PMP 2020

Which of these represents the range of a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate if the base point is $100,000? A. $90,000 to $110,000 B. $75,000 to $125,000 C. $75,000 to $175,000 D. $10,000 to $190,000 Planning - Cost Management According to the PMBOK Guide 6th edition, page 241, a rough order of magnitude (ROM) is a range of -25% to + 75%.

$75,000 to $175,000 Planning - Cost Management According to the PMBOK Guide 6th edition, page 241, a rough order of magnitude (ROM) is a range of -25% to + 75%.

You are managing a graphic design and print project. There is a 30% chance that the paper you are using will be too thin and you'll have to reprint the presentation, which will cost you an extra $5,000. There is also a 20% chance that the high capacity ink cartridges you are using will last you longer than you expect, which will save you $1,000. What is your Expected Monetary Value (EMV)? A. $4,000 B. $200 C. -$1,300 D. -$1,500

-$1,300 EMV is calculated by taking event #1 with a loss of $5,000 and multiplying it by the 30% probability to get negative $1,500. For event #2, you multiply the savings of $1,000 times the 20% probability to get positive $200. Add the two events and you get -$1,300.

Which of the following best defines high quality? A. A product that doesn't have any documented defects B. A product that lasts for 25 years C. A product that passes all quality tests D. A product that satisfies the quality requirements

A product that satisfies the quality requirements Planning - Quality Management The correct answer is D. The definition of high quality is a product that meets the agreed upon quality requirements and standards. Choices A, B and C are incorrect because they can all be true and at the same time quality can be low. Just because a product passed the tests and no defects were found does not mean it is high quality - perhaps the tests were designed poorly and as a result no defects were found. Choice B may sound good, but what if the product was supposed to last longer than 25 years?

Which of the following would be considered a defect? A. A work package that does not meet the requirements, but is later deemed acceptable by the customer B. A mistake made by a team member C. A system component that meets specifications, but the broader system it belongs to does not work properly D. Any change request

A work package that does not meet the requirements, but is later deemed acceptable by the customer Monitoring - Quality Management Remember a defect is any deliverable that does not meet the documented requirements. Choice A clearly is the only choice that matches this description. Just because a customer later decides that it is acceptable does not negate the fact that it did not meet the requirements, and therefore is a defect. In choice C, even if the deliverable doesn't work properly, if it meets the requirements then it is not defective. Change requests are not necessarily derived from defects.

You are in the process of installing a new heating and air system in your office building when you realize that because of the way the exhaust fan is situated, winds of over 30 MPH will cause the AC unit to not vent or work properly. You decide to not change anything and continue as planned. What strategy did you choose? A. Exploit B. Accept C. Transfer D. Mitigate

Accept Executing - Integration Management Since you have chosen to not do anything different, you have decided to accept the risk.

When might it be appropriate to re-baseline a project? A. Never, since baselines are used to measure progress against the plan B. After receiving approved budget updates C. After a corrective action D. After receiving updates to the cost management plan

After receiving approved budget updates Monitoring - Integration Management You should re-baseline a project after receiving approved budget updates, since they would affect the Cost Baseline. The Cost Management Plan describes how costs will be managed, regardless of the baseline. Corrective actions should be tracked against the baseline.

Cost of Quality is defined as? A. Money spent during the project to avoid failures and divided into two categories: Prevention and Appraisal B. All costs over the life of the project associated with quality and divided into two categories: Conformance and Nonconformance C. Money spent during and after the project to avoid failures and divided into two categories: Internal and External D. A qualitative measurement that calculates the expected monetary value of quality control measures using the formula COQ = impact x probability x cash flow

All costs over the life of the project associated with quality and divided into two categories: Conformance and Nonconformance Planning - Quality Management Money spent to avoid failures is the Cost of Conformance, while money spent addressing failures is the Cost of Non Conformance. Expected monetary value can be used to calculate conformance and non-conformance costs; however it is a quantitative calculation, not a qualitative.

Which of the following could be considered a key performance indicator (KPI)? A. Number of internal defects B. Estimated effort variance to actual effort C. Scheduled deliverable dates variance to actual dates D. All of the above

All of the above Executing - Integration Management Anything we identify and agree on to determine project performance.

A key stakeholder comes to you with what you believe to be a major change to the project. You only have one week of buffer in your plan and your project absolutely cannot be late. What should you do? A. Inform the stakeholder that due to the tight schedule you cannot make the change B. Issue a change request immediately and let the change control board decide C. Begin working on the change, because this is a key stakeholder and you should keep her happy D. Analyze the impact of the change

Analyze the impact of the change Planning - Integration Management The first thing you should do in this case is analyze the impact of the change. You must always analyze the impact before you issue a change request. Choice A is incorrect, because you don't yet know the impact - it might turn out the change can be done in less than one week.

You are managing a manufacturing project and want to improve quality. Which of the following categories would inspections and destructive testing loss fall under? A. Prevention costs B. Appraisal costs C. Internal failure costs D. External failure costs

Appraisal costs Executing - Quality Management Appraisal costs are costs incurred to test the product. Prevention costs are costs incurred to build quality into the product, such as proper training and equipment. Internal failure costs are costs incurred prior to handing the product over to the customer, such as scrap and rework. External failure costs are costs incurred once the product is in the customer's hands, such as warranty work, legal liabilities and lost business.

When should you identify the stakeholders? A. At the start of the project B. At the start of the planning process group C. At the start of the project and the start of each phase D. After gathering the requirements

At the start of the project and the start of each phase Initiating - Stakeholder Management Remember you should perform the PMBOK Guide processes for each phase. Technically choice A is also correct, but choice C is a better answer because it includes choice A. Remember to choose the more inclusive answer when faced with this type of situation.

Which of the following is not included in configuration management? A. Automatic change request approvals B. Controlling changes to project deliverables C. Communicating changes to those performing the affected work D. Identification of the functional and physical attributes of the project deliverables

Automatic change request approvals Monitoring - Integration Management Choices B, C, and D are all part of configuration management, as further outlined on pages 118-119 of the PMBOK Guide. Change requests are not and should not be automatically approved.

Which of the following best describes the Validate Scope process? A. It ensures the WBS is completely defined. B. It involves formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. C. It is used to determine the correctness of the deliverables. D. It is a key part of the requirements analysis process.

B. It involves formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. Monitoring - Scope Management Scope Validation typically occurs near the end of the project, and involves formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. In other words, it ensures the project deliverables meet the documented project requirements. Verifying the correctness of the deliverables is a function of the Control Quality process.

You are in the planning phase of a project to build a shopping mall in a small community in a nearby town. You have used bottom-up estimating to determine costs for each activity and have created a cost baseline. Which of the following statements is true? A. Bottom-up estimating is the most labor intensive and not quite as accurate as parametric estimating. B. You have completed the Estimating Costs process and will use the cost baseline to begin the Determine Budget process which will create the budget performance baseline used to measure future project performance. C. Bottom-up estimating is the most labor intensive and is more accurate than parametric estimating. D. You have completed the Determine Budget process and will use the cost baseline to begin the Establish Budget process which will create the budget performance baseline used to measure future project performance.

Bottom-up estimating is the most labor intensive and is more accurate than parametric estimating. Planning - Cost Management Bottom-up estimating takes the most time but is the most accurate since it aggregates the cost of every activity. There is no budget performance baseline.

A diagram used to break a problem down into discrete branches could be identified by all of the following names except which one? A. Branch or tree diagram B. Why-why diagram C. Ishikawa diagram D. Fishbone diagram

Branch or tree diagram Executing - Quality Management A diagram that is used to break down a problem into discreet branches is called a Fishbone, Ishikawa, Cause-and-Effect or a Why-why diagram.

You are in the process of executing your project and need to know when it will be completed. You have the following activity durations on your project: A=6, B=15, C=11, D=8, E=14, F=5, G=4. You also know that D is dependent on A and B. Task F is a successor of D, E, and G. Task C is a predecessor of task E and G. Which of the following is the critical path? A. A-D-F B. B-D-F C. C-E-F D. C-G-F

C-E-F Monitoring - Schedule Management For this question you could draw out the schedule network diagram based on the information provided. However, since the only thing we need to calculate is the critical path, we can take a shortcut and just add up the possible durations and choose the longest duration path, which is C-E-F or 30 days.

Who is responsible for approving the Project Management Plan? A. Project manager and stakeholders B. Project manager and sponsor C. Project manager, sponsor and key stakeholders D. Sponsor only

C. Project manager, sponsor and key stakeholders Planning - Integration Management The Project Management Plan is the master plan from which the project will be executed. It is the responsibility of all parties (project manager, sponsor, and key stakeholders) to approve the Project Management Plan.

Which of the following is not a result of performing stakeholder analysis? A. Understanding who might impact or might be impacted by the project B. Determining a strategy for how to best manage various stakeholders C. Understanding who will be responsible for completing the work D. Understanding stakeholder attitudes

C. Understanding who will be responsible for completing the work Initiating - Stakeholder Management Remember stakeholder analysis is done at the beginning of a project - at that point we don't know what work is required yet, so how could we assign responsibility? Choice A is the main reason for doing this process and is documented in the stakeholder register. Choice B and D are included in the stakeholder management strategy, which is the other output of this process.

You are managing a highway construction project and you are trying to determine if the project is ahead of or behind schedule. Which of the following would be most helpful? A. The schedule baseline B. Scope of user stories C. Work performance information D. Reserve analysis

C. Work performance information Monitoring - Schedule Management Work performance information, which includes key schedule performance indicators such as SV and SPI, would be most helpful because it provides performance information relative to established baselines.

In which of the following processes would it be most helpful for you as a project manager to employ data gathering techniques? A. Develop Project Charter and Estimate Costs B. Define Scope and Define Activities C. Collect Requirements and Identify Risk D. Create WBS and Control Scope

Collect Requirements and Identify Risk Planning - Scope Management Collecting requirements and identifying risk both rely heavily on information gathering techniques. In both processes, it is important to extract as much information as possible (to ensure that all necessary requirements are captured, and to ensure all potential risks are identified).

You are managing a complex project to deploy and integrate a new telecommunications system for a state government at various locations throughout the state. The project has been ongoing for over a year, and you are proceeding well. Your SPI is 1.1 and your CPI is 1.2. The state's auditors have recently announced they will arrive at your headquarters next week to inspect all financial records as part of a governmental oversight effort. In addition to the actual documents, they want to know about the procedures governing the collection, storage and retrieval of the information. Which of the following will assist you in answering these questions? A. Project Funding Requirements B. Resource Management Plan C. Project Scope Statement D. Communications Management Plan

Communications Management Plan Monitoring - Communications Management The Communications Management Plan addresses not only the dissemination of project information, but also the processes by which information is gathered, stored and retrieved.

Upon reaching the project constrained end date of your new inventory control software project, you realize some high business value requirements have not been completed and will not be in your release. Which of the following did you most likely not do effectively? A. Involving all of the right stakeholders to identify the requirements B. Completing and using a product backlog C. Following the stakeholder engagement strategies with the project team D. Performing quality assurance

Completing and using a product backlog Planning - Schedule Management The key words "constrained end date" denotes a time-boxed or agile approach most likely using sprints. In Agile, a product backlog is used to identify, estimate, and prioritize by business value all of the requirements for the project. A is not correct because the requirements have been identified, just not all implemented. C may have helped to better prioritize, but not the best answer. D is incorrect because quality assurance is auditing the processes and control quality measurements to ensure the project is effectively following the plan, and for implementing process improvements.

There are several versions of the project scope statement floating around. Unfortunately, there is no version denoted on the documents so it is creating a lot of confusion as to which document is most up to date. Where would you go to find out which document is the correct version? A. WBS B. Change control board C. Project management plan D. Configuration management system

Configuration management system Monitoring - Integration Management The configuration management system tracks changes to key documents in the project. Anytime a change is made to important project documents, an entry is made in the configuration management system.

When should you perform the Monitor and Control Project Work processes? A. As each deliverable is completed B. As soon as all deliverables are completed C. Immediately after direct and manage project execution D. Continuously throughout the project

Continuously throughout the project Monitoring - Integration Management Remember that you do monitoring and controlling throughout the entire project.

Which of the following processes would be used to oversee the resource for the project like equipment, facilities and materials? A. Monitor and Control Project Work B. Control Resources C. Manage Resources D. Manage Team

Control Resources Monitoring - Procurement Management Answer A may be correct, but it is not the most correct. The question is asking specifically about the oversight of non-human resources. Answer D is about managing the team members. Answer C is not a process at all. Only the Control Resources process deals with physical resources such as equipment, facilities and material.

You are in the process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes/corrections to your contracts. What process are you performing? A. Plan procurements B. Monitor procurements C. Control procurements D. Conduct procurements

Control procurements Monitoring - Procurement Management During control procurements you manage procurement relationships, monitor contract performance, and make changes/corrections to your contracts. Your goal is to ensure that your vendors meet their contractual obligations.

You are managing a project that is under budget and behind schedule. You have plenty of slack in non-critical path activities and you feel it's too risky to make changes to dependencies. Which of the following is your best option to get the project back on schedule? A. Crashing B. Fast-tracking C. Resource leveling D. Critical chain method

Crashing Monitoring - Schedule Management Your best option given the circumstances is to crash the project. With crashing, you will add resources to critical path activities, thus exchanging potentially higher costs for faster delivery. You should know that fast-tracking is not an option here because you are told it's too risky to change dependencies and that's exactly what fast tracking does (working on activities in parallel). Resource leveling attempts to smooth out resources, primarily to prevent people from being overworked, and often will result in longer schedule duration.

You are managing a database design project and just realized that there is a major flaw in your design. Your team determines that fixing the design flaw will result in two additional weeks of work, along with a 10% increase in costs, but has no significant impacts on other project constraints. Not fixing the flaw, however, would result in a major security vulnerability that is unacceptable to the customer. What should you do next? A. Fix the flaw immediately B. Inform the customer of the design flaw C. Create a change request D. Determine the impact of the change

Create a change request Monitoring - Integration Management In this question, you have simply identified a design flaw. Even though the team may come up with the impacts to fixing the design flaw, the first step is to create a change request. You should not begin fixing the problem, as suggested in choice A, until you get approval. Choice B is also inappropriate, because it is not the next step. You should get the change approved first, and then inform the customer of the new plan. The steps in the change process are 1) prevent change if possible; 2) identify the change (document it with a change request) 3) determine the impact, 4) Issue the change request to the change control board for review; 5) perform integrated change control (get CCB to approve); If change is approved: 6) update the project documents, 7) notify stakeholders of the change and get their buy-in, and 8) manage the project per the new plan.

You are in the process of executing your project and need to know when it will be completed. You have the following activity durations on your project: A=8, B=14, C=6, D=6, E=12, F=6. You also know that D is dependent on A and B. Task F is a successor of D and E. Task C is a predecessor of task E. Based on this information what is the critical path and what is the float of task A? A. Critical path is BDF and the float of task A is 6 B. Critical path is ADF and the float of task A is 0 C. Critical path is CEF and the float of task A is 0 D. Critical path is BDF and the float of task A is 2

Critical path is BDF and the float of task A is 6 Monitoring - Schedule Management For this question you need to draw out the schedule network diagram based on the information provided. You would have the following paths: A to D, B to D, C to E, D to F and E to F. You would then need to use the durations provided to do a forward and backwards path analysis. The end result is that the critical path is BDF and the float of task A is 6.

Which of the following best describes a scatter diagram? A. Displays the relationship between independent and dependent variables B. Shows the risks facing the project and the sensitivity to each C. Shows the relationship between causes and defects D. Has an upper limit and a lower limit and shows process deviations

Displays the relationship between independent and dependent variables Monitoring - Quality Management Scatter diagrams graphically show the relationship between 2 variables. Choice B is describing a tornado diagram. Choice C is describing a Fishbone or Ishikawa diagram. Choice D is describing a control chart.

You are managing a project and a team member comes across a major risk. Based on the team member's assessment the risk has a fairly high probability of occurring and carries a big impact. What should you do first? A. Call a team meeting to discuss the risk. B. Transfer the risk by hiring an external vendor to do the work. C. Reprimand the team member for even bringing up the risk. D. Document the risk in the risk register.

Document the risk in the risk register. Monitoring - Integration Management The first thing you should always do when you identify a new risk is add it to the risk register. You may very well want to call a meeting quickly, but the first thing you should do is document that the risk exists by putting it in the risk register. You would not transfer the risk, as suggested in choice B, until you had documented it and done some analysis. Obviously choice C is not correct - you always want an open policy for identifying risks.

All of the following are maturity levels of CMMI except? A. Optimizing B. Effectiveness C. Defined D. Quantitatively managed

Effectiveness Monitoring - Quality Management The five maturity levels are Initial, Managed, Defined, Quantitatively managed, and Optimizing.

When working as a project manager there are many things around you that can impact the project's ability to be successful, including the corporate culture, infrastructure, marketplace conditions, the number and type of resources available, workplace attitudes, etc. These are referred to as? A. Organizational process assets B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Lesson learned D. Constraints

Enterprise environmental factors Initiating - Framework The question lists just a few of the many enterprise environmental factors listed in the PMBOK Guide.

Jeff is a senior engineer on your project. During a progress review meeting you come across a potentially disastrous risk to your project. Jeff tells the team that he has a fix to avoid the risk and ensure everything goes smoothly. Everyone trusts Jeff's advice, because he has a lot of experience handling these types of technical risks. What kind of power does Jeff have? A. Formal B. Expert C. Legitimate D. Referent

Expert Executing - Resource Management There are 14 types or sources of power. Some of these include formal/legitimate, expert, reward, referent, and punishment/penalty. Jeff derives his power from his vast amount of experience, thus he is using Expert power. Positional (aka Formal /Legitimate) power is derived from your position or title. Referent power is derived from your charisma or how well others like you.

You are a project manager of a project close to completing delivery of the final product when an important stakeholder contacts you about a requirement that seems to be missing from the project scope. You schedule a meeting with them to discuss the specifics of the requirement and the possible options for handling it. During the meeting the conversation becomes somewhat heated when the stakeholder demands to know when the requirement will be completed. What is the ideal way to handle this situation? A. Use the conflict resolution technique of Smoothing to examine the alternatives and identify a win-win solution B. Explain that any details on whether the requirement is approved or might be completed would be made by the CCB and assist them in completing a Change Request C. Recognize the stakeholder as a resistor and leave the meeting room to avoid further conflict with a stakeholder D. Agree to personally handle their request to ensure that it is completed as soon as possible to avoid any further conflict

Explain that any details on whether the requirement is approved or might be completed would be made by the CCB and assist them in completing a Change Request Monitoring - Integration Management The CCB must review and approve all Change Requests. Explaining this fact and then assisting with the completion of the Change Request is the best way to handle this. The technique of Smoothing does not involve examining alternatives and is not win-win. Withdrawing during a conflict is never the best option. Agreeing to personally handle the request and to ensure it's completed as soon as possible sets an unrealistic expectation that it is already approved.

What is the term you would use to describe the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the successor activities? A. Critical path method B. Free float C. Total float D. Lag

Free float Planning - Schedule Management Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the successor activities. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the entire project.

You have completed all project work and are asked what items remain in order for the project to be formally closed. What is the correct order of events? A. Get formal acceptance, write lessons learned, close the contract, release the team B. Release the team, get formal acceptance, write lessons learned, close the contract C. Close the contract, write lessons learned, release the team, get formal acceptance D. Close the contract, get formal acceptance, release the team , write lessons learned

Get formal acceptance, write lessons learned, close the contract, release the team Closing - Integration Management You always need to retain the team members at least long enough to get formal acceptance and document the lessons learned. Thus the only acceptable answer is choice A.

You are managing a project at a water treatment plant. Your team is having conflicts about things like who takes meeting minutes, what time to arrive at work, inappropriate work language, and meeting etiquette. Which of the following would help resolve these issues? A. Projectized organization structure B. Rewards and recognition C. Ground rules D. Sensitivity training

Ground rules Executing - Stakeholder Management Ground rules help the team understand what behavior is acceptable and what is not. Ground rules could help to resolve, or better still - prevent - the issues listed in the question.

You are managing a project that will move your 200-person office across the country. All your requirements have been established and you are currently sitting in a meeting with several key stakeholders performing documentation reviews, assumptions analysis, and information gathering techniques. Which process are you performing? A. Identify risk B. Collect requirements C. Perform quality assurance D. Monitor and control project work

Identify risk Planning - Risk Management The 3 tools listed in the question are examples of tools listed for the identify risk process. During this process you usually sit down with stakeholders and try to find risks. The tools and techniques for the Identify Risk process are Data Analysis, Data Gathering, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Prompt Lists, Meetings, and Expert Judgment.

Which of the following processes does not result in updates to the Risk Register? A. Identifying lessons learned in risk management during project closure B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis C. Plan Risk Responses D. Monitor and Control Risks

Identifying lessons learned in risk management during project closure Planning - Risk Management Lessons identified during closure would not be captured in a Risk Register, which is used to document and track risks during project performance. The remaining answers all have risk register updates as outputs.

Formal approval has been provided for your project, and you are asking around to see who else might be impacted by your project. What process group are you in? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Monitoring and Controlling

Initiating Initiating - Integration Management The question is describing the Identify Stakeholders process, which is part of the Initiating process group.

You are managing a large construction project and need to make changes to the contract. Once the changes are complete, you need to make sure that the three shift mangers understand the changes and feedback is received. What type of communication method should you use? A. Interactive Communication B. Push Communication C. Pull Communication D. Communication Styles Assessment

Interactive Communication Executing - Communications Management Interactive communication allows all parties to exchange information this would allow the PM to make sure understanding is achieved. Push and Pull are useful but the question asked for feedback

Which of the following are tools and techniques of Manage Team? A. Virtual teams B. Training C. Team Performance Appraisals D. Interpersonal Skills

Interpersonal Skills Executing - Resource Management Virtual teams, Training and Team performance appraisals are used during the Develop Team process.

You are managing a project and one of your vendors submits a deliverable that you feel is incomplete. He disagrees and insists that his work is done and refuses to do any further work on it. How should you handle this situation? A. Accept the work as completed B. Have a mediator help resolve the issue C. File a lawsuit to force the vendor to complete the work or pay you damages D. Involve your procurement specialists, then refer to applicable claims administration procedures

Involve your procurement specialists, then refer to applicable claims administration procedures Monitoring - Procurement Management This is a conflict related to a contract. The appropriate course of action is to use the claims administration procedures set forth in the contract, which define how to handle these types of conflicts (after involving the procurement specialists).

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the project charter? A. It defines the project scope B. It authorizes work to begin on the project C. It completely describes the work to be done on the project D. It describes the business case and reason for doing the project

It authorizes work to begin on the project Initiating - Integration Management The main purpose of the project charter is to grant formal authority for work to begin on a project. The charter may include some aspects of the other answer choices, but choice B is the best answer.

What is the main purpose of the WBS dictionary? A. It contains additional information about each WBS component B. It provides a framework for how to create the WBS C. It tracks time and cost on a project D. It contains additional information about each activity

It contains additional information about each WBS component Planning - Scope Management The main purpose of the WBS dictionary is to store additional information about each WBS component. This can include things like work package name, ID, responsible organization, schedule milestones, quality requirements, cost estimates, required resources, code of accounts identifier, etc.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the WBS? A. It organizes the project team and shows reporting structures B. It assigns work to individual team members C. It makes the project easier to plan and oversee D. It describes the business value to be delivered by the project

It makes the project easier to plan and oversee Planning - Scope Management The correct answer is choice C. The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the work to be completed on a project and the main purpose is to make time and costs easier to estimate. Choice A describes the purpose of a project organization chart. Choice B describes a Work Authorization System. Choice D describes the Project Charter.

Which of the following is true about the Procurement Statement of Work? A. It outlines the items to be provided via the procurement B. If the project is internal, it is written by the project manager after receiving the Project Scope Statement C. It is written by the seller as the response to a RFP D. It is written by the buyer in response to a RFQ

It outlines the items to be provided via the procurement Planning - Procurement Management A Statement of Work (SOW) is a narrative description of the products or services to be delivered. For internal projects, it is written by the project sponsor. While an RFQ could include an SOW, it would be provided along with it and not as a response.

One of the key factors in managing project quality is decision-making. All of the following describe product-related quality decisions except which one? A. Decisions about evaluating the level of stakeholder satisfaction B. Decisions related to risk associated with resolving defects in the final product C. Life-cycle cost evaluation decisions D. Making a choice about different implementation scenarios or suppliers

Making a choice about different implementation scenarios or suppliers Executing - Quality Management Answers A through C are all factors that relate to making product-based quality decisions. Choosing between different implementation scenarios or suppliers is a project-based decision. See Page 293 of the PMBOK Guide.

You are managing a large software project for a bank and are about 50% done with the work when a new stakeholder is identified. It turns out the stakeholder will be highly impacted by the new software project. You have a tight deadline and the requirements are already firmly set. What should you do? A. Ignore the stakeholder B. Meet with the stakeholder to inform her of your project C. Meet with the stakeholder to gather her requirements D. Find someone to blame for not identifying the stakeholder earlier

Meet with the stakeholder to gather her requirements Initiating - Stakeholder Management The correct course of action would be to meet with the stakeholder and document her requirements. You might get lucky and already have all of her requirements taken into consideration. If time permits and the change is approved, you may still be able to incorporate her requirements. At the very least, you have engaged the stakeholder and attempted to satisfy her needs. Simply informing the stakeholder of your project and not gathering her requirements, as suggested in choice B, would not be appropriate either.

You are managing a project that will move your company's data to a new state-of-the-art data center. The biggest risk your team has identified is the risk of losing important customer records data during the move. Fortunately, most of the data is also stored on paper forms. However the cost to input the records would be very high. To address this risk you create a backup of the entire customer database as of last week, and purchase an insurance policy to pay for the cost to input data for the past 7 days. Which types of risk response strategy are you using? A. Mitigate and transfer B. Mitigate and enhance C. Mitigate and share D. Mitigate and avoid

Mitigate and transfer Planning - Risk Management Creating a backup of the data is an example of mitigation. Mitigation in this context is a plan you'll implement if things go wrong, to make sure the impact is minimized. The insurance policy is an example of transfer. The risk of the cost to input that data is being transferred to a third party.

All of the following are tools and techniques of Acquire Resources except for which one? A. Networking B. Pre-Assignment C. Virtual Teams D. Negotiation

Networking Planning - Resource Management Networking is a tool and technique of Develop Human Resource Plan, which comes before Acquire Resources.

In which of the following team-building stages does the team begin to work together and build good working relationships? A. Storming B. Performing C. Forming D. Norming

Norming Executing - Resource Management Tuckman's 5 stages of team development are Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning. Forming is where the team is initially brought together; Storming is where the team has disagreements; Norming is where the team begins to work together; Performing is where the team reaches optimal performance; and Adjourning is where the team disbands.

You are managing a project to build a bridge across the bay. The previous project had cost overruns because the project team underestimated the winds and harsh weather conditions on the bay. From which of the following should you derive this historical information? A. Organizational process assets B. Records management system C. Project management software D. Enterprise environmental factors

Organizational process assets Planning - Cost Management The lessons learned documentation from the prior project is part of the organizational process assets. The term records management system only applies to procurements, at least with PMBOK Guide terminology. Project management software is a tool used in cost and Schedule Management. Enterprise environmental factors are the environmental factors surrounding your workplace that are usually intangible, and the windy conditions are an example. The information documenting this, however, is part of your OPA.

All of the following are included in the Roles and Responsibilities section of the Resource Management Plan except which one? A. Role B. Authority C. Ownership D. Competence

Ownership Planning - Resource Management Roles and responsibilities are part of Resource Management Plan. Remember the Resource Plan includes 9 major things: Identification of Resources, Acquiring Resources, Roles and Responsibilities, Project Organization Charts, Project Team Resource Management, Training, Team Development, Resource Control, and Recognition Plan. The Roles and Responsibilities addresses Role, Authority, Responsibility, and Competency.

Which of the following should be done during the Develop Project Charter process? A. Identify risks and their risk responses to ensure the project plan is as stable as possible B. Decompose the scope of the project into more precise deliverables and activities to allow for the most accurate and confident estimate C. Perform a benefit analysis to validate project alignment with the organization's strategy and ensure the expected business value is doable D. Ensure all stakeholders have been identified with the appropriate strategies defined for engaging them effectively

Perform a benefit analysis to validate project alignment with the organization's strategy and ensure the expected business value is doable Initiating - Integration Management A is done in the Identify Risks and Plan Risk Responses processes, although some risks could have been identified during the develop project charter process. B is the Create WBS and Define Activities processes. D is the Identify Stakeholders and Plan Stakeholder Management processes.

You are a project manager overseeing the construction of a new shopping mall. As part of risk planning you compiled and reviewed zoning regulations to help ensure that your project would not be interrupted by any regulatory problems, however, the information reviewed was out of date. As it turns out, you have unknowingly exceeded the new maximum height restrictions for structures in that area. You must now seek a variance from the local government authorities, and if it is refused, your project could be shut down. Which of the following could have helped avoid this situation? A. Setting aside higher risk reserves B. Performing better risk data quality assessment C. Doing a more thorough job of collecting requirements D. Doing a more thorough job of identifying negative stakeholders

Performing better risk data quality assessment Planning - Risk Management Risk data quality assessment helps ensure that the underlying information used to evaluate risk is valid, and in this case the information used (the outdated regulations) were no longer valid. Without solid information, risk planning is useless. Had the reliability of the regulations been examined more thoroughly, this would not have happened.

All of the following processes are designed to identify, analyze and/or address specific risks, except for which one? A. Plan Risk Management B. Identify Risks C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Plan Risk Management Executing - Risk Management The Risk Management Plan is not designed to address specific risks (though it may include risk categories). Rather, it sets forth the ways in which the project team will go about managing risk.

Regarding change, the project manager's attention is best spent doing which of the following? A. Informing the sponsor and stakeholders of changes B. Tracking and recording changes C. Building relationships with the change control board members D. Preventing unnecessary changes

Preventing unnecessary changes Monitoring - Integration Management As a project manager you should try to be proactive and prevent changes as much as possible, thus choice D is the correct answer.

One of your vendors has not completed the work required on the project and you have exhausted all other options to resolve the dispute. Which of the following is not an appropriate option? A. Lawsuit B. Arbitration C. Mediation D. Procurement audit

Procurement audit Monitoring - Procurement Management If you have exhausted all other options to resolve the dispute, then your procurements specialists may consider mediation, arbitration, or even a lawsuit to resolve the dispute. A procurement audit is just a structured review of the entire procurement process as a whole, and would not be helpful to resolve a dispute.

You are managing a complex project to overhaul a water treatment plant. You are trying to report key information to the stakeholders, but are having trouble compiling all of the relevant data. You have multiple budget reports in various formats, some of which are out of date, and they are housed in various locations. The work performance data is similarly scattered amongst various documents, and is difficult to interpret. Which of the following would best assist you in communicating the key information to the stakeholders? A. Project Management Information System B. Communications Technology C. Communications Management Plan D. Issue Log

Project Management Information System Monitoring - Stakeholder Management The Project Management Information System, which is a tool and technique of Manage Communications, is used to record, store and distribute information about the project. In this case, they would help you organize the information so it can be readily provided to stakeholders.

Which of the following would be most helpful in determining the total duration of your project? A. Schedule Management Plan B. WBS C. Project Schedule Network Diagram D. Scope Statement

Project Schedule Network Diagram Planning - Schedule Management The project schedule network diagram displays the relationships among activities (dependencies), and would therefore be the most helpful in determining the total duration of the project. The schedule management plan would tell you how to go about schedule planning, but it would not contain information about project duration. The WBS and scope statement would contain information about project scope, but lack sufficient detail about individual activities to determine the project duration.

You are in the process of wrapping your project up. Which of the following should you consult to determine when and how to release the team? A. Resource Management Plan B. Project Team Resource Management C. Scope Statement D. Activity List

Project Team Resource Management Monitoring - Resource Management The project team resource management section of the overall Resource Management Plan contains guidance on resource management (which contains information about how and when the staff is released). Neither the Activity List nor the Scope Statement address the release of team members.

Who manages the integration tasks on a project? A. Project manager B. Project team C. Sponsor D. Stakeholder

Project manager Executing - Integration Management Integration is one of the primary responsibilities of the project manager.

Which of the following statements is true regarding risk management? A. Risks are events that have occurred on a project, and may be helpful (opportunities) or hurtful (threats) B. Risks might be opportunities to the project objectives, but only risks that are threats to the project objectives need to be considered C. Risks that are perceived more as rewards to the organization than negative consequences should be accepted D. Project risks are uncertain events

Project risks are uncertain events Planning - Risk Management Risks are always uncertain events and need to be considered whether they are positive or negative. Even risks that involve perceived rewards should be analyzed.

Where would you document project assumptions, constraints and exclusions? A. Requirements document B. Project management plan C. Project charter D. Project scope statement

Project scope statement Planning - Scope Management The project scope statement includes the product scope description, product acceptance criteria, project deliverables, project exclusions, project assumptions, and project constraints. The project charter and requirements document does have some information about assumptions and constraints (however it is limited), but the only place you would find project exclusions is the scope statement.

Which of the following is not a category of waste, according to Lean Six Sigma? A. Re-estimating B. Transportation C. Waiting D. Over-processing

Re-estimating Planning - Quality Management The seven kinds of waste are defects, overproduction, transportation, waiting, inventory, motion, and over-processing.

Which of the following would not be included in the Communication Management Plan? A. Reporting structures within the organization B. Escalation path for resolving issues C. Stakeholder communication requirements D. Reasons for information distribution

Reporting structures within the organization Planning - Communications Management Choice A is the correct answer because it is not part of the Communication Management Plan. Reporting structures are defined in the Human Resource Plan. Choices B, C, and D could all be found in the Communication Management Plan.

Which of the following does not contain any information about the project requirements or the characteristics of the product? A. Requirements documentation B. Project charter C. Requirements management plan D. Project statement of work

Requirements management plan Planning - Scope Management Remember that a management plan is a how-to document. The requirements management plan describes how you will go about collecting/handling requirements, but it does not contain actual requirements. The project statement of work contains information about the characteristics of the product, the project charter includes high-level requirements, and the requirements documentation contains the detailed requirements.

You are managing a large software upgrade project and your team has moved beyond planning and is now performing the work. You only have one team member capable of performing the necessary system testing, and she is being temporarily diverted from your project to another. You have therefore adjusted the schedule so that all testing will be done at once, when she returns, rather than at scheduled intervals as previously planned. What tool and technique have you used? A. Resource Leveling B. Pre-Assignment C. What-if Scenario D. Fast-tracking

Resource Leveling Executing - Schedule Management Resource Leveling is a type of Resource Optimization a tool and technique used where a resource is over-allocated or where a critical resource will only be available for a certain time period. Here, your schedule activities need to change in light of the limited availability of this team member. Note that Resource Leveling may cause the original schedule to be extended.

You are managing a project for a pharmaceutical company to develop a new flu vaccine that could save millions of lives. Which of the following would you use if you wanted to analyze actual versus planned results? A. Status report B. Results from variance analysis C. Trend report D. Forecast report

Results from variance analysis Executing - Integration Management Results from variance analysis are used to compare planned versus actual results. Status reports typically look at status for the current period. Trend reports show performance plotted over time. Forecasts try to predict the future project performance.

Which of the following is not done when conducting contract closure? A. Ensuring there are no outstanding claims regarding the contract B. Ensuring invoices have been paid C. Review of the seller's current progress compared to the contract D. Ensuring all contractual obligations have been met

Review of the seller's current progress compared to the contract Monitoring - Procurement Management Choices A, B and D all occur during the contract closure exercise. Choice C refers to the Tool and Technique called Data Analysis (Performance Reviews), which could effect better seller performance while the procurement is ongoing but would not be helpful after the work is completed.

As time passes in a project, which of the following does not happen? A. Cost of change increases B. Risk increases C. Stakeholder influence decreases D. Cumulative project spending increases

Risk increases Monitoring - Framework As time passes in a project the cost of change increases, risk decreases, and stakeholder influence decreases. Cost of change increases because as time passes if you make a change it will likely require rework. Risk decreases because as time passes you complete more work and thus your uncertainty goes down. Stakeholder influence decreases, because you gather information from stakeholders at the beginning of the project and as you go forward you are executing according to the plan rather than according to the whims of the stakeholders.

Controlling risk should be a continuous effort throughout your project, and should always receive close attention. Which of the following is not true about controlling risk? A. Risk identification and monitoring are the responsibilities of the entire project team. B. It involves making sure sufficient contingency reserves are in place given the risks which remain. C. Risk mitigation is a risk response planning technique associated with opportunities that seek to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of a positive risk. D. Residual risks are risks that remain after risk responses have been implemented.

Risk mitigation is a risk response planning technique associated with opportunities that seek to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of a positive risk. Monitoring - Risk Management Risk mitigation seeks to lower the probability of a negative risk occurring, and soften the impact if it does occur. It is only used for negative risks (threats).

You are managing a project that is on a very tight schedule and budget. You are asked to pass along key information in a simple report that will describe how well your project is performing relative to the baselines set. Which of the following would be the most helpful to include in your report? A. Issues log B. Lessons learned C. SPI and CPI D. Total costs incurred and time spent on the project work to date

SPI and CPI Monitoring - Cost Management While it might seem helpful to pass along the information from answer choice D, it does not paint a clear picture of the project's progress relative to the baselines. D is an example of work performance data, which is important for a project manager to track but does not refer back to the planned baselines. SPI and CPI, which are examples of work performance information, show our progress relative to the baselines and thus are a better way to communicate project progress.

You are a project manager producing several identical components for an aerospace project. You are supposed to be producing 2 units per month worth $250,000 per unit. After 3 months you have only produced an average of 1.2 units per month. You use a formula to determine what the difference is between what you planned to do and what you actually got done. What is the formula you used? A. SPI B. CV C. SV D. VAC

SV Monitoring - Cost Management The questions is talking about calculating a schedule variance (SV), which is the difference between what you produced (your Earned Value) and what you were supposed to complete (Planned Value).

Lines of authority, team member responsibilities, and loyalties can be blurred in a balanced matrix environment. You should do all of the following during the Develop Team process except for which one? A. Schedule a regular meeting with the functional supervisors of each team member to ensure they remain authorized to work on the project until their responsibilities are completed B. Meet with the functional supervisors of each team member to discuss strategies for coordinating performance appraisals and feedback C. Develop a training plan and schedule to ensure that team members receive the appropriate training needed to enhance their competencies D. Establish a set of ground rules regarding acceptable behavior

Schedule a regular meeting with the functional supervisors of each team member to ensure they remain authorized to work on the project until their responsibilities are completed Executing - Resource Management A meeting with functional supervisors to ensure team members are authorized to work on a project is done during the Acquire Resources process, and not on a recurring basis.

Which of the following does not require formal written communication? A. Updating the project management plan B. Making changes to a contract C. Scheduling a meeting D. Responding to inquiries from a regulatory body

Scheduling a meeting Executing - Communications Management All answer choices require formal written communication except scheduling a meeting. Remember updates to project plans and almost anything to do with contracts will require formal written communication.

Which of the following is not used to create the document that will be used to gain formal authorization to start the project? A. Business case B. Templates C. Contract D. Scope statement

Scope statement Initiating - Integration Management The question is asking for the inputs of the develop project charter process. These include the business documents (includes business case), agreements (includes contracts), enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets (includes templates). The scope statement is created later during the planning process.

You are managing a project that requires the use of many outside contractors. You are verifying that these contractors are performing the work as agreed, ensuring they are paid as agreed, managing necessary changes to the contracts as needed, and resolving disagreements with the contractors as they arise. All of the following are outputs of this process except for which one? A. Closed Procurements B. Organizational Process Asset Updates C. Change Requests D. Selected Sellers

Selected Sellers Monitoring - Procurement Management D. Selected Sellers is an output of Conduct Procurement this questions describes Control Procurement. Note Closed Procurements are an output of the Control Procurements Process, as well as the remaining answers B. and C.

You are managing a project that will produce the next new supercomputer. As each new unit is produced your team is taking measurements and recording them in a control chart. Which of the following results should you be least concerned with? A. A data point that is just above the upper control limit B. Seven consecutive data points above the mean, but within the control limits C. A data point that is just below the lower control limit D. Several data points falling well above and below the mean, but within the control limits

Several data points falling well above and below the mean, but within the control limits Monitoring - Quality Management Choice D is describing a random pattern of measurements that fall on either side of the mean. This is not a cause for concern to the project manager. Choice B, where 7 points fall consecutively on one side of the mean, should be of concern since this means your process is out of control. Choices A and C are both problems as well, since both represent data points that fall outside the control limits (meaning the process is out of control).

You are called to a bidder conference to bid on part of a telecommunications project. Your job as project manager will be to manage the hardware installation piece of the project. At the conference you see a former colleague that is bidding on the wiring part of the job. You know that the integration between the wiring and the hardware can be a bit tricky and all firms competing for these two pieces of work will have to pad their bids due to the increased risk. You decide to work with your former colleague and submit one combined bid that is lower than other. This is an example of what type of risk response strategy? A. Mitigating B. Transferring C. Sharing D. Exploiting

Sharing Planning - Risk Management This is an example of sharing. The new job you are bidding on is an opportunity. You decide to share the opportunity with your former colleague's company to ensure you get the work. Both companies will benefit from getting the job.

Which of Maslow's hierarchy of needs involves the need for friends, family and affiliation? Also, what is the level just below that? A. Social, Safety B. Social, Esteem C. Esteem, Social D. Esteem, Self-actualization

Social, Safety Executing - Resource Management The rung on Maslow's pyramid that is marked by an individual's need for friends, family, and affiliation is the Social level. The level just below that is Safety. The 5 levels in order from bottom to top are physiological, safety, social, esteem and self-actualization.

You are managing a project for the development of a new medical device and have completed all of your planning. As the work is commencing, a new regulation is issued by the FDA, effective immediately, which requires some additional steps to be performed in the development of this device. What is the best way to proceed? A. Stop the work to which the new regulation pertains, issue a change request, and proceed with the other work that is unaffected by the change B. Stop all work and issue a change request based on the new requirements C. Stop all work and go back to the planning processes to implement the needed changes D. Continue completing the work as planned, and notify the sponsor of the new regulation

Stop the work to which the new regulation pertains, issue a change request, and proceed with the other work that is unaffected by the change Monitoring - Integration Management Here, you need to comply with the regulation, so the work which is affected by the new regulation needs to stop temporarily. You will need to issue a change request and follow change control procedures to implement the new change. You would not necessarily need to stop all work, however, as this could be devastating to your project schedule, budget, resource availability, etc.

Susan has just been appointed as the project manager for a software project and realizes that no WBS has been created and the project is entering the construction phase. What should she do? A. She should report this to senior management and start work on the construction phase B. She should get details from WBS Dictionary to create the WBS C. The WBS should be created first and then construction work started D. She should refuse to manage the project without a WBS

The WBS should be created first and then construction work started Planning - Scope Management The problem here is that the WBS had not been prepared. The correct choice C states that she should first create a WBS and then start the construction phase. Choice A talks about reporting the matter to senior management but that does not solve the problem. Choice B talks about finding information from the WBS Dictionary, but the WBS dictionary is dependent on the WBS. Choice D is also wrong as it talks about refusing to manage the project, which does not solve the problem. Moreover, the role of project manager is one of a proactive problem solver. Finally, while we may have preferred an answer such as "allow preliminary construction to occur while simultaneously creating the WBS," the exam will force us to choose from the responses given even when none of them are a preferred or ideal response to the given situation.

All of the following are true regarding Risk Audits except for which one? A. The frequency with which they are conducted should be specified in the Risk Management Plan. B. They may be conducted during routine project review meetings or via special risk audit meetings. C. The format of the audit and its objectives should be open and flexible, such that they can be adapted as the audit is in progress. D. They examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes.

The format of the audit and its objectives should be open and flexible, such that they can be adapted as the audit is in progress. Monitoring - Risk Management The format of the audit and its objectives should be clearly defined before the audit is conducted.

Developing an accurate project schedule is an important part of the planning process. You have used the Critical Path Method to ensure that you identify the critical path within your schedule network. Which of the following statements is true? A. The project schedule is often a graphical representation showing activities, start and finish dates and is used to show what has actually happened with regards to the scheduled work B. The project schedule is often a graphical representation showing the approved activities, start and finish dates and is used to compare what has actually happened C. The project schedule is always a Gantt Chart generated from a computer program D. The project schedule is generated by a computer

The project schedule is often a graphical representation showing activities, start and finish dates and is used to show what has actually happened with regards to the scheduled work Planning - Schedule Management The project schedule is often a graphical representation showing activities, start and finish dates and is used to show what has actually happened with regards to the scheduled work. The baseline is described in Answer B. Answers C and D are there as distractions, as we can build a schedule with the use of software.

As the new project manager for the Better Beach Bicycle Company, you and the project team are reviewing the WBS which was created by the previous project team. After the project was postponed indefinitely, the previous project manager and project team were released. You notice that the lowest level nodes of the WBS do not include a list of activities. Which of the following is true? A. You realize that the previous project team did not finish the WBS since it should have included the required activities. B. This is OK since the lowest level of the WBS should be the work package level. C. You realize that the previous project team did not finish the WBS since it should have included the required resources. D. This is OK since the previous team was using rolling-wave planning therefore the lowest level of the WBS is the work package level.

This is OK since the lowest level of the WBS should be the work package level. Planning - Scope Management A WBS is a hierarchical decomposition down to the work package level. A WBS never includes resources or activities lists. Rolling-wave planning starts with a completed WBS and is not used to create one.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of integrated change control on a project? A. To prevent changes from occurring B. To help the project manager make tough decisions C. To provide a framework to approve, reject, and manage changes D. To foster a better team environment

To provide a framework to approve, reject, and manage changes Monitoring - Integration Management The correct answer is choice C. The main purpose of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is to provide a framework to approve, reject, and manage changes on a project. Choices A and D might be desirable, but they are not the main purpose of Perform Integrated Change Control. Choice B is also incorrect. Project Managers often have to make tough decisions, but unfortunately integrated change control is not designed for that.

Parametric estimating is best described as which of the following? A. A weighted average method of estimating costs or durations B. Using a previous project to calculate the cost or duration, making adjustments for known differences C. Using a statistical relationship to a past project (such as cost per unit) to calculate the cost or duration D. Breaking an activity down into smaller components that are easier to estimate, then aggregating the costs or durations

Using a statistical relationship to a past project (such as cost per unit) to calculate the cost or duration Planning - Schedule Management Parametric estimating is when you use a statistical relationship (such as cost per unit) to calculate the cost or duration. Choice A describes three-point estimates (PERT), choice B describes Analogous estimating, and choice D describes bottom-up estimating.

The assurance that a product, service or system meets the needs of the customer is? A. Verification B. Justification C. Association D. Validation

Validation Monitoring - Scope Management Verification is the evaluation of whether or not a product, service, or system complies with a regulation, requirement, specification, or imposed condition. Justification would be the support and reason for doing the project.

All of the following occur during the closing process group, except which one? A. Release or reassign personnel B. Validation of scope C. Create lessons learned D. Conduct regression analysis

Validation of scope Executing - Risk Management Closing - Integration Management Remember that the validate scope process takes place during monitoring and controlling. All of the other answer choices are done during closing.

Once you have completed deliverables during execution, you perform quality control to check for correctness. Once it is determined that the deliverables are correct, what are the deliverables then called, and which process will they proceed to next? A. Deliverables, Close Project B. Verified deliverables, Validate Scope C. Accepted deliverables, Close Project D. Validated deliverables, Quality Assurance

Verified deliverables, Validate Scope Monitoring - Quality Management While the PMBOK Guide says that Control Quality and Validate Scope can occur in parallel, the ITTO's make it clear that deliverables go from execution to CQ, then to validate scope, and finally to close project or phase.

Which of the following is not part of the project closure process? A. Analyzing phase exit criteria B. Verifying that product requirements were met C. Transfer the deliverables to operations D. Gather lessons learned

Verifying that product requirements were met Closing - Integration Management Choices A, C, and D are all true of the closing process. You do not verify requirements were met during project closure. Verification that the requirements were met would be part of the Validate Scope process, which is done in Monitoring and Controlling. The output of that process, Accepted Deliverables, would then become an input to the closing process.

Project Scope Validation involves all of the following except? A. Formalized acceptance of completed project deliverables B. Reviewing deliverables with the customer or project sponsor C. Verifying the correctness of project deliverables D. Verifying the completion of project deliverables

Verifying the correctness of project deliverables Monitoring - Scope Management Verifying the correctness of deliverables is part of the Control Quality process, whereas the total completion of the deliverables is determined via Validate Scope.

Which of the following is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be completed on a project? A. SOW B. WBS C. Scope statement D. Network diagram

WBS Planning - Scope Management The definition of the WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be completed on a project.

Which of the following is not an output of Direct and Manage Project Work? A. Deliverables B. Work performance data C. Change requests D. Work performance reports

Work performance reports Executing - Integration Management Choices A, B and C are outputs to the Direct and Manage Project Work process. Also, remember that work performance reports come out of monitoring and controlling processes.

In a meeting with the project stakeholders you are presenting a performance report which was produced using the following data: EAC = 350, BAC = 300, ETC = 200 and AC=150. Variances to date are expected to continue. You are asked by the project sponsor if it's possible for you to complete the project within your original cost performance baseline, and if so, at what efficiency rate would you need to perform. What is the best answer to this question? A. Because the BAC is less than the EAC, you will complete the project under budget B. Because the EAC is more than the BAC, you will complete the project over budget C. You can still complete the project within budget, if your Cost Performance Index is at or above 1.14 the rest of the way D. You do not have enough data to answer this question

You can still complete the project within budget, if your Cost Performance Index is at or above 1.14 the rest of the way Monitoring - Cost Management To Complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the optimal cost performance that must be achieved to meet the original budget or BAC of 300. TCPI = (BAC-EV) / (BAC-AC). We are not given the value of EV, however, we can solve for it. Since we know that variances to date are typical, we use the EAC = BAC/CPI formula to solve for CPI. Our equation looks like this: EAC = BAC / X. To solve for X, we simply divide BAC (300) by EAC (350) to get a CPI of .86. Now that we have solved for CPI, we can calculate EV since we know the formula for CPI is EV/AC. Thus, CPI = X / AC. Filling in the numbers, we get .86 = X / 150. So we multiply 150 X .86 to get EV of 129. Now we can finally perform the TCPI calculation, which is (300-129)/ 300-150) = 171/150, which yields a TCPI of 1.14

You are managing a construction project and there is a chance of a strike at one of your subcontractors which would delay your project. Which of the following is not a correct statement about risk response strategies? A. You decide not to use that vendor and do the work yourself, which would be an example of avoidance. B. If the strike happens, your team will work overtime once the delivery arrives to make up for the lost time. This is an example of mitigation. C. You decide to use another vendor, which would be an example of sharing. D. You decide to do nothing, which would be an example of acceptance.

You decide to use another vendor, which would be an example of sharing. Monitoring - Risk Management The risk in this question is a negative risk. Sharing only takes place with a positive risk. Choices A, B, and D are all accurate statements about risk response strategies.

You are managing a datacenter infrastructure project. You have spent $250,000 out of a total budget of $600,000. You have completed 30% of the work thus far, but according to the schedule you should have completed 40% of the work. All work items carry the same value. Which of the following best describes the situation? A. Your project is over budget and behind schedule B. Your project is over budget and ahead of schedule C. Your project is under budget and behind schedule D. Your project is under budget and ahead of schedule

Your project is over budget and behind schedule Monitoring - Cost Management This is an EVM question. The amount spent is the Actual Cost (AC). The work completed (30%) is the same as Earned Value (EV). The work you were supposed to complete (40%) is the Planned Value (PV). To answer this question you simply need to plug in the numbers and calculate CV and SV. CV = EV - AC or $180,000 - $250,000 = ($70,000), which means your project is over budget. SV = EV - PV or $180,000 - $240,000 = ($60,000), which means your project is also behind schedule.