Practice Test 1
Which of the following body fluids is considered most unlikely to transmit a bloodborne pathogen such as Hepatitis B or C? Semen or vaginal secretions Blood Sweat and tears Body cavity fluids such as peritoneal or pleural fluids
Sweat and tears Sweat and tears are not considered high risk fluids for the transmission of the Hep. virus.
If a recipient has anti-c, which donor unit should be selected? r'r RoR1 R2ry r'ry RoRo
r'ry dCe/dCE This unit would be negative for the antigen little-c so it would be compatible for this patient.
Calculate the red cell indices from the following set of patient data: RBC count=5.22 x 10^12/L Hgb. = 17.5 g/dL Hct. = 53% ---------------- MCV=100FL,MCH=28pg,MCHC=36 g/dL. MCV=102fl, MCH=34pg, MCHC=36g/dL. MCV=100fl, MCH=28pg, MCHC=33g/dL. MCV=102fl, MCH=34pg, MCHC=33g/dL.
MCV=102fl, MCH=34pg, MCHC=33g/dL. MCV=(Hct/rbc) x 10 MCH= (Hgb/RBC) x 10 MCHC= (Hgb/Hct) x 100
A 45 y/o male of average height and weight had a serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL and urine creatinine was 120 mg/dL; the total volume of urine collected over a 24-hour period was 1,800 mL. Calculate the creatinine clearance for this patient in mL/min. 100 144 56 225
100 The creatinine clearance formula: (Urine creatinine/Serum Creatinine) x Urine volume/[time (hr) x 60 ]
How many international united of IgG anti-D are in 300 ug vial of RhIg? 250 500 600 1000 1500
1500 A 300 ug vial of RhIg contains 1500 IU of IgG anti-D. The conversion is one ug=5 IU.
Which of the following HPV types are most likely to be associated with cervical cancer? 6 and 11 16 and 18 42 and 43 44 and 54
16 and 18 HPV types 16 and 18 are most commonly isolated in cervical cancer; however, infections with HPV type do not always result in cancer.
What is the lower reference limit for progressive motility of spermatoozoa when performing a semen analysis? 12% 22% 32% 40%
32%
Which of the following patients is most at risk for hyperosmolar nonketotic coma? A 60y/o type 1 diabetic A 70y/o type 2 diabetic A 15y/o type 1 diabetic A 25y/o type 2 diabetic
A 70 year old type 2 diabetic
The hepatitis B virus vaccine was administered to MLS students during orientation. Which type of immunity is expected to develop and provide long-term protection? Active Passive Adoptive Innate
Active The hepatitis B vaccine is a series of immunizations consisting of three injections of the hepatitis B antigen.
The strength with which a multivalent antibody binds a multivalent antigen is termed the: Affinity Avidity Reactivity Valence
Avidity Avidity is a measure of the overall strength of binding of an antigen with many antigenic determinants and multivalent antibodies.
What is the MOST common infective agent to be transmitted through blood transfusion that results in morbidty and mortality? Bacteria HIV Hepatitis A virus Malarial parasites
Bacteria The estimated risk of contamination of blood components with bacteria is 1 in 5,000 platelet units and 1 in 30,000 red blood cell units.
The immunoassay procedure for serum hCG utilizes antisera against which subunit of hCG? Alpha Gamma Epsilon Beta
Beta The hCG molecule consists of two combined, dissimilar subunits. Immunoassays utlilize antibodies specific to the beta subunit of the hCG glycoprotein.
Which of the following CD markers is NOT present on a normal mature T cell? CD20 CD7 CD3 CD5
CD20 CD20 is not present on mature T cells. CD20 is expressed by B cells. Normal mature T cells should express CD2, CD3, CD5, and CD7.
Which one of the following statements conderning phagocytosis is False? Cells are only capable of phagoctizing. Membrane "reaches" out & surrounds the material to be internalized. Once internalized the material is surrounded by phagocytosis. Whole pathogenic organisms can be ingested.
Cells are only capable of phagoctizing bacteria. Cells do not only phagocytize bacteria, they can phagocytize other cells, cellular remnants, and other waste products as well.
What is the cause of neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)? Destruction of a neonate's platelets by alloantibodies crossing the placenta from the mother. Destruction of a neonate's platelets by an antibody that is produced by the neonate's own immune system. Decreased platelet production in the neonate.
Destruction of a neonate's platelets by alloantibodies crossing the placenta from the mother. The antibodies that are produced are maternal and not neonatal.
What is the BEST stock culture for quality control testing of oxidase production? E. coli/K. pneumoniae S. typhimurium/E. coli E. coli/P. aeruginosa P. mirabilis/E. coli B. anthracis/B. subtilis
E. coli/P. aeruginosa E. coli is negative for oxidase negative. P. aeruginosa is oxidase positive.
Recently the ADA recommended reporting which of these values to correlate with hemoglobin A1C as further indicator of glycemic control? Estimated Average Glucose Blood Urea Nitrogen Microalbumin Insulin
Estimated Average Glucose It is recommended calculating and reporting the average glucose with HbA1c measurements results.
Which of the following is a confirmatory test for syphilis: RPR FTA-ABS VDRL Wasserman test
FTS-ABS It is not inteded for use as a screening test. It should only be used to differentiate between true positives, false positives, and in late or latent syphilis.
Influenza B or C related illnesses tend to be more severe than those caused by influenza A. True False
False Influenza A viruses typically caused more severe infections than those of influenza B or C viruses.
Sudan III will confirm the presence of: Parasites Sperm Mucus Fat
Fat Sudan III is used to identify the presence of lipids or fats in lab samples.
Match the name of each savory mouthful of the gourmet food listed with the name of the bacterial species ready to attack. Feta Cheese Oysters on a half shell Egg Nog Steak Tartar
Feta Cheese=Listeria monocytogenes Oysters on a half shell=Vibrio vulnificus Egg Nog= Salmonella enteriditidis Steak tartar= E.coli 0157
Which of the following antibodies is predominantly associated with the secondary antibody response. IgG IgM IgA IgD
IgG IgG= Secondary immune response IgM= Primary immune response
Which of the following tests has been recommended by the FDA to replace the HIV-1 p24 antigen test in the screening of donated blood for infectious disease? HIV-1 NAT Anti-HIV-1 Anti-HIV-2 HCV NAT
HIV-1 NAT
What is the primary target of HIV? Heart Neutrophils B-cel lymphocytes Helper T-cell lymphocytes
Helper T-cell lymphocytes
55 y/o white male had the following lab data: RBC 3.7 x 10 u/l Serum iron220 ug/dL (N: 60-80) Hgb 10 g/dL TIBC 300 ug/dL (N: 260-400) Hct: 32% Serum Ferritin 2,800 ng/mL (10-200) WBC 5,800: MCV 86fl: MCH 26pg: MCHC 32% Bone marrow shows shift to left for RBC's Prussian Blue Stain inicates markedly elevated iron stores. Iron deficiency anemia Anemia of chronic disease Hemochromatosis Sideroblastic anemia Megaloblastic anemia
Hemochromatosis Is the most common form of iron overload disease. Characteristic findings are elevated in serum iron and ferritin. Prussian Blue stain indicates elevated iron stores with intensity of color being qualitative rather than quantitative for tissue iron deposits.
Fine basophilic stippling on the red blood cell is an abnormality that is usually associated with what condition? Hemolytic Anemia Leukemia Iron deficiency anemia Infectious Mononucleosis
Hemolytic Anemia Coarse basophilic stippling is usually associated with megaloblastic anemia, thalassemias, and lead posioning.
Match the name of each of the dimorphic fungi listed with the corresponding activity by which infection can be avoided. Coccidioidomycosis Histoplasmosis Sporotrichosis ------------------ Practice dust control Avoid roosting areas of birds Protect against thorn punctures.
Histoplasmosis infections can occur by being contact with soil that contains bird poop. Sporotrichosis can be avoided by wearing gloves while working in the rose garden. Coccidioidomycosis can become airborne because of the very light arthroconidia.
Small, spherical, dark blue-staining, non-refractile inclusions are known as what? Howell-Jolly bodies Pappenheimer bodies Heinz bodies Basophilic stippling
Howell-Jolly bodies They may represent chromosomal remnants, and may be found in pericious anemia, hemolytic anemias, and often after splenectomy.
Which of the following is NOT true about hybridization in PCR procedures? Hybridization cannot happen between a strand of DNA and a strand of RNA. Hybridization is the process of single strands of nucleic acid bonding together to form double strands. Hybridization can also be called annealing Complementary bases link together H-Bonds
Hybridization cannot happen between a strand of DNA and RNA
High levels of lipoprotien-associated phospholipase A2 are associated with: Decreased cardiovascular risk Increased cardiovascular risk Increased renal failure risk Increased liver failure risk
Increased cardiovascular risk Lp-PLA2 plays a corrective role in removing oxidized phospolipids. It also generates inflammatory products in the process. So in fact high levels can lead to increased cardiovascular risk.
What symptom of HDFN is associated with low levels of glucuronyl transferase? Anemia Increased retic count Hydrops Jaundice Enlarged heart
Jaundice Glucuronyl Transferase is a liver enzyme that conjugates bilirubin into its water soluble, excretable form.
Erythropoeithin is produced in: Bone marrow Liver Lymphocytes Kidneys
Kidneys Erthropoietin is produced in the kidneys and stimulates the production of RBCs.
Which assay , using 24-hour urine, is considered the BEST single screening test for pheochromocyoma? Catecholamines Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) Homovallic acid (HVA) Metanephrines
Metanephrines The most reliable screening tests for diagnosis of pheochromcytoma is measurement of plasma-free fractionated metanephrines and urinary fractionated metanephrines.
Tumor markers are especially valuable when used to: Rule out cancer Screen the general population for cancer. Monitor response to cancer therapy. Confirm other assays.
Monitor response to cancer therapy.
The measurement of total glycosylated hemoglobin A1c is an effective means of assessing the average blood glucose levels: Over the past few days Over the past 1-2 weeks Over the past 2-3 months Only the past 24 hours
Over the past 2-3 months
The majority of the neutrophils in a peripheral blood smear where described as only as bilobed. Which condition is associated with this description? Infection with left shift Folic Acid deficiency Pelger-Huet anomoaly Leukemoid Reaction
Pelger-Huet anomaly Hypersegmented neutrophils are associated with a folic acid deficiency.
What is the Wright-Giemsa stain used for most often in lab? pheripheral & cytospin smears bone marrows urinalysis gram stains
Peripheral & Cytospin smears Wright-Giemsa stains are commonly used in the hematology lab for the identification and quantitate blood cells.
The term TITER is best defined as: Concentration of antibody in the serum. Maximum reactive dilution X 100. Maximum reactive dilution / 100. Reciprocal of maximum reactive dilution.
Reciprocal of maximum reactive dilution. The term TITER is best defined reciprocal of maximum reactive dilution of the patient's serum where the antibody is still detectable.
Which of the following suggestions will help yo avoid glare? Use flurescent lighting Use the brightest light possible Place the light as close to the work area as possible Reflect the light away from the eyes.
Reflect the light away from the eyes.
Three-year-old boy was brought unconscious to the ER. Arterial blood gas were pH= 7.07 pCO2= 90 mm Hg HCO3-= 23 mmol/L What is the patient suffering from: Metabolic Alkalosis Metabolic Acidosis Respiratory Acidosis Respiratory Alkalosis
Respiratory Acidosis The patient is under the reference for pH (7.35-7.45) and the increased level of pCO2 90 mm Hg (34-45 mm Hg). The pHCO3 is normal (22-29 mmlo/L).
In thin-layer chromatography, the distance the solute migrates divided by the distance the solvent migrates is the: tr Kd Rf pK
Rf The retention factor is defined as the distance traveled by the compound divided by the distance traveled by the solvent.
Match these autoimmune diseases with thier corresponding serological markers: Rheumatic Fever Primary biliary cirrhosis Wegener's granulomatosis CREST syndrome ---------------------- Antimitochondrial Antibodies Anticentromere Antibodies Antineutrophilic antibodies Antimyocardial antibodies
Rheumatic fever=Antimyocardial antibodies Wegener's granulomatosis=Antineutrophilic antibodies CREST syndrome=Anticentromere antibodies Primary biliary cirrhosis
Which of the following specimen collection methods should NOT be used if urine cultures are also required? Routinely Voided Clean Catch Catheterized Suprapubic aspiration
Routinely Voided A routinely voided specimen is NOT acceptable for culture.
New methlyene blue works by what mechanism? Reflecting ultra-violet light Inhibit lipids & proteins Staining hemoglobin components. Staining cytoplasmic RNA, mitochondria, and ribosomes
Staining cytoplasmic RNA, mitochondria, and ribosomes.
In what way are the ABO serum antibodies unique among blood group systems? Lab tests are available for their ID. The antibodies are naturally occurring. The antibodies are formed after the individual has been immunized.
The antibodies are naturally occurring.
In a patient with acute glomerulonephritis you would expect to find all of the following in urine expect: Protein RBCs RBCs casts Yeast
Yeast Yeast would not be expected finding in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis.
Lipemia in a fasting serum sample is most likely caused by an increase in serum levels of: Cholesterol Triglycerides Proteins Phospholipids
Triglycerides Lipemia is generally caused by an increased in VLDL which is primarily composed of triglycerides.
These crystals are usually found in acid/neutral urine and appear as fine needle clumps or rosettes. They are indicative of liver disease. Leucine Tyrosine Cholesterol Cystine
Tyrosine Leucine crystals are associated with liver disease. They are found in acidic/neutral pH urine and are yellow in color. Concentric circles and the radial strations are noted microscopically. Cholesterol crystals appear in acidic urine, usually flat, transparent plates with notched corners. Cystine crystals are present in acidic and have a benzene ring like structure.
Which of the following methods would be used to confirm the presence of Bence-Jones protein in the urine: Urine protein electrophoresis or immunoelectrophoresis Benedict qualitative test Ictotest Watson-Schwartz test
Urine protein electrophoresis or immunoelectrophoresis Either can be used to confirm Bence-Jones proteinuria. Benedict test is used for detecting glycosuria. Ictotest is used for detecting urine bilirubin. Watson-Schwarz test is used in the detection of porphobilinogen and urobilinogen.
RDW is an indication of which of the following: Variability of RBC volume Poikilocytosis Macrocytosis Microcytosis
Variability of RBC volume The greater the RDW the greater the anisocytosis. RDW in increased in iron deficiency and tends to be normal with thalassemia.
What is the proper storage temperature for thawed Cryoprecipitate? 4-8 C 20-24 C 35-37 C -20 C or colder
20-24 C Once thawed, cryoprecipitate must be kept at room temperature (20-24 C) and used within 6 hours after thawing.
Calculated LDL cholesterol concentration if total cholesterol is 280 mg/dL, triglyceride is 100 mg/dL, and the HDL cholesterol is 40 mg/dL. 172 mg/dL 140 mg/dL 238 mg/dL 220 mg/dL
220 mg/dL LDL= (total cholesterol) - [HDL cholesterol] - [VLDL] (where VLDL is calculated as [triglyceride]/5). 280-40-(100/5)=220
Which of the following donors could be accepted for blood donations? 22-year female who is pregant 40-year-old female who lived in London from 1988-1992 44-year-old male who has been taking aspirin every four hours for the past 2 days. 24 year old man who had a tooth extraction two months ago.
24 y/o man who had a tooth extraction two months ago.
If the antigen frequencies for K=0.09 and Fya=0.66 what percent of type-specific units would be compatible for a patients with anti-K and anti-Fya? 10 43 31 92 100
31 The negative antigen frequencies are used to find compatible units. K=.91 (1.00-0.09) Fya= .34 (1.00-.66) 100 x ( antigen 1 x antigen 2) 100 x (.91 x .34)= 31
The accepted interval between blood donations is: 12 weeks 8 weeks 6 weeks Dpends on hematocrit level
8 weeks The mandatory waiting period between blood donations is 56 days, or eight weeks.
What is the Coefficient of variation for a set of numbers when: 1 SD = 6.8, mean = 80, and the range for 1 SD = 73.2-86.8?
8.5% The formula for calculating the coeffecient of variation: CV=(Std. Dev/Mean) X 100
A mean value of 100 mg/dL and a standard deviation of 1.8 mg/dL were obtained from a set glucose measurement on a control solution. The 95% confidence interval in mg/dL would be: 94.6 to 105.4 96.4 to 103.6 97.3 to 102.7 98.2 to 101.8
96.4 to 103.6 The 95% confidence interval can be stated as the mean + or -2 standard deviations. In this case 2 standard deviations would be 1.8 X 2 = 3.6. The mean + or - 3.6 = 96.4-103.6
The ratio of whole blood anticoagulant is very important in the PT assay; at which hematocrit level should the standard anticoagulant volume should be adjusted: <50% >75% >55% <35%
>55% The effect of anticoagulant is too great to be ignored if the hematocrit value is great than 55% such as in cases of polycythemia. Formula used to adjust the citrate to blood ratio is: (1.85 X 10^-3) X ( 100 - patient hematocrit) X volume of whole blood drawn.
In therapeutic drug monitoring, a person who is classified as a ultrarapid metabolizer would need ___________ of a drug metabolized by that enzyme. A lower dose A higher dose The standard dose None of the above
A higher dose A person who is UM needs more of the drug to achieve a normal level since they are rapidly metabolizing the drug.
_________ is predominantly associated with skin and soft tissues infections such as abscesses, cellulitis, folliculitis, and impetigo. Hospital associated MRSA Community associated MRSA
Community associated MRSA Most of these types of infections are perdominantly skin and soft tissue infections.
At what frequency should quality control testing be performed on each lot of anti-human globulin to be in compliance with the FDA's current good manufacturing practices requirements? At the beginning of each work shift Each day of use Only at the time of receipt By each new user
Each day of use. More frequent testing may be required by the facility, such as at the beginning of each work shift or by each new user, but the FDA minimum requirement is each day of use.
A pregnant female has been injected with RhIg antenatally and has a positive antibody screen at delivery. If the antibody has been confirmed as anti-D alone and reacts only weakly, the anti-D is definitely passive. True or False
False It is impossible to differentiate passive from immune anti-D when the antibody reacts only weakly. Given that the mother has been injected with RhIG, it is likely that the anti-D is passive, but not definite. A weak anti-D could be either. It's only if the anti-D is strong that passive anti-D can be discounted.
Cholesterol is used by the body for which of the following functions? Carrying dietary triglycerides to the cells through the blood. Maintaining acid-base balance Precursor of hormone synthesis. Major sources of fuel for the body.
Precursor of hormone synthesis. It is not a major source of fuel itself, but does facilitate triglyceride transport to serve the fuel needs of the body.