-benzathine → ? b. Tulathromycin → ? c. Tildipirosin → ? d. Benzylpenicillin-procaine → ? e. benzylpenicillin-Na/K → ? (Options: 72-96 hours, 6-10 days, 18-23 days, 12-24 hours, 4-6 hours)

a. Benzylpenicillin-benzathine → 72-96 hours b. Tulathromycin → 6-10 days c. Tildipirosin → 18-23 days d. Benzylpenicillin-procaine → 12-24 hours e. benzylpenicillin-Na/K → 4-6 hours

Pair each drug with its characteristic property: a. Cefotaxime → ? b. Ceftiofur → ? c. Cefovecin → ? d. Cefalexin → ? e. Ceftazidime → ? f. Cefazolin→ ? (Options: highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood-brain barriterm-275er, which makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis; 0 days on milk for WP; companion animal with several weeks duration of action; primary active ingredient in skin infections; effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa; used preoperatively to prevent wound infections)

a. Cefotaxime → highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood-brain barrier, which makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis b. Ceftiofur → 0 days on milk for WP c. Cefovecin → companion animal with several weeks duration of action d. Cefalexin → primary active ingredient in skin infections e. Ceftazidime → effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa f. Cefazolin → used preoperatively to prevent wound infections

Which agents are suitable for the treatment of pseudomonas aeruginosa infection? a. Ceftazidime and cefoperazone b. Cefalexin and cefapirin c. Ceftriaxone and cefotaxime d. Cefuroxime and cefaclor

a. Ceftazidime and cefoperazone

Which agents have such excellent pharmacokinetics that they are the most important drugs for the treatment of meningitis after crossing the blood-brain barrier? a. Ceftraixone and cefotaxime b. Ceftazidime and cefoperazone c. Cefuroxime and cefaclor d. Cefalexin and cefapirin

a. Ceftraixone and cefotaxime

Primary choice cephalosporine to treat canine pyoderma systemically? a. Cephalexin b. Cefoperazone c. Cefquinome d. Cefotaxime

a. Cephalexin

An AVM (authorised for cattle) has the following WPs: cattle meat: 0 days, cattle milk: 0 hours. How long should the WP be in the following cases? a. Chicken eggs → ? b. Goat meat → ? c. Swine meat → ? (Options: 10 days, 0 days, 1 day)

a. Chicken eggs → 10 days b. Goat meat → 0 days c. Swine meat → 1 day

Pair the active substances to their categories! a. Clenbuterole → ? b. Aminophylline → ? c. Zafirlukast → ? d. Beclomethasone → ? e. Zileuton → ? f. Propentophylline → ? g. Nedocromil → ? h. Ipratropium → ? i. Fluticasone → ? j. Terbutaline → ? (Options: sympathomimetics, methylxanthine derivatives, leukotriene receptor antagonists, glucocorticoids, chromones, parasympatholytics)

a. Clenbuterole → sympathomimetics b. Aminophylline → methylxanthine derivatives c. Zafirlukast → leukotriene receptor antagonists d. Beclomethasone → glucocorticoids e. Zileuton → leukotriene synthesis inhibitor f. Propentophylline → methylxanthine derivatives g. Nedocromil → chromones h. Ipratropium → parasympatholytics i. Fluticasone → glucocorticoids j. Terbutaline → sympathomimetics

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: a. Contraindicated to use epileptic and pseudopregnant animals → ? b. In porcine patients optimal outside temperature should be provided to the animal when this drug is administered → ? c. It can cause hyperglycaemia and it is contraindicated in late pregnancy → ? d. Should be used cautiously together with aminoglycosides → ? e. Generally safe agent, but rarely it may cause liver toxicity → ? (Options: Chlorpromazine, Azaperone, Xylazine, Diazepam, Phenobarbital)

a. Contraindicated to use epileptic and pseudopregnant animals → Chlorpromazine b. In porcine patients optimal outside temperature should be provided to the animal when this drug is administered → Azaperone c. It can cause hyperglycaemia and it is contraindicated in late pregnancy → Xylazine d. Should be used cautiously together with aminoglycosides → Diazepam e. Generally safe agent, but rarely it may cause liver toxicity → Phenobarbital

Which of these substances causes immunosuppression? a. Cyclophosphamide b. Nimesulide c. Gamithromycin d. Ipratropium

a. Cyclophosphamide

Pair the substances used in constipation and diarrhoea to their corresponding statements: a. Decreases the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins → ? b. GI tract motility increaser used in irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), crossing the BBB → ? c. Adstringent, vasoconstrictor antidiarrheal agent → ? d. Diuretic used primarily in non-dehydrated large animals having ad libitum drinking water supply → ? e. Osmotic diuretic used also in hepatic encephalopathy, administered orally or per rectum → ? f. Expanded due to absorption of moisture mechanically increases the motility of the GI tract helping passing the stool → ? (Options: liquid paraffin, loperamide, tannic acid, MgSO4, lactulose, indigestible fibres)

a. Decreases the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins → liquid paraffin b. GI tract motility increaser used in irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), crossing the BBB → loperamide c. Adstringent, vasoconstrictor antidiarrheal agent → tannic acid d. Diuretic used primarily in non-dehydrated large animals having ad libitum drinking water supply → MgSO4 e. Osmotic diuretic used also in hepatic encephalopathy, administered orally or per rectum → lactulose f. Expanded due to absorption of moisture mechanically increases the motility of the GI tract helping passing the stool → indigestible fibres

Pair the substances used for stomach ulcer prevention and treatment to their corresponding statements: a. Degraded by the stomach juice, bounds to the damaged mucosa f the stomach wall, less suitable for the treatment of gastric ulceration but rather suitable for binding phosporus → ? b. PGE-analogue used exclusively for the prevention of gastric ulcers induced by NSAIDs → ? c. Possible, but not effective antidote for acetaminophen (paracetmol) toxicosis, CYP enzyme inhibitor, not frequently used H2-antagonist → ? d. If used for more than 3-4 weeks due to rebound effect administation must be discontinued gradually → ? e. H2-antagonist used in cats long-term every other day (ADT) → ? (Options: Aluminium-hydroxide, Misoprostol, Cimetidine, Omeprazole, Famotidine)

a. Degraded by the stomach juice, bounds to the damaged mucosa f the stomach wall, less suitable for the treatment of gastric ulceration but rather suitable for binding phosporus → Aluminium-hydroxide b. PGE-analogue used exclusively for the prevention of gastric ulcers induced by NSAIDs → Misoprostol c. Possible, but not effective antidote for acetaminophen (paracetmol) toxicosis, CYP enzyme inhibitor, not frequently used H2-antagonst → Cimetidine d. If used for more than 3-4 weeks due to rebound effect administation must be discontinued gradually → Omeprazole e. H2-antagonist used in cats long-term every other day (ADT) → Famotidine

In the case of bacitracin, which is the metal ion with which its compound leads to a 10-20x increase in potency? a. Zinc b. Manganese c. Copper d. Iron

a. Zinc

How can vancomycin be administered in each indication? a. both b. Clostridium-associated pseudomonal colitis per os c. none of these d. life-threatening MRSA-associated septicaemia IV

a. both

Pair the active substance to their categories: a Doxasozine → ? b Xylazine → ? c. Phenylpropanolamine → ? d Tetrizoline → ? e Xylometazoline → ? f Atenolole → ? g Atripamezole → ? h Prazosine → ? i Metoprolole → ? j Romifidine → ? (Options: alpha receptor antagonists, alpha receptor agonists, beta receptor antagonists,

a. Doxasozine → alpha receptor antagonists b. Xylazine → alpha receptor agonists c.Phenylpropanolamine → alpha receptor agonists d. Tetrizoline → alpha receptor agonists e. Xylometazoline → alpha receptor agonists f. Atenolole → beta receptor antagonists g. Atripamezole → alpha receptor antagonists h. Prazosine → alpha receptor antagonists i. Metoprolole → beta receptor antagonists j. Romifidine → alpha receptor agonists

Pair the substances used in atopic dermatitis with the corresponding statement: a. Effective in acute and chronic cases, can be applied orally, locally and parenterally as well → ? b. Not used for the treatment of atopic dermatitis → ? c. The least effective from the listed substances for the treatment of atopic dermatitis, however starting its administration prior to the allergy season might handle the symptoms → ? d. Used only in chronic cases for long term treatment due to the delayed onset of action → ? e. Applied once parenterally provides long-acting effect → ? f. Anti-inflammatory and in case of long term application Immunosuppressive agent decreasing the levels of IL, 2, 4, 6, 13, 3L → ? (Options: Prednisolone, bedinvetmab, hydroxyzin, cyclosporine, Lokivetmab, oclatinib)

a. Effective in acute and chronic cases, can be applied orally, locally and parenterally as well → Prednisolone b. Not used for the treatment of atopic dermatitis → bedinvetmab c. The least effective from the listed substances for the treatment of atopic dermatitis, however starting its administration prior to the allergy season might handle the symptoms → hydroxyzin d. Used only in chronic cases for long term treatment due to the delayed onset of action → cyclosporine e. Applied once parenterally provides long-acting effect → Lokivetmab f. Anti-inflammatory and in case of long term application Immunosuppressive agent decreasing the levels of IL, 2, 4, 6, 13, 3L → oclatinib

Pair liquid dose forms according to whether intravenous administration is possible: a. Emulsion → ? b. Oily solution → ? c. Microemulsion → ? d. Aqueous solution → ? e. Microsuspension → ? f. Suspension → ? (Options: should not be administered intravenously, can be administered intravenously)

a. Emulsion → should not be administered intravenously b. Oily solution → should not be administered intravenously c. Microemulsion → can be administered intravenously d. Aqueous solution → can be administered intravenously e. Microsuspension → can be administered intravenously f. Suspension → Should not be administered intravenously

This animal is the most sensitive to chloramine? a. Fish b. Horse c. Cat d. Chihuahua

a. Fish

Pair the antifungal drugs to their mechanims of action: a. Fungal mitosis inhibitor → ? b. Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor → ? c. Plasma membrane stability inhibitor (polyene) → ? (Options: Griseofulvin, Terbinafin, Nystatin)

a. Fungal mitosis inhibitor → Griseofulvin b. Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor → Terbinafin c. Plasma membrane stability inhibitor (polyene) → Nystatin

Pair the quinolone carboxylic acid generations with the statement about them: a. Generation 1 → ? b. Generation 2 → ? c. Generation 3 → ? d. Generation 4 → ? (Options: their spectrum is narrow, they are effective against Gram-negative rods and coliforms, anti-pseudomonas activity appears, anti-streptococcus efficacy is shown, anaerobic efficacy is shown)

a. Generation 1 → their spectrum is narrow, they are effective against Gram-negative rods and coliforms b. Generation 2 → anti-pseudomonas activity appears c. Generation 3 → anti-streptococcus efficacy is shown d. Generation 4 → anaerobic efficacy is shown

Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description? a. Given also in canine Isospora canis infection → ? b. Primary choice of drug in Borrelia burgdorferi infection → ? c. Primary choice of drug in canine bacterial prostatitis → ? d. The veterinary formulation of the substance is given PO, SC, IM for UTI and pyoderma cases. Covers anaerobic bacteria as well → ? e. Given SC for oral cavity infections with 10-14 days of duration of action → ? (Options: sulfamethoxazole trimethoprim, doxycycline, enrofloxacin, amoxicillin clavulanic-acid, cefovecin)

a. Given also in canine Isospora canis infection → sulfamethoxazole trimethoprim b. Primary choice of drug in Borrelia burgdorferi infection → doxycycline c. Primary choice of drug in canine bacterial prostatitis → enrofloxacin d. The veterinary formulation of the substance is given PO, SC, IM for UTI and pyoderma cases. e. Covers anaerobic bacteria as well → amoxicillin clavulanic-acid f. Given SC for oral cavity infections with 10-14 days of duration of action → cefovecin

Pair each drug with the appropriate indication: a. Gram-negative bacterial mastitis → ? b. Meningitis → ? c. UTIs → ? d. Gram-positive bacterial mastitis → ? (Options: cefoperazone, ceftriaxone, cefovecin, cefapirin)

a. Gram-negative bacterial mastitis → cefoperazone b. Meningitis → ceftriaxone c. UTIs → cefovecin d. Gram-positive bacterial mastitis → cefapirin

Pair the active substances to their categories: a. Guaifenesin → ? b. Carbocysteine → ? c. Bromhexin → ? d. Codein → ? e. N-acetlcysteine → ? f. Dextrometorphan → ? g. Butorphanol → ? h. Dembrexine → ? i. Hydrocodon → ? j. Tramadol → ? (Options: expectorants, mucolytics, antitussives)

a. Guaifenesin → expectorants b. Carbocysteine → mucolytics c. Bromhexin → expectorants d. Codein → antitussives e. N-acetlcysteine → mucolytics f. Dextrometorphan → antitussives g. Butorphanol → antitussives h. Dembrexine → expectorants i. Hydrocodon → antitussives j. Tramadol → antitussives

Pair the active substances to their categories: a. Ipratropium → ? b. Pralidoxime → ? c. Atropine → ? d. Neostigmine → ? e. Glycopyrrolate → ? f. Pyridostigmine → ? g. Tropicamide → ? h. Butyl-scopolamine → ? i. Pilocarpine → ? j. Betanechol → ? (Options: parasympatholytics, enzyme reactivators, parasympathomimetics)

a. Ipratropium → parasympatholytics b. Pralidoxime → enzyme reactivators c. Atropine → parasympatholytics d. Neostigmine → parasympathomimetics e. Glycopyrrolate → parasympatholytics f. Pyridostigmine → parasympathomimetics g. Tropicamide → parasympatholytics h. Butyl-scopolamine → parasympatholytics i. Pilocarpine → parasympathomimetics j. Betanechol → parasympathomimetics

What is the mechanism of action of rifamycin? a. Protein synthesis inhibition b. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibition c. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis d. Detergent action

b. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibition

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: a. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin esterase → ? b. Glu-mediated Chloride-ion channel and GABA-agonist antiparasitic agent given also topically → ? c. Monoamino-oxidase inhibitor antiparasitic agent → ? d. Glu-mediated chloride ion channel and GABA-antagonist antiparasitic agent given orally → ? e. Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas → ? f. Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect → ? (Options: Amitraz, Iotilaner, Coumaphos, Moxidectin, Indoxacarb, deltamethrin)

a. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin esterase → Coumaphos b. Glu-mediated Chloride-ion channel and GABA-agonist antiparasitic agent given also topically → Moxidectin c. Monoamino-oxidase inhibitor antiparasitic agent → Amitraz d. Glu-mediated chloride ion channel and GABA-antagonist antiparasitic agent given orally → Lotilaner e. Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas → Indoxacarb f. Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect → deltamethrin

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: a. Isoxazoline eliminated by the kidney → ? b. GABA-antagonist agent effective against ticks and fleas, in case of 3-10 times overdose CNS signs can occur in dogs → ? c. Antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas → ? d. GABA-antagonist antiparasitic agent not recommended to use in rabbits → e. Juvenile hormone analogue antiparasitic agent → ? f. Antiparasitic agent with relatively longer elimination halflife due to enterohepatic recirculation → fluralaner (Options: afoxolaner, piriprol, imidacloprid, fipronil, metopren, fluralaner)

a. Isoxazoline eliminated by the kidney → afoxolaner b. GABA-antagonist agent effective against ticks and fleas, in case of 3-10 times overdose CNS signs can occur in dogs → piriprol c. Antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas → imidacloprid d. GABA-antagonist antiparasitic agent not recommended to use in rabbits → fipronil e. Juvenile hormone analogue antiparasitic agent → metopren f. Antiparasitic agent with relatively longer elimination halflife due to enterohepatic recirculation → fluralaner

Match: a. It can be used in ERU (equine recurrent uveitis) as an implant → ? b. Short acting parasympatholytic that is used for fundus examination → ? c. Prostaglandin analogue used for the treatment of glaucoma → ? d. Long acting parasympatholytic used for the treatment of glaucoma → ? e. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used for the treatment of glaucoma → ? (Options: cyclosporine, tropicamide, latanoprost, none of them, dorzolamide)

a. It can be used in ERU (equine recurrent uveitis) as an implant → cyclosporine b. Short acting parasympatholytic that is used for fundus examination → tropicamide c. Prostaglandin analogue used for the treatment of glaucoma → latanoprost d. Long acting parasympatholytic used for the treatment of glaucoma → none of them e. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used for the treatment of glaucoma → dorzolamide

Match: a. It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, Cestoda and Trematoda → ? b. Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes → ? c. Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against bloodsucking worms → ? d. Macrocyclic lactone, active against nematodes and ectoparasites → ? e. Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke → ? (Options: Albendazole, Levamisole, Closantel, Ivermectin, triclabendazole)

a. It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, Cestoda and Trematoda → Albendazole b. Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes → Levamisole c. Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against bloodsucking worms → Closantel d. Macrocyclic lactone, active against nematodes and ectoparasites → Ivermectin e. Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke → triclabendazole

Pair the active substances to the appropriate description: a. It is used in feline hyperthyroidism → ? b. It is used in hyperadrenocorticism → ? c. It is used in Addison's disease → ? d. As side effects it may cause hypoglycemia → ? e. It is used in hypothyroidism → ? (Options: Methimazole, Trilostane, Fludrocortisone acetate, Insulin, Levothyroxine)

a. It is used in feline hyperthyroidism → Methimazole b. It is used in hyperadrenocorticism → Trilostane c. It is used in Addison's disease → Fludrocortisone acetate d. As side effects it may cause hypoglycemia → Insulin e. It is used in hypothyroidism → Levothyroxine

Pair the antifungal drugs to their characterizations: a. Locally applied allylamine derivative → ? b. Locally applied imidazole derivative → ? c. Locally and systematically applied allylamine derivative → ? d. Parenterally applied polyene → ? e. Systematically applied triazole derivative → ? (Options: naftifine, clotrimazole, terbinafin, amphotericin-B, itraconazole)

a. Locally applied allylamine derivative → naftifine b. Locally applied imidazole derivative → clotrimazole c. Locally and systematically applied allylamine derivative → terbinafin d. Parenterally applied polyene → amphotericin-B e. Systematically applied triazole derivative → itraconazole

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: a. Macrocyclic lactone effective against fleas → ? b. Orally given ectoparasiticidal agent with one month duration of action → ? c. Repellent antiparasitic substance with 'knock down' effect → ? d. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase → ? e. It's antidote for the case of intoxication: atipamezole → ? f. Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase → ? (Options: selamectin, afoxolaner, deltametrin, diazinon, amitraz, propoxur)

a. Macrocyclic lactone effective against fleas → selamectin b. Orally given ectoparasiticidal agent with one month duration of action → afoxolaner c. Repellent antiparasitic substance with 'knock down' effect → deltametrin d. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase → diazinon e. It's antidote for the case of intoxication: atipamezole → amitraz f. Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase → propoxur

Pair the active substances to their mechanisms of action! a. dicoumarol derivatives → ? b. vitamin K → ? c. Dalteparin → ? d. Clopidogrel → ? e. Protamine → ? f. Heparin → ? g. acetylsalicylic acid → ? (Options: disturbances in synthesis of a few blood clotting factors, antagonist of coumarin derivatives, antithrombin activators, ADP receptor inhibitors, antidote for heparin, antithrombin activators, COX inhibitors)

a. dicoumarol derivatives → disturbances in synthesis of a few blood clotting factors b. vitamin K → antagonist of coumarin derivatives c. Dalteparin → antithrombin activators d. Clopidogrel → ADP receptor inhibitors e. Protamine → antidote for heparin f. Heparin → antithrombin activators g. acetylsalicylic acid → COX inhibitors

Which is the first choice antibiotic for the treatment of Lawsonia intracellularis proliferative enteropathy in foals? a. Amoxicillin b. Doxycycline c. Enrofloxacin d. Tiamulin

b. Doxycycline

Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description: a. Macrolid antibiotic agent used in combination with metronidazole in oral cavity infections → ? b. Primary choice, topically used antibacterial agent in Gr+ otitis externa → ? c. Antimicrobial agent used in feline Tritichominas infection possibly causing CNS signs as side effects → ? d. Aminoglycoside agent used primary topically or orally otherwise given is highly toxic → ? e. Antibacterial agent used also for its immunomodulatory and antiinflammatory effect → ? f. Antibacterial agent used topically in P aeruginosa otitis externa → ? (Options: Spiramycin, florfenicol, ronidazole, Neomycin, doxycycline, polimixin-B)

a. Macrolid antibiotic agent used in combination with metronidazole in oral cavity infections → Spiramycin b. Primary choice, topically used antibacterial agent in Gr+ otitis externa → florfenicol c. Antimicrobial agent used in feline Tritichominas infection possibly causing CNS signs as side effects → ronidazole d. Aminoglycoside agent used primary topically or orally otherwise given is highly toxic → Neomycin e. Antibacterial agent used also for its immunomodulatory and antiinflammatory effect → doxycycline f. Antibacterial agent used topically in P aeruginosa otitis externa → polimixin-B

It may causes follicular cysts or pyometra in small animals? a. Megestrol acetate b. eCG c. Cloprostenol d. Fertirelin

a. Megestrol acetate

Put the local anaesthetics according to their toxicity in increasing order: a. Mepivacaine → ? b. Procaine → ? c. Bupicaine → ? d. Lidocaine → ? (Options: 1, 2, 3, 4)

a. Mepivacaine → 1 b. Procaine → 2 c. Bupicaine → 4 d. Lidocaine → 3

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: a. Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas → ? b. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase → ? c. Glu-mediated Clorid-ion channel an GABA-agonist antiparasitic agent given also topically → ? d. Monoamino-oxidase inhibitor antiparasitic agent → ? e. Glu-mediated clorid-ion channel and GABA-antagonist antiparasic agent given orally → ? f. Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect → ? (Options: Indoxacarb, Coumaphos, Moxidectin, Amitraz, Lotilaner, Deltamethrin)

a. Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas → Indoxacarb b. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase → Coumaphos c. Glu-mediated Clorid-ion channel an GABA-agonist antiparasitic agent given also topically → Moxidectin d. Monoamino-oxidase inhibitor antiparasitic agent → Amitraz e. Glu-mediated clorid-ion channel and GABA-antagonist antiparasic agent given orally → Lotilaner f. Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect → Deltamethrin

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description: a. Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke → ? b. Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against blood sucking worms → ? c. Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes → ? d. It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, cestoda and trematoda → ? e. Macrocyclic lactone active against nematodes and ectoparasites → ? (Options: Triclabendazole, Closantel, Levamisole, Albendazole, Ivermectin)

a. Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke → Triclabendazole b. Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against blood sucking worms → Closantel c. Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes → Levamisole d. It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, cestoda and trematoda → Albendazole e. Macrocyclic lactone active against nematodes and ectoparasites → Ivermectin

Match: a. Neomycin → ? b. Amikacin → ? c. Paromomycin → ? d. Tobramycin → ? e. Streptomycin → ? f. Spectinomycin → ? (Options: the most toxic aminoglycoside, the safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity, also has antiparasitic activity, also used as eye drops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity, used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins; with pronounced antimycoplasma activity)

a. Neomycin → the most toxic aminoglycoside b. Amikacin → the safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomoans aeruginosa activity c. Paromomycin → also has antiparasitic activity d. Tobramycin → also used as eye drops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity e. Streptomycin → used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins f. Spectinomycin → With pronounced antimycoplasma activity

Pair the following hormones and hormonal agents with the typical route of administration during veterinary practice: a. Norgestomet → ? b. Methimazole → ? c. hCG (hormone chorionic gonadotropin) → ? d. Deslorelin → ? e. Lente insulin → ? f. Buzerelin → ? g. Acarbose → ? h. Glipizide → ? i. Altrenogest → ? (Options: subcutaneous implant, orally, injection)

a. Norgestomet → subcutaneous implant b. Methimazole → orally c. hCG (hormone chorionic gonadotropin) → injection d. Deslorelin → subcutaneous implant e. Lente insulin → Injection f. Buzerelin → injection g. Acarbose → orally h. Glipizide → orally i. Altrenogest → orally

Match: a. Oral drug for oestrus synchronization in horses → ? b. Used in dogs to treat hormone-dependent urinary incontinence due to sphincter dysfunction → ? c. Used for induction of abortion in dogs → ? d. Vaginal drug delivery system for the regulation of oestrus cycle of cows and heifers → ? e. Active substance for injection to prevent oestrus in dogs and cats → ? (Options: altrenogest, estriol, aglepristone, progesterone, proligestone)

a. Oral drug for oestrus synchronization in horses → altrenogest b. Used in dogs to treat hormone-dependent urinary incontinence due to sphincter dysfunction → estriol c. Used for induction of abortion in dogs → aglepristone d. Vaginal drug delivery system for the regulation of oestrus cycle of cows and heifers → progesterone e. Active substance for injection to prevent oestrus in dogs and cats → proligestone

Pair the liquid dose forms with the descriptions of them: a. its solute is only solid → ? b. heterogeneous disperse, its precipitate is solid → ? c. heterogeneous disperse, its precipitate is liquid → ? d. its solute is only liquid → ? e. homogeneous disperse, it has no precipitate → ? f. its solute can be solid/liquid/gas → ? (Options: suspension, emulsion, solution)

a. its solute is only solid → suspension b. heterogeneous disperse, its precipitate is solid → suspension c. heterogeneous disperse, its precipitate is liquid → emulsion d. its solute is only liquid → emulsion e. homogeneous disperse, it has no precipitate → solution f. its solute can be solid/liquid/gas → solution

Pair the substances used for stomach ulcer prevention and treatment to their corresponding statements: a. PGE-analogue used exclusively for the prevention of gastric ulcers induced by NSAID's → ? b. H2-antagonnist used in cats long-term every other day (ADT) → ? c. Degraded by the stomach juice, bind to the damaged mucosa of the stomach wall, less suitable for the treatment of gastric ulceration but rather suitable for binding phosphorus → ? d. If used for more than 3-4 weeks due to rebound effect administration must be discontinued gradually → ? e. Possible, but not effective antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) toxicosis, CYP enzyme inhibitor, not frequently used H2-antagonist → ? (Options: misoprostol, famotidine, Aluminium hydroxide, Omeprazole, Cimetidine)

a. PGE-analogue used exclusively for the prevention of gastric ulcers induced by NSAID's → misoprostol b. H2-antagonnist used in cats long-term every other day (ADT) → famotidine c. Degraded by the stomach juice, bind to the damaged mucosa of the stomach wall, less suitable for the treatment of gastric ulceration but rather suitable for binding phosphorus → Aluminium hydroxide d. If used for more than 3-4 weeks due to rebound effect administration must be discontinued gradually → Omeprazole e. Possible, but not effective antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) toxicosis, CYP enzyme inhibitor, not frequently used H2-antagonist → Cimetidine

Give the order of disappearance of nervous function after local anaesthetic administration? a. Pain - 1 b. Warmth - 2 c. Touch - 3 d. Deep pressure - 4 e. Motor function - 5 (Options: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5)

a. Pain - 1 b. Warmth - 2 c. Touch - 3 d. Deep pressure - 4 e. Motor function - 5

What are the chemical properties of aminoglycosides that determine their pharmacokinetics? a. Positively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds b. Negatively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds c. Negatively charged, apolar and lipophilic compounds d. Negatively charged, apolar and hydrophilic compounds

a. Positively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds

Pair the active substance to their categories: a. Quinidine → ? b. Mexiletine → ? c. Amlodipine → ? d. Lidocaine → ? e. Diltiazem → ? (Options: Na+ channel blockers, membrane stabilizers; Ca2+ channel blocker)

a. Quinidine → Na+ channel blockers, membrane stabilizers b. Mexiletine → Na+ channel blockers, membrane stabilizers c. Amlodipine → Ca2+ channel blocker d. Lidocaine → Na+ channel blockers, membrane stabilizers e. Diltiazem → Ca2+ channel blockers

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: a. Short-acting respiratory stimulant → ? b. Inhibits phosphodiesterase enzyme and it is a potent bronchodilator, can be used in the treatment of asthma → ? c. Methylxanthine with weakest direct cardiac effect → ? d. Glycine antagonist that causes severe convulsions → ? e. Antidote for poisoning by GABA-ergic CNS depressants → ? (Options: doxapram, theophylline, caffeine, strychnine, picrotoxin)

a. Short-acting respiratory stimulant → doxapram b. Inhibits phosphodiesterase enzyme and it is a potent bronchodilator, can be used in the treatment of asthma → theophylline c. Methylxanthine with weakest direct cardiac effect → caffeine d. Glycine antagonist that causes severe convulsions → strychnine e. Antidote for poisoning by GABA-ergic CNS depressants → picrotoxin

Which of the following agents has a marked inhibitory effect on T-cells? a. Tacrolimus b. Lokivetmab c. Sulfasalazine d. Oclacitinib

a. Tacrolimus

Pair the substances used for inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements: a. The most potent antiemetic applied IV in the small animal practice → ? b. Peripheral emetic agent acting as irritant on the pharyngeal and stomach mucosa → ? c. Antiemetic agent that is an antidote for the side effects of ropinirole → ? d. Used in dogs, applied into the conjunctival sack, non readministerable opioid emetic agent → ? e. Used in cats, applied IV or IM emetic agent → ? f. Used in dogs, applied into the conjunctival sack, readministerable dopamine-agonist agent → ? (Options: maropitant, hydrogen-peroxide, metoclopramide, apomorphine, xylazine, ropinirole)

a. The most potent antiemetic applied IV in the small animal practice → maropitant b. Peripheral emetic agent acting as irritant on the pharyngeal and stomach mucosa → hydrogen-peroxide c. Antiemetic agent that is an antidote for the side effects of ropinirole → metoclopramide d. Used in dogs, applied into the conjunctival sack, non readministerable opioid emetic agent → apomorphine e. Used in cats, applied IV or IM emetic agent → xylazine f. Used in dogs, applied into the conjunctival sack, readministerable dopamine-agonist agent → ropinirole

Which statement is true about opioids? a. They exert their powerful analgesic effect through the mu receptors. b. They cause bradycardia as a side effect via the delta receptors. c. They cause obstipation as a side effect through kappa receptors via inhibition of the myenteric plexus d. A their antitussive effects are exerted through the kappa receptors.

a. They exert their powerful analgesic effect through the mu receptors.

Match: a. When overdosed, mainly orally, alpha-2 agonist side effects are seen → ? b. Izoxazoline safe in pregnant dogs → ? c. Pirethroid effective against varrosis in honey bees → ? d. Macrocyclic lacton highly effective against scabies, demodicosis and myasis → ? e. Antiparasitic agent that can be sequestered by intralipid emulsion infusion (ILE) from the bloodstream in case of intoxication → ? f. Inhibits metamorphosis → ? (Options: amitraz, fluraflaner, fluvalinate, moxidectin, permethrin, piriproxifen)

a. When overdosed, mainly orally, alpha-2 agonist side effects are seen → amitraz b. Izoxazoline safe in pregnant dogs → fluraflaner c. Pirethroid effective against varrosis in honey bees → fluvalinate d. Macrocyclic lacton highly effective against scabies, demodicosis and myasis → moxidectin e. Antiparasitic agent that can be sequestered by intralipid emulsion infusion (ILE) from the bloodstream in case of intoxication → permethrin f. Inhibits metamorphosis → piriproxifen

Match: a. White powder, its watery solution can be used to disinfect the walls of stables → ? b. Less potent disinfectant, it does not kill bacterial spores → ? c. Corrosive agent, its mechanism is the formation of short life free oxygen radicals → ? d. Non-corrosive but irritative disinfectant, less influenced by impurities → ? e. It is a combination of halogen disinfectant and a cationic detergent → ? (Options: chlorinated lime, ethyl alcohol, sodium hypochlorite, glutaraldehyde, benzalkonium chloride)

a. White powder, its watery solution can be used to disinfect the walls of stables → chlorinated lime b. Less potent disinfectant, it does not kill bacterial spores → ethyl alcohol c. Corrosive agent, its mechanism is the formation of short life free oxygen radicals → sodium hypochlorite d. Non-corrosive but irritative disinfectant, less influenced by impurities → glutaraldehyde e. It is a combination of halogen disinfectant and a cationic detergent → benzalkonium chloride

Pair each drug group with the corresponding bacteria according to potency: a. penicillinase-stable penicillins → ? b. narrow spectrum penicillins → ? c. Anti-Pseudomonas penicillins → ? d. broad spectrum penicillins → ? (Options: - Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus uberis - Bacillus, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, P. multocida - Streptococcus, Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, E. coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Bacillus, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, E. coli, Salmonella)

a. penicillinase-stable penicillins → Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus uberis b. narrow spectrum penicillins → Bacillus, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, P. multocida c. Anti-Pseudomonas penicillins → Streptococcus, Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, E. coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. broad spectrum penicillins → Bacillus, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, E. coli, Salmonella

Which agent would you use in the therapy of Bordetella bronchiseptica-associated distortive rhinitis in pigs? a. Colistin b Oxytetracycline c. Metronidazole d. Chloramphenicol

b Oxytetracycline

The main indications for penicillinase-stable penicllins inclde... a. Urinary tract infections, oral infections and bite wounds b Tuberculosis c. All of these d. Infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b Tuberculosis

How are fluoroquinolones excreted in the first place? a. Active form via the liver b. Active form via the kidneys c. Inactive form via the kidney d. Inactive form via the liver

b. Active form via the kidneys

Which of the statements is TRUE for Monobactams? a. Extremely resistant to Gram-negative beta-lactamases, but ineffective against Gram Positive bacteria. b. All Three. c. They are classified as AMEG "A" d. Aztreonam can only be administered parenterally, tigemonam can be administered per os

b. All Three.

Which of the following substances has sedative hypnotic effect? a. Xylazine b. Romifidine c. Medetomidine d. None of them e. All of them

e. All of them

What is the MIC value of an antibiotic? a. Mean inhibitory concentration b. Maximum inhibitory concentration c. Minimum bactericidal concentration d. Maximum bactericidal concentration e. Mean bactericidal concentration f. Minimum inhibitory concentration

f. Minimum inhibitory concentration