PMP Prep

Réussis tes devoirs et examens dès maintenant avec Quizwiz!

What processes groups include Data Gathering as a tool and technique

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling

PMIS

Project management information system

Quality metrics can take many forms, including...

% of tasks completed on time, cost performance indicators, failure rates, number of defects, length of downtime per month, errors found per line of code, customer satisfaction scores, % of requirements covered in a test plan

Configuration management plan

(How and what will be recorded) Describes how the information about the items of the project (and which items) will be recorded and updated so the product/service/result of the project remains consistent and/or operative

Build vs. buy formula

(difference of initial build vs. buy) / (different of monthly build vs. buy) = # periods before Build is better than Buy

Other than the subsidiary plans from the other nine knowledge areas, what else does the project management plan contain? "

* Other subsidiary management plans: Configuration, Requirements, Change * Baselines: Scope, Schedule, Cost, Performance Measurement * Project Life Cycle Description * Development Approach

"A budget estimate is being figured when a project manager uses a range of __ to __ percent from actual. "

-10 to +25

A rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate is being figured when a project manager uses a range of__ to __ percent from actual.

-25 to +75

A definitive estimate is being figured when a project manager uses a range of __ to __ percent from actual.

-5 to +10

10 knowledge areas "

1) Integration 2) Scope 3) Schedule 4) Cost 5) Quality 6) Resource 7) Communication 8) Risk 9) Procurement 10) Stakeholders

What special considerations should be followed when an agreement is legally binding? "

1) Agreements should be subjected to more extensive approval process, 2) likely involving the legal department, 3) to ensure it adequately describes products, services, or results the seller is agreeing to provide 4) while being in compliance with relevant laws and regulations

Three methods of data gathering (think meeting activities) "

1) Brainstorming 2) Focus groups 3) interviews

What key components belong in a project business case? (Think about what the proposer is offering the reader) "

1) Business needs 2) Analysis of the situation (options to proceed) 3) Recommendation 4) Evaluation

What three process are repeated to define scope for each iteration of a project. "

1) Collect requirements 2) Define scope 3) Create WBS

Purpose of the kick off meeting "

1) Communicate objectives of project 2) Gain commitment of the team 3) explain roles and responsibilities of stakeholders

" Three valuable interpersonal and team skills include "

1) Conflict management 2) Facilitation 3) Meeting management Others: active listening, leadership, networking, political awareness

Processes can 1) be used once or at predefined points in a project; 2) periodically as needed; 3) or continuously throughout the project. Provide an example of each. "

1) Ex. develop project charter; close project or phase 2) Acquire resources 3) Define activities

What's in the requirements management plan?

1) How changes to project requirements will be permitted, tracked, and approved

What are the components of the scope management plan

1) How the scope will be defined. 2) How the scope statement will be created. 3) How the WBS will be created. 4) How scope validation will work. 5) How scope will be controlled throughout the project

How can a PM can accomplish project life cycle flexibility? "

1) Identify processes that need to be performed in each phase 2) Perform processes identified in the appropriate phase 2) Adjust the various attributes of a phase (name, duration, exit/entrance criteria)

" 5 process groups "

1) Initiating 2) Planning 3) Executing 4) Monitoring and Controlling 5) Closing

What are the levels of increasingly effective quality management? "

1) Let the customer find defects 2) Detect and correct defects before deliverables are sent to customer 3) Use quality assurance to examine and correct the process (not just defects) 4) Incorporate quality into planning and designing of the project/product 5) Create a culture of quality commitment throughout the organization

What are the processes of Project Scope Management (6) "

1) Plan 2) Collect Requirements 3) Define 4) Create WBS 5) Validate 6) Control

Describe scope management processes from start to finish "

1) Plan scope management 2) Collect requirements 3) Define scope 4) Create WBS 5) Validate scope 6) control scope

OPAs are grouped into what two categories? "

1) Processes, policies, and procedures 2) Organizational knowledge bases

What is a schedule model? "

1) Project Information (the project-specific data: activities, planned dates, durations, resources, dependencies, constraints), 2) Entered into a scheduling tool 3) Using a scheduling model (ex. CPM)

What six conditions trigger the end of a project? "

1) Project objectives have been met 2) Objects cannot or will not be met 3) Funding is exhausted or otherwise unavailable 4) Need for project no longer exists 5) Resources are no longer available (human or physical) 6) Termination for legal cause or convenience

" What can effect the complexity of procurement management? "

1) Project size and cost; 2) If a project involves multiple contracts simultaneously or in sequence; 3) If the buyer-seller relationship exists at many levels of a project 4) and/or between organizations internal and external to acquiring organization

What four steps are employed for the Nominal Group Technique? "

1) Question/problem is posed to the group. Each person silently generates and writes down their ideas 2) Moderator writes down ideas on a flip chart until all ideas are recorded 3) Each recorded idea is discussed until all group members have a clear understanding 4) Individuals vote privately to prioritize ideas using a scale (ex. 1-5) After each round votes are tallied and highest scoring ideas are selected

What are the three components of the PMI talent triangle "

1) Technical Project Management 2) Leadership 3) Strategic and Business Management

Name four considerations that the PM should consider when estimating activity duration "

1) law of diminishing returns 2) number of resources 3) advances in technology 4) staff motivation

A PDM includes how many types of dependencies and what are they? "

1. Finish to start (FS) 2. Finish to finish (FF) 3. Start to start (SS) 4) Start to finish (SF)

If your BCR is 1.5 to 1, how much benefit do you get for every $1 of cost?

1.5

If you have an PV=1.25, what percentage of the expected pace is the project actually progressing? Is that good or bad?

125%, which is a good thing

How many PDUs must come from educational opportunities?

35 of 60 at minimum

A resource is able to install 25m of cable per hour, what is the duration required to install 1000m of cable?

40hrs

How many PDUs do PMPs need?

60 every 3yrs

If you have an PV=0.75, what percentage of the expected pace is the project actually progressing? Is that good or bad?

75%, which is a bad thing

If you have an EV=0.75, how much worth of performance are you getting for every dollar spent? Is that good or bad?

75c, which is a bad thing

What is a resource histogram

A bar chart that illustrates the number of hours that a project, department or project team will be working each week or month over the course of the project.

What is the project's business analyst typically responsible for conducting?

A cost-benefit or system analysis, writing project requirements, and drafting the business case for the project sponsor

Unanimity (in context of voting)

A decision that is reached whereby everyone agrees on a single course of action

Plurality (in context of voting)

A decision that is reached whereby the largest block in a group decides, even if a majority is not achieved.

Majority (in context of voting)

A decision that is reached with support obtained by more than 50% of a group.

Autocratic decision making

A decision-making technique in which one individual takes responsibility for making the decision for the entire group

Project scheduling provides...

A detailed plan that re[resents how and when the project will deliver the products, services, and results defined in the project scope

Team charter

A document that establishes the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines for the team

Agile release planning provides...

A high level summary timeline of the release schedule (typically 3-6mo) based on the product roadmap and the product vision for the product's evolution

What is Fred Fielder's Contingency Theory?

A leader's effectiveness is contingent on whether 1) the leader is task or relationship-oriented, and 2) the project/workplace/situational environment

Start to finish

A logical relationship in which a predecessor activity cannot finish until a successor activity has started.

Finish to finish

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has finished.

" Finish to start

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished

Start to start

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has started.

to-complete performance index

A measure of the cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order t meet a specified management goal

What is a benefits comparison ratio

A model that that examines the cost-to-benefit ratio (Benefit/cost ratio (BCR))

time-scaled logic diagram

A presentation of the project schedule network diagram that includes a timescale and bars that represent the duration of activities with the logical relationships.

Identifying and engaging stakeholders for the benefit of the project is iterative and should be reviewed and updated routinely particularly when... "

A project moves into a new phase There are significant changes in the organization or wider stakeholder community

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

A resource chart that shows the project resources assigned to each work package and illustrates the connections between work packages/activities and project team members

What is the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

A robust methodology that breaks the life cycle down into phases, with analysis, design, implementation, testing, and evaluation carried out in each phase

Fast tracking

A scheduling technique in which activities or phases normally done in sequence are done in parallel for at least a portion of their duration

Crashing

A scheduling technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by ADDING RESOURCES.

Acceptance criteria

A set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted

Design for X (definition)

A set of technical guidelines that may be applied during the design of a product for the optimization of a specific aspect of the diagram

management reserves

A specified amount of the project budget withheld for management control purposes and are reserved for unforeseen work that is within the scope of the project

Audit (definition)

A standard, independent process used to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures

Resource leveling

A technique in which start and finish dates are adjusted based on resource constraints with the goal of balancing the demand for resources with the available supply.

resource smoothing

A technique that adjusts the activities of a schedule model such that the requirements for resources on the project do not exceed certain predefined resource limits.

Multi-criteria decision analysis

A technique that uses a decision matrix to provide a systematic analytical approach to evaluate the requested changes according to a set of predefined criteria

Precedence Diagramming Method (definition)

A technique used for constructing a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and are geographically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which activities are to be performed

Decomposition

A technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts. (used during creation of WBS)

What kind of schedule representation is optimized to show the relationships between activities where any number of activities may appear on the same line in sequence

A time scaled logic diagram

What does a PMIS provide?

Access to information technology software tools like scheduling tools, work authorization systems, configuration management systems, information collection and distribution systems, interfaces to other automated systems and knowledge base repositories

What needs does McClelland call out in his need theory?

Achievement, Power, Affiliation

Value engineering is concerned with what?

Achieving acceptable product performance with the correct level of quality and within budget

The key benefit of this process is that it outlines and guides the selection of resources and assigns them to their respective activities

Acquire Resources

The resource management plan, procurement management plan, and cost baseline are all inputs for what process?

Acquire Resources

Financing

Acquiring funding for projects

____ represent the effort needed to complete a work package

Activities

what is path convergence is a project schedule network diagram?

Activities that have multiple predecessor activities

What is path divergence in a project schedule network diagram?

Activities that have multiple successors

Activity codes, predecessor and successor activities, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, imposed dates, constraints, and assumptions are all examples of ____

Activity attributes

What does AON stand for

Activity-on-node

What three lines can be plotted on an iteration burndown chart?

Actual work remaining, Ideal work remaining, Forecast remaining work

" A(n) ____ approach is used when deliverables are developed over multiple iterations where detailed scope is defined and approved before each iteration begins. Alternatively, a(n) ____ approach is used when deliverables are defined at the beginning of a project and changes to scope are progressively managed.

Adaptive/agile; Predictive

How can the PM reduce the probability of schedule slip when multiple paths either converge or diverge at a single point in time?

Aggregate schedule reserves

Conducting retrospectives

Agile approach controlling schedule action of scheduling reviews to record lessons learned

For projects with evolving requirements, high risk, or significant uncertainty, what kind of project management method is best and how is it employed?

Agile method deliberately spend less time trying to define scope early on, and more time establishing a process for ongoing discovery and refinement

What kind of project scheduling determines the number of iterations/sprints in a release, and allows the product owner and team to decide how much needs to be developed and how long it will take to have a releasable product based on business goals, dependencies, and impediments.

Agile release planning

When should a PM use lightweight estimation methods to generate fast, high-level forecast of project labor costs that can be easily adjusted with changes; rather than detailed cost calculations?

Agile/adaptive approach for projects with high degrees of uncertainty

Cost of Quality (COQ)

All costs incurred over the life of a product by investment in PREVENTING nonconformance to requirements, APPRAISING the product or service for conformance to requirements, and failing to meet requirements (REWORK).

Which of the following are included in the COQ: prevention costs, appraisal costs, failure costs, bonuses

All except the last one

"Which of the following is/are NOT considered project resources: a) equipment b) facilities c) team members assigned to the project d) materials e) ideas"

All of these EXCEPT ideas (e) are considered project resources and should be considered in project resource management

What tools and techniques can be used to monitor and control data analysis?

Alternative analysis, cost-benefit analysis, earned value analysis, root cause analysis, trend analysis, variance analysis

Root cause analysis (definition)

An analytical technique used to determine the basic underlying reason that causes a variance, defect, or risk

Your company asks you to be the PM for a completely new kind of project. You're excited because the complexity and scale of the project has not been matched in the organization's history. Which kind of estimating would you want to AVOID using when determining the duration of scheduled activities?

Analogous estimating, which relies on previous data from projects of similar size, weight, budget, and complexity

Deliverable (definition)

Any unique and verifiable product/result/capability to perform a service that must be produced to complete the project or phase

You are encountering a continued problem: another project within your organization keeps taking your human resources. What is your first course of action?

Approach the problem directly by meeting with the PM of the other project, by taking an collaborative approach to problem solving. Don't involve senior management until you've tried handling the problem yourself

What should be achieved in an approved change requests review meeting?

Approved changes are reviewed to verify they were implemented as approved; and check that all parts have been properly implemented, tested, completed, and certified.

Schedule baseline

Approved version of schedule model that is used as comparison to the actual results

Cost baseline

Approved version of the time-phased project budget that is used as a basis or comparison to the actual results

The scope baseline includes the development of software, but no hardware development. How can the scope baseline be used in the Plan Resource Management process group?

As an input--you know you don't need to secure resources for hardware development

" To increase the changes of success, when should the process of stakeholder identification and engagement commence?

As soon as possible after the project charter has been approved, the PM has been assigned, and the team begins to form

What should you do when a customer requests a change mid-way through a project that could increase project risk?

Assess the impact of the change with the team --> determine possible options --> meet with management

360-degree feedback assessments

Assessments gathered from superiors, peers, subordinates, maybe even the customer or vendor

When you were first assigned a project the organizational understanding was that the company would hire a testing lead A few weeks later the Executive team removes the budget for that resource. What project document(s) should be updated along side resource documentation?

Assumption log, risk register

Why wont doubling the number of resources assigned to an activity automatically half the duration of that activity?

At some point, adding too many resources may increase duration due to knowledge transfer, learning curve, additional coordination, and other factors

In a predictive life cycle, how and when is scope defined and managed?

At the beginning and managed progressively

Why is the schedule variance zero at the end of a project, even if that project finished late?

At the end of the project, PV=EV. When the project is done, PV=100% and EV=100%, since 100% of the project is done

In this type of quality check, the result either confirms or does not confirm;

Attribute sampling

You are concerned about the reliability of a new technology and opt to go with the more reliable old technology. What is your risk strategy?

Avoid

Benchmarking involves all except which of the following: A) identifies best practices, B) fosters creative ideas, C) generates ideas for improvement, D) provides a basis of measuring performance

B) that's a result of brainstorming

What do you need to calculate the TCPI?

BAC, EV, and remaining funds (usually in the form of subtracting ACs from allocated funds)

TCPI = 1.25. Is that good or bad?

Bad. It means you'd have to over perform in order to complete the project on time

In what type of environment do PMs and functional managers share power?

Balanced matrix structure

" This type of data gathering technique involves COMPARING actual or planned processes, and practices to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a BASIS for measuring performance.

Benchmarking

Timeframe for realizing benefits

Benefits expressed by phase; short term, long term, ongoing

You have a VAC of $10,000. Are we doing better or worse than expected?

Better

A ____ estimate is being figured when a project manager uses a range of -10 to +25 percent from actual.

Budget

Business analysis should be assigned to what role?

Business Analyst with appropriate skills and expertise

Investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements, appraising the product or service for conformance to requirements, and preventing rework (failure to meet requirements) are all examples of (BAC, PBM, or COQ?)

COQ, cost of quality

The ____ is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources, expressed as a ratio of earned value to actual cost

CPI

What measure is considered most critical in EVA as it measures the cost efficiency for the work completed?

CPI

What is considered the most valuable metric in EVM and what does it measure?

CPI because it measures the cost efficiency of work completed

How formal should the Stakeholder Engagement Plan be? How detailed?

Can be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed

The _____ and _____ are both inputs and outputs of Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Change Log and Issue Log

The primary output(s) of the Manage Team process area is/are...

Change Requests

The Project Management Plan is progressively elaborated, but is eventually put under control. What does this mean?

Changes must go through the change control process

Milestone charts

Charts used to identify scheduled start or completion of major deliverables and key external interfaces.

What process establishes the procedures that are used to investigate and document why a project was terminated before its completion.

Close Project or Phase

activities related to the completion of the contractual agreements are a part of ____ process

Close Project or Phase

Recording impacts of tailoring on the project is done during which process group?

Closing

Your project team has a broad skill base rather than narrow specialization. What kind of project management approach might be best employed and how can the PM facilitate it?

Collaborative, iterative, agile approach. PM should build collaborative decision-making environment and ensure the team has the ability to respond to changes.

Portfolio (definition)

Collection or projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives

The number of parts, connection and dynamic interaction between the parts, and the behavior produced as a result of those interactions all affect the ____ of a project

Complexity

" Why is it more accurate to describe a project as containing complexity than simply calling it complex?

Complexity is perception of an individual based on personal experience, observation, and skill.

The organization of the product materials, details, and prior product documentation is known as

Configuration status accounting

Training, Documentation, Equipment, Time, Testing, Destructive Testing Loss, and Inspections are all examples of what kind of quality cost?

Conformance

____ is the way risks are interconnected and can set each other off like falling dominoes. The lower the better.

Connectivity

Cost of nonconformance vs. cost of additional investment in conformance are...

Considerations of the cost of quality

The customer for your project has gone bankrupt and has not paid some of your outstanding invoices. What should you do?

Contact the appropriate management at your company for advice how to proceed

How is the risk register used to in cost management?

Contains specific information on identified risks related to cost that should be factored into the estimating process

Samples are collected for inspection during the _____ process

Control Quality

in what process are deliverables inspected, measured, and tested?

Control Quality

___ are management control points in the WBS where scope, budget and schedule can be integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement

Control accounts

____ is how easily a risk event can be changed The higher the better.

Controllability

How do you know a work package has been decomposed to the appropriate level of detail?

Cost and time can be estimated

Rework, Scrap, Liabilities, Warranty work, and Lost business are all examples of what kinds of quality costs?

Cost of nonconformance

____ contracts are suitable when the work is evolving, likely to change, or not well-defined.

Cost plus (like cost reimbursable)

Work ethic, hours, view of authority, and shared values can affect how projects are managed. What are these factors called?

Cultural norms

" On a graph in which time is the x axis and business value is the y axis where does current state, project path, and future state lie?

Current state has lower business value early in time, and future state has higher business value later in time, connected by the project path

Regression analysis

Data analysis technique that analyzes interrelationships between different project variables that contributed to the project outcomes to improve performance on future projects

reserve analysis

Data analysis technique used to determine the amount of contingency and management reserve needed for the project.

How does work performance data turn into work performance reports?

Data is analyzed to produce information; information is organized into a report

What tools and techniques are used to create the RTM?

Decision making, data representation, data gathering

What process happens between Collect Requirements and Create WBS?

Define Scope

How are changes to scope addressed in the scope management plan?

Defines how changes to the scope will be managed and controlled

What elements are generally included in problem solving?

Defining the problem, identifying the root cause, generating possible solutions, choosing the best solution, implementing the solution, verifying solution effectiveness

Inspection planning involves making sure...

Deliverable meets stakeholder needs/expectations (requirements fulfilled); and deliverable performs reliably

Work performance information

Deliverable status, work-not-started, in-progress, and finished

There are several inputs to Direct and Manage Project Work; what are the three most important?

Deliverables, Work Performance Data, Issue Log

" Name some outputs of directing and managing project work from a project integration management perspective

Deliverables, work performance data, issue log, change requests, project document updates, organizational process assets updates

Which technique prevents the loudest voice in the room from dominating a process by hiding group members' identities from one another

Delphi

In this kind of group decision making technique all the feedback from the different experts is collected and combined anonymously by a moderator

Delphi Technique

When there are many experts involved, and consensus is not likely to happen quickly, what kind of decision-making technique can be used?

Delphi Technique

What tool can be used to gather expert opinions while preventing group think and stakeholders biasing each other's opinions?

Delphi technique

Discretionary dependencies

Dependencies that are established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired, even if there are other acceptable sequences

mandatory dependencies

Dependencies that are legally or contractually inherent in the nature of the work

Internal dependencies

Dependencies that involve a precedence relationship between project activities and are usually within a project team's control.

External dependencies

Dependencies that involve a relationship between project activities and non-project activities, and are usually outside of the team's control

Depreciation value formula

Depreciation value = (Asset cost - scrap value) / useful life

project business case

Describes necessary information from a business standpoint to determine whether the expected outcome justifies the required investment. Documents an economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits. Used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities

What data might be included in an issue log

Description, type, priority, status, target resolution, final resolution, who raised it and who is assigned now?

____ is how easily a risk event can be noticed or recognized. The higher the better.

Detectability

How does variance analysis work and when is it used?

Determine differences in work performance data and the requirements documentation to determine the severity and cause of the differences so they can be reported. Used during Control Scope.

A key benefit of this process is that it results in improved team work, enhanced interpersonal skills/competencies, motivated employees, reduced attrition, and improved overall project performance

Develop Team

Team Performance Assessments are conducted during the _____ process and the results are then utilized during the _____ process

Develop Team; Manage Team

Incremental life cycle

Development life cycle in which the deliverable is produced through a series of iterations that successfully add functionality within a predetermined time frame. Deliverable contains necessary and sufficient capability to be considered complete only after final iteration.

Iterative life cycle

Development life cycle in which the project scope is determined early in the project life cycle but the time and cost estimates are routinely modified as understanding increases. Involves repeated cycles successively adding to product functionality

Predictive life cycle

Development life cycle in which the project scope, time, and cost are determine din the early phases of the life cycle. AKA waterfall life cycles

Hybrid life cycle

Development life cycle that is a combination of predictive and adaptive life cycle, in which elements of the project that are well known or have fixed requirements follow a predictive development life cycle, and those elements that are still evolving follow and adaptive development life cycle.

Adaptive life cycle

Development life cycles that are agile, iterative, or incremental, in which detailed scope is defined and approved before the start of an iteration. Also known as agile or change-driven life cycles.

Describe cause and effect diagrams

Diagram that breaks down the causes of the problem into discrete branches, thereby helping to identify the main or root cause of the problem

Pure logic diagram

Diagrams showing activities and relationships without a timescale

What phenomenon does the following describe: The cost of acquiring an item may be measured when the acquisition decision is made/committed, when the order is placed, when the item is delivered, or when the actual cost is incurred or recorded for accounting

Different stakeholders measure project costs in different ways and at different times

Making changes to the project management plan after receiving approved change requests is part of the _____ process

Direct and Manage Project Work

Work performance data, issue log, and change requests are all produced through what process?

Direct and Manage Project Work

Project charter

Document issued by the project sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of the project and provides the PM with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

Define basis of estimates

Document that indicates how the various estimates of a project were derived and can be used to make a decision on how to respond to variances

Product acceptance criteria: what is it and where can it be found?

Documents the conditions and processes for formal acceptance of a product; a component of the scope statement

" Business knowledge is also known as ____

Domain knowledge

T or F: You are ahead of schedule and under budget when a team member suggests an enhancement. What should you do?

Don't add the enhancement--it's gold plating. You should build to the existing project scope

____ is how much time will likely pass after the risk has occurred before it can be detected. The shorter the better.

Dormancy

Project Integration Management ensures that which three things are aligned? "

Due dates of project deliverables The project life cycle Benefits of realization plan

When are stakeholder classification models used?

During stakeholder analysis to rank stakeholders based on their power, influence, interest, and impact

If the BAC is no longer viable, the PM may use the ____ for TCPI calculation

EAC

What is the equation used for EAC forecast for ETC work performed at the budgeted rate

EAC = AC + (BAC-EV)

If you are sure the future work will be accomplished at the planned rate, what formula should you use to calculate EAC?

EAC = AC + BAC - EV

What is the equation used for EAC forecast work considering both SPI and CPI factors?

EAC = AC + [(BAC - EV) / (CPI x SPI)]

What is the equation used for EAC forecast for ETC work performed at the present CPI

EAC = BAC/CPI

In cases where the project manager has underestimated the team's capabilities in his original estimate which formula should he use to calculate estimate at completion?

EAC = BAC/CPI because in this case the CPI can be used as an indicator of future cost performance since the team will continue to perform at the current CPI

When you expect the current cost performance to continue, what formula should you use to calculate EAC?

EAC=BAC/CPI

Market conditions, published commercial information (resource cost rates), and exchange rates and inflation are examples of what

EEFs that can influence cost estimates

What is the formula for ETC?

ETC = EAC - AC

The ___ is often used to calculate the percent complete of a project

EV

EVA formula

EVA = after tax profit - (capital expenditures * cost of capital)

How are EV, PV, ES, and AT related

EVM calculated variance based on EV - PV; alternatively, ES calculates variance based on ES - AT

Stakeholders' influence is highest during the early stages of the project and lowest towards the end of the project. This means stakeholder management is most challenging at what stage of a project?

Early during the project execution

You want to analyze the value of a project, considering the cost of the profit as well as opportunity costs of simply investing they money in the bank. What should you use?

Economic Value Add (EVA)

What are the pros of developing mutually beneficial partnerships with suppliers

Enhancing the ability for both the organization and the suppliers to create value for each other, enhances the joint responses to customer needs and expectations, and optimizes costs and resources

Configuration item verification and audit

Ensures that the composition of a project's configuration items is correct that that corresponding changes are registered, assessed, approved, tracked and correctly implemented. This is a change control tool.

CBR

Cost-benefit ratio

EEF

Enterprise Environmental factors

Existing resource competencies and availability, and marketplace conditions are examples of what?

Enterprise Environmental factors

Organizational process assets (definition)

Environmental influences that are internal to the organization; the plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific to and used by the performing organization that influence the management of the project.

Enterprise environmental factors (definition)

Environmental influences that originate from outside the project environment and often outside the enterprise, that are not under the control of the project team, but influence, constrain, or direct the project. (Ex. geographic distribution of facilities and resources, IT software, employee capability, market place conditions, legal restrictions, physical environmental conditions, weather)

The Delphi Technique can be used in what processes?

Estimate Activity Durations, Estimate Costs, Identify Risks, Collect Requirements

How do agile projects plan for cost management?

Estimate costs for next iteration in detail, but don't try to create an accurate long tern plan

Discovering the need to hire a consultant for specialized construction techniques needed to complete a project is example of the close relationship between what processes?

Estimating COST and estimating ACTIVITY RESOURCES

Are quality audits done during Executing or Monitoring and Controlling?

Executing, in this case, Manage Quality

____ is the product of an event's probability of occurrence and the gain or loss that will result.

Expected monetary value

" Target benefits

Expected tangible and intangible value to be gained by the implementation of a project; financial value is net present value

T or F: Alternatives should be considered at some point, but should be left out of the Define Scope process so the team focuses on the primary path to completion

FALSE

T or F: Collecting Requirements comes after Define Scope

FALSE

T or F: Duration estimates include lags

FALSE

T or F: Meetings are a tool in Control Procurements

FALSE

T or F: Problem Solving emphasizes areas of agreement, rather than differences

FALSE

T or F: Reserve analysis is a type of analysis technique used in the Monitor and Control Project Work process

FALSE

T or F: Risk triggers are added to the risk register as a result of the Implement Risk Responses process

FALSE

T or F: The customer gets to approve the project management plan

FALSE

T or F: The project charter contains specific activities

FALSE

T or F: You should only perform a cost/benefit analysis for a project during the initiating phase

FALSE

T or F: Acceptance criteria is defined in the Project Charter, during the Develop Project Charter process

FALSE, it's documented in the project scope statement during Define Scope

Writing a document must be completed before editing the document can be completed would be assigned what dependency relationship?

FF

Installing the operating system on a PC cannot start until the hardware is assembled would be assigned what dependency relationship?

FS

The benefit comparison model to determine the future value of money is represented by the formula

FV=PV(1+i)^n

What tool or technique should the PM use to arrive at consensus toward project objectives as a way to manage stakeholders' competing expectations

Facilitation

Quality Function Deployment

Facilitation technique used in the manufacturing industry wherein critical characteristics for new product development are determined by collecting customer needs, objectively sorting and prioritizing them, and setting goals to achieve them

What are information management systems?

Facilities, processes, and procedures used to collect, store, and distribute information between producers and consumers of information in physical or electronic format

Assumptions

Factors expected to be in place

T or F: You can share proprietary information gathered from vendor proposals with others in your organization if you advise them to maintain confidentiality

False! A project manager should provide such confidential information only to the sponsor and to the vendor evaluation committee or whoever is involved in the evaluation. He or she must not provide this information to any other employees within the organization or within the project.

T or F: As the PM you should work toward creating a streamlined short list of stakeholders in the stakeholder register

False! Aim for the longer, more complete list

T or F: When emails contain key information about change requests or contracts, the communication is considered formal and official

False! All email correspondence is informal and can't be considered formal unless transmitted formally.

T or F: If the buyer and seller both agree that a change is needed for a contract, the agreement can be amended without undergoing Perform Integrated Change Control

False! Approved change requests from the Perform Integrated Change control process are inputs of the Control Procurements

At the time of baselining, it is OK for requirements to be somewhat ambiguous because it is early in the process

False! At the time of baselining requirements need to be need to be unambiguous (measurable and testable), traceable, complete, consistent, and acceptable to key stakeholders

T or F: Project requirements are set by the customer only; everything else is either a risk, opportunity, or scope creep

False! Customer demands, regulations, and organizational demands that must be met in order to accept project deliverables are also requirements

T or F: Since all stakeholders want the best outcome for the project, stakeholder requirements regarding cost can be managed at one time.

False! Different stakeholders measure project costs in different ways and at different times so requirements for managing costs should be considered explicitly

T or F: Quality management happens at the end of the project when the product is developed and can be evaluated as a whole, and is mostly the concern of the PM so other team members can focus on other tasks instead.

False! Effective quality management is achieved when quality is incorporated into the PLANNING and DESIGNING of the project & product and when organizational culture is AWARE and COMMITTED to quality.

T or F: EEFs are only internal to an organization

False! Enterprise environmental factors can be internal or external, but they are always outside of the control of the project team

T or F: The PM should acquire resources right after the project is signed

False! First the PM has to plan resource management as part of the planning process group, then she can acquire resources.

T or F: In a multidivisional structure, a PM has more power than the functional manager

False! In this environment, the functional manager controls the budget and the PM has little authority

T or F: When creating the Risk Breakdown Structure we decompose categories of risks with individual risks at the lowest level

False! Individual risks are not known or identified when creating the RBS in the Plan Risk Management process--that happens in the next process of Identify Risks

T or F: Governance framework only applies to an individual project, not the whole organization

False! It applies to the whole organization including portfolios, programs, and projects

T or F: The procurement SOW is an output of Conduct Procurements

False! It comes out of Plan Procurement Management

T or F: Conflict resolution should focus on the present and keep the past as a point of reference

False! It should focus on the present but not the past--do not hold grudges

T or F: The scope statement is high level so it doesn't specifically state the conditions and processes for formal acceptance of the product

False! It should include the product acceptance criteria

T or F: A control chart is a data gathering tool used during the Control Quality process

False! It's a monitoring tool

T or F: Ground rules is a tool or technique used in the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process.

False! It's a tool for Manage Stakeholder Engagement

T or F: Corporate policies and procedures for issue, risk, change, and data management is an EEF

False! It's an organizational process asset (OPA)

T or F: The Scope statement is an output of Create WBS

False! It's the scope baseline

T or F: Recognition and Rewards is a tool of the Manage Team process.

False! It's used in Develop Team

T or F: Analogous estimating is a tool or technique used during the Plan Resource Management process

False! It's used in Estimate Activity Resources

T or F: The project charter contains the stakeholder register

False! Just a list of key stakeholders

T or F: Control Resources applies to human and physical resources

False! Just physical

T or F: All requirements identified in the Collect Requirements stage will be included in the project.

False! Not all requirements end up in the project; some will be removed during the Define Scope stage

T or F: All reported issues require change requests to resolve

False! Not every reported issue requires a change request.

T or F: Inspection is preferred over prevention because it's better to get the project done quickly and identify issues during inspection, than to spend valuable time preventing mistakes at the beginning

False! Prevention > Inspection since it's better to design quality deliverables than to find quality issues during inspection when the cost of correcting mistakes is higher.

T or F prototypes of actual physical products must be 3D to accurately gather requirements

False! Prototypes can be 2D, 3D, computer generated, simple mock ups or small scale products

T or F: Resource requirements and resource assignments are part of the WBS dictionary

False! Resource requirements are part of WBS dictionary but resource assignments are not

T or F: A cost-reimbursable contract transfers risk to the seller

False! Risk is with the seller

T or F: Verified deliverables are outputs of the Validate Scope process

False! That's Accepted Deliverables

T or F: The Executing process group is concerned with measuring what is executed against what was planned

False! That's Monitoring and Controlling

T or F: The ETC. is a measure of the cost performance that must be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal,

False! That's TCPI

T or F: Using the knowledge management technique connects people together information (ex. Directing someone to a SharePoint site)

False! That's information management

T or F: During the Planning process group, the PM will identify key deliverables based on the business requirements so she can manage customer expectations and direct the achievement of project goals

False! That's initiating

T or F: Using the information management technique connects people together to share knowledge and experience

False! That's knowledge management

T or F: Management involves establishing direction, aligning people to that direction, and motivating and inspiring

False! That's leadership

T or F: The goal of Leadership is to produce results

False! That's management

T or F: The brainstorming approach maps ideas to show the relationships and differences among requirements, and can be reviewed to identify new solutions or rank the requirements

False! That's mind mapping

T or F: Any type of corporate policy or formal procurement procedure is an Enterprise Environmental Factor

False! That's organizational process assets

Collecting processes, procedures, and historical information happens during the Planning process

False! That's part of Initiating

T or F: Dividing large projects into phases happens during the Planning process

False! That's part of Initiating

T or F: Organic environments are mostly likely found in consulting environments

False! That's projectized

T or F: In resource smoothing, available float sis used to balance resources. Consequently, the critical path through the project schedule may change.

False! That's resource leveling

T or F: The scope management plan controls how cost variances will be managed

False! That's the cost management plan

T or F: Regression analysis is used to forecast future performance based on past results. The results of this kind of analysis can be used to recommend preventive actions, if necessary.

False! That's trend analysis

T or F: The project schedule is primarily used to identify the working days, shifts, start/end of normal business hours, weekends, and public holidays; as well as long a team or physical resource will be available to work

False! That's what Resource Calendars are for, (though the resource calendar is one of the inputs for the Project Schedule)

T or F: Work Performance Information is an input to the Monitor Risks process

False! That's work performance REPORTS

T or F: Work performance data is an output of Validate Scope?

False! That's work performance information

T or F: Since team member roles are usually assigned and dictated by department availability, the PM should allow department heads to motivate their team members to the project

False! The PM should respect project team members' department heads, but is ultimately responsible for the team formation as an effective group.

T or F: every element of a project must be unique, otherwise it's part of operations

False! The final product, service, or result must be unique but the elements don't have to be

T or F: The WAS is independent from the PMIS

False! The first is a component of the second

T or F: In stakeholder management, Directions of Influence and Directions of Impact are the same

False! The first is real, but the second does not exist

T or F: The ceiling price and the point of total assumption are synonyms

False! The first is the maximum price the buyer pays. The second is the point at which the cost overruns eat in the seller's profit margin

T or F: A list of activities is an input to Define Scope

False! The list of activities is not produced until AFTER the Define Scope process (and actually after the Create WBS process too)

T or F: Projects are moving toward a command and control structure for managing projects, because collaborative and supportive management approaches led to low productivity

False! The management practices are moving away from the first and towards the second because the second empowers the team in delegating decision making to team members

T or F: The WBS is an input of the project scope management plan

False! The process for creating it will be included in the plan

T or F: When possible, the detailed project schedule should remain rigid, so it's consistent with initial knowledge, risk, and activity value.

False! The project schedule should remain FLEXIBLE throughout the project to ADJUST for knowledge gained, increased understanding of risk, and value-added activities.

T or F: Management reserves are a safety net for the PM in case of error

False! They are intended to address the known-unknowns that can affect the project

T or F: The risk likelihood ranking and risk impact ranking are added together to get the risk score in PIM

False! They are multiplied together

T or F: RAMs are usually only used at the high-level to define responsibilities of the project team/group/unit within each WBS component

False! They can also be used at a lower level within a group to designate roles, responsibilities, and levels of authority for specific activities

T or F: Self-organized teams usually consist of SMEs who understand the theory of their departments

False! They consist of GENERALIZED SPECIALISTS who continuously adapt to changing environment and embrace constructive feedback

T or F: project objective focus on scope rather than other demands like schedule, cost or quality

False! They should include scope, technical requirements, schedule, cost, and quality

T or F: Progressive elaboration is a type of prototyping showing sequence or navigation through a series of images or illustrations

False! This describes STORYBOARDING, which is a type of prototyping

T or F: Actions to carry out when a risk occurs are included in the risk management plan

False! This detailed info belongs in the Risk Register

T or F: Bottom-up, analogous, and parametric estimating are used for cost estimating not resource estimating

False! Used for both, and they are often created together

T or F: Control Quality is generally performed before Validate Scope and they should not be done in parallel

False! While Control Quality is usually done first, it can also be done in parallel with Validate Scope

T or F: RTM and Requirements Documents are the same

False! While both are produced as part of Collect Requirements; they are separate documents

T or F: Root cause analysis is a type of data gathering technique used in Identify Risks

False! While this technique is used to Identify Risks, it is part of data analysis, not gathering

T or F: Accepting risk is always a passive risk response strategy

False! You can be proactive (set aside contingency funds) or passive (do nothing)

T or F: Long-term contracts are a good way to mitigate the risk of high project turnover if you work for an organization with historically high turnover rates and you can't control the root cause

False! You should instead stress good documentation in case of high turnover

T or F: After proactively reviewing the contract and finding weak areas, the PM should write an amendment to address the weakness and submit for legal review

False! You should review the contract and look for weaknesses, but you should leave writing contract amendments to those with formal training to do so

T or F: Technical analysis is the study of functions within a system, project, or the product the project will be creating is what kind of analysis

False! You're thinking of functional analysis

T or F: The project charter must be endorsed by an entity inside the project boundaries?

False, entity must be outside

T or F: Decomposition is used in Define Scope

False, it is used in Create WBS

T or F: The cost contingency reserves should be immediately replenished when used because the risk of unknowns always needs to be accounted for

False, it should be used, reduced, or eliminated as cost become clear

T or F: Qualitative risk analysis uses a cardinal scale to evaluate risk

False, it uses ordinal scale

T or F: In PDM, SF is the most commonly used type of precedence relationship and FS is very rarely used

False, it's the opposite

T or F: verified deliverables and change requests are outputs of the Validate Scope process

False, only CRs are; verified deliverables are inputs

T or F: Matrix diagrams can organize potential causes of defects into groups showing areas that should be focused on most

False, that's affinity diagrams

T or F: Flow charts are also known as fishbone diagrams, why-why diagrams, or Ishikawa diagrams

False, that's cause and effect diagrams

T or F: Cause and effect diagrams seek to show the strength of relationships among factors, causes, and objectives that exist between the rows and columns that form it

False, that's matrix diagrams

T or F: The Cost Management Plan takes the estimated project expenditures and maps them back to dates on the calendar

False, that's the budget

T or F: specification limits are the same as control limits

False, the first describe the maximum and minimum values allowed; where as the second establish the natural capability for a stable process

T or F: When calculating EAC forecast for ETC work considering both SPI and CPI, these values are added together

False, these factors are weighted per the PM's judgment

T or F: Situational power is based on a person's title or role. For example being given the title of PM is a form of situational power

False--that's positional or formal power

T or F: Project Integration Management is the PM's responsibility but it can be delegated

False. Project Integration Management is the specific responsibility of the PM and cannot be transferred or delegated since only the PM can combine the results of all knowledge areas to provide an overall view of the project, and is ultimately responsible for the project as a whole

What tool or technique is used to acquire funding for projects?

Financing

Your testing reveals stability issues in your web development project; what do you do first to resolve the stability issue?

First you need to determine if the stability issues fall under the acceptable tolerance levels. If not, a detailed cost/benefit analysis needs to be conducted before issuing a change request.

Change request (definition)

Formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline.

If the PM reviews the scope baseline to ensure completion in the Close Project or Phase process; what does he do in the Validate Scope process?

Formalize the acceptance of completed project deliverables

Change control board (CCB)

Formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, deferring, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating such decisions

Definition of Organizational Project Management

Framework in which portfolio, program, and project management are integrated with organizational enablers in order to achieve strategic objectives.

____ requirements describe the behaviors of the product (actions, processes, data); where as _____ requirements support and describe environmental conditions or qualities required for the product to be effective (ex. security, performance, safety, retention/purge)

Functional; nonfunctional

What is the tool used when reconciling the expenditure of funds with any funding limits on the commitment of funds for the project?

Funding limit reconciliation

What values do you need to calculate present value?

Future value, interest rate, number of periods

What must the PM do when he delegates responsibility to a team member?

Give proper authority to that person AND make sure delegated responsibilities have actually been understood and accepted by those team member

What are histograms and how can they help manage quality?

Graphical representations of numerical data. They could show the number of defects per deliverable, a ranking of the cause of defects, the number of times each process is noncompliant, or other representations of the project or product defects

Is it better to have a high or log BCR?

High, get more benefit from your costs

What kind of components are included in a requirements management plan? "

How requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported; configuration management of activities: how changes will be initiated, impacts analyzed, traced, tracked, and reported; authorization level required for changes; requirements prioritization process; metrics; traceability structure

Salary, relationship with one's boss, and work-life balance are what kinds of factors according to Herzberg's Motivational Hygiene Theory?

Hygiene

There are several inputs to Direct and Manage Project Work; what are the two most important?

IPMP and Approved CRs

Project exclusions

Identifies what is excluded from the project. Explicitly stating what is out of scope for the project helps manage stakeholder expectation and reduces scope creep

Plan Quality Management is the process of...

Identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the project and its deliverables, and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements and/or standards

What process is in both the Project Stakeholder Management knowledge area and the Initiating process group

Identifying stakeholders

Why does resource leveling often result of changes to the critical path?

If an activity with overloaded resources is on the critical path and resource leveling is applied, the activity duration often increases to reduce level the overloaded resource; this causes the critical path to change

When is it the PM's responsibility to step in when project team members are in conflict

If the team members are initially unable to resolve the conflict

The customer finds a defect in the project deliverable, but the deliverable meets requirement specifications, what do you do?

If there is a defect in the product, it is your responsibility to fix it even if the product meets the documented specifications. Analyze the defect, find the root cause, and then issue a CR.

The _____process determines if project assumptions are still valid, if risk management procedures and policies are being followed, and if an assessed risk has changed or can be retired

Implement Risks

What's the difference between resource leveling and resource smoothing?

In the first, the start and finish dates are adjusted based on constraints with the goal of balancing demand for resources with the available supply; the second adjusts activities in the schedule such that the requirements for resources on the project do not exceed certain predefined resource limits

Resource breakdown structure

Includes information on the composition of the team and may help to understand what knowledge is available as a group and what knowledge is missing

What is organizational theory?

Information about the way people, teams, and organizational units behave

How is work performance data used in scope management?

Input to the Control Scope process

"Which of the following are inputs when developing a project charter? 1) business case documents 2) integrated project management plan 3) Risk register 4) EEFs and OPAs 5) Brainstorming 6) Assumption log" "

Inputs include business case documents, EEFs & OPAs Note that brainstorming is a technique/tool, and the Assumption Log is an output

" Match the following with inputs, techniques/tools, or outputs of Creating the WBS: OPA, decomposition, IPMP, scope baseline "

Inputs: OPAs, IPMP Techniques/tools: Decomposition Outputs: Scope Baseline

Match the following with inputs, techniques/tools, or outputs of Collecting Requirements: Requirements traceability matrix, Prototypes, Context diagram, Project charter, EEFs, Agreements, Data analysis. "

Inputs: Project Charter, EEFs, Agreements Techniques/tools: Prototypes, Context diagram, Data analysis Outputs: requirements traceability matrix

" Match the following with inputs, techniques/tools, or outputs of Validating Scope: Inspection, Change Request, Work performance data, Accepted deliverables "

Inputs: Work performance data Techniques/tools: Inspection Outputs: Change request, accepted deliverables

What are the inputs, techniques/tools, and outputs of a project management plan "

Inputs: project charter, EEFs, OPAs Tools/Techniques: expert judgment, data gathering, interpersonal skills Outputs: IPMP

" Ensuring the creation and use of appropriate knowledge to and from the project is part of Project _____ Management

Integration

What kind of communication method type is most efficient?

Interactive communication is the most efficient form of communication as it requires multidirectional exchange of information

What kinds of tools or techniques help with root cause analysis in the Identify Risk process?

Ishikawa (fishbone) or 5-whys

A PM finds that a planned risk response was unsuccessful when implemented. If the same risk response is planned for several other risks in the register, what must be done?

Issue a change request to investigate a better response plan for the 7 risk events

What does Risk Data Quality Assessment do?

It assesses the quality of the data you are using during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, to avoid "garbage in, garbage out" data

How is Economic Value Add different from Net Profit?

It considers opportunity cost, not just net profit

How is the risk register used in quality management?

It contains information on threats and opportunities that could impact quality requirements

Why is the configuration management plan an input to the control scope process

It defines how changes to the features and functions of the project deliverable, the product scope, may enter the project

Why is the business case an input for the Determine Budget process

It gives you an idea of how important the project is and whether particular activities should get premium resources or may be performed at a standard level

How is the stakeholder register used in quality management?

It identifies stakeholders who have a particular interest in or impact on quality, with the emphasis on customer and sponsor needs and expectations

How is the Resource requirements document used in cost management?

It identifies the types and quantities of resources needed to get the work done

How is the assumption log related to quality management?

It includes assumptions and constraints regarding quality requirements and standard compliance

Why is the benefits management plan an input for the Determine Budget process?

It indicates when, how, and the expected size of benefits the project should produce which can influence when project expenditures are made

How can a Pareto Chart help focus a team on the issues contributing to the highest number of quality problems?

It is a histogram showing a ranked ordering of the causes of the issues

How is the requirements traceability matrix used in quality management?

It links product requirements to deliverables, helps ensure they're tested, and verifies test overview

What does SWOT analysis do?

It measures a project's (S)strengths, (W)weaknesses, (O)opportunities, and (T)hreats by plotting them in quadrants of Helpful, Harmful, Internal, and External

Why is the risk register listed as part of the Project Documents input to the Estimate Activity Resources process?

It provides information about which activities have higher risk and may require more resources

Why is monte carlo analysis useful in performing quantitative risk analysis?

It shows you what might not be evident by looking at the schedule and budget along to identify tasks that, if derailed, could adversely affect the whole project

Which scheduling approach is often used to deliver incremental value to the customer or when multiple teams can concurrently develop a large number of features that have few interconnected dependencies?

Iterative scheduling approach with a backlog (or rolling wave planning)

What type of scheduling methodology consists of documenting requirements in user stories that are prioritized and refined just prior to construction, and where the product features developed using time-boxed periods of work?

Iterative scheduling methodology with a backlog (or rolling wave planning)

Expert judgment

Judgment provided based on expertise in an application area, Knowledge Area, discipline, industry, etc. as appropriate for the activity being performed.

A ___ System is the on-demand scheduling approach used in agile environments that is based on the theory-of-constraints and pull-based scheduling concepts from lean manufacturing to limit a team's work in progress.

Kanban

Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified and managed as a (key, peripheral, or moderate?) project objective

Key

KPI

Key performance indicators

What meeting is usually associated with the end of planning and the start of executing?

Kick off meeting occurs at this point

When are leads and lags applied and adjusted?

Leads and lags are APPLIED as part of the Develop Schedule process, but then they are ADJUSTED in the process of Control Schedule

___ are used in limited circumstances where processes require a set period of time to elapse between the predecessors and successors without work or resource impact

Leads,

"Which of the following is NOT part of Project Integration Management? a) Making integrated decisions regarding key changes impacting the project b) Collecting, analyzing, and communication information to stakeholders c) Formally closing each phase, contract, and project as a whole d) Applying continuous improvement/ Lean Six Sigma practices e) Ensuring creation and use of knowledge to and from the project"

Lean Six Sigma / Continuous Improvement (d) is how to improve ongoing operations, NOT projects, and is therefore NOT part of Project Integration Management.

The critical path has the (least or most?) project float?

Least (usually zero)

The _____ records challenges, problems, realized risks and opportunity, and includes description and category, impact, recommendation, and proposed actions. It is used to transfer information to an OPA

Lessons Learned Register,

_____ focuses on variances from the plan and what would be done differently in the future in order to avoid those variances

Lessons learned

What do project document updates refer to in close project or phase?

Lessons learned register

Name some outputs of managing project knowledge from a project integration management perspective

Lessons learned register, project management plan updates, organizational process assets

Measurable risk thresholds

Level of risk exposure that is acceptable in pursuit of project objectives that reflect the risk appetite of the organization and stakeholders

What should you do if a customer is insisting on a requirement that is not technically possible?

Listen to the customer and understand his viewpoint. Then analyze the data and convincingly explain why the requirement is impossible.

How does root cause analysis work?

Look beyond the immediate symptoms to find the cause of the symptoms; this affords opportunities for possible solutions

How must a PM manage inventory level to ensure the organization profits from the project?

Make sure you don't keep too much (high operation cost reduces profit) or little (not satisfying customer demand reduces profit)

The project schedule is likely to be updated as a result of which project communications management process?

Manage Communications process

Are audits are a tool or technique used during the Manage Quality process or Control Quality process?

Manage Quality

What process is best to use when verifying that individuals are using the appropriate processes

Manage Quality

what process is sometimes called Quality Assurance

Manage Quality

What process does the following describe? Resolving issues that have been identified and addressing concerns that have not become documented issues yet

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

" Audits happen in ____ Quality, where as inspection happens in ____ Quality

Manage, Control

____ is how easily a risk's impact can be managed. The higher the better.

Manageability

When determining the Budget, Data Analysis primarily looks at ____ to protect against cost overrun

Management reserve

Failing to secure critical equipment or infrastructure on time resulting in a delays in product manufacturing and delivery is an example of what process failure?

Managing and controlling resources

This kind of diagram helps PMs find the strength of relationships among factors, causes, and objectives. They can be different shapes depending on the number of factors compared. Creating one helps identify key quality metrics

Matrix diagrams

The project's budget, along with its milestones, would be listed under the _____ section of the project charter.

Measurable Project Objectives

Performance measurement baseline

Measurement used in earned value analysis to compare with actual results to determine if corrective or preventative action, or change is needed

Critical path method

Method used to estimate the minimum project duration and determine the amount of schedule flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule model.

____ is used to visually organize the stakeholder information and how each relates to the others and the organization.

Mind Mapping

This kind of diagram (when used through the lens of quality) is often created around a single quality concept as the center of the image, to which associated ideas/images/words are connected. It's a rapid data gathering technique to identify requirements, constraints, dependencies, and relationships

Mind mapping

What tool can be used to show relationships and differences in requirements in order to rank them or identify new solutions?

Mind mapping

You are concerned about the risk of rain so you choose to construct your building in the summer. What is your risk strategy?

Mitigate

" Simulation

Models the combined effects of individual project risks and other sources of uncertainty to evaluate their potential impact on achieving project outcomes

The _____ process uses work performance information and produces work performance reports

Monitor & Control Project Work

In what process does the PM ensure the data that is collected, analyzed, and distributed is accurate and timely?

Monitor Communications

This work performance data is converted to work performance information by the ______ process.

Monitor Communications

Monitoring overall project stakeholder relationships is part of which stakeholder management process?

Monitor Stakeholders Engagement

What process group are you in if you're asking questions like "Did we plan properly?" "Did the results come out as we anticipated?" "Should we take corrective action by modifying the plan or changing how we are executing?"

Monitoring and controlling

Work Performance Data is an output of Direct and Manage Project work, and is an input to many processes within what process group?

Monitoring and controlling

Comparing actual project performance against IPMP, checking the status of individual project risks, and ensuring the project stays aligned with business needs are all examples of

Monitoring and controlling project work

Control Quality is the process of...

Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality management activities to assess the organization's quality policies into the project

Variability risks can be addressed using ______, with the range of variation reflected in probability distributions, followed by actions to reduce the spread of possible outcomes.

Monte Carlo analysis

What kind of method is used to put the details of a three-point estimate into a project estimate and is more accurate than other estimating methods because of its ability to simulate the actual project details and calculate the probability.

Monte Carlo analysis

_____ is a tool that takes details and assembles a big picture by throwing a bunch of "what if" scenarios into a computer to see the impact of certain risk events

Monte Carlo analysis

Why is it important that a decision be made to select the dependency relationship with the highest impact in PDM?

Multiple relationships between the same activities are not recommended

___ is a cost benefit analysis technique that is a monetary value expressed as the difference between the present value of revenues and the present value of expenditures over the life cycle of the product

NPV

NVP

Net present value

What are some methods of knowledge management?

Networking, communities of practice like special interest groups, meetings, work shadowing, forums and focus groups, story telling, knowledge fairs, training between learners

Are closed loops recommended in PDM?

No

When negotiating a cost-plus project, should you include your profit margin in the budget estimate?

No

Withdrawal is used in conflict management. Is this a favored approach?

No, because it doesn't deal with the problem

Smoothing is used in conflict management. Is this a favored approach?

No, because it doesn't deal with the problem head on

Forcing is used in conflict management. Is this a favored approach?

No, because it reduces morale and the problem will probably come back later in the project

Compromise is used in conflict management. Is this a favored approach?

No, because you might sacrifice something you need in a project. Both sides lose.

If two customers insist that their respective change request be prioritized first, should you involve the team?

No, it's your job as the PM to prioritize changes

Are "devil's advocates" constructive team roles?

No, they're destructive

Are "topic jumpers" constructive team roles?

No, they're destructive

" If you forgot to account for the cost of an activity during the planning phase, can you use the contingency or management reserve to cover it?

No. Issues arising out of poor planning cannot be classified as risks; hence neither contingency nor management reserves can be used.

In what stage of the Tuckman Ladder do the project team members start to work together and adjust their work habits and behaviors to support each other

Norming

The IT members of your project team have asked to see their project responsibilities. Where would you direct them (WBS or OBS?) and why?

OBS so they can look at their operational department's portion of the project

Correspondence, payment schedules and requests, and seller performance evaluation documentation are all examples of what output of the Control Procurements process?

OPA updates

Where are the contracted supplier's payment schedules and requests found?

OPAs

Financial controls procedures, historical info and LL repository, financial databases, and existing formal and informal cost estimating and budgeting related polities/guidelines are all examples of

OPAs used in Cost Management

Historical information and LLs; issue/defect data repositories; and project files from previous projects are all examples of what?

OPAs: organizational knowledge bases

" Pre-approved supplier lists and various types of contractual agreements; traceability matrices; issue/defect management procedures; and specific organizational standards like HR policies, are all examples of what?

OPAs: processes, policies, and procedures category

_____ scheduling is typically used in a Kanban system

On-demand

Corrective and preventive actions do not normally affect the project baselines themselves, but what do they affect with relation to the baselines?

Only the performance against the baselines.

Process analysis identifies _____,and examines _____.

Opportunities for process improvements; problems, constraints, and non-value-added activities that occur during a process

When calculating the Triangular Distribution, order O, P and M from smallest to largest

Optimistic < Most Likely < Pessimistic

What does OPM mean?

Organizational Project Management

Organizational governance

Organizational arrangements at all levels of an organization designed to determine and influence behavior of the organization's members (consideration of people/roles/policies, direction and through data/feedback)

The _____ is arranged according to an organization's existing departments, units or teams, with project activities or work packages listed under each department.

Organizational breakdown structure

Security and human resource policy and procedures are examples of what

Organizational process assets

" If all projects are risky, why do organizations do them?

Organizations take project risk in order to create value

When is the RTM created?

Output of the Collect Requirements process

Who typically approves the project management plan?

PM, project sponsor, functional managers supplying resources, team doing the work

The ____ contains the configuration management system, which contains the change control system

PMIS

The salience model describes classes of stakeholders based on their...

POWER (ability to impose their will), URGENCY (need for immediate attention), and LEGITIMACY (their involvement is appropriate).

Equation to calculate the Point of Total Assumption

PTA = [(ceiling price - target price)/(buyers share ratio)]+ target cost

In EVA, ____ is the authorized budget assigned to scheduled work, where as ____ is a measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work

PV, EV

The benefit comparison model to determine the present value of a future amount of money uses what formula?

PV=FV/(1+i)^n

What estimating technique uses the statistical relationship between historical data and your project to determine a correlation and thereby a cost estimate for your current project.

Parametric estimating

Historical Information Review tool used during the Determine Budget process applies what type(s) of estimating models

Parametric or analogous

PBP

Payback period

Calculation of risk probability and impact happens in which risk process?

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Potential risk owners are tentatively identified in the Identify Risk process when the Risk Register is made. When are the risk owners validated?

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

When is the PIM created?

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

The tool of Risk Categorization is used in which Risk progress?

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, when the RBS can be used

Work performance information

Performance data collected from various controlling processes, analyzed in context and integrated based on relationships across areas. (Ex. status of deliverables, implementation status of change requests, forecast estimates to complete)

In EVA, the cost baseline is called the _____

Performance measurement baseline

Closing process group

Performed to formally complete or close the project, phase, or contract

Provide an example of how project integration management is used during the monitoring and controlling process group

Performing integrated change control

The primary output(s) of the Acquire Resources process area is/are...

Physical Resource Assignments, Project Team Assignments, Resource Calendars

Work performance reports

Physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in project documents; intended to generate decisions or raise issues, actions, or awareness. (Ex. status reports, memos, justifications, dashboards, recommendations, updates)

Identifying and documenting the approach to communicating most effectively and efficiently with stakeholders is the key benefit to which of the 49 processes?

Plan Communications Management

A key benefit of this process is that it establishes an approach and level of management effort needed for managing project resources based on project type and complexity

Plan Resource Management

What are the processes in the Project Resource Management knowledge area?

Plan Resource Management, Estimate Activity Resources, Acquire Resources, Develop Team, Manage Team, Control Resources

Potential risk responses are tentatively identified in the Identify Risk process when the Risk Register is made. When are the risk responses validated?

Plan Risk Responses

What process yields the key benefit of providing a clear, actionable plan to interact with project stakeholders to support the project's interests

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

When is organizational theory used? (what process)

Plan resource management

What values do you need to calculate future value?

Planned Value, the Interest Rate, and the Number of periods you plan to wait

Updates to plans come out of which process groups?

Planning, Executing, and Monitoring and Controlling

When tailoring quality management processes, what should the PM keep in mind

Policy compliance and auditing; Standards and regulatory compliance; Continuous improvement; Stakeholder engagement

What does PESTLE stand for?

Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, Environmental

PDM

Precedence Diagramming Method

What kind of project lifecycle requires formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison when performing scope validation and control processes?

Predictive

Active problem solving begins with what first step?

Problem definition: discerning between the cause and effect of the problem

What are your options for conflict resolution as a PM?

Problem solving, Collaboration, Compromise, Forcing, Smoothing, Withdrawal

What kind of analysis helps identify opportunities for improvements by identifying and analyzing non-value-added activities

Process analysis

What component(s) of the scope management plan is/are missing from this list: process for preparing the scope statement; process for creating the WBS; process specifying formal acceptance of the completed project

Process for establishing how the scope baseline will be approved and maintained

Project Integration Management

Processes and activities to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate various processes and PM activities within PM process groups

Project Quality management

Processes for incorporating the organization's quality policy regarding planning, managing, and controlling project and product requirements, in order to meet stakeholder expectations

Project Cost Management

Processes involved in planning, estimating, budgeting, financing, funding, managing, and controlling costs so projects can be completed within budget

Project Procurement Management

Processes necessary to purchase or acquire products, services, or results needed from outside the project team

Project Risk Management

Processes of conducting risk management planning, identification, analysis, response planning, response implementation, and monitoring risk on a project

executing process group

Processes performed to complete the work defined in the PM plan to satisfy project requirements

" Initiating process group

Processes performed to define a new project or new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start

Project scope management

Processes required to ensure the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully

Project Communications Management

Processes required to ensure timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and ultimate disposition of project information

Project stakeholder management

Processes required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, to analyze stakeholder expectations and their impact on the project, and to develop appropriate management strategies for effective engaging stakeholders in project decisions and execution

Project Schedule Management

Processes required to manage the timely completion of the project

Monitoring and controlling process group

Processes required to track, review, and regulate progress and performance of the project; identify areas in which changes are needed; and initiate the changes

Project Resources Management

Processes to identify, acquire, and manage the resources needed for successful completion of the project

What does this describe: The procurement manager and the project manager discuss how to handle contract negotiations better in the future?

Procurement audit

How is project success measured (4 factors) "

Product and project... 1) quality 2) timeliness 3) budget compliance 4) degree of customer satisfaction

Where are the features and functions of the service or product produced by the project identified?

Product scope

" Actions, processes, or other conditions that the project needs to meet like milestone dates, contractual obligations, and constraints are a type of (project, stakeholder, or readiness?) requirements

Project

When PMs balance competing demands, tailor processes to meeting project objectives, and manage interdependencies among knowledge areas, they are executing what kind of management?

Project Integration Management

The output of the Define Scope process is the ____

Project Scope Statement

What are some examples of business documents that the PM should be sure to consider when creating a project management approach?

Project business case, Project benefits management plan

" This document formally initiates a project, establishes a partnership between performing and requesting organizations, is an agreement for deliverables, and can be supplemented by a contract if agreement is made with an external organization

Project charter

What should you measure against when you are validating the completion of project scope

Project management plan (which contains the scope baseline)

" What happens during a phase gate?

Project performance and progress are compared to project business documents (charter, business case, IPMP, benefits plan) and a decision (go/no-go) is made to continue to end the project/remaining in the phase/continue to the next phase, etc.

______ can be defined as information formally or informally provided by the project team to any or all project stakeholders.

Project presentations

Why can't you just prioritize projects based on ROI? What could you do instead to prioritize projects?

Project prioritization is not always dependent on ROI (e.g., for some projects the ROI calculation is difficult due to intangible benefits). It is recommended to prioritize the projects based on business value.

What does the change management plan contain?

Project procedures for entertaining change requests: how CRs are managed, documented, approved, or declined

The (project schedule or model?) presents linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources

Project schedule, which is an output of the model

What's a murder board?

Project steering or selection committees that ask every conceivable negative question about the proposed project with the goal of exposing the project's strengths and weaknesses and to kill the project if it is unnecessary

Why are decisions about costs of quality often the concern of program management, portfolio management, the PMO, or operations, and not just the PM and project team?

Projects are temporary

" What's the difference between a project, program, and portfolio?

Projects are unique and temporary. Programs are groups of related projects that organizations benefit from by managing as groups. Portfolios are project/program collections managed to achieve strategic objectives.

Project team assignments

Provide information on the type of competencies and experience available in the project and the knowledge that may be missing

Communication via internet sites or blogs are what kind of communication method?

Pull communications

How does punitive or coercive power differ from reward power?

Punishment is used for the first and rewards are used for the second

Why isn't posting an announcement to a public website considered a push communication?

Push communication is for targeted identified audience. This is a pull communication.

Requirements needed to capture the condition or criteria needed to validate the successful completion of a project are a type of (project, quality, or readiness?) requirements

Quality

____ is the process of implementing the planned acts and processes defined in the Project Quality Management Plan

Quality Assurance

Quality assurance issues managed or escalated by the team, recommendations for improvement, and summary of findings from Control Quality processes can be found in what document?

Quality report(s)

A popular version of a RAM is a ____

RACI

A ___ is a chart that illustrates the project resources that will be working on each work package

RACI chart

What is the formula for Return on Investment Capital?

ROIC = Net Income / Total Capital Investment

A ___ estimate is being figured when a project manager uses a range of -25 to +75 percent from actual.

ROM

" Work Performance Data

Raw observations and measurements identified during activities performed to carry out project work (Ex. % work physically completed; start/finish dates of scheduled activities; # change requests, defects, actual costs; duration)

What is funding limit reconciliation

Reconciles expenditure of funds with funding limits on commitment of funds for the project

What kind of PM power is individually earned by gaining credibility and respect or admiration from the team

Referent

S-curve diagrams, when used for cost, show...

Relationship between cost and time: how funds were spent over time

The time-boxed periods of releases, waves, or iterations

Release and iteration length

Before being baselined, ____ need to be unambiguous (measurable and testable), traceable, complete, consistent, and acceptable to key stakeholders

Requirements

This component/subsidiary plan of the project management plan describes how the product requirements will be analyzed, documented and managed. Also known as the Business Analysis Plan

Requirements Management Plan

How does project resilience help prepare for unknown-unknown risks?

Requires each project to have right level of budget and schedule contingencies, flexible project processes, empowered project team and frequent review of early warning signs.

A variance is found between funding limits and planned expenditures. What should the PM do to fix the schedule?

Reschedule work to level out the rate of expenditures by imposing date constraints for work in the project schedule

The ____ management plan will have information about labor rates, material costs, and other information that will be used to create the cost baseline

Resource

Can Resource Leveling and Resource Smoothing cause the critical path to change?

Resource Leveling can cause the project's critical path to change, while Resource Smoothing doesn't alter the project's critical path

The primary output(s) of the Plan Resource Management process area is/are...

Resource Management Plan, Team Charter

The primary output(s) of the Estimate Activity Resources process area is/are...

Resource Requirements, Resource Breakdown Structure

The PM is adjusting the schedule so that the demand for resources is in balance with the available supply

Resource leveling

A timeline of staffing needs can be found in what document?

Resource management plan

Plans for identifying and acquiring resources, roles and responsibilities, training, recognition plans, organizational charts, team development, and resource control are all components of the ____

Resource management plan

When writing the roles and responsibilities for team members, where should you document the role, authority, responsibility, and competency for each team member?

Resource management plan

The PM is adjusting the start and finish dates of activities so that planned resource use is equal to or less than resource availability. What is the PM doing?

Resource optimization

The PM is adjusting the schedule so that the requirements for resources do not exceed pre-defined resource limits. What is the PM doing?

Resource smoothing

When are potential risk responses documented and then when are they selected?

Responses are documented as potential responses during the Identify Risks process and as selected response plans during the Plan Risk Responses process

What kind of OPAs can influence quality management?

Results from previous audits; LL from similar projects; templates/check sheets/traceability matrix/test plans/test documents; organizational policies re quality

After the CCB approves changes, what must you do before allowing the team to implement the changes?

Revise cost estimates, schedule dates, resource requirements, and planning documents

Project resilience requires what five components?

Right level of budget and schedule contingency; flexible project processes; empowered project team; frequent review of early warning signs; clear input from stakeholder to clarify where project can be adjusted

The ____ provides information about the threats and opportunities that may impact project execution.

Risk register provides this

The ____ provides information on sources of overall project risk along with a summary of identified individual project risks

Risk report provides this

What factors should be included when listing roles and responsibilities of project resources?

Role, Authority, Responsibility, Competence

Since cost estimates are directly tied to schedule activities, the PM can show a time-phased view of the cost baseline, usually displayed in what kind of figure?

S-curve

A new accounts payable system has to start before the old account payable system can be shut down would be assigned what dependency relationship

SF

How would the following be represented in a project schedule (lead/lag/SS/FS/FF/SF): On a project to construct a new office building, where the landscaping could be scheduled to start 2 weeks prior to the scheduled punch list completion

SF with lead time

In EVA what indicator is used to determine whether the project will finish ahead of or behind the planned finish date?

SPI

How can you calculate the SPI if you don't have any information about budget, but you do have a schedule plan? "

SPI = ES/AT Schedule Performance Index = Earned Schedule/Actual Time

What is the equation for SPI in the context of cost>

SPI =EV/PV

Leveling concrete cannot begin until pouring the foundation begins would be assigned what dependency relationship?

SS

Statistical sampling

Sampling technique in which you choose to inspect part of a population

What does the PM need to do if the cumulative CPI falls below the baseline?

Schedule all future work of the project to be performed immediately in the range of the TCPI (BAC) to stay within the authorized BAC

____ is a measure of schedule efficiency expressed as the ratio of earned to planned value

Schedule performance index (SPI)

_____ are forecasts of estimates or predictions of conditions and events in the project's future based on info/knowledge available at the time of the forecast

Schedule updates,

When does alternatives generation happen?

Scope definition, when brainstorming other solutions for the project by considering customer satisfaction, solution cost, and how the customer can use the product.

" What subsidiary project management plans could be included in the integrated project management plan? "

Scope, requirements, schedule, cost, quality, resources, communications, risk, procurement, and stakeholder engagement management plans; Additionally, may include outputs from other processes to produce change, configuration, performance baseline, project lifecycle, development approach, and management reviews

You're the PM for a project wherein it is your responsibility to coordinate logistics effort to ensure materials and supplies are available as needed, but you don't have a lot of experience. What should you do?

Seek out expert judgment of someone with experience managing sellers

Precedence diagramming, dependency determination and integration, leads and lags, and project management information systems are all tools and techniques for what step in the Scheduling process?

Sequence Activities

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as

Sequence Activities

Joint Application Design/development

Sessions used in the software development industry wherein sessions focus on bringing business SMEs and the Development team together to gather requirements and improve development process

You partner with a competing contractor in order to win a contract. What is your risk response strategy?

Share

User stories

Short textual descriptions of required functionality. Describes stakeholder who benefits from the feature (role), what the stakeholder needs to accomplish (goal), and benefit to the stakeholder (motivation)

____ involves calculating multiple work package durations with different sets of activity assumptions, constraints, risks, issues, or scenarios using probability distributions and other representations of uncertainty.

Simulation,

What project approach is best if the cost and scope must remain fixed?

Since the project requirements are fixed and the goal is to manage cost, a predictive approach is most suitable in this case.

What do quality control measurements indicate?

Since these are the results of quality activities in Manage Quality, they indicate if the plan is being followed

Why is prototyping a better solution than hiring a technical SME or BA when your stakeholders are struggling to articulate requirements because they don't have the needed technical knowledge or prior experience?

Stakeholders who do not have prior experience in using similar systems often struggle to articulate their requirements. In such situations, prototyping is often used to elicit and validate stakeholder requirements. Hiring an SME or a BA won't resolve the problem at hand as the scenario doesn't tell us that the team doesn't have required elicitation and management skills.

What kind of project environment structure involves pooling organizational resources into one project team, and giving the PM more power than the functional manager?

Strong matrix

Systems analysis definition

Study of a system as a whole, it's components, and the relationship between those components

What should be discussed in retrospectives

Successful elements in each project/phase; what could be improved; what to incorporate on the ongoing project and what in future projects; what to add to the OPAs

What kind of information can be included in the final project report

Summaries and explanations for variance related to Scope, Quality, Cost, Schedule, and Risks; plus a summary of project outcomes

What is the equation for TCPI based on the budget at completion?

TCPI = (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC)

What is the equation for TCPI

TCPI = (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)

" T or F: Verified deliverables are inputted into the Validate Scope process

TRUE

T of F: NPV is a Cost-Benefit Analysis technique

TRUE

T of F: Process Analysis is a tool and technique used in the Manage Quality process and not in the Define Scope process.

TRUE

T of F: the EV cannot be greater than the authorized PV budget for a component

TRUE

T or F: A project can involve only one person

TRUE

T or F: A scatter diagram is a graph that shows the relationship between two variables. Scatter diagrams can demonstrate a relationship between any element of a process, environment, or activity on one axis, and a quality defect on the other axis.

TRUE

T or F: A selected seller is one whose proposal has been judged to be in the competitive range based on bid evaluation, but they have not been awarded the actual contract yet

TRUE

T or F: Agreements are an input to Control Resources

TRUE

T or F: Agreements are an input to Develop Project Charter

TRUE

T or F: Approved change requests are an input to Control Procurements

TRUE

T or F: As a result of Monitor Communications process the stakeholder register, lessons learned register, and issue log are likely to be updated

TRUE

T or F: As more precise info about the project becomes available, the contingency reserve may be used, reduced, or eliminated

TRUE

T or F: Change requests can be related to corrective action, preventative action, or defect repair

TRUE

T or F: Changes flow into and out of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process

TRUE

T or F: Claims administration is a key tool or technique of Control Procurements

TRUE

T or F: Communication frequency is not a technique or consideration for effective communication management

TRUE

T or F: Communication methods are the common tools and techniques for Plan Communications Management and Manage Communications processes

TRUE

T or F: Communication requirements analysis is a tool and technique of the Plan Communications Management process and not the Manage Communications process

TRUE

T or F: Cost estimates include estimates for the cost of completing an activity and its contingency or reserve amount

TRUE

T or F: Data gathering an data analysis are both tools for Identify Stakeholders

TRUE

T or F: Decision-making is a tool or technique used during Plan Stakeholder Engagement

TRUE

T or F: Despite the name, the scope baseline is an output of the Create WBS process, not the Define Scope process

TRUE

T or F: Develop Project Charter may be revisited between phases or iterations

TRUE

T or F: During integration, the PM's job is to use problem-solving and decision-making for internal and external resources to keep the project moving forward

TRUE

T or F: EMV is used for managing risks and not measuring business value.

TRUE

T or F: Even after the procurements for a particular phase are closed, unresolved claims are still subject to litigation.

TRUE

T or F: Even if a PM delegates a task to a team member, the PM is still responsible for the completion of the task

TRUE

T or F: Even in project coordinators don't have authority to make budget or overall project decisions, they may have authority to reassign resources

TRUE

T or F: Expert judgment can be used as a tool for the Close Project or Phase process

TRUE

T or F: Explicit knowledge can be quickly and easily expressed through conversations documentation, figures, or numbers, so it's easily communicated

TRUE

T or F: Functional managers may be asked to approve a project

TRUE

T or F: Good facilitators remain neutral in meetings

TRUE

T or F: Identify Risks happens in the planning process group, but it happens iteratively throughout the process

TRUE

T or F: If a PM is unable to procure planned resources, she should document the impact of the unavailability of required resources in the project schedule, budget, risks, quality, training, and other plans

TRUE

T or F: If the required resources are not hired in time, neither fast-tracking nor crashing will help the project.

TRUE

T or F: If you are a selected seller, you have negotiated a draft of the contract, that could become the actual contract when the award is made

TRUE

T or F: If you take over a project from a fellow PM who just left your company. You can still ask your predecessor for background/advice on the project, even if he's left the company, as part of seeking Expert Judgment

TRUE

T or F: If your project has a change control board, it is their responsibility to evaluate change, not the PM

TRUE

T or F: In agile projects physical resources are procured in smaller quantities

TRUE

T or F: In resource smoothing, activities can only be delayed within their fee and total float, and therefore cannot be used to optimize all resources.

TRUE

T or F: Influencing people to support the project is an example of a management skill, not an interpersonal and team skill

TRUE

T or F: Knowledge management focuses on both tacit and explicit knowledge

TRUE

T or F: LL earlier in the project can be applied to later phases in the project to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of validating deliverables

TRUE

T or F: LLs are documented during the Conduct Procurements process

TRUE

T or F: Meetings are a common tool in Close Project or Phase

TRUE

T or F: On-demand scheduling does not rely on a schedule developed previously for development, but rather pulls work from a backlog or intermediate queue of work to be done immediately as resources become available

TRUE

T or F: One of the main differences and benefits to agile methodology *vs. predictive) is that customers are involved in meetings and have complete visibility into the team's progress

TRUE

T or F: Organizational knowledge basics are updated throughout the project with project information

TRUE

T or F: PMs can be asked to be involved in the project From project evaluation through realizing business benefits

TRUE

T or F: PMs look at forecasts in Monitor and Control Project Work

TRUE

T or F: Performance Reviews is one of the tools and techniques recommended in the Control Schedule process

TRUE

T or F: Performance reviews are included in the tools and techniques recommended in the Control Schedule process

TRUE

T or F: Predicting and analyzing the prospective financial performance of the project's product can be performed outside the project or be part of the Project Cost Management Plan

TRUE

T or F: Productivity metrics are an EEF used in Estimate Activity Durations

TRUE

T or F: Project and product life cycles are independent

TRUE

T or F: Project management appraisals conducted during the controlling process of managing the project's team are a type of unplanned training

TRUE

T or F: Project management plan updates are a key output of Manage Project Knowledge

TRUE

T or F: Project requirements documentation includes constraints and assumptions

TRUE

T or F: Quality metrics is an output of Plan Quality Management, not Manage Quality

TRUE

T or F: Quantitative risk analysis uses a cardinal scale to evaluate risk

TRUE

T or F: Resource optimization is a tool or technique used during the Control Schedule process?

TRUE

T or F: Resource smoothing can be used to reduce delays in projects because it does not change the critical path

TRUE

T or F: Resource smoothing does not affect the critical path, but does manipulate float

TRUE

T or F: Risk Categorization is a tool or technique used in the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process

TRUE

T or F: Root cause analysis includes all of the following: Problem identification, discovery of the underlying causes of a problem, and development of preventive actions.

TRUE

T or F: Schedule forecasts is an output of Control Schedule

TRUE

T or F: Senior management may be called upon to solve conflicts within the organization

TRUE

T or F: The Control Schedule process is not concerned with future changes to the project, only what is current.

TRUE

T or F: The PM is responsible for proactively developing team skills and competencies while retaining and improving team satisfaction and motivation

TRUE

T or F: The PMIS can be considered an EEF since it is part of the environment in which the project is performed

TRUE

T or F: The PMIS is a tool or technique used in the Estimate Activity Resources process

TRUE

T or F: The PMIS is used as a tool during the Direct and Manage Project Work process of the Project Integration Management knowledge area

TRUE

T or F: The Project Schedule Management plan includes appropriate control thresholds, and can be formal/informal, detailed/broadly framed based on the needs of the project

TRUE

T or F: The RTM provides a structure for mapping changes to the product scope

TRUE

T or F: The assigned PM's responsibility and authority level are included in the project charter

TRUE

T or F: The assumption log should be created early in the project, alongside the charter

TRUE

T or F: The buyer-seller relationship may exist at many levels on any one project, and between organizations internal to and external to the acquiring organization.

TRUE

T or F: The cost of quality (COQ) includes all costs incurred over the life of the product

TRUE

T or F: The customer is responsible for creating the statement of work (SOW). This is a narrative description of the products, services, or results to be delivered by a project

TRUE

T or F: The project charter explains how the end result will address the business need

TRUE

T or F: The project charter should include exit criteria

TRUE

T or F: The project charter specifies who should sign off on the final product

TRUE

T or F: The project scope statement is part of the scope baseline

TRUE

T or F: The project sponsor may provide due dates, milestones, important product features, and constraints or assumptions

TRUE

T or F: The risk breakdown structure is part of the risk management plan

TRUE

T or F: The scope baseline is important to quality management because the scope statement is considered when developing quality standards, project objectives, and determining which project deliverables should be subjected to quality review

TRUE

T or F: There are types of projects where Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process can be skipped

TRUE

T or F: Typically, some authority within the project management team or an external organization would approve or reject the change request.

TRUE

T or F: Validate Scope is primarily concerned with acceptance of deliverables, where as Control Quality is concerned with correctness of the deliverables and meeting the requirements specified for the deliverables.

TRUE

T or F: When calculating EAC forecast for ETC work performed at the budgeted rate, the method accepts the actual project performance to date (whether favorable or unfavorable) as represented by the actual costs, and predicts that all future ETC work will be accomplished at the budgeted rate

TRUE

T or F: When calculating EAC forecast for ETC work performed at the present CPI, the method assumes what the project has experienced to date can be expected to continue in the future

TRUE

T or F: When resource leveling is applied, the critical path may change

TRUE

T or F: Work packages are the lowest level of the WBS

TRUE

T or F: Work performance reports are an input to Perform Integrated Change Control but work performance information is not

TRUE

T or F: Work performance reports should be actionable

TRUE

T or F: You should consider variances when creating LLs

TRUE

T or F: You would use a decision tree when uncertainty and unknowns exist regarding future scenarios and their outcomes

TRUE

T or F: You're most likely to see a Project Expeditor in a functional organization

TRUE

T or F: parametric estimating employs an algorithm that uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate an estimate for activity parameters like cost, budget, and duration

TRUE

T or F: professional and technical associations can be a source of expert judgment

TRUE

T or F: projects with critical situations may be closed prematurely

TRUE

T or F: target price < PTA < ceiling price

TRUE

T or F: the issue log is the input to Manage Project Team

TRUE

T or F; A milestone list is a valid output of the Define Activities process

TRUE

The risk categories in the _____ of the RBS can be used a prompt list for individual project risks

TRUE

The total duration of the project does not (and should not) influence make-or-buy analysis

TRUE

If it's customary to offer lunch to new all team members on a project, what should you do when you are offered lunch?

Take it! Although the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct does not allow gift-taking, project managers should respect the norms and customs of others as long as they do not show favoritism based on those norms.

The ___ gives input into the overall health of the project team

Team Performance Assessment

The primary output(s) of the Develop Team process area is/are...

Team Performance Assessment

Self-organizing teams

Teams that function with an absence of centralized control, wherein the PM provides with the environment and support needed and trusts the team to get the job done

What makes up the PMI talent triangle?

Technical project management, strategic and business management, leadership

What does TCOP stand for?

Technical, Environmental, Commercial, Operational, Political

When the PM asks, "Is technology used to develop, record, transmit, receive, and store schedule model information and is it readily accessible?" she is considering (resource availability, project dimensions, or technology support?) when tailoring her schedule management

Technology support

What does ROIC stand for?

Return on Invested Capital

Why doe conducting JAD sessions comply with the mandatory PMI code of ethics Fairness standard?

The JAD sessions build trust among the customers and reconcile stakeholder differences since they give equal opportunity to all stakeholders.

Where do work performance reports come from?

The Monitor and Control Project Work, a process from the project integration management knowledge area, produces work performance reports.

The following are examples of what reality in project management: collective bargaining agreements, use of subcontractor personnel, a matrix project environment, internal/external reporting relationships?

The PM may or may not have direct control over resource selection

T or F: PTA < Ceiling Price

TRUE

Lead time

The amount of time a successor activity can be advanced with respect to the predecessor activity.

" Scope baseline

The approved version of a scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary; used for basis of comparison

In project management, Responsibility means...

The assigned duties and work that a project team member is expected to perform in order to complete the project's activities

Control limits (in context of PM quality measurements)

The boundaries of common variation in a statistically stable process or process performance)

If a buyer and seller have a buyer's share ratio of 80/20, what does that mean?

The buyer and seller share the cost overruns at a ratio of 80/20: the buyer pays 80% and the seller pays 20%; this continues up to the ceiling price, after which the seller pays for all of the cost overruns

How can you use a resource histogram to figure out where you need to apply a resource leveling strategy?

The chart can include a horizontal line that represents the maximum number of hours available for a particular resource. Bars that extend beyond the maximum available hours indicate the need for a resource leveling strategy

When is the project charter developed, relative to the development of the project SOW/contract and the project management plan

The charter is developed after the project statement of work or contract, but before the project plan

What is schedule data

The collection of information for describing and controlling the schedule

Management elements

The components that comprise the key functions or principles of general management in the organization. They are allocated within the organization according to governance framework and organizational structure. (Ex. division of work, authority to perform work, action discipline, unity of direction and command, fair pay, safety, morale, security, communication channels)

What gets included in the cost baseline?

The cost baseline is the approved version of the project budget that includes contingency reserves, but excludes management reserves.

From a quality management perspective, why is it important that the scope statement includes the acceptance criteria for the deliverables?

The definition of the acceptance criteria may significantly increase/decrease quality costs

Project benefits management plan

The documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by a project. (how and when benefits of the project will be delivered)

Contingency reserves

The estimated duration within the schedule baseline, which is allocated for identified risks that are accepted. They are associated with the known-unknowns, which can be estimated to account for this unknown amount of re-work

What happens during funding limit reconciliation

The expenditure of funds are reconciled with any funding limits on commitment of funds for the project.

Why is Assumptions and Constraint Analysis a tool or technique in the Identify Risk process?

The first contains uncertainties and the second contains factors that limit your choices

How is a hybrid structure different than a balanced structure when it comes to project environment?

The first creates a blend of functional, matrix, and project-oriented structures; where as the second just means the functional and project managers share power

" In what situation would an interview be a better data gathering technique than a focus group? What about vice versa? "

The first data gathering technique should be used if the information must be obtained confidentially or if specific information is needed and answers are to be recorded; The second data gathering technique should be used if SMEs and stakeholders need to see each other's expectations and attitudes in a more interactive and conversational tone

How are the scope management plan and change management plan different

The first defines how changes to the project scope will be managed and controlled and the second defines how changes will be allowed and managed within the project

What's the difference between solution requirements, and transitional & readiness requirements? "

The first describes the features, functions, and characteristics of the product, service, or result that will meet the business and stakeholder requirements; and The second describes the temporary capabilities, such as data conversion and training requirements, needed to transition from the current as-is state to the desired future state

What's the difference between tolerances and control limits?

The first describes the specified range of acceptable results, and the second describes the boundaries of common variation in a statistically stable process or process performance

Results of attribute sampling vs. variable sampling

The first either conforms or does not conform; the second is rated on a continuous scale that measures the degree of conformity

What's the difference between NPV and PV?

The first factors in costs of the project, the second is just a present value of a sum of money

How are business documents different from project documents?

The first generally originate outside of the project and are used as project inputs; the second are generated throughout the project as outputs

" What's the difference between meeting management and facilitation?

The first includes creating agendas, inviting participants, and sending minutes and action item follow ups; the second includes guiding the group to a successful decision, solution, or conclusion

How are Project Communications Management and Manage Stakeholder Engagement different?

The first includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and ultimate disposition of project information. Whereas, the second is a process of communicating and working with stakeholders

Tolerances vs. Control Limits

The first is a specified range of acceptable results; while the second identifies the boundaries of common variation in a statistically stable process or process performance

What is an indirect cost?

The first is cost of overhead, general, or administrative costs. Basically the costs allocated by the project team as a cost of doing business.

Describe explicit vs. tacit knowledge

The first is knowledge that can be readily codified using words, pictures, or numbers; and the second is personal and difficult to express, such as beliefs, insights, experience, or "know how")

How are scope creep and progressive elaboration different?

The first is the (often uncontrolled or unauthorized) changes in scope; the second is involves building on the output of a previous phase when more information is available.

Quality vs. grade

The first is the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill requirements; while the second is a category assigned to deliverables having the same functional use but different technical characteristics

How are Control Quality and Manage Quality processes different?

The first is used to record the results of executing the second

Why is CPI>1 good and TCPI>1 bad?

The first means, you are doing better than expected; the second means you NEED to do better than expected in the future to meet your goal

How does the stakeholder engagement plan relate to quality management?

The first provides a method for documenting the stakeholders' needs and expectations, thereby providing a foundation for the second

How does the Requirements management plan relate to the quality management plan and quality metrics?

The first provides the approach for identifying, analyzing, and managing the requirements that will be used in the second and third

What is the difference between product and project scope? "

The first refers to the features and functions of a product, service or result. The second refers to the work performed to deliver a product, service or result with specified features and functions.

How are project organizational charts different than the organizational breakdown structure?

The first shows reporting relationships between team members, and the second shows project activities/work packages per department

Product vs. project scope

The first term is defined as the features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result; and the second is the work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions (can include the first term)

what's the difference between and individual risk and overall risk for a project?

The first threatens project objectives, the second threatens the whole project

How are the cost management plan, resource management plan, and budget related?

The first two are project management plan inputs needed to create the third

Governance framework

The framework within which authority is exercised in organizations (rules, policies, procedures, norms, relationships, systems, processes)

Role

The function assumed by, or assigned to, a person in the project. Ex. Civil engineer, business analyst, testing coordinator

Why is it important to tailor project management for each project?

The importance of each competing constraint (scope, schedule, cost, resources, quality, and risk) is different for each project, so project management approaches to be tailored to best manage these based on the project environment, organizational culture, stakeholder needs, and other variables.

How do the risk management plan and quality management plan relate

The info in both work together to successfully delivery product and project success

How is the resource breakdown structure related to the work breakdown structure?

The info in the most granular (lowest) level of the first is used in conjunction with the second to allow work to be planned, monitored, and controlled

Strategic and business management

The knowledge of and expertise in the industry and organization that enhances performance and better delivers business outcomes

Leadership

The knowledge, skills, and behaviors needed to guide, motivate, and direct a team, to help an organization achieve its business goals

Technical project management

The knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management. The technical aspects of performing a role

Metrics

The measures to be used to show benefits realized, direct measures and indirect measures

Product scope description

The narrative description documenting the deliverables for a project customer (basically, what the project will create)

what does the following describe? The Buyer and Seller must ensure that both parties meet their contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected

The overall purpose of Control Procurements

product backlog

The overall scope of an adaptive project that is decomposed into a set of requirements and work to be performed

" schedule network analysis

The overarching technique used to generate the project schedule model. It employs other techniques like CPM, resource optimization, and modeling techniques

What is the BCR?

benefit cost ratio

" Defining scope

The process of DEVELOPING a detailed description of the project and product

Validating scope

The process of FORMALIZING acceptance of the completed project deliverables

Control scope

The process of MONITORING the status of the project and product scope and MANAGING CHANGES to the scope baseline

Creating the WBS

The process of SUBDIVIDING project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components

Plan scope management (definition)

The process of creating a scope management PLAN that documents how the project and product scope will be defined, validated and controlled

What-if scenario analysis

The process of evaluating scenarios in order to predict their effect, positive or negative, on project objectives.

How are the product roadmap, release planning, product vision, and iteration planning related?

The product vision drives the product roadmap, which drives the release plans. Release plans establish iterations containing featured delivered in user stories.

Fitness for use means...

The product/service needs satisfy the real needs

Your project's ROIC = 12%. What does this mean?

The project is returning 12% annually on the cash it invested to perform the project

If your team has identified a problem with your project and recommended changes, what do you do before submitting a change request?

The project manager needs to next run a simulation (Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis) to see which improvement will have the least amount of risks, once obtained a project manager would then submit a change request.

Forecasts are based on...

The project's past performance, and expected future performance based on corrective or preventative actions

What do you need before you can Define Scope?

The requirements documentation (ex. RTM)

In project management, Authority means...

The rights to apply project resources, make decisions, sign approvals, accept deliverables, and influence others to carry out the work of the project

What happens during configuration verification and auditing?

The scope and completeness of project or phase deliverables are verified to ensure alignment to the project plan

Where is the change control system documented?

The scope management plan

Systems engineering aims to balance...

The scope of the project in relation to time and cost

How are scope definition and stakeholder analysis related

The second happens during the first process to quantify and prioritize objectives

critical path

The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest possible project duration

Project life cycle

The series of phases that a project passes through from its start to its completion. Can be predictive or adaptive, and associated with one or more phases of development.

Work performance data is an output of what process?

Direct and Manage Project Work

In project management, Competence means...

The skill and capability required to complete assigned activities within the project constraints.

Tolerances (in context of PM quality measurements)

The specified range of acceptable results

What does a Stacey Diagram show?

The spectrum of project environments, where the agile-friendly area is. The x0-axis is a scale from certain to uncertain, showing how decision making occurs; the y-axis is a scale from agreement to no-agreement

Why is the influence of key stakeholders highest during the Initiating phase of the project and not the planning phase?

The stakeholder influence is highest at the start of the project and decreases as the project progresses towards completion.

What indicates when a project has been successfully completed?

The team delivers all work packages on time and on budget

Why doesn't much work get done during the forming phase of Tuckman's ladder?

The team is getting to know each other and is on their "best behavior" so little work actually gets done

What is the 100% rule?

The total of the work at the lowest levels should roll up to the higher levels so that nothing is left out and no extra work is performed

Scope creep

The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources

How do resource calendars influence the duration of schedule activities?

They affect the availability of specific resources, types of resources, and resources with specific attributes. Basically they specify when and how long identified resources will be available in the project

Why is it important to identify trends?

They alert the PM before the problems manifest

" What does an activity list, a bar chart, and a network diagram have in common?

They are all types of Project Schedule Presentations

What two things should you keep in mind about controlling processes according to Andy Crowe?

They are proactive. They measure what is executed against what was planned.

How are logical data models related to quality issues

They are used to identify where data integrity or other quality issues can arise

Why are agreements important inputs into the Identify Risk process?

They could contain enforcements and penalties if terms aren't met; or on the flip side, rewards for meeting or exceeding terms

The nature of the project, time, budget, and other constraints have what affect on the testing in a project

They determine the type, amount, or extent of testing needed to evaluate each requirement

How are charts useful for the Plan Resource Management process group?

They document team member roles with the objective of ensuring each work package has an unambiguous owner

Why are what-if scenarios useful? "

They help assess the feasibility of the project schedule under different conditions They help prepare schedule reserves and response plans to address impact of unexpected situations

How do flowcharts help with defects?

They identify the series of steps leading to the defect

Why are Agreements an input to the Determine Budget process?

They provide information on what costs the project is contractually obligated to occur and when. Ex. Specific brand of computer server must be purchased within 1yr of signing the contract

How can excessive decomposition hurt the WBS creation and project as a whole?

This could lead to nonproductive management effort, inefficient use of resources, decreased efficiency in performing the work, and difficulty aggregating data over different levels

Resource optimization

This is used to adjust the start and finish dates of activities to adjust the planned resource use to be equal to or less than resource availability

When considering fast tracking a project, why must the PM consider the critical path

This schedule compression technique only works when the overlapping activities are on the critical path

Why is data analysis a key tool used in monitor and control project work?

This tool helps you do what this process is all about: finding variances, trends, and root causes

Affinity diagrams

This type of data representation allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis

Mind mapping

This type of data representation consolidates ideas created through individual brainstorming sessions into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding and to generate new ideas

How come projects can function in an organic or simple structure when the PM doesn't have control over the project resources?

This usually works when people work side-by-side, regardless of roles and titles

Planning process group

Those processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives

Why is it important to designate a single person as the owner of a task?

To avoid confusion about who is ultimately responsible for, is in charge of, and has authority over completion of the work

Why is it valuable to include a summary narrative with a project schedule network diagram?

To describe the basic approach used to sequence the activities and fully describe any unusual activity sequences within the network

How can a PM use cost-benefit analysis to address quality

To determine if planned quality activities are cost effective, by comparing the COQ step to the expected benefit

What are control charts used for?

To determine whether or not a process is STABLE or has PREDICTABLE PERFORMANCE

What is the Work Authorization System used for?

To ensure that work gets performed at the right time and in the right sequence

Why is reserve analysis needed periodically?

To ensure the right amount is set aside

RCA stands for

root cause analysis

What is the role of the PM regarding change?

To influence factors that cause project change

What are the two primary purposes of Manage Quality? "

To put the quality management plan into practice so that the product/service/result achieves quality. To improve and streamline the overall process of producing the product/service/result

Why is it important for customers and the project management team to communicate regarding project boundaries

To reduce assumptions about what is and is not included in the project

In EVA what value indicates the performance needed in order to achieve your earned value targets?

To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)

Iteration burndown chart

Tool used to track the work that remains to be completed in the iteration backlog.

Focus on goals, feedback, and accomplishment to determine rewards describes what kind of leadership?

Transactional

What kind of project leader focuses on goals, feedback, and accomplishments to determine rewards?

Transactional, who lead by exception

Empowering followers through idealized attributes and behaviors, inspirational motivation, encouragement for innovation and creativity, and individual consideration describes what kind of leadership?

Transformational

Manage Quality is the process of...

Translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities that incorporate the organization's quality policies into the project

This kind of analysis examines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating

Trend analysis

T or F: Management reserve is not included in the schedule baseline

True, but it is part of the overall project duration requirements and may require a change to the schedule baseline depending on contract terms

" Quality management through the lens of Customer Satisfaction aims to...

Understand, evaluate, define, and manage requirements so that customer expectations are met

What adjustments to scheduling approaches should be taken for large organizations with a mixture of small projects and large initiatives? "

Use of scaling factors Utilize a range of techniques through predictive, adaptive, and/or hybrid approach.

8/80 Rule

Used when creating the work breakdown structure. The work package must take between eight and eighty labor hours to complete.

How can prototypes be used to support progressive elaboration?

Using iteration cycles of mock-up, user experimentation, feedback generation, and prototype revision

Techniques like measuring, examining, and verifying are used during what process

Validate Scope

Bringing objectivity to the acceptance process and increasing the probability of final product, service, or result acceptance by verifying each deliverable is a key benefit of what step in scope management?

Validate scope

If you have an EV=1.25, how much worth of performance are you getting for every dollar spent? Is that good or bad?

$1.25, which is a good thing

How can the contingency reserves be represented in the schedule?

% of estimated activity duration, or a fixed number of work periods

The range on a control chart is usually calculated based on ____ sigma

-3 or +3

What are the three dimensions of complexity? "

1) System behavior 2) Human behavior 3) Ambiguity

What is the equation for CPI?

CPI = EV/AC

T or F: Approved CRs should be left out of the scope baseline

FALSE

OPA

Organizational process assets

Team building is primarily the responsibility of the ___

PM

ROI

Return on investment

How are SPI, ES, and AT related?

SPI = ES/AT

Definition of project objectives

The measurable goals which must be met for project acceptability and success

DfX stands for

design for X

EI stands for

emotional intelligence

What does EMV stand for?

expected monetary value

EAC and ETC are examples of cost ____

forecasts

Resource smoothing results in more or less schedule flexibility?

less

PBM stands for

performance measurement baseline

PV stands for

planned value

Something that limits a PM's options in a project is called a ____

project constraint

ES

stands for earned schedule

What do control limits establish?

the natural capability for a stable process

____ is a systematic approach to finding less costly ways to complete the same work

value engineering

What kind of risk does this describe: productivity may be above or below target, the number of errors found during testing may be higher or lower than expected, or unseasonal weather conditions may occur during the construction phase.

Variability

In this type of quality check the result is rated on a continuous scale that measures the degree of conformity.

Variable sampling

In what kind of analysis could help the PM discover that a short delay on a critical path activity should get immediate attention above a long delay on activity not on the critical path?

Variance analysis because it considers dates, durations, and FLOAT

This type of analysis reviews the differences between planned and actual performance. Includes duration and cost estimates, resource utilization and rates, technical performance and other metrics

Variance analysis does this

_____ are project deliverables that are completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process

Verified deliverables,

How can total float become negative?

Violating a constraint or imposed date

What does VUCA stand for?

Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity, Ambiguity

This deliverable-oriented project document breakdown project scope

WBS

What document can the PM look at to find the scope baseline

WBS

When someone comes to you with an ethics violation allegation, what two pieces of the code of ethics should you consider? "

We bring violations of this Code to the attention of the appropriate body for resolution. We only file ethics complaints when they are substantiated by facts.

What do the following exemplify: Delaying a major component delivery, extending specific engineering durations, or introducing external factors like a strike or change in the permit process?

What-if scenarios

When might it be acceptable for a project to have a low grade but be of high quality?

When a product is appropriate for general purpose of use, with limited number of features

Law of diminishing returns

When one factor (ex. resources) used to determine the effort required to produce a unit of work is increased while other factors remained fixed, a point will eventually be reached at which additions of that one factor yield progressively smaller increases in output

When does a common problem with project risk management occur?

When project teams spend effort in identifying and analyzing risks and developing risk responses, then documenting risk responses in the risk register, BUT during the project no action is taken to manage the risks

" When is observation by job shadowing a good method to gather information

When someone is reluctant to articulate requirements or is having difficulty doing so

Management reviews

When the PM and relevant stakeholders review project progress to determine if performance is as expected or if preventative or corrective actions are needed

Escalate is not a favored choice when dealing with risk, but when is it chosen as a risk response strategy?

When the risk is outside of the PM's authority (even if the PM is large and in charge)

What are affinity diagrams used for?

When there is a high volume of ideas, stakeholders use this to cluster similar ideas together for future analysis

In what circumstances should you use leads in a schedule?

When you need to advance a successor activity with respect to the predecessor activity.

How are project managers different from functional or operations managers?

While Functional PMs focus on management oversight for a functional business unit, and Operations PMs focus on efficient operations, a PM is assigned to lead a team that is responsible for achieving project objectives

What makes this statement false: Identifying stakeholders is an initiating process that should be conducted and closed out very early in the project

While Identify Stakeholders happens early, it is CONTINUOUS, and therefore NOT closed out early in the project

The primary output(s) of the Control Resources process area is/are...

Work Performance Information

____ can include the degree of compliance with requirements, number of nonconformities, severity of nonconformities, or the number of validation cycles performed in a period of time

Work performance data

Work performance info, schedule forecasts, and cost forecasts are all inputted into the Monitor & Control Project Work process to produce...

Work performance reports and CRs

According to McGregor's theory, an assembly-line organization that monitors and measures every person's moves, subscribes to which theory?

X

When negotiating a cost-plus project, should you include your contingency reserves in the budget estimate?

Yes

When negotiating a cost-plus project, should you include your management reserves the budget estimate?

Yes

If a project is done in phases, the PM can conduct the Close Project or Phase process at the end of each phase. Does he have to conduct the Close Project or Phase process at the end of the project as well or is this redundant?

Yes, he has to do it at the end of each phase AND then AGAIN at the end of the project to handle closures like overall LLs and procurement closures

Can your Ex$V be positive or negative?

Yes, positive means it's an opportunity, negative means it's a negative risk

A charter should be issued, signed and updated by the project sponsor. Can the sponsor actually be a group of people?

Yes, single person or a single group

When do you have the right to reject a deliverable from one of your subcontractors?

You have the right to reject the deliverables if they fail to conform to the agreed standards.

How is quality factored in during cost management?

You must include the Cost of Quality

How are EVM and contingency reserves related?

You sum up the calculated expected monetary value of risk events to arrive at the amount you should keep in your contingency reserve

How long are milestone durations?

Zero, since they represent a significant point or event

What does it mean when you say "Systems are nonlinear in responsiveness"?

a change in the input does not produce a predictable change in the output

Procurements involves agreements describing the relationship between buyer and seller and can take the form of...

a contract, a service level agreement, an understanding, a memorandum of agreement, or a purchase order

project schedule network diagram

a graphical representation of the logical relationships (dependencies) among project schedule activities

Program (definition)

a group of related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities that are managed in a coordinated manner to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually

Definition of ROIC

a measure of how an organization uses money invested in a project, expressed as a percentage; basically "for every dollar of cash I invest in a project, how much should I expect (or did I earn) in return?"

Earned value graphs, trend lines and forecasts, reserve burndown charts, defect histograms, CPIs, and risk summaries could all be included in what kind of report?

a work performance report

A lead allows the _____ of the successor activity.

acceleration

The Smoothing technique in conflict management is also called ____

accommodating

The level of ____ specifies the acceptable range used in determining realistic activity duration estimates and may include an amount for contingencies

accuracy,

In a CPIF (Cost plus incentive fee) contract, the fee is calculated as a percentage of the ____

actual cost

The realized cost incurred for the work performed on an activity for a specific time is known as the ___ in EVA

actual cost

Variance analysis looks at variances between what factors?

actual start and finish dates, planned and actual durations, float

___ life cycle is known as change driven

adaptive

Why is it beneficial to include team members in the planning of a project

added expertise to the process, and strengthening of commitment

The ____ of all the work packages within the WBS make up the cost baseline

aggregated costs

Daily stand up meetings are characteristic of what project management methodology/approach

agile

Which project management approach is best when there is a need for complex decision making?

agile

In a _____ life cycle, the deliverables are developed over multiple iterations where ______ is defined and approved for each iteration when it begins

agile or adaptive, a detailed scope

If (ES-AT) > 0, then the project is

ahead of schedule

The matrix of the Responsibility Assignment Matrix shows...

all the activities associated with one person; and all the people associated with one activity

"Control resources" is the process of ensuring physical resources are _____, monitoring ____, and performing ____ as necessary

allocated, planned vs. actual use of resources, corrective action

Physical resource management is concentrated on _____ and _____ physical resources required for successful completion of the project in an efficient and effective way

allocating, utilizing

Examples of tests/inspections for software projects could include

alpha, beta, unit, integration, black-box, white-box, interface, or regression testing

best-case, worst-case, resource-leveled, not-resource-leveled, with or without imposed dates, are all examples of

alternative schedules

Considering levels of resource capability/skills, the sizes and types of machines, the use of different tools (manual/automated), and rent-or-buy decisions are all examples of what kind of data analysis technique when estimating activity resources?

alternatives analysis

The main kind of data analysis used as a tool or technique in the Estimate Activity Resources process is ____

alternatives analysis

This kind of data analysis allows the team to weigh resource, cost, and duration variables to determine an optimal approach for accomplishing project work

alternatives analysis

What kind of data analysis can be used in Control Resources?

alternatives analysis, cost-benefit analysis, performance reviews, trend analysis

Areas of the project where imperfect knowledge could affect a project's ability to achieve objectives contribute to what kind of risk?

ambiguity

Unknowns about the requirement or technical solution elements, future developments in regulatory framework, or inherent systematic complexity in the project contribute to what kind of risk?

ambiguity

What kind of risks are managed by defining those areas where there is a deficit of knowledge or understanding, then filling the gap by obtaining expert external input or benchmarking against best practices

ambiguity

Estimating activity durations requires estimates of what?

amount of work required to complete the activity; and the amount of resources available to complete the activity

Consideration of the amount of the organization's consumable resources that have been used is an example of...

an enterprise environmental factor

Earned schedule

an extension to the theory and practice of EVM.

The iteration burndown chart is used to analyze the variance with respect to ____, based on _____.

an ideal burndown, work committed from iteration planning

Individual project risk

an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives

(Prevention or Appraisal?) costs are related to evaluating, measuring, auditing, and testing the products, deliverables, or services of the specific product

appraisal

The cost of destructive testing is classified under what kind of cost?

appraisal costs

_____from the Perform Integrated Change control process are inputs of the Control Procurements

approved change requests

Name some outputs of performing integrated change control from a project integration management perspective

approved change requests, project management and document updates

Discretionary dependencies should be fully documented since they can create ____ values and can limit later scheduling options

arbitrary float

in an AON diagram what do the arrows mean

arrows describe dependency indicating the task flow from predecessor to successor

T or F: When a project enters a stage with high uncertainty around budget, when should the PM share news about the calculated TCPI?

as soon as it is known

Other than the Project Charter, what comes out of the Develop Project Charter process?

assumption log

What is the PM's most important responsibility regarding change management?

assuring that only approved change requests are added to the revised baseline

In agile, when are retrospectives held?

at the end of each iteration and release

Activity _____ are used for schedule development and for selecting, ordering, and sorting the planned activities in various ways within reports. Examples include unique IDs, WBS IDs, labels, predecessor and successor activities, logical relations, leads and lags

attributes

A risk ____ is an action to verify that all risks have been identified, that plans have been created to handle risks, and that the individuals responsible for responding to the risks are prepared to take action.

audit

___ measure how the risk management and risk response plans are working throughout the project

audits

In addition to assigning the PM, the project charter also describes the PM's _____ to apply resources and make decisions

authority

When only one person makes a decision for the group, the decision was

autocratic

When making decisions about acquiring resources, the PM should consider what factors for selection criteria

availability, ability, cost, experience, international factors, attitude, knowledge, and skills

Effective resource planning should consider and plan for ____ of or ____ for scarce resources

availability, competition

Although an extreme situation, shutting down a project constitutes a radical but legitimate risk _____ strategy

avoidance

Changing the project management plan to eliminate a threat posed by an adverse risk, isolating the project objectives from the risk's impacts, or relaxing the objective that is in jeopardy, such as by extending the schedule or reducing scope are examples of what kind of risk response strategy?

avoidance

What kind of power is the PM using by refusing to act, get involved, or make decisions?

avoiding power

In agile approaches, the requirements constitute the___

backlog

Gantt charts

bar charts used to represent schedule information where activities are listed in the vertical access and dates are shown on the horizontal axis, and activity durations are shown as horizontal bars placed according to start and finished dates

If (ES-AT) < 0, then the project is

behind schedule

_____ involves comparing actual or planned project practices or the project's quality standards to those of comparable projects

benchmarking

In this kind of estimating technique, the lower-level components of the WBS are aggregated to determine duration or cost

bottom-up estimating

A project ____ clearly separates what is excluded and included in a project

boundaries

When identifying risks, two tools/techniques are___ and ___

brainstorming, checklists

How can flowcharts be useful when understanding/estimating the cost of quality?

branching logic and associated relative frequencies can be used to estimate the expected monetary value for the conformance and nonconformance work required to deliver the expected conforming output

What kind of data representation is a hierarchical chart in which rankings are plotted on a X and Y axis and a third dimension is plotted using the size of the data point?

bubble chart

The basis of estimates, cost estimates, project schedule, and risk register are all project documents that should be inputted into creating the ____

budget

The project ____ shows costs and timelines for each work package or schedule activity

budget

BAC stands for

budget at completion

Requirements are often classified. What are some examples of requirements types?

business requirements, stakeholder requirements, solution requirements, transition and readiness requirements, project requirements and quality requirements

An increase or decline in _____ that an action produces is traditionally measured in terms of Customer Satisfaction, Revenue Growth, Profitability, Market Share, Wallet Share, Cross-Sell Ratio, Marketing Campaign Response Rates, or Relationship Duration

business value

Who creates the SOW in a buyer/seller relationship?

buyer

The ____ ratio is the ratio of the costs the buyer pays (ex. 80/20)

buyer's share

Beta distribution formula for three point estimation of cost

cE = (cO + 4cM + cP)/6

Triangular distribution formula for three point estimation of cost

cE = (cO + cM + cP)/3

A project (calendar or schedule?) identifies working days and shifts that are available for schedule activities

calendar

The ____ is the maximum price the buyer pays

ceiling price

The ____ is the function of the project management plan that includes standardized forms, reports, processes, procedures, and software to track and control changes

change control system

An approved _____ may be a corrective action, preventative action, defect repair, or update

change request,

Projects drive ____ and create ____

change; business value

Ability to inspire, high-energy, enthusiastic, self confidence, and holds strong convictions describes what kind of leadership?

charismatic

What kind of leadership is the PM using by being motivating, high-energy, and inspiring?

charismatic

____ are especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects (ex. data about frequencies or consequences of defects collected)

check sheets (tally sheets)

A ___ is a structured tool, usually component specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed or to validate that a list of requirements has been satisfied

checklist

Jane's group leads the first portion of development and John leads the second initiative. What must happen for Jane to hand-off her portion to John?

close project or phase; in this case, phase

The numbering system for each item in the WBS, following a logical numbering scheme, is known as

code of accounts

T or F: Projects with high variability benefit from team structures maximizing focus and (collaboration or independent work?)

collaboration; like organizing teams with generalizing specialists

Creating a "war room" for your project team is a tool called ____, used during Develop Team

colocation

What communications tool uses a formula to calculate communication paths?

communication requirement analysis

SharePoint, video and audio conferencing, email and chat are all examples of what tool used in Develop Team?

communication technology

The Control Quality process measures (what?) and is performed (when?)

completeness, compliance, and fitness for use; prior to user acceptance and final delivery

Project schedule development, including resource assignment, usually occurs no later than ____

completion of the project management plan

The ______ is the function of the project management plan that verifies that everyone knows the latest version of the project's scope, schedule, and other components.

configuration management plan

The _____ defines how stakeholders are allowed to submit CRs, conditions for approving CRs, how CRs are validated n the project scope, and also documents the characteristics and functions of the project's products and changes to its characteristics

configuration management system

The ______ is the function of the project management plan that contains the project management tools, processes, and procedures used to track and monitor the development of the project documentation.

configuration management system

The ____ is used to ensure that new base functionality does not break existing custom features and that changes are evaluated across all relevant versions of the project

configuration management system, which is contained in the PMIS

What happens when communication links are broken or undefined?

conflict will increase

Schedule milestones are treated as project ____

constraints

A project document details how networks, servers, workstations, and the people that interact with them are related. What is this document called?

context diagram

The project team decides to mitigate a technology risk by hiring an outside firm with expertise in that technology, but that decision is dependent on the outside firm meeting intermediate milestones related to that risk. This is an example of what risk response strategy?

contingent response strategy

Plan-do-check-act (PDCA), Total Quality Measurement (TQM), Six Sigma and Lean Six Sigma are all techniques for...

continual improvement

The formal verification of the contract completeness by the vendor and the performing organization is known as

contract closure

work package cost estimates and contingency reserves are aggregated into ____

control accents

The boundaries of a common variation in a statistically stable process or process performance are identified with ____

control limits

Inspection and product evaluations are part of what process

control quality

A _____ is an agreed-upon amount of variation allowed before some action needs to be taken

control threshold,

" _______ are the variance thresholds for monitoring schedule performance may be specified to indicate an agreed-upon amount of variation to be allowed before some action needs to be taken

control thresholds

This type of action is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of a project work with the project management plan

corrective

Management reserves are added to the _____ to create the project budget

cost baseline

The summation of the control accounts make up the ____

cost baseline

The ____ + the ___ = the project funding requirements

cost baseline, management reserve

The ____ + the ____ = the project budget

cost baseline, management reserve

what can be used to account for unknowns when the PM can anticipate rework may be required for some deliverables, but the amount of rework is unknown?

cost contingency reserves

What is reserve analysis used for in cost management

cost estimates normally include reserve amounts called contingencies as a buffer against slippage in a project

The ____ + the ____ = the cost baseline

cost estimates of all activities, contingency reserve

In a decision node, the input is the ____ and the output is a ____

cost of each decision, decision made

CPI < 1 indicates...

cost overrun for work completed

In the earned value management technique, the _____ is referred to as the performance measurement baseline

cost performance baseline

The _____ is an authorized time-phased budget at completion (BAC).

cost performance baseline

TCPI is a ration of

cost to finish the outstanding work to the remaining budget

CPI > 1 indicates...

cost under run of performance to date

____ is the amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between earned value and actual cost

cost variance (CV)

the ___ is equal to the earned value minus the actual cost

cost variance (CV)

This type of analysis is a financial analysis tool used to estimate the strengths and weaknesses of alternatives in order to determine the best alternative in terms of benefits provided

cost-benefit

______ analysis helps determine the best corrective action in terms of cost in case of project deviations

cost-benefit

Alternatives analysis

data analysis technique used to compare various levels of resource capability or skills; scheduling compressing; different tools; and rent/buy decision making re resources.

Check sheets (tally sheets)

data gathering tool that is used to organize facts in such a way that it will facilitate the effective collection of useful data about a potential quality problem

Flowcharting is a technique for what tool?

data representation

What is a stakeholder cube?

data representation technique used in Identify Stakeholders, which adds a third dimension to common models, such as influence and impact or power and interest

What kind of analysis maps out the possible outcome of related choices?

decision tree

The level of _____ when making a WBS, is often guided by the degree of control needed to effectively manage the project.

decomposition,

Asking the technical writing team to start editing a large document immediately after it is written is an example of

decreasing lag time

_______ is an intentional activity that modifies a nonconforming product or product component

defect repair

" The project scope statement is an output of...

defining scope through project scope management

Effective communication depends on what three things? "

defining the purpose of communication; understanding the receiver of the communications; monitoring effectiveness

A ____ estimate is being figured when a project manager uses a range of -5 to +10 percent from actual.

definitive

Why might a project cost estimate have a ROM estimate of -25% to +75% in June and a ROM estimate of -5% to +10% in December?

definitive estimates narrow as more information is known later in the project

____ are compared to acceptance criteria defined in the scope statement after work is complete.

deliverables

Logically manage project knowledge is done after ____ have been created, but before ____

deliverables, project or phase closes

mandatory or discretionary, internal or external characterize ____ in PDM

dependencies

Change management plan

describe show change requests throughout the project will be formally authorized and incorporated

Determining problems and identifying business needs; identifying and recommending viable solutions for those needs; eliciting, documenting, and managing stakeholder requirements; and facilitating successful implementation as a result of the project and product describe what kind of management?

describes project scope management

What are quality metrics

description of the attributes of the product or project.

A _____ statement of work is needed to convey the specific procedure or approach that should be used to complete the work.

design

Which of the following best describes a set of optimization guidelines that might be used and applied during the design phase of a project?

design for x

The Management Contingency Reserve is identified in the _____ process

determining budget

Cost aggregation is a tool/technique used during what cost management process?

determining the budget

The cost of PVC pipes in an aquaculture construction project is an example of ___ cost because ___

direct, it is billed directly to the project

____ are considered" soft or preferential logic" in PDM

discretionary dependencies

What are some factors the PM should consider when tailoring Project Resource Management?

diversity of team backgrounds; physical location of team members and physical resources; industry-specific resources; acquisition of team members; full/part-time team members; organizational tools available; life cycle approach decisions

Decision trees are used to show probability and arrive at a ____ associated with each risk

dollar amount

Why is $300 today worth more than the sum of three annual $100 payments?

due to the time value of money

When are the number of iterations or sprints in the release planned?

during agile release planning

In general ___ testing results in ___ cost

early, reduced; or late, increased

This type of analysis provides an integrated perspective on scope, schedule, and cost performance

earned value dues this

The _____ integrates the scope, cost, and schedule baseline to form the performance measurement baseline

earned value method

____ is the most important factor in project integration

effective communication

A key benefit of the Sequence Activities step is that it defines a logical sequence of work to obtain the greatest ____ given the projects ____

efficiency, constraints

" In adaptive or agile lifecycle, what does the PM do continuously to ensure that the product backlog reflects current needs?

engage stakeholders to provide feedback on deliverables

You add flights to a popular route during the holidays. What is your risk response strategy?

enhance

Examples of tests/inspections for manufacturing projects could include

environmental stress screening, burn-in test, system testing

What are the 5 strategies for dealing with risk threats?

escalate, avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept

What are the 5 strategies for responding to risk opportunities?

escalate, exploit, share, enhance, accept

The resource requirements, basis of estimates, resource breakdown structure, and project document updates are all outputs of what process?

estimate activity resources

EAC stands for

estimate at completion

Activity cost estimates are inputs to what cost management process?

estimate costs

In which process do you perform reserve analysis?

estimate costs

ETC stands for

estimate to complete

In a Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee (CPIF) contract, the fee is based on the estimated cost or the actual cost?

estimated cost

"Estimate Activity Resources" is the process of...

estimating TEAM resources and the TYPE and QUANTITIES of material, equipment, and supplies necessary to perform project work

Activity attributes and lists assumptions, cost estimates, resource calendars, and risks are all inputs for what process?

estimating activity resources

Positive or negative variances from the planned funding requirements must be _____ so that _____ may be taken

evaluated, corrective actions

what enterprise environmental factors might affect determining the budget?

exchange rates, multiple currencies and fluctuation of currencies

Stakeholder ___, ___ and ____ are the key factors that are considered during stakeholder analysis.

expectations, influence, interest

A PM with decades of experience as a programmer has the ability to use what kind of leadership power over his junior project team?

expert

Personnel specializing in talent management and personnel development bring what to the table for the Plan Resource Management group?

expert judgment

Personnel with experience in identifying risks for resource acquisition, retention, and release bring what to the table for the Plan Resource Management group?

expert judgment

This is an example of what kind of dependency: Governmental environmental hearings must be held before site construction of a project

external dependency

The costs of defects collected as a result of consumer questionnaires/surveys after deployment of the product or service would be considered what kind of costs?

failure costs

____ are called the cost of poor quality

failure costs

T or F: The risk management plan includes a list of risks

false! That's the risk register

T or F: When a PM delegates work to a team member, the PM should tell the team member the steps for completing a task

false! The team member should have the freedom to explore the best steps to achieve the objectives

In agile release planning, the iteration plans schedule _____

feature development,

Iteration plans contain ____ which are developed through tasks, created to deliver user stories

features,

What are some challenges of a virtual team?

feelings of isolation, gaps in knowledge and experience sharing, difficulties tracking progress and productivity, time zone issues, cultural differences

Examples of tests/inspections for engineering could include

field tests and nondestructive tests

What is the primary goal of procurement negotiations?

final equitable settlement of all outstanding issues, claims, and disputes

Name some outputs of closing a project or phase from a project integration management perspective

final product/service/result, final report, project document and organizational process assets updates

the intent of testing is to...

find errors, defects, bugs, or other nonconformance problems in the product or service

The cost of renting a bulldozer is an example of____ cost because ____

fixed, it remains the same for the life of a project

What diagram shows the activities, decision points, branching loops, parallel paths, and overall order of processing by mapping details of procedures that exist within a horizontal value chain?

flow charts or process maps

This tool helps to uncover failing processes. Ex to determine if a specific department is at fault or if problems exist in the handoff between departments

flowcharting

Manage Quality is primarily concerned with...

following quality standards on a project

What kind of power is also known as positional power because it's based on the position/role/title of the leader?

formal

What kind of communication is the Project Management Plan

formal, written

According to the Tuckman ladder of development, the stage during which the least amount of work gets done is usually the ___ phase

forming

Promote lists can be used as a ____ to aid in the project team in idea generation when identifying risks

framework

A _____ statement of work is needed to convey the end purpose or result.

functional

This kind of analysis studies the goals of the product, how it will be used, and the customer's expectations of the product when it moves into operations

functional

With whom might the PM need to negotiate when acquiring resources?

functional managers, other project management teams in the organization, external orgs and suppliers

In what type of environment do PMs have little to no power because each employee reports to a clear functional manager for an independent department?

functional structure

The determined budget in relation to project scope that (optional) could be qualified by +/-10% is known as the

funding limit

Is a project with a BCR>1 good or bad?

good

Problem-solving is also known as "confrontation" in conflict management. Is this a good or bad thing?

good

The ____ framework of an organization addresses alignment to vision, risk management, performance factors, and communication

governance

Project organization charts show

graphical display of the project team members and their reporting relationships

Activities with divergence or convergence indicate ____ as they are affected by or can affect multiple activities

greater risk

A ___ chart format may be used to represent high level roles, while a ____ chart format may be better suited to document detailed responsibilities

hierarchical, text-based

What does agile release planning provide?

high level summary of the timeline of the release schedule (typically 306mo) based on the project roadmap and product vision for the product's evolution

what is a probability that an activity will take 3wks or less if there is a 15% probability of exceeding 3wks?

high, 85%

What could be included in the basis of estimates documentation? "

how was the estimate developed? Assumptions made known constraints range of estimates confidence level in final estimate individual project risks influencing this estimate

Strategic alignment

how well the project benefits align to the business strategies of the organization

Stakeholder Analysis, including figuring out a person's level of influence, is a tool used in which stakeholder process?

identify stakeholders

Using expert judgment and stakeholder analysis to further understand the roles of the staff the team will be working with during the project is part of what process?

identify stakeholders

_____ is the process of identifying project stakeholders regularly and analyzing and documenting relevant information regarding their interest, involvement, interdependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success.

identify stakeholders

Project Resource Management includes the processes to _____, _____, and ____ the resources needed for successful completion of the project

identify, acquire, manage

"Develop team" is the process of...

improving COMPETENCIES, team member INTERACTION, and the overall ENVIRONMENT to enhance project performance

Cost estimates are usually given in units of currency, but how else might they be expressed and why?

in hours or days, to facilitate comparisons by eliminating effects of currency fluctuations

Self-awareness and self-management are examples of what?

inbound/personal emotional intelligence

What project approach is best if you must make a final and complete delivery, but the stakeholders want to see progress throughout the project?

incremental

The cost of air conditioning an office space is known as what kind of cost?

indirect

In what levels does project risk exist?

individual and overall

Team members operate best when their individual levels of authority match their...

individual responsibilities

To _____ an organization (to get things done), a project manager must understand the explicit and implied organizational system within an organization

influence

This type of diagram is a data analysis tool which depicts the actors or entities, influences, and possible outcomes

influence diagram

What project management skill is useful when the PM doesn't have a lot of formal authority?

influencing

CV, SV, SPI, CPI, TCPI, and VAC are all examples of work performance ____

information

Work performance ____ provides a basis for identification of current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements.

information

Organizational theory provides...

information regarding the way in which people, teams, and organizational units behave

What kind of power does a PM have by controlling the data gathering and distribution of information?

informational

What kind of power is the PM using when he flatters stakeholders in order to gain favor with the project team?

ingratiating

Deciding which managers within your company should receive project status updates is done in what process group?

initiating (identify stakeholders)

Is procurement documentation an input or output of Conduct Procurements?

input

" The project charter, project management plan, EEFs, OPAs are all ____ in the Plan Schedule Management process

inputs,

Reviews, product reviews, and walkthroughs are types of ___ during the ___ step in scope management

inspection, validate scope

The process to consider and control the impact of a proposed change on the project's knowledge areas is called

integrated change control

Effective project _____ usually has a focus on effective communication at key interface points.

integration

What project approach is best if the scope can be defined early but time and cost estimates might change?

integrative

Projects and PM are _____ by nature, with most tasks involving more than one _____.

integrative, knowledge area

Combination of transactional, transformational, and charismatic describes what kind of leadership?

interactional

What kind of leader holds the team accountable for results but is still excited about the project work and wants the team to act?

interactional

IRR

internal rate of return

____ resources are assigned or acquired from functional or resource managers, where as ___ resources are procured

internal, external

The optimal COQ reflects the appropriate balance for _____ and ____

investing in prevention costs, appraising to avoid future costs

____ are unresolved problems; we document them in the ___

issues, issue log

Why should the PM try to move the team out of Tuckman's storming phase as quickly as possible?

it can be destructive if the team cannot move past normal disagreements or differences of opinion

Why is WPI different from work performance data?

it has undergone some analysis or processing

why is the quality management plan an input for the Plan Resource Management process group?

it helps define the level of resources needed to achieve and maintain the defined metrics and quality level for a project

Why does delivering all work packages on time and on budget indicate project success?

it indicates success in the big 3: scope, schedule, and cost

Why should cost management planning effort occur early in the project planning?

it sets the framework for each cost management process so that performance of the processes can be efficient and coordinated

how does regression analysis work?

it uses a mathematical model to examine the relationship among project variables like cost, time, labor, and other project metrics

What date range does a range of 2wks plus or minus 2 days mean for an activity ?

it will take at least 8 days, and not more than 12 (assuming a 5 fay week)

What are some outcomes of a sprint/iteration planning meeting in the agile approach?

iteration backlog, assumptions, concerns, risks, dependencies, decisions, and actions

In agile release planning, the release plan establishes the _____

iterations,

What project approach is ideal if you need to create a single final deliverable but there is the potential for certain features to be very complex to create

iterative

In ____ life cycle projects, a high-level vision will be developed for the overall project, but the detailed scope is determined ___ at a time, and the detailed planning for the next ____ is carried out as work progresses on the current project scope and deliverables

iterative, iteration, iteration

Project Risk management processes should be conducted ____ because risks will continue to emerge during the lifetime of the project

iteratively

Are contingency reserves and management reserves part of the cost baseline?

just contingency reserves

Does the project charter contain the schedule?

just the high-level milestone view

Does the project charter contain project requirements?

just the high-level ones

Does the project charter contain the budget?

just the summary-level preliminary project budget

JIT stands for

just-in-time manufacturing (resource methodology)

What is included in configuration identification?

labeling components, how changes are made to the product, and the accountability of the changes

The resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical representation of resources by category and type. Examples of categories include...

labor, material, equipment supplies

Allowing the team to make their own decisions and establish their own goals; hands-off style describes what kind of leadership

laissez-faire

What kind of leader is "hands-off," giving the project team autonomy, but runs the risk of the leader seeming absent?

laissez-faire

(Lead or lag) time is often represented as a negative value in scheduling software

lead

Analogous estimating is generally (more or less?) costly, time-consuming, and accurate than other duration estimating techniques?

less

SPI <1 indicates...

less work was completed than was planned

LoE stands for

level of effort

What kind of mathematical models are used to determine the likeliness of project success?

linear, nonlinear, dynamic, integer, and multi-objective programming

A time-scaled schedule network diagram is often called ____

logic bar chart

_____ give a visual representation of an organization's data, described in business language and independent of any specific technology.

logical data models

If given the choice to pursue a high quality low grade product or a low quality high grade product, which is generally the better option?

low grade, high quality

What important step is needed when choosing to Escalate a risk

make sure hand-off of risk responsibility is clearly documented

Work performance reports are distributed to the stakeholders by the _____ process

manage communications

What process leverages lessons learned fro previous projects and benefits the performing organization so it can hold on to the LLs of this project?

manage project knowledge

Quality audits are used as a tool in which process?

manage quality

Remember that audits are a tool of what process?

manage quality

the Issue Log and Stakeholder Engagement Plan are inputs in the____ process

manage stakeholder engagement

Project Quality Management addresses the ____ and ____ of the project, and applies to all projects regardless of the nature of their deliverables.

management, deliverables

____ are considered" hard logic" in PDM

mandatory dependencies

What project selection method determines the likelihood of success using math and programming?

mathematical model

The _____ section of the project charter describes how the project ties into the organization's strategic goals, while the _____ section describes why the project is being done

measurable project objectives, business case

What do performance reviews do?

measure, compare, and analyze the planned quality metrics against actual results

Quality ____ and ____ are specific to the type of deliverables being produced by the project

measures, techniques

Examples of Communications avenues

meetings, presentations, emails, social media, project reports, project documentation

The resource basis of estimates might include...

method and resources used to develop estimate, assumptions, known constraints, range of estimates, confidence in the estimate, documented risks

Early commitment to clear guidelines in the team charter decreases ___ and increases ___

misunderstandings, productivity

Having your project team members record the time they spend on different activities during the day, such as programming, electrical, HVAC, etc. is a tool or technique used in what project management process

monitor and control project work

Quality reports, risk register, and risk report are all inputs to what process?

monitor and control project work

Schedule forecasts, work performance information, and agreements are all inputs to what process?

monitor and control project work

The assumption log, basis of estimates, and cost forecasts are inputs to what process?

monitor and control project work

The issue log, LLs, and milestone list are all inputs to what process?

monitor and control project work

This process looks at how the overall project is progressing and takes corrective action as needed through change requests

monitor and control project work

Which integration process turns work performance information into work performance reports?

monitor and control project work

Work performance reports come out of what process?

monitor and control project work

You trim the scope of your project's first release because your project is trending late. What process are you performing?

monitor and control project work

Your project is trending ahead of schedule, so you reduce the number of resources you are using. What process are you performing?

monitor and control project work

In which process group does the PM adjust the stakeholder engagement plan?

monitor stakeholder engagement

Maintaining or increasing the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder activities is a benefit of what process?

monitor stakeholder engagement

Tailoring strategies for engaging stakeholders through modification of engagement strategies and plan is part of what process

monitor stakeholder engagement

The following changes are examples of adjustments made during what process: less frequent or more frequent communication with stakeholders, different forms of reporting, moving roles and responsibilities

monitor stakeholder engagement

In ____ analysis, risk and other sources of uncertainty are used to calculate possible schedule outcomes for the project

monte carlo analysis

SPI >1 indicates...

more work was completed than was planned

A prioritization matrix is an example of what kind of decision analysis tool

multi-criteria decision analysis

The ____ is a decision making technique used during Acquire Resources to objectively score potential candidates or resources on the various factors that matter most in the project using a weighted matrix

multi-criteria decision analysis

Using a _____ tool, criteria are developed and used to rate or score potential resources (ex. Choosing between internal/external resources)

multi-criteria decision analysis

In this kind of project environment structure, organizations duplicate efforts across departments.

multi-divisional structure

This technique helps find the possible accelerated ways of bringing a delayed schedule back on track

negative float

The following is an example of the PM using what interpersonal skill?: convincing a functional manager about the high visibility of a project may influence him/her to assign the best resources to your project over competing ones

negotiation

The ____ evaluates the monies returned on a project for each period the project lasts

net present value

When a PM enjoys coercive powers, what kind of facilitator does it seem likely he will assign for meetings

neutral

What technique encourages participants to generate as many ideas as possible, which are ranked by a voting process?

nominal group

Acquire Resources is the process of...

obtaining team members, facilities, equipment, materials, supplies and other resources necessary to complete project work

Your project evolves the product incrementally in operational or sustainment environments, and has tasks that can be made relatively similar in size and scope or can be bundled by size and scope, so (on-demand or iterative?) scheduling is recommended

on-demand is preferred

A hierarchically organized depiction of the project organization arranged to relate the work packages to performing organizational units is an example of an _____

organizational breakdown structure

Personnel administration like employee training records are an example of (EEF, OPA, LL, or stakeholder register)

organizational process asset example

relationship management is an example of

outbound emotional intelligence

The schedule management plan is an ____ of the Project Schedule Management process

output,

Alternatives analysis and cost-benefit analysis are ways to deal with what kind of project risk?

overall

Audits are focused on ___ risk management, so they're more about top-down processes than individual risks

overall

Cost per square footage and 4hrs per widget are examples of what kind of technique?

parametric estimating

What kind of cost estimating is used for linear or scalable projects?

parametric estimating

How are control thresholds usually expressed

percentage deviations from the parameters established in the baseline plan

Change control meetings occur during which process

perform integrated change control

"A _____ statement of work is needed to convey what the final product should be able to accomplish. "

performance

Earned value analysis compares the _____ to the actual schedule and cost performance

performance measurement baseline

The PM's role switches from leader to overseer/delegator in which rung of Tuckman's ladder

performing

The five needs in Maslow's hierarchy of needs are

physiological, security, acceptance, esteem, self-actualization

The cost baseline is used to compare ____ with ____

planned cost, actual cost

The cost management plan details how costs will be....

planned for, estimated, budgeted, and then monitored and controlled

At the ____ the seller assumes the cost overruns beyond a certain point

point of total assumption

Risks

potential challenges or roadblocks that could happen to slow/prevent realization of benefits

When physical or team resources for a project are determined in advance, they are considered...

pre-assigned

Every activity except the first and last should be connected to at least one___ and at least one ___ activity with an appropriate logical relationship

predecessor, successor

What kind of power is the PM using by restricting choices in order to get the team to perform and do the project work?

pressure-based

This type of action is an intentional activity that ensure the future performance of the project work is aligned with the IPMP

preventative

An action that will ensure future compliance is called a(n) _____

preventative action

Recommended changes to eliminate or reduce the probability of negative schedule variances are examples of...

preventative actions

Which is better when managing quality: prevention or inspection?

prevention

What does PIM stand for?

probability impact matrix

identify, define, investigate, analyze, solve, and check describe...

problem solving approach

The ______ is the function of the project management plan that entails the efforts put forth to improve the existing processes during the project.

process improvement plan

Quality control measurements are used to analyze and evaluate the quality of ___ against ____.

processes and deliverables; standards or requirements

student syndrome

procrastination--when people start to apply themselves only at the last possible moment before the deadline

The PM should ensure that all procurements meet the specific needs of the project while working with _________ to ensure organizational policies are followed

procurement specialists

Status reports from a contracted vendor are called ____ and are outputs of the ____ process

procurement, Control Procurements

____ decisions involve evaluating the life cycle cost, schedule, stakeholder satisfaction, and risks associated with defects

product

Product breakdown, requirements analysis, systems engineering, value analysis, and value engineering are what kind of techniques?

product analysis

What kind of analysis includes asking questions about a product or service and forming answers to describe the use, characteristics, and other relevant aspects of what is going to be delivered?

product analysis

Examples of product analysis techniques include...

product breakdown, requirements analysis, systems analysis, systems engineering, value analysis, value engineering

Examples of tests/inspections for manufacturing projects could include

product inspection

In agile release planning the _____ drives the Product Roadmap, which drives the _____

product vision, release plans

On-demand scheduling works to balance what?

progress in order, against the team's delivery throughput

Choosing among different implementation scenarios or suppliers is an example of a (project or product?) decision?

project

The _____ has a preliminary list of project stakeholders and can be used as a starting point to bring stakeholders onboard

project charter

Plan cost management, estimate costs, determine budget, and control costs processes are part of...

project cost management

When the PM asks, "How will the presence of project complexity, technological uncertainty, product novelty, pace, or progress impact the desired level of control?" she is considering (resource availability, project dimensions, or technology support?) when tailoring her schedule management

project dimensions

What is an output of the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

project documents updates

____ may be used to define processes used across the project and to rate the PM's performance

project governance

The ___ is a formal approved document that defines how the project will be managed, executed, and controlled

project management plan

Completion of project scope is measured against ____, while completion of the product scope is measured against _____

project management plan, product requirements

What does the project scope statement contain?

project requirements, describing deliverables, objectives, boundaries, and acceptance criteria

What document can be used as a tool for communication, managing stakeholder expectations, and a basis for performance reporting

project schedule

PM analyzes activity sequences, duration, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project _____ model for project execution and monitoring and controlling

project schedule,

Acceptance criteria is defined in what document in which process?

project scope statement, Define Scope process

What three documents are included in the scope baseline

project scope statement, WBS, WBS dictionary

Constrained optimization uses programming and is a method for...

project selection

If a serious conflict arises between the PM and customer, who may be called upon to help resolve it?

project sponsor

Who pays for the project?

project sponsor

The project charter is written by the ____ and/or ____

project sponsor, customer

Guidance of how project team resources should be defined, staffed, managed and eventually released are part of...

project team resource management

In what project environment do team members sometimes "work themselves out of a job" with no where to go after the project is over

projectized

____ are used by the project team as a tool to help facilitate a risk review, and help team members think of types or risks they might otherwise forget

prompt lists

____ is the measure of how important the project's stakeholders perceive the risk to be. The lower the better.

propinquity

____ is a method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a model of the expected product before actually building it

prototyping

To develop the project team, how can the PM create a good environment that facilitates teamwork and continually motivates the team?

providing challenges and opportunities, timely feedback and support, and recognizing and rewarding good performance?

____ is how much time you have before the risk impacts your project goals. The lower the better

proximity

Certain types of project schedule network diagrams are also called ____because ____

pure logic diagrams because they show no time

The Manage Quality process is sometimes called

quality assurance

A PM meeting with the sponsor to review project results to date and determining if the project team is fulfilling the established quality requirements describes what tool in what process?

quality audit, manage quality

What elements should be included in a quality report?

quality issues; recommendations for improvement or corrective action; summary of findings from control quality process

A ____ describes a project or product attribute and how the Control Quality process will verify compliance to it.

quality metric

Percentage of tasks completed on time, cost performance measured by CPI, failure rate, number of defects identified per day, total downtime per month, and customer satisfaction scores are all examples of...

quality metrics

What's included in the quality baseline?

quality objectives including stakeholder acceptance metrics for a deliverable

What are the project competing constraints? Which three are the part of the iron triangle?

quality, scope, schedule, cost, resources, and risk. Scope, Schedule, and Cost are the main ones or triple constraints

The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements describes ______. Whereas, the category assigned to deliverables having the same functional use by different technical characteristics describes ______. The PM manages tradeoffs associated with delivering both.

quality; grade

What are activity cost estimates?

quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work

In agile, what is a "spike"?

rapid experiment to determine the best way to proceed when a question arises

A risk _____ is an action taken to periodically review and adjust the documentation of the risk management plan and risk register.

reassessment

Quality audits should result in a ____ cost of quality because ____

reduced, likelihood of customer acceptance of the project's product will increase

What kind of power is based on a person's credibility in an organization; a person who is well respected and admired has this power

referent

___ power is a form of power that is based on respect or charismatic personality of the manager

referent

What kind of analysis examines the relationship between project variables like cost, time labor, etc.

regression analysis

you are offered a job that requires bribing officials to obtain licenses. What should you do?

reject the job offer since it requires illegal activity

The X in DfX can be different aspects of product development including...

reliability, deployment, assembly, service, usability, quality, etc.

The role of the PM in agile projects is to...

remove obstacles and facilitate communication

Beta and triangular distributions are _____ and represent probability

representations of uncertainty

Project ____ are often prioritized as "must have" or "should have" or "like to have"

requirements

____ describes how individual requirements meet the business need for the project.

requirements documentation

Other than the scope management plan, what does the Plan Scope Management process produce?

requirements management plan

The _____ links the project requirements with the deliverables that satisfy them in order to focus on final outcomes

requirements traceability matrix

A ____ analysis is a review of the project's financial resources to compare the current balance against the projected amount needed.

reserve

This kind of analysis is used to account for schedule uncertainty

reserve analysis

____ alerts the PM if the reserves fall below a threshold

reserve analysis

When the PM asks, "What is the correlation between available resources and their productivity?" she is considering (resource availability, project dimensions, or technology support?) when tailoring her schedule management

resource availability

" The ____ provides a hierarchical structure of the identified resources by category and type

resource breakdown structure

The ___ is hierarchical, graphical, and logically arranged from top to bottom to organize the resources by category and type

resource breakdown structure

The ____ is a hierarchical list of team and physical responsibilities related by category and resource type that is used for planning, managing and controlling project work

resource breakdown structure

Which output of Conduct Procurements is an input to Develop Schedule?

resource calendars

What is the most important output of Acquire Resources

resource calendars so they can be used to make a schedule and the schedule is a key component of project success

If resources are over-allocated or overloaded what scheduling technique needs to be applied?

resource leveling

When shared or critically required resources are only available at certain times or in limited qualities what kind of resource optimization is needed

resource leveling, to balance the demand for resources within the available supply

The _____ identify type and quality of resources required for each work package/activity in a work package and can be aggregated to determine the estimated resources for each work package, each WBS branch, and the project as a whole

resource requirements

Resource histogram shows

resource requirements by time period

" Kaizen, Total Productive Maintenance, and Theory of Constraints are all new and popular methods created to deal with...

resource scarcity

Alternative analysis for cost management can include...

reviewing strategic funding options (self-funding, funding with equity, funding with debt...); or considering different ways of acquiring resources (making, purchasing, renting, leasing...)

What is management by exception?

rewarding or punishing top and bottom performers

The Risk Breakdown Structure would appear in what document?

risk management plan

Roles and responsibilities for the team and other project stakeholders are documented in the _____ during the _____ process

risk management plan, plan risk management

A list of risks would appear in what document?

risk register

The ___ is a centralized database containing the outcome of all other risk management processes like risk identification, qualitative and quantitative analysis

risk register

The ____ contains a list of all risks, their causes, and any possible responses to those risks that can be identified at the point of creating this document

risk register

The ____contains the results of the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, and Plan Risk Responses processes.

risk register

After you Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis what is the most important project document to update?

risk report

What subsidiary plan defines risk responses that should be used for both positive and negative risks?

risk response plan

In (waterfall or roll wave planning?) work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work further in the future is planned at a higher level.

roll wave planning

Waiting until the deliverable or subcomponent is agreed upon so the details of the WBS can be developed is a technique known as

roll wave planning technique

What iterative planning technique plans the work to be accomplished in the near term in detail, and plans work in the future at a higher level?

rolling wave planning

When all ____ are removed, the problem does not reoccur

root causes

ROM

rough order of magnitude

Rules for establishing % complete, EVM techniques, SV, and SPI are all examples of...

rules of performance measurement

An ___ shows the cumulative probability distribution showing probability of achieving any particular outcome or less

s-curve

____ and tabular formats can be used to represent earned value analysis data

s-curve

The ____ is used to analyze classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).

salience model

The following methodologies are reactions to what project influence: Lean management, just-in-time manufacturing, Kaizen, total productive maintenance, and the theory of constraints?

scarcity of critical resources

Controlling the schedule is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and to manage changes to the _____

schedule baseline

The planned start and finish of the project is known as the...

schedule baseline

When MPs approve overtime, add resources, or pay for expedited delivery what are they doing to the schedule

schedule crashing

The ____ is based on the project's past performance, and are used to determine if the project is within defined tolerance ranges for a schedule, and to identify any necessary change requests

schedule forecast,

Specific dates that a project customer has for completion of project phases are called

schedule milestones

What technique identifies ES, LS, EF, and LF for uncompleted portions of project activities?

schedule network analysis

If a critical path has high-risk activities or long lead times, this might necessitate the use of...

schedule reserves or the implementation of risk responses

the comparison of what was planned and what was experienced in the schedule is called the

schedule variance

____ is a measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned and planned value

schedule variance SV)

Creation of the RTM is part of what kind of management

scope

Despite the name, what is the primary output of the Develop WBS process?

scope baseline

What process is happening when project deliverables are formally inspected in order to obtain acceptance

scope validation

What kind of model is being used when values are assigned to profitability, complexity, customer demand, etc.?

scoring models

____ teams are staffed with interchangeable team members known as generalizing specialists rather than individual experts

self-organizing

It is the role of _____ to prioritize projects and ensure the PM has adequate power and access to resources

senior management

Commitment to serve and put other people first; focusing on other people's worth, learning, development, autonomy, and well-being; concentrating on relationships and community describes what kind of leadership?

servant-leader

How long are the cycles to undertake work, review results, a and adapt as necessary in an adaptive approach

short, to provide rapid feedback on approaches and suitability of deliverables

What kind of power can come about unexpectedly when there is a void in leadership

situational power

The resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical representation of resources by category and type. Examples of types include...

skill level, grade level, required certifications

The work breakdown package is the ____ item in the WBS

smallest

The Units of Measure for each resource could come in the form of ___ for time measures, or ____ for quantity measures "

staff hours, staff days, weeks; meters, liters, tons, cubic yards

teams that successfully develop EI result in a reduction of...

staff turnover

After you gather stakeholder expectations and influence levels to ensure their voice is heard and proper communication needs is planned for, you document this information in the ____

stakeholder engagement plan

What project documents should a new PM look at when she wants to understand stakeholder expectations of an in-progress project she just inherited?

stakeholder register and communications management plan

Which of the following areas of the project charter describes what requirements are related to both the project and the product scope?

stakeholder requirements

what is formula for standard deviation on a PERT estimate

standard deviation on a PERT estimate is (Pessimistic - Optimistic) / 6.

How are control limits determined?

standard statistical calculations and principles

JAD

stands for joint application design/development

QFD

stands for quality function deployment

Selecting 10 engineering drawings at random from a list of 75 is an example of what kind of data gathering?

statistical sampling

____ is how likely the risk event is to impact the organization's strategic goals. The lower the better

strategic impact

Communications includes developing _____ for suitable communication artifact and the application of _____ to enhance effectiveness.

strategies; skills

Examples of tests/inspections for construction projects could include

strength and workability tests, nondestructive tests at sites, soil tests

What should you do with completed deliverables not accepted by the customer?

submit a change request for defect repair

What does SIPOC stand for and what is it?

suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers (value chain model)

A ___ incorporates all the formal procedures and tools put in place to manage something

system

What project scope statement creation process analyzes how a system will work, designs/creates a model, and then enacts the working system based on project goals?

systems engineering

"Know how" is an example of what kind of knowledge

tacit

"know how" is what kind of knowledge

tacit

The ____ is the estimated cost of the project without profit

target cost

The ____ is the seller's profit

target fee

The ____ is the target cost plus the target fee

target price

Team values, communication guidelines, decision-making criteria and processes, conflict resolution processes, meeting guidelines, and team agreements can all be found in what project document>

team charter

What factors should the PM be aware of that can influence team resources?

team environment, geographical location of team members, communication among stakeholders, organizational change management, internal and external politics, cultural issues, an organizational uniqueness

"Manage team" is the process of tracking____, providing ____, resolving ____, and managing team _____ to optimize project performance

team member performance, feedback, issues, changes

Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating...

team resources and the type and quantity of materials/equipment/supplies needed

When a PM for a roadway construction project measures the specific lengths of road with what they had planned to have completed at a point in time, what kind of analysis is he doing?

technical performance

" A project is a _____ endeavor, undertaken to ______

temporary; create a unique product, service, or result

What documents could a PM consult when performing data analysis to manage quality?

test, test, or performance reports; variance analysis

This kind of resource planning tool includes detailed information including names, responsibilities, authorities, competencies, and qualifications, etc.

text-oriented formats

control account

the WBS component used for the project cost accounting

Benefits owner

the accountable person to monitor record, and report realized benefits

Lag time

the amount of time a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity

free float

the amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any successor or violating a schedule constraint

Who is responsible for providing a formal notice that a contract has been completed

the buyer

Quality metrics are used as a basis for ____

the development of test scenarios for the project and its deliverables; or of improvement initiatives

Project Management Plan

the document that describes how the project will be executed monitored and controlled

Project Cost Management is primarily concerned with the cost of resources needed to complete the project, but should also consider...

the effect of project decisions on subsequent recurring costs of using, maintaining, and supporting project deliverables

overall project risk

the effect of uncertainty on the project as a whole, arising from all sources of uncertainty including individual risks, representing the exposure of stakeholders to the implications of variations in the project outcome, both positive and negative

What does the SPI using earned schedule metrics indicate

the efficiency with which work is being accomplished.

" What process are you performing when you are following the project management plan to create deliverables

the executing process, Direct and Manage Project Work

What's the difference between what we call equipment/materials/facilities vs. human resources?

the first are physical, the second are human

How are the change management plan and configuration management plan different?

the first defines how changes to the project will be allowed and managed; the second is a subsidiary plan defining how changes to the features and functions of project deliverables will be monitored and controlled within the project

How are the measurable project objectives different from the business case when included in the project charter?

the first describes how the project ties into the organization's strategic goals, while the second describes why the project is being done

Prevention vs. inspection

the first is about keeping errors out of the process; and the second is about keeping errors out of the hands of the customer

How is PV and NPV different for a project?

the first is how much the future project value is worth now, and the second is the same but factors in the cost of the project

What's the difference between a change control board and a change control system?

the first is the committee of people who evaluate the worthiness of a proposed change and approves/rejects it; the second communicates the process for controlling changes to the deliverables

Level of precision vs. level of accuracy

the first is the degree to which the cost estimates can be ROUNDED up or down based on scope of activates and magnitude of the project; and the second is the acceptable RANGE used in determining realistic cost estimates and can include an amount for contingencies

How are context and affinity diagrams different

the first shows the relationship between elements of an environment (ex network, servers, workstations) and the second is a tool used when to organize a large volume of ideas by clustering similar ideas together for future analysis

Asking the landscaping to start before the exterior work of the building is completed can be represented in the schedule by increasing

the lead time,

How much float does the critical path have relative to other schedule paths?

the least

In Project Schedule Management, planning an appropriate balance between _________ and the amount of time it takes to keep the schedule up-to-date needs to be reached for each project.

the level of detail needed to manage the schedule

Directing, Coaching, Facilitating, and Supporting describes...

the natural progression of leadership approach over the course of a project

Training as a tool used in the Develop Team process should be paid for by...

the performing organization or functional manager, NOT the customer or the project

Who is responsible for ensuring the data that is collected, analyzed, and distributed is accurate and timely?

the pm

The PM may use the statistically calculated control limits to identify____ to prevent performance that remains outside the control limits

the points at which corrective action will be taken

Estimate activity duration

the process of estimating the number of work periods needed to complete individual activities with estimated resources

Sequence activities

the process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities

Completion of the product scope is measured against ________.

the product requirements

Completion of the project scope is measured against ________.

the project management plan

conformance to requirements means...

the project produces what it was created to produce

The key benefit of this process is that it provides guidance and direction on how scope will be managed throughout the process

the project scope management processes

Attributes associated with each requirement can be recorded in what document?

the requirements traceability matrix

In control charts, upper and lower specification limits are based on ___ and reflect _____

the requirements; max and min values allowed

The use of top-down approach, organization-specific guidelines, and the use of templates are all methods to create ____

the work breakdown structure

TOC stands for

theory-of-constraints (resource methodology)

On-demand scheduling is based on what theory and scheduling concepts?

theory-of-constraints and pull-based scheduling concepts from lean manufacturing to limit a team's work

Why is collaboration critical to the success of highly variable projects?

these projects involve rapid changes where there is less time for centralized tasking and decision making

Why are change requests outputs to implement risk responses

they are the primary way that risk responses are implemented

Why are work performance reports used as an input in Monitor Risks?

they focus on how work was done and compare baselines against actual results, which is what you're evaluating in this process

If additional or lower-skilled resources are assigned to an activity what could happen to efficiency and productivity and why does this happen?

they go down because increased communication, training, and coordination is needed.

Satisfying all of the acceptance criteria implies what about stakeholder needs

they have been met

If an the budget is NOT flexible in an agile project, what happens to scope and schedule?

they need to be flexible

Why are Deliverables an input to manage project knowledge?

they shape the learning that needs to be captured

What should a PM consider when evaluating a proposed change to scope?

this is part of Control Scope. Use the RTM to see what requirements will be affected by the change and discuss with the requirement owners

You're assigned to a project, but there is insufficient historical data available to determine duration, but you are allowed to use judgmental data. What methodology could you use to determine duration?

three point estimating using triangular distribution

formula for triangular distribution

time expected equals the sum of optimistic estimate, most likely estimate, and pessimistic estimate, divided by three

_____ helps to minimize scope creep in agile projects as it forces the teams to process essential features first, then other features when time permits.

time-boxing

What is the PM's primary job in project integration

to communicate

What do the change control system and configuration management system work together to do?

to control and document proposals to change the project's product

Why are recurring retrospectives necessary for agile projects

to regularly check on the effectiveness of the quality processes, to look for root cause issues, and to suggest trials of new approaches to improve quality

Alternative analysis is used...

to select the corrective actions or a combination of corrective and preventative actions to implement when a deviation occurs

TCPI stands for

to-complete performance index

Expert judgment, data analysis, and meetings are all ___ in the Project Schedule Management process

tools and techniques,

A ____ is a type of sensitivity analysis which shows the impact of one change while holding other factors constant

tornado diagram

The difference between the early and late finish of a task is what kind of float for that task?

total

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed or extended from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating a schedule constraint is called

total float or schedule flexibility

TPM stands for

total productive maintenance (resource methodology)

When competency gaps/mismatches are identified, what proactive responses can be used to avoid jeopardizing the project

training, hiring, schedule changes, scope changes

What kind of leadership emphasizes the goals of the project and rewards or disincentives for the project team?

transactional

You buy insurance or an extended warranty. What is your risk strategy?

transfer

What kind of leader inspires and motivates the project team to achieve goals through empowerment and by encouraging innovation

transformational

The CPI is what kind of measurement in EVA?

trend

This kind of analysis is used to forecast future performance based on past results. It looks ahead in the project for expected slippages and warns the PM ahead of time that there will be problems if the project continues on its current path

trend analysis does this

What do small batch systems of delivery aim for?

uncover inconsistencies and quality issues earlier in the project life cycle when overall costs of change are lower

Management reserves are used for ____ unknowns

unknown

The main purpose of the Plan Risk Responses is to...

update the risk register

____ is how much time you have to respond to a risk event. The lower the better.

urgency

What are some advantage of a virtual team?

use specialized experts who don't live on site; accommodate team members who work from home; including team members with mobility limitations or disabilities

Optimizing resource utilization by analyzing resource availability, resource rates, and resource calendars in a software system is an example of

using project management information system (PMIS)

What kind of analysis is the PM using when she examines the product functions in relation to its features and cost, and considers product grade?

value analysis

_____ sampling is rated on a continuous scale that measures the degree of conformity

variable (as opposed to attribute, which either conforms or does not conform)

The cost of fuel for a bulldozer is an example of ___ cost because____

variable, it changes over time

At a high level EVA identifies ____ and ____

variances and trends

What kind of teams are made possible with the use of emails, audio/video conferencing, web-based meetings, and social media?

virtual or distributed teams

Logical model data

visual representation of an organization's data, described in business language and independent of any specific technology

Context diagram

visually depict the product scope by showing a business system and how people and other systems interact with it. Actors inputting, system outputting, and actors receiving

VOC

voice of the customer

fist of five (or fist to five)

voting method, often used in agile-based projects, in which the PM asks the team to show their level of support for a decision by holding up a closed fit (no support) up to five fingers (full support). If a team member holds up fewer than 3 fingers the team can discuss objections with the team. The process is continued until everyone holds up 3 or more figures

SDLC is part of what project management methodology/approach?

waterfall

The Deming Cycle of Plan-Do-Check-Act inspired what kind of project management approach

waterfall

What kind of project environment structure involves pooling organizational resources into one project team, and giving the functional manager more power than the PM?

weak matrix

What kind of organization/project environment do you usually see project coordinators, but not PMs?

weak or functional

The Control Quality processes determine if the project outputs do what?

what they were intended to do

What causes negative total float?

when constraint on the late dates is violated by duration and logic

Cost aggregation

when costs are aggregated by work packages in accordance to the WBS

What causes positive total float?

when the backwards pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during pass calculation

generally, increasing resources will reduce the duration of an activity, but when is this NOT the case?

when there is a predetermined amount of time needed to complete the activity, regardless of resource allocation (ex. 24hr stress test)

The _____ is a system used during project integration management to ensure that work gets done at the right time and in the right sequence.

work authorization system (WAS)

The ____ is designed to show how project deliverables are broken down into work packages and provide a way of showing high-level areas of responsibility

work breakdown structure

What kinds of hierarchical charts are used in project resource planning?

work breakdown structure, organizational breakdown structure, resource breakdown structure

Parkinson's law

work expends to fill the time available for its completion

___ reports are a collection of project performance and status information that may be used to facilitate discussion and to create communications

work performance

___ is a key input in Control Resources because it provides the raw data of quantity and types of resources needed

work performance data

Documentation of which deliverables have been accepted and which have not been accepted (and why) could all be found in what output of scope validation?

work performance information

The PM is looking at a summary figure, a percentage, or another useful statistic. What is he looking at?

work performance information

The ____ report should be used when information is needed to make decisions, raise issues, initiate actions or gain awareness of the project status

work performance report

dashboards, burn down charts, and traffic lights could all be included in what?

work performance report

A ____ is an unplanned response that is created to handle unexpected problems on a project.

workaround

Collaboration is used in conflict management. Is this a favored approach?

yes, along with problem solving

If a non-profit approaches you, asking if the leftover materials from your project can be donated, why is it not enough just to refuse the request?

you should notify the appropriate management so they can decide if the leftover materials should be donated

A critical path is normally characterized by how much total float on the critical path?

zero


Ensembles d'études connexes

psych final part 1 chapter 1,2 & 3

View Set

Chapter 15 - Gene regulation in Eukaryotes

View Set