project+ quiz 2

Project stakeholders have asked the team to use Scrum to run a software implementation project. Which of the following is most likely to take place during a Scrum ceremony? A. Reviewing project blockers B. Defining roles and responsibilities C. Establishing a project schedule D. Determining a project budget

Answer: A Explanation: According to Four agile ceremonies, demystified, one of the Scrum ceremonies is the daily stand-up, which is a short meeting to discuss progress and identify blockers. Blockers are any issues or impediments that prevent the team from completing their tasks or achieving their goals. Reviewing project blockers during the daily stand-up helps the team to resolve them quickly, collaborate effectively, and stay on track1. The other options are not likely to take place during a Scrum ceremony, as they are either part of the initial project planning or outside the scope of Scrum.

After a product is released for production, a tester performs a test to ensure its basic functionality is working as expected. Which of the following is the tester performing? A. Smoke test B. Stress test C. Penetration test D. Regression test

Answer: A Explanation: no explanation

Which of the following would be best to utilize when managing communications for project teams across multiple time zones? A. Business collaboration tool B. Email C. Virtual meetings D. Enterprise CMS

Answer: A Explanation:A business collaboration tool is a software that enables teams to communicate, share, and createtogether online. A business collaboration tool can help project teams across multiple time zones toovercome the challenges of distance, time differences, and cultural diversity. A businesscollaboration tool can provide features such as instant messaging, video conferencing, file sharing,document editing, project management, and more. A business collaboration tool can also integrate with other applications and platforms that the project team uses. A business collaboration tool can improve the efficiency, productivity, and quality of the project teams work

Following the approval of a change by the CCB, which of the following should a project manager consider next when deploying a new networking device into an existing production environment? A. Maintenance window B. Risk assessment C. Operational security D. Validation check

Answer: A Explanation:A maintenance window is a predefined period of time during which planned changes or updates can be performed on a system or network with minimal impact on the users or business operations1. A project manager should consider the maintenance window next when deploying a new networking device into an existing production environment, as it will help to reduce the risk of downtime, disruption, or errors. A maintenance window should be scheduled in advance, communicated to the stakeholders, and aligned with the change management plan

A PM wants to add a chart to the monthly status report to show major accomplishments for key events. Which of the following is the best chart to use? A. Milestone B. Gantt C. Burndown D. PERT

Answer: A Explanation:A milestone chart is the best chart to use to show major accomplishments for key events, because it displays the important deliverables or outcomes of a project along a timeline12. A milestone chart can provide a high-level overview of the project progress and achievements, without showing the details of each task or activity34. A milestone chart can also help communicate the project status and expectations to the stakeholders, and identify any potential risks or delays that may affect the project completion

After a migration was completed and a financial system was deployed, users have been unable to issue payment orders. Which of the following should be implemented? A. Rollback plan B. Release plan C. Deployment plan D. Contingency plan

Answer: A Explanation:A rollback plan is a part of the project management plan that defines how to revert the system to its previous state or baseline if the change or migration fails or causes unacceptable impacts1. A rollback plan is different from a contingency plan, which is a plan to deal with a specific risk event that may or may not occur2. A release plan and a deployment plan are not relevant to the scenario, as they are used to plan and execute the delivery and installation of the system, not to undo them. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Rollback plan.

A project is moving into the user acceptance testing phase. Several resources will be needed to execute different steps in the testing plan. Which of the following would be the best tool to allow the resources to remain at their desks and only react when needed? A. Ticketing system B. Videoconference C. Simple messaging system D. Corporate social media

Answer: A Explanation:A ticketing system is a tool that allows the project manager to assign, track, and manage tasks for thetesting phase. A ticketing system can help the resources to remain at their desks and only react whenneeded, because they can receive notifications, updates, and feedback on their tickets through emailor other channels. A ticketing system can also help the project manager to monitor the progress,quality, and issues of the testing phase, and to generate reports and metrics. A ticketing system is different from a videoconference, which is a tool that allows the project team to communicate and collaborate in real time through audio and video. A videoconference is not suitable for allowing the resources to remain at their desks and only react when needed, because it requires their active participation and attention. A ticketing system is also different from a simple messaging system, which is a tool that allows the project team to exchange text messages and files. A simple messaging system is not effective for assigning, tracking, and managing tasks for the testing phase, because it lacks the features and functions of a ticketing system, such as prioritization, categorization, status, and history. A ticketing system is also different from a corporate social media, which is a tool that allows the project team to share information and ideas through online platforms. A corporate social media is not appropriate for allowing the resources to remain at their desks and only react when needed, because it may not be secure, reliable, or professional for the testing phase

A project manager is reviewing a signed legal document pertaining to the hiring of a vendor who will develop an experimental solution. The vendor could not provide accurate estimates at this time because the requirements will probably be changing. The document also contains information about the resources involved and the rates the vendor will charge for the work. Which of the following best describes the legal document the project manager is reviewing? A. Time and materials contract B. Master service agreement C. Fixed-price contract D. Non-disclosure agreement

Answer: A Explanation:A time and materials contract is a type of contract where the buyer pays the seller for the actual time and materials used during the project. This type of contract is suitable when the scope of work is uncertain or likely to change, and the vendor cannot provide accurate estimates. The document also specifies the resources involved and the rates the vendor will charge for the work

A project team needs to understand what needs to be done, who needs to complete the tasks, and when the tasks need to be completed. Which of the following artifacts would be the best to capture this information? A. SWOT B. Risk register C. Project schedule D. RAC

Answer: C Explanation: A project schedule is an artifact that shows the sequence, duration, and dependencies of the project activities, as well as the resources assigned to each activity. A project schedule helps the project team understand what needs to be done, who needs to complete the tasks, and when the tasks need to be completed. A project schedule can also help monitor and control the project progress and performance

During quality analysis, different team members are identifying multiple constraints. Which of the following tools should the project manager adopt first to help track and prioritize a resolution? A. Issue log B. Defect log C. Risk register D. Change log

Answer: A Explanation:An issue log is a tool that records and tracks any issues that arise during the project. It helps the project manager to identify, prioritize, assign, monitor, and resolve the issues in a timely manner. An issue log can also include information such as the issue description, impact, status, owner, and resolution date1. An issue log is different from a defect log, which records and tracks the defects or errors in the project deliverables. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the potential risks that may affect the project objectives. A change log is a tool that records and tracks the changes that are made to the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality

A project manager will conduct a release on the third Friday of the month. The project manager has notified users that the application will be unavailable for eight hours. Hence, users need to save any information in advance. Which of the following is the project manager most likely conducting? A. Application deployment B. Rollback plans C. Validation checks D. Maintenance window schedules

Answer: A Explanation:Application deployment typically involves making a software application available for use, ofteninvolving downtime or unavailability of the application. The description of the project managernotifying users about the application being unavailable for a certain period aligns with standardpractices during deployment phases. The other options, such as rollback plans, validation checks, and maintenance window schedules, although important, do not directly indicate the action of making an application available for use, as described in the scenario.

A project manager is assigned an initiative in a highly regulated industry that requires employees to safeguard certain pieces of PII. Which of the following is the best approach for the project manager to keep the information confidential? A. Encryption B. Multifactor authentication C. Quality assurance D. Password protection

Answer: A Explanation:Encryption is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format that can only be accessedby authorized parties who have the decryption key. Encryption is the best approach for the project manager to keep the PII confidential, as it protects the data from unauthorized access during storage and transmission

A sponsor prefers to communicate with the team using email, phone calls, conversations in the hallway, and impromptu meetings. Which of the following types of communication is the sponsor using? A. Informal communication B. Formal communication C. Synchronous communication D. Asynchronous communication

Answer: A Explanation:Informal communication is a type of communication that is casual, spontaneous, and unstructured. It does not follow any predefined rules, protocols, or formats. Examples of informal communication include email, phone calls, conversations in the hallway, and impromptu meetings12. The sponsor is using informal communication to communicate with the team, as these methods are convenient, flexible, and personal. However, informal communication may also have some drawbacks, such as lack of documentation, inconsistency, and potential for misunderstanding3. Therefore, the sponsor should also use formal communication when necessary, such as for official reports, contracts, and presentations

A project was closed according to the planned project schedule. Security teams later identified that one of the contractors stole data after the project's closure. Which of the following would have most likely prevented the data from being stolen? A. Removing access B. Closing contracts C. Project sign-off D. Project evaluation

Answer: A Explanation:Removing access means revoking the contractors permissions to access the project data, systems, and devices after the project is closed. This is a crucial security measure to prevent unauthorized access, misuse, or theft of sensitive data by external parties. Closing contracts, project sign-off, and project evaluation are important steps in the project closure process, but they do not necessarily prevent data theft by themselves. They may involve formal agreements, documentation, and feedback, but they do not address the technical aspects of data security

During a status meeting for a multisystem program, a program manager learns that some deliverables from another project are delayed. Which of the following should the program manager do next? A. Obtain details from the owner of the project. B. Update the critical path for the project. C. Apply contingency reserves. D. Reestimate epic user stories.

Answer: A Explanation:The program manager should first obtain details from the owner of the project that is causing thedelay, such as the root cause, the impact, the mitigation plan, and the revised timeline. This will helpthe program manager to assess the situation, communicate with the stakeholders, and adjust theprogram schedule accordingly. Updating the critical path, applying contingency reserves, andreestimating epic user stories are possible actions that the program manager may take afterobtaining the details, depending on the severity and duration of the delay. However, they are not the immediate next steps, as they require more information and analysis.

A critical piece of equipment that is needed for the installation of a point-of-sale solution is delayed from the manufacturer. The delay will cause the project to be significantly behind schedule. The project manager decides to buy the item at a higher cost from another vendor who can supply it immediately. Which of the following risk management approaches has the project manager taken? A. Mitigate B. Transfer C. Accept D. Share

Answer: A Explanation:The project manager has taken a risk mitigation approach by buying the item from another vendor who can supply it immediately. Risk mitigation is a strategy that involves reducing the probability and/or impact of a negative risk to an acceptable level. By purchasing the item from another vendor, the project manager has reduced the impact of the delay on the project schedule, even though it may have increased the project cost. Risk mitigation is different from risk transfer, which involves shifting the responsibility or burden of a risk to a third party, usually through a contract or insurance. Risk acceptance is a strategy that involves acknowledging the risk and being prepared to deal with its consequences. Risk sharing is a strategy that involves allocating some or all of the ownership of a risk to another party who is willing to take on that risk, usually for some form of incentive or reward.

A developer recommends modifying an existing portion of code that is not part of the scope and is causing low performance on the current solution. Which of the following actions should the project manager most likely take? A. Ask a developer to create a change request. B. Do nothing because recommendation is scope creep C. Ask a developer to implement the recommendation. D. Communicate the change status.

Answer: A Explanation:The project manager should ask the developer to create a change request, which is a formaldocument that describes the proposed change, its benefits, costs, risks, and impacts on the projectscope, schedule, budget, and quality. A change request is the first step in the change control process, which involves evaluating, approving, or rejecting changes to the project baselines. The projectmanager should not do nothing, because ignoring the recommendation could result in poorperformance and customer dissatisfaction. The project manager should not ask the developer to implement the recommendation without following the change control process, because that couldcause scope creep, which is the uncontrolled expansion of the project scope without properauthorization or adjustment of the project resources and objectives. The project manager should not communicate the change status before the change request is submitted and approved, because that could create confusion and false expectations among the project stakeholders.

An IT infrastructure change request needs to be implemented in the production environment. Which of the following elements are the most important prerequisites? (Select two). A. Rollback plans B. Project management plan C. Deployment plan D. Asset management plan E. Communication plan F. Resource management plan

Answer: A, C Explanation:A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to revert the system to its previous state in case the change fails or causes problems. A rollback plan is important to minimize the impact of a failed change and ensure the systems availability and functionality12.A deployment plan is a document that outlines the steps and procedures for implementing the change in the production environment. A deployment plan is important to ensure the change is executed smoothly, efficiently, and securely, and that the system meets the expected performance and quality standards

The quarterly financial report displays losses from a project even though the project was completed successfully several weeks ago. Which of the following actions should the project manager perform next? A. Remove access. B. Complete the project sign-off. C. Release the resources. D. Outline the lessons learned.

Answer: B Explanation: The project sign-off is the formal acceptance of the project deliverables by the client, stakeholder, or customer. It also marks the closure of the project and the release of the final payment. If the project sign-off is not completed, the project may still incur costs and liabilities, which can explain the losses in the financial report. Therefore, the project manager should complete the project sign-off as soon as possible to avoid further losses

A team is working on a project that has different stages, such as initiation, planning, execution, and closure. Which of the following is this an example of? A. Agile B. Waterfall C. Standard D. Hybrid

Answer: B Explanation: The waterfall methodology is a project management framework that follows a linear and sequential process, where each stage of the project must be completed before moving on to the next one. The stages of the waterfall model are initiation, planning, execution, and closure, as described in the question

Which of the following provides the best justification for undertaking a project? A. Scope statement B. Business case C. Sponsor request D. Project charter

Answer: B Explanation:A business case provides justification for undertaking a project, programme or portfolio. It evaluatesthe benefit, cost and risk of alternative options and provides a rationale for the preferred solution. Abusiness case is essential for demonstrating the value of the project and securing the approval andfunding from the governance. A business case is different from a scope statement, which defines theproject boundaries and deliverables; a sponsor request, which initiates the project idea and seekssupport; and a project charter, which authorizes the project and assigns the project manager.

Which of the following is a capital expense? A. Building lease B. Building purchase C. Building maintenance D. Building insurance

Answer: B Explanation:A capital expense is the cost of acquiring or making improvements to fixed assets that have a useful life of more than one year1. A building purchase is an example of a capital expense, as it is a longterm investment that increases the value of the companys assets2. Building lease, maintenance, and insurance are not capital expenses, as they are recurring or short-term costs that do not increase the value of the company's assets

A company is implementing a new radar system from July to September. The project manager knows these months are the peak hurricane season for this region. Which of the following should the project manager develop to mitigate the risk to the project? A. Data plan B. Contingency plan C. Rollback plan D. Recovery plan

Answer: B Explanation:A contingency plan is a risk mitigation strategy that involves preparing alternative courses of actionin case the original plan fails or encounters unexpected problems. A contingency plan can helpreduce the impact of negative risks and ensure the project continuity and success. In this case, theproject manager should develop a contingency plan to mitigate the risk of hurricanes affecting the implementation of the new radar system. For example, the contingency plan could include backup resources, alternative locations, emergency procedures, and communication channels in case of a hurricane.

Which of the following contract types in project procurement has the highest risk for the buyer? A. Time and material B. Cost-plus C. Fixed-price D. Unit price

Answer: B Explanation:A cost-plus contract is a type of contract where the buyer agrees to reimburse the seller for the actual costs of the work plus a fee, which can be fixed, percentage, incentive, or award based. This type of contract has the highest risk for the buyer because the buyer has no control over the cost or quantity of the work and the seller has little incentive to control the costs or complete the work efficiently. The seller may inflate the costs or prolong the work to increase the fee. The buyer may end up paying much more than the estimated budget or the market value of the work.

A PM wants to provide a visual representation of how a project is organized into tasks and how the tasks relate to each other. Which of the following can the PM use? A. Milestone chart B. Gantt chart C. PERT chart D. WBS

Answer: B Explanation:A gantt chart is a visual representation of a project timeline that shows the tasks, durations, dependencies, and resources of a project in a horizontal bar chart format. A gantt chart can help a project manager to plan, monitor, and control the project progress, scope, and quality. A gantt chart is different from a milestone chart, which only shows the key events or deliverables of a project without the details of the tasks. A gantt chart is also different from a PERT chart, which is a network diagram that shows the logical relationships and sequence of tasks in a project. A gantt chart is also different from a WBS, which is a hierarchical breakdown of the project scope into smaller and manageable components

A PM needs to calculate the progress of the whole project scope for a presentation to the sponsor. Which of the following is the first document the PM should update? A. Project network diagram B. Gantt chart C. Issue log D. Risk report

Answer: B Explanation:A gantt chart is a visual representation of a project timeline that shows the tasks, durations,dependencies, and resources of a project in a horizontal bar chart format. A gantt chart can help aproject manager to calculate the progress of the whole project scope by comparing the planned andactual start and finish dates of each task, as well as the percentage of completion and the criticalpath. A gantt chart is also a useful tool for communicating the project status and performance to thesponsor and other stakeholders. Therefore, the first document that the project manager should update to calculate the progress of the whole project scope is the gantt chart

A project manager is organizing and running a project closure meeting. Which of the following best describes the objective of this meeting? A. To move the system to a production environment B. To obtain project sign-off C. To formalize the end of the contract D. To release resources

Answer: B Explanation:A project closure meeting is a formal gathering held at the end of a project timeline. Its chief purpose is to evaluate the projects performance, identify and discuss the achieved outcomes, successes, and challenges, and confirm that all predefined tasks and objectives have been completed successfully1. The project closure meeting also involves obtaining project sign-off from all necessary parties, such as the project sponsor, the client, the stakeholders, and the team members. Project sign-off is the official approval that the project has met the agreed-upon criteria and quality standards, and that the project is formally closed

Which of the following tools should a project manager use to assess the activities performed, work effort applied, and the productivity of a project? A. Project status report B. Project evaluation review C. Project management software D. Requirements traceability matrix

Answer: B Explanation:A project evaluation review is a tool that helps a project manager assess the activities performed,work effort applied, and the productivity of a project. It involves collecting and analyzing data on theprojects performance, outcomes, and impacts. It also provides feedback and recommendations forimprovement and learning. A project evaluation review can be done at different stages of the projectlife cycle, such as during or after completion.

In order to complete a major project deliverable, very specialized resources are required for sometasks. The PM failed to take into consideration during planning that the required resources would beavailable for fewer hours than required. Which of the following should the PM do first to make schedule changes? A. Add a new risk. B. Perform an impact analysis. C. Escalate to the sponsor. D. Raise a change request.

Answer: B Explanation:According to A Guide To Schedule Updating in Project Management, one of the best practices for effective schedule updating is to perform an impact analysis before making any changes to the schedule. An impact analysis helps the project manager to assess the effects of the change on the project scope, cost, quality, risk, and stakeholder expectations. It also helps to identify the best options for resolving the issue and minimizing the negative impacts. By performing an impact analysis first, the project manager can make informed decisions and communicate them clearly to the project team and stakeholders.

Which of the following should be considered first when determining the privacy management for project data? A. Evaluating the current privacy protection program B. Understanding applicable privacy regulations C. Maintaining awareness of industry best practices D. Implementing security role-based controls

Answer: B Explanation:Before starting a new project that involves personal data, the project manager should firstunderstand the relevant privacy regulations that apply to the data subjects, the data controllers, andthe data processors. These regulations may vary depending on the location, industry, and nature ofthe data. For example, GDPR applies to any project that processes the personal data of individuals inthe European Union, regardless of where the project is based or executed. Understanding the applicable privacy regulations will help the project manager to identify the legal obligations, risks, and compliance requirements for the project data

Two stakeholders, who have a history of animosity toward one another, are in disagreement during a project. The project's timeline depends on the stakeholders accomplishing their tasks. Which of the following conflict resolution methods would be best to utilize? A. Smoothing B. Confronting C. Forcing D. Compromising

Answer: B Explanation:Confronting, also known as problem-solving or collaborating, is a method of conflict resolution that involves addressing the root cause of the conflict and finding a mutually beneficial solution that satisfies both parties. Confronting is the most effective method when the stakes are high and the relationship is important, as it can lead to increased trust, respect, and cooperation. Confronting requires open communication, active listening, empathy, and creativity from both parties. Confronting is the best method to use in this scenario, as it can help the stakeholders overcome their personal animosity, focus on their common goals, and work together to complete their tasks on time

In the initiation phase, a PM is reviewing the objectives, the high-level requirements, the success criteria, and the budget resources. Which of the following action items will benefit from this analysis? A. Developing a RACI B. Identifying and assessing stakeholders C. Assigning project resources D. Establishing communication channels

Answer: B Explanation:Identifying and assessing stakeholders is an action item that will benefit from the analysis of the objectives, the high-level requirements, the success criteria, and the budget resources in the initiation phase. By reviewing these elements, the PM can determine who are the key individuals or groups that have an interest or influence in the project, what are their expectations and needs, and how to engage them effectively throughout the project life cycle

A company is creating a new technology. The company is concerned that the project details could be compromised if a cloud service is used, and another company could launch the technology before the current projected delivery. Which of the following can the company do to minimize this risk? A. Use an on-premises project management scheduling tool. B. Limit access to members of the project team. C. Mandate overtime to get the project completed sooner. D. Ensure all team members have signed a non-disclosure agreement

Answer: B Explanation:Limiting access to members of the project team is a way to minimize the risk of compromising the project details if a cloud service is used. This means that only authorized and trusted individuals can access, view, modify, or share the project information stored in the cloud. Limiting access can prevent unauthorized access, data leakage, cyberattacks, or espionage from external parties who might want to steal or sabotage the new technology. Limiting access can also reduce the risk of human error, negligence, or misconduct from internal parties who might accidentally or intentionally expose or misuse the project information

An software engineer is applying new updates to a program in a sandbox environment. Which of the following risk strategies best describes this practice? A. Transfer B. Mitigate C. Avoid D. Accept

Answer: B Explanation:Mitigate is a risk strategy that involves taking actions to reduce the probability or impact of a risk. By applying new updates to a program in a sandbox environment, the software engineer is testing the changes before implementing them in the actual system, thus minimizing the chance of errors or failures that could affect the project

Which of the following pieces of data are examples of Pll? A. Medical record and test result values B. IP address and email address C. Name and year of birth D. X-ray and blood type

Answer: B Explanation:Pll stands for personally identifiable information, which is any data that can be used to identify a specific individual. Examples of Pll include name, address, phone number, email address, social security number, passport number, drivers license number, etc. IP address and email address are both Pll because they can be used to trace the identity and location of a person. Medical record and test result values, name and year of birth, and x-ray and blood type are not Pll by themselves, but they can become Pll if they are combined with other data that can link them to a specific individual.

Several months after a project has ended, a project team member is still charging time to the project and is unable to charge time to new projects. Which of the following did the project manager neglect to do? A. Remove the team member's access. B. Release the project resources. C. Collect the stakeholders' feedback. D. Have the closeout report approved

Answer: B Explanation:Releasing the project resources is the process of formally ending the involvement of the project teammembers and other resources in the project. It also involves updating the resource availability andperformance records, and providing feedback and recognition to the resources. Releasing the projectresources is an important part of the project closure phase, and it helps to avoid unnecessary costs and conflicts. If the project manager neglects to release the project resources, the team members may still charge time to the project and be unable to work on new projects

A PM is meeting with the project team to identify the baseline go-live date, the operational training, and the handoff procedures. Which of the following phases is the project team performing? A. Initiation B. Closing C. Execution D. Planning

Answer: B Explanation:The closing phase is when the project manager and the team finalize the project, deliver the outcomes to the customer, obtain formal acceptance, conduct lessons learned, and hand over the project to the operations team. Identifying the baseline go-live date, the operational training, and the handoff procedures are part of the closing activities that ensure a smooth transition and closure of the project.

When introducing a new information asset, what is the MOST important responsibility of the asset owner? A. Information disposal B. Information classification C. Information access administration D. Information backup

Answer: B Explanation:The most important responsibility of an asset owner when introducing a new information asset is information classification. This process involves determining the level of sensitivity and the appropriate handling of the asset. Classification helps in applying the right security controls and access permissions, ensuring that the asset is protected according to its value and sensitivity.

Which of the following metrics BE ST measures the alignment of the information security program to operational objectives? A. Percentage of controls with identified business owners B. Percentage of risk investments with defined business cases C. Ratio of control cost to operational budget D. Senior management satisfaction scores related to the security program

Answer: B Explanation:The percentage of risk investments with defined business cases is a metric that measures how well the information security program aligns with the operational objectives of the organization. It indicates how many of the security-related investments are justified by a clear analysis of the expected benefits, costs, and risks, and how they support the business goals and priorities. This metric can help the organization optimize its security spending, demonstrate the value of security to the stakeholders, and align the security strategy with the business

A few weeks before a project is scheduled to be completed, the client asks to add a new feature to the product that is being developed. The project manager analyzes the project schedule and determines the feature can be implemented quite easily without affecting the completion date. Which of the following should the project manager do first? A. Escalate the change to the CCB. B. Review the requested change. C. Document the change recommendations. D. Validate the implementation of the requested change

Answer: B Explanation:The project manager should review the requested change first to assess its impact, feasibility, andalignment with the project objectives and scope. Reviewing the change will help the project managerto determine if the change is necessary, beneficial, and acceptable to the stakeholders. The project manager should also consider the risks, costs, and quality implications of the change before proceeding to the next steps of the change management process

A project manager and team are reviewing a task that is supposed to take nine days to complete and cost $3,000. There is a 20% chance that an associated risk related to changing requirements could occur, resulting in rework that would add an additional five days and $1,000 in costs. Which of the following represents the total amount that should be budgeted for the task? A. 9 days and $3,000 B. 10 days and $3,200 C. 12 days and $3,800 D. 14 days and $4,000

Answer: B Explanation:The total amount that should be budgeted for the task is calculated by adding the expected value ofthe risk to the original estimate. The expected value of the risk is the product of the probability andthe impact of the risk. In this case, the expected value of the risk is 0.2 x (5 days and $1,000) = 1 dayand $200. Therefore, the total amount that should be budgeted for the task is 9 days and $3,000 + 1day and $200 = 10 days and $3,2001.

Because the project team lacks hands-on experience, the project manager has decided to involve a third-party vendor to complete the development of a product. Which of the following documents should the project manager expedite first? A. RFI B. RFP C. RFQ D. RFB

Answer: B Explanation:When a project team lacks hands-on experience and decides to involve a third-party vendor forproduct development, the first document to expedite is a Request for Proposal (RFP). An RFP outlinesthe project requirements and asks potential vendors to submit proposals detailing how they wouldmeet those requirements and at what cost. This allows the project manager to evaluate the capabilities and offerings of different vendors before making a decision.

Which of the following best represents the project impact to a company's brand value? A. The project is compliant with local and state laws and becomes the standard for new projects. B. The project promotes new initiatives to expand its benefit to other communities. C. The project exceeds the sales quota for the third quarter and raises the bar for next periods. The project meets the expected milestones and finishes on time and within budget.

Answer: B Explanation:the brand of a project should deliver the message about its value and goals, and a proper brandhelps the project get the necessary support and increases loyalty. The project that promotes new initiatives to expand its benefit to other communities is the one that best represents the project impact to a company's brand value, as it shows the company's vision, cause, and reputation.

Which of the following are primary features provided by a standard laaS solution? (Select two). A. Encryption B. Storage C. Networking D. User interface E. Access F. Database

Answer: B, C Explanation:According to What is Logging as a Service (LaaS)? - LogicMonitor, LaaS is a cloud-based log management platform that simplifies the management of infrastructure and application logs. LaaS offers a central location where you can store, analyze and visualize the content of all your logs. It works by ingesting logs from different sources, such as web servers, IoT devices, database servers and more. It then provides actionable output by organizing and restructuring the information within these logs. Therefore, storage and networking are primary features provided by a standard LaaS solution, as they enable the collection and transmission of logs from various sources to a centralized platform. Encryption, user interface, access, and database are not primary features of LaaS, as they are either optional or secondary aspects of the service.

Which of the following activities are performed during the closing phase? (Select three). A. Requesting project charter sign-off B. Recognizing project team efforts and rewarding team members C. Working with the financial team to obtain return of investment D. Revoking resource credentials from the system E. Updating the risk register with new findings F. Informing the functional manager about the release of resources G. Monitoring project team performance

Answer: B,D and F Explanation:The closing phase of a project involves finalizing all project activities, delivering the projectdeliverables, releasing the project resources, and closing out the project accounts. Some of theactivities that are performed during this phase are12:Recognizing project team efforts and rewarding team members. This is an important activityto acknowledge the contributions of the project team, celebrate the project success, and motivatethe team members for future projects. Recognition and rewards can be given in various forms, suchas certificates, bonuses, gifts, or feedback.Revoking resource credentials from the system. This is a security measure to ensure that theproject resources, such as staff, contractors, vendors, or consultants, do not have access to theproject systems, data, or assets after the project is completed. Revoking credentials can preventunauthorized access, data breaches, or misuse of project resources.Informing the functional manager about the release of resources. This is a communicationactivity to notify the functional manager, who is responsible for the allocation and management ofresources, that the project resources are no longer needed and can be reassigned to other projects ortasks. Informing the functional manager can help to optimize the resource utilization, avoid resource conflicts, and plan for future resource needs.

During a sponsor meeting, a PM is assigned to manage a new external project for an IT consultant. The sponsor wants the PM to establish an agreement regarding the exchange of money between both parties. Which of the following documents would the PM most likely create? A. Business requirement B. Client statement of work C. Formal contract D. Project charter

Answer: C Explanation: A formal contract is a legal document that defines the terms and conditions of the agreement between the project parties, such as the scope, schedule, budget, quality, deliverables, roles and responsibilities, payment methods, and dispute resolution mechanisms. A formal contract is essential for external projects, especially when there is an exchange of money involved, to protect the interests and rights of both parties and to ensure mutual understanding and compliance. A formal contract is different from a business requirement, which is a statement of the needs and expectations of the customer or stakeholder for the project outcome. A formal contract is also different from a client statement of work, which is a document that describes the work to be performed, the deliverables to be provided, and the acceptance criteria to be met by the project vendor or contractor. A formal contract is also different from a project charter, which is a document that authorizes the project and provides the high-level information about the project objectives, scope, stakeholders, and project manager.

While in the closing phase of a project, the project manager gathers feedback from stakeholders. Which of the following best describes a benefit of this feedback? A. It highlights the performance issues of the project manager and team members. B. It lets the project manager know which stakeholders are allies for future projects. C. It helps the project manager create a more structured lessons-learned session. D. It identifies the stakeholders' real opinions about the project.

Answer: C Explanation: Gathering feedback from stakeholders during the closing phase of a project is crucial for creating a structured lessons-learned session. This session helps the project team and stakeholders review the project's outcomes, successes, failures, and best practices, and document insights for future improvement. Stakeholder feedback provides valuable perspectives on project management, identifies gaps, issues, and risks, and contributes to a comprehensive lessons-learned report. While feedback might highlight performance issues or reveal stakeholder opinions, its primary purpose is to enhance project management processes and outcomes, not to evaluate individuals or build relationships.

A project manager needs to ensure that the products produced during the project meet the highest quality standards and that team members understand the importance of these standards. Which of the following should the project manager do? A. Train the team members. B. Assess the resource pool. C. Develop a QA plan. D. Create RACI matrix.

Answer: C Explanation:A QA plan, or quality assurance plan, is a document that specifies the quality standards, practices,resources, specifications, and activities for a product, service, project, or contract. A QA plan helps toensure that the products produced during the project meet the highest quality standards and that the project objectives and customer requirements are met. A QA plan also helps to communicate the quality expectations and responsibilities to the team members and other stakeholders, and to monitor and control the quality performance throughout the project. Developing a QA plan is one of the key tasks of the project manager, as it is part of the project scope management and project quality management processes

Which of the following statements best describes a content management system? A. A system to manage electronic signatures and document workflow B. A system to manage database integration and provide messaging services C. A system to manage shared data on the web, allowing multiple contributors to create, edit, and publish D. A system to manage documents archival, such as emails, spreadsheets, and support tickets

Answer: C Explanation:A content management system (CMS) is a software application that allows users to create, manage,and deliver content via digital channels, such as websites, blogs, or social media12. A CMS enablesmultiple contributors to access, edit, and publish content without requiring technical knowledge orcoding skills34. A CMS also provides features such as templates, workflows, media libraries, andanalytics to help users design, organize, and optimize their content

Which of the following can be used to determine whether a sample product is within an acceptable range? A. Scatter diagram B. Velocity chart C. Control chart D. Fishbone diagram

Answer: C Explanation:A control chart is a graphical tool that displays the variation of a process over time and compares it to predetermined control limits. It can be used to determine whether a sample product is within an acceptable range by checking if the sample values fall within the upper and lower control limits, which indicate the expected variation of the process. If the sample values are outside the control limits or show a non-random pattern, it indicates that the process is out of control and there may be some assignable causes of variation that need to be investigated and corrected

A project team is working remotely from different locations across the country. As part of a lessonslearned exercise, the project manager would like to identify the level of engagement among project team members. Which of the following would be the best tool for the project manager to use? A. Meeting chat B. Email C. Real-time survey D. Whiteboard

Answer: C Explanation:A real-time survey is a tool that allows the project manager to collect feedback from the project team members in an interactive and timely manner. A real-time survey can measure the level of engagement, satisfaction, motivation, and performance of the team members, as well as identify any issues, challenges, or opportunities for improvement. A real-time survey can also increase the participation and collaboration of the team members, as they can see the results and comments of their peers instantly. A real-time survey is more effective than a meeting chat, an email, or a whiteboard, as it can reach a larger and more diverse audience, provide more structured and quantitative data, and avoid distractions and interruptions.

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of Scrum? A. Large teams B. Low-risk scope C. Self-organized team D. Well-defined scope

Answer: C Explanation:A self-organized team is a typical characteristic of Scrum, which is an agile framework for managing complex projects. A self-organized team is a group of motivated and skilled individuals who have the autonomy and authority to make decisions and collaborate on how to deliver the project goals. A self-organized team does not rely on a manager or a leader to assign tasks, monitor progress, or resolve issues. Instead, a self-organized team uses Scrum events, such as daily stand-ups, sprint planning, sprint review, and sprint retrospective, to coordinate their work, communicate with each other, and inspect and adapt their process and product

Which of the following best describes a manufacturer's obligation to repair or change, without extra costs, any part of a product that is not functioning? A. Service-level agreement B. Functional testing C. Warranty period D. Audit

Answer: C Explanation:A warranty period is the time during which a manufacturer or seller agrees to repair or replace a product that is defective or does not meet the specified standards. A warranty period can be expressed in terms of duration (e.g., one year) or usage (e.g., 10,000 miles). A warranty period is a form of consumer protection that obliges the manufacturer or seller to bear the costs of repairing or changing any part of the product that is not functioning properly

A project manager does not have the power to reward team members when they accomplish something or penalize them when they fail to perform well. As a result, the project manager is having issues with team members. Which of the following describes this organizational structure? A. Flat B. Projectized C. Weak matrix D. Functional

Answer: C Explanation:A weak matrix organizational structure is one where the project manager has low authority and the functional manager has high authority. The project manager is considered to be a coordinator or an escalator, and the team members are primarily loyal to their functional units. This can cause issues with team motivation, communication, and performance

A project manager has been scheduling and facilitating project meetings, scribing the minutes, distributing the minutes, and sending agendas prior to upcoming meetings. However, the project manager is frustrated because action items are not being completed. Which of the following should the project manager do to alleviate these concerns? A. Use a software tool during the meeting that can create a transcript of what is discussed. B. Have a standing agenda that is vague enough so that it can be used again. C. Delegate the roles and responsibilities to improve meeting management. D. Reprimand project team members for not completing assigned action items.

Answer: C Explanation:According to 6 Techniques for Running Project Management Meetings, one of the best practices for effective project meetings is to assign meeting roles to stay focused. By delegating the roles and responsibilities of facilitator, timekeeper, scribe, and presenter, the project manager can ensure that the meeting agenda is followed, the action items are recorded, and the outcomes are communicated. This can also increase the engagement and accountability of the project team members, and reduce the frustration of the project manager.

A project sponsor would like to develop a minimum viable product, but the requirements are not well defined. Which of the following should the project sponsor use? A. Rational Unified Process B. Waterfall C. Agile D. DevOps

Answer: C Explanation:Agile is a methodology that emphasizes iterative and incremental development, customercollaboration, and responsiveness to change. Agile is suitable for developing a minimum viableproduct (MVP), which is a version of a product with just enough features to be usable by earlycustomers who can then provide feedback for future product development. Agile allows the projectsponsor to deliver an MVP quickly and test it with real users, and then adapt the product based onthe feedback and changing requirements. Agile also reduces the risk of wasting time and resources on a product that does not meet the customers needs or expectations.

During the planning phase, a PM reviews the SOW from the contractor, grades the full-timeequivalents' resumes, evaluates the titles and salaries, and estimates the number of hours for eachmilestone by full-time equivalents. The PM is most likely: A. negotiating resources. B. assigning resources. C. assessing the resource pool. D. adding resources to the schedule

Answer: C Explanation:Assessing the resource pool is the process of identifying and evaluating the availability, skills, and costs of the resources needed for the project. The PM reviews the SOW from the contractor to understand the scope and requirements of the project, grades the full-time equivalents resumes to determine their qualifications and suitability for the project, evaluates the titles and salaries to estimate the budget and allocation of the resources, and estimates the number of hours for each milestone by full-time equivalents to plan the schedule and workload of the project

A project manager is leading the implementation of a new service for a well-known, global company for which brand image is most important. The project will rely on contracted services. As part of the request for proposal process, the project team has identified a short list of vendors to submit proposals. Which of the following items should the project team consider as a primary factor to remove a vendor from consideration? A. The vendor's proposed schedule does not align with the desired schedule. B. The vendor is new and not well established in the market. C. The vendor has been linked to ESG concerns within the past month D. The vendor's quote was the highest of all the proposals.

Answer: C Explanation:ESG stands for environmental, social, and governance, and it refers to the criteria that measure the sustainability and ethical impact of an organization. ESG concerns can affect the reputation, performance, and value of a company, as well as its stakeholders and customers. For a well-known, global company that values its brand image, hiring a vendor that has been linked to ESG concerns can be a major risk and a source of negative publicity. Therefore, the project team should consider this as a primary factor to remove a vendor from consideration

Which of the following software programs would be best to use to store information related to business transactions? A. Record management system B. Customer relationship management C. Enterprise resource planning D. Content management system

Answer: C Explanation:Enterprise resource planning (ERP) software is a type of software that integrates various businessfunctions and processes, such as accounting, finance, inventory, sales, purchasing, human resources,and more. ERP software helps businesses store, organize, and manage information related to business transactions, such as invoices, payments, orders, receipts, and reports. ERP software also provides real-time data analysis, reporting, and forecasting capabilities

Which of the following provides a layered approach to logging in to systems that contain an organization's most valuable intellectual property? A. Remote access B. Password protection C. Multifactor authentication D. Virtual private network

Answer: C Explanation:Multifactor authentication (MFA) is a security method that requires users to provide two or morepieces of evidence to verify their identity before accessing a system. MFA can use different types offactors, such as something the user knows (e.g., password, PIN, security question), something theuser has (e.g., token, smart card, mobile device), or something the user is (e.g., fingerprint, face,voice). MFA provides a layered approach to logging in to systems that contain an organizations mostvaluable intellectual property, as it makes it harder for unauthorized users to gain access by compromising one factor alone. MFA can also prevent phishing, brute force, and credential theft attacks

A project team selected a random sample of patient accounts for testing the deliverable. The data was masked since it contained patient names. Which of the following describes this type of data? A. Confidential information B. Protected health information C. Personally identifiable information D. Security clearance

Answer: C Explanation:Personally identifiable information (PII) is any data that can be used to identify, contact, or locate a specific individual, either alone or combined with other sources. PII includes information such as name, address, phone number, email address, social security number, etc. Patient names are examples of PII, and therefore the data that contains them should be masked or anonymized to protect the privacy and security of the patients. Confidential information, protected health information, and security clearance are not types of data, but rather categories or levels of data sensitivity that may require different degrees of protection or access control. Reference

Two team members have a minor disagreement on how a task should be performed. The project manager plans to meet with the team members to discuss the matter. Which of the following techniques should the project manager use to emphasize the areas of agreement and downplay the opposing views? A. Compromising B. Forcing C. Smoothing D. Collaborating

Answer: C Explanation:Smoothing is a conflict resolution technique that involves emphasizing the areas of agreement and minimizing the areas of difference. It is useful when the conflict is minor and the relationship between the parties is more important than the issue. Smoothing can help maintain harmony and avoid further escalation of the conflict

Two team members have a minor disagreement on how a task should be performed. The project manager plans to meet with the team members to discuss the matter. Which of the following techniques should the project manager use to emphasize the areas of agreement and downplay the opposing views? A. Compromising B. Forcing C. Smoothing D. Collaborating

Answer: C Explanation:Smoothing is a conflict resolution technique that involves minimizing or ignoring the differencesbetween the parties and focusing on the common interests or goals1. It is often used when theconflict is not very important or when there is a need to maintain harmony and relationships2. Byusing smoothing, the project manager can reduce the tension and stress caused by the disagreement and encourage the team members to cooperate and work together. Smoothing is different from compromising, which involves finding a middle ground or a trade-off that partially satisfies both parties; forcing, which involves imposing ones own solution or decision on the other party; and collaborating, which involves finding a win-win solution that fully satisfies both parties

A project is executed to migrate all data to a single system following the merger of two companies. The team validates that system performance will not be impacted. Which of the following did the team perform? A. Regression testing B. Smoke testing C. Stress testing D. Automation testing

Answer: C Explanation:Stress testing is a type of performance testing that evaluates how a system behaves under extreme load conditions, such as high volume of data, concurrent users, or transactions12. Stress testing can help to identify the systems breaking point, bottlenecks, and resource limitations, and to ensure that the system can recover from failures and maintain its functionality34. In this case, the team performed stress testing to validate that system performance will not be impacted by migrating all data to a single system following the merger of two companies. This implies that the team simulated a high amount of data transfer and processing, and measured the systems response time, throughput, availability, and reliability under such load. Stress testing is better than the other options because:Regression testing is a type of functional testing that verifies that a systems existing features and functionality are not affected by a change or an update56. Regression testing does not focus on system performance or load conditions, but rather on system correctness and quality. Smoke testing is a type of functional testing that checks the basic functionality and stability of a system before performing more detailed and comprehensive testing78. Smoke testing does not measure system performance or load conditions, but rather ensures that the system is ready for further testing.Automation testing is a technique of using software tools or scripts to execute test cases and compare the actual results with the expected results910. Automation testing is not a specific type of testing, but rather a way of performing testing. Automation testing can be applied to various types of testing, including stress testing, regression testing, and smoke testing.

Which of the following factors would be impacted the most by requirements for a project to implement an air quality control system at a coal plant? A. Social B. Regulatory C. Environmental D. Governmental

Answer: C Explanation:The environmental factor would be impacted the most by requirements for a project to implementan air quality control system at a coal plant. This is because coal combustion produces various air pollutants, such as particulate matter (PM), sulfur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), carbon dioxide (CO2), and mercury, that can harm human health and the environment12. An air quality control system can reduce the emissions of these pollutants by using different technologies, such as low NOx burners, flue gas desulfurization, electrostatic precipitators, and carbon capture and storage23. However, these technologies also have environmental impacts, such as waterconsumption, waste generation, energy consumption, and greenhouse gas emissions4. Therefore ,the project manager should consider the environmental factor in terms of the project scope, objectives, constraints, risks, and stakeholders, and evaluate the trade-offs and benefits of different air quality control options

A project team is developing an application that will allocate a building's parking spaces. The building owner does not agree with using corporate colors in the application and has blocked the release of the beta version for testing. Which of the following best describes what the project manager should have done in the initiation phase to prevent this issue? A. Review of existing artifacts B. Development of an issue log C. Identification and assessment of stakeholders D. Establishment of accepted communication channels

Answer: C Explanation:The project manager should have identified and assessed the building owner as a key stakeholder in the initiation phase, and understood their expectations and requirements for the application. This would have helped to avoid the conflict over the corporate colors and the delay in testing. Stakeholder identification and assessment is an important process in the initiation phase, as it helps to define the project scope, objectives, and success criteria, and to establish a communication plan

A project manager wants to schedule a troubleshooting session for team members who are locatedin Germany and California. Which of the following is most important for the project manager to consider when setting up the session? A. Cultural differences B. Technological factors C. Time zones D. Language barriers

Answer: C Explanation:Time zones are the most important factor to consider when setting up a troubleshooting session for team members who are located in different regions of the world. The project manager should ensure that the session is scheduled at a convenient and reasonable time for all participants, and avoid scheduling conflicts or communication delays. Time zones can also affect the availability and responsiveness of stakeholders, vendors, and customers

While working in a collaborative, online brainstorming session, team members send private messages to the facilitator about challenges understanding others when they are speaking due to accents and background noises. Which of the following should the facilitator do to overcome the challenges? A. Instruct the team members to set their speakers to maximum volume and mute theirmicrophones. B. Require everyone to turn on their cameras and use the same background filter. C. Encourage the use of the chat and use plain language when speaking. D. Allow one person to speak at a time after receiving acknowledgment from the facilitator

Answer: C Explanation:Using the chat and plain language can help overcome the communication barriers caused by accents and background noises. Chat allows team members to write down their ideas and questions, which can be easier to understand than spoken words. Plain language reduces the ambiguity and complexity of the messages, making them more clear and concise. These techniques can also enhance the participation and engagement of the team members, as they can express their thoughts and opinions more comfortably and confidently

Which of the following tools is best to use when conducting project meetings across time zones? A. Text B. Calendaring tools C. Videoconference D. Email

Answer: C Explanation:Videoconference is the best tool to use when conducting project meetings across time zones, as it allows real-time communication, visual cues, screen sharing, and collaboration among the participants. Videoconference can also help build rapport and trust among the team members, and reduce the risk of misunderstandings or miscommunication. Videoconference tools such as Zoom, Skype, or Google Meet can also accommodate different time zones by showing the local time of each participant and allowing them to schedule meetings in advance

A global franchise requests that a company provide a solution to unify its operation worldwide. Additionally, the company would like the solution to provide operation reports in real time without asking the country franchise manager for these reports. Which of the following cloud models would the company suggest to the global franchise? A. laaS B. XaaS C. PaaS D. SaaS

Answer: D Explanation: SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud model providing on-demand access to ready-to-use, cloud-hosted application software. It's ideal for a global franchise as it unifies operations worldwide using the same platform across various locations and devices, and offers real-time operation reports managed by the cloud provider. SaaS is scalable, reliable, secure, and cost-effective. SaaS differs from IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service), which provides cloud-hosted computing infrastructure requiring the franchise to manage its own software and data, and doesn't offer real-time reports without custom tools. SaaS also differs from XaaS (Anything as a Service), a broad category encompassing various cloud services, and from PaaS (Platform as a Service), which provides a cloud-hosted platform for developing and managing applications, requiring more complexity than SaaS.

A new junior PM who has ownership of a project does not understand how to manage conflicts involving multiple personalities. Which of the following is the best order of the stages the PM should follow to nurture the team to high performance? A. Forming, storming, performing, norming, adjourning B. Forming, performing, storming, norming, adjourning C. Forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning D. Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

Answer: D Explanation: This is the correct order of the stages of team development according to Tuckmans model. The forming stage is where team members first meet and get acquainted. The storming stage is where team members experience conflicts and disagreements. The norming stage is where team members resolve their differences and establish norms and rules. The performing stage is where team members work together effectively and efficiently. The adjourning stage is where team members complete the project and celebrate their achievements.

Which of the following is the best example of a breach of physical security? A. System user IDs being used by multiple individuals B. Printers that do not request user authentication C. Developers having full access to both development and production environments D. Project documentation that is only kept on a removable device

Answer: D Explanation:A breach of physical security is an unauthorized access or damage to physical assets, such asequipment, data, or personnel. Project documentation that is only kept on a removable device is the best example of a breach of physical security, because it exposes sensitive information to theft, loss, or corruption. If the removable device is not encrypted or protected, anyone who obtains it can access the project documentation and compromise the project integrity, confidentiality, or availability. Therefore, project documentation should be stored in a secure location, backed up regularly, and protected by access controls and encryption. The other options are not examples of physical security breaches, but rather logical or administrative security breaches. System user IDs being used by multiple individuals is a violation of the principle of least privilege and accountability, which could lead to unauthorized access or misuse of system resources. Printers that do not request user authentication is a lack of proper access control, which could allow unauthorized printing or retrieval of confidential documents. Developers having full access to both development and production environments is a violation of the principle of separation of duties and environments, which could introduce errors, conflicts, or malicious code into the production system.

During the execution phase, a new PM was assigned to a project. The PM received a request to add new functionality to the system that is being developed. While the PM was conducting a preliminary review with the team, the technical lead highlighted that this functionality request was rejected during the planning phase. Which of the following documents is the best source for the PM to use to confirm this assertion? A. Issue log B. Scope statement C. Risk report D. Change log

Answer: D Explanation:A change log is a document that records and tracks the changes that are made to the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality. It helps the project manager to monitor and control the project performance and ensure that the changes are aligned with the project objectives and stakeholders expectations. A change log can also include information such as the change description, impact, status, approval, and date. A change log is the best source for the PM to use to confirm the assertion that the functionality request was rejected during the planning phase, as it would show the details and reasons for the rejection

Before a configuration can be made to a system in development, a document containing information about how the new system will interact with other systems within the organization needs to be written. Which of the following relationships best describes this scenario? A. Start-to-start B. Start-to-finish C. Finish-to-finish D. Finish-to-start

Answer: D Explanation:A finish-to-start relationship is a type of logical dependency between two tasks, in which the first taskmust be completed before the second task can start. In this scenario, the document containinginformation about how the new system will interact with other systems within the organization is aprerequisite for the configuration of the system in development. Therefore, the document writing task must finish before the configuration task can start, which is a finish-to-start relationship.

A meeting agenda included the following items: . Review the goals of the project. . Review the progress of the project. . Discuss if the project is ready to move forward. Which of the following best describes this type of meeting? A. Stand-up B. Monthly status C. Gap analysis D. Gate review

Answer: D Explanation:A gate review is a type of meeting that evaluates the completion and quality of a project stage and decides whether the project can proceed to the next stage. A gate review is a formal governance step that involves reviewing the goals, progress, risks, deliverables, and benefits of the project, and discussing if the project is still aligned with the business strategy and stakeholder expectations. A gate review can have different outcomes, such as go, kill, hold, recycle, or conditional go, depending on the assessment of the project status and viability

Which of the following is required to provide a hardware installation with a Tier 5 redundancy level? A. Storage project B. Computer services project C. Database project D. Multitiered architecture project

Answer: D Explanation:A multitiered architecture project is a type of project that involves designing and implementing a system that consists of multiple layers or tiers, such as presentation, application, and data. A multitiered architecture project can provide a high level of redundancy, scalability, and performance, as each tier can have multiple servers or components that can handle requests and failures independently. A Tier 5 redundancy level is the highest level of redundancy that requires a fully redundant, mirrored system plus one additional backup unit for every component

A project manager makes a company-wide announcement about the successful completion of a project and thanks team members. Which of the following is the project manager doing? A. Bringing attention to the project sponsor B. Sharing lessons learned C. Collecting feedback D. Celebrating the team's hard work

Answer: D Explanation:A project manager who makes a company-wide announcement about the successful completion of aproject and thanks team members is doing the following:Celebrating the teams hard work: This is the correct answer, as the project manager isacknowledging the efforts and contributions of the team members and showing appreciation andrecognition for their performance12.Bringing attention to the project sponsor: This is not the correct answer, as the project manager is not highlighting the role or involvement of the project sponsor, who is the person who provides the resources and authority for the project. Sharing lessons learned: This is not the correct answer, as the project manager is not discussing the successes, challenges, or best practices of the project, which are part of the lessons learned process. Collecting feedback: This is not the correct answer, as the project manager is not soliciting any input or opinions from the team members or other stakeholders, which are part of the feedback process.

A company needs to have structured cabling installed in one of its buildings. Which of the following would be the best document for the company to use to obtain and compare information on cabling services and costs from various vendors? A. RFB B. RFQ C. RFI D. RFP

Answer: D Explanation:A request for proposal (RFP) is the best document for the company to use in this scenario, because it is the most detailed and personalized type of request document. An RFP allows the company to specify the project scope, requirements, deliverables, evaluation criteria, and budget for the structured cabling installation, and to solicit proposals from various vendors that can meet those needs. An RFP also enables the company to compare the vendors based on their qualifications, experience, methodology, and pricing, and to select the best one for the project. An RFP is more suitable than an RFB, RFQ, or RFI, because those documents are less comprehensive and more generic, and they do not provide enough information for the company to make an informed decision.

A company needs to have structured cabling installed in one of its buildings. Which of the following would be the best document for the company to use to obtain and compare information on cabling services and costs from various vendors? A. RFB B. RFQ C. RF D. RFP

Answer: D Explanation:An RFP (request for proposal) is a document that solicits proposals from potential vendors for a specific project or service. An RFP typically describes the project scope, requirements, evaluation criteria, and instructions for submitting proposals. An RFP is the best document for the company to use to obtain and compare information on cabling services and costs from various vendors, as it allows the company to evaluate the vendors qualifications, experience, approach, and pricing

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program? A. Residual risk B. Regulatory requirements C. Risk tolerance D. Control objectives

Answer: D Explanation:Control objectives are the desired outcomes or goals of implementing security controls to mitigate risks and protect information assets. Control objectives should be the primary basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program, as they align with the business objectives, requirements, and expectations of the organization and its stakeholders. Metrics based on control objectives can help to evaluate the performance, efficiency, and maturity of the security program, and to identify gaps, issues, and areas for improvement. The other options are not correct because:Residual risk is the remaining risk after applying security controls. Residual risk is not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a result of measuring the effectiveness of security controls. Residual risk should be monitored and reported, but it does not define the desired outcomes or goals of the security program.Regulatory requirements are the external standards, laws, and regulations that the organization must comply with to avoid legal or financial penalties. Regulatory requirements are not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a constraint or a driver for the security program. Metrics based on regulatory requirements can help to demonstrate compliance, but they may not reflect the actual effectiveness or efficiency of the security program.Risk tolerance is the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept or bear. Risk tolerance is not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a factor or an input for the security program. Metrics based on risk tolerance can help to prioritize and allocate resources, but they may not measure the actual outcomes or goals of the security program

A project team participates in a brainstorming session to define the guidance, direction, and approach for monitoring established procedures for developed products. Which of the following plans is the team creating? A. Project transition B. Project management C. Project communications D. Project quality assurance

Answer: D Explanation:Project quality assurance is the process of ensuring that the project meets the quality standards and requirements defined by the stakeholders and the organization. It involves planning, implementing,and monitoring quality activities throughout the project life cycle. Project quality assurance isdifferent from project quality control, which is the process of inspecting and testing the project deliverables and outputs to identify and correct defects. Project quality assurance is also differentfrom project transition, which is the process of transferring the project deliverables and outputs tothe end users or customers. Project management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project objectives. Project communications is the process of planning, creating, distributing, and managing information among the project stakeholders.

A global franchise requests that a company provide a solution to unify its operation worldwide.Additionally, the company would like the solution to provide operation reports in real time withoutasking the country franchise manager for these reports. Which of the following cloud models would the company suggest to the global franchise? A. laaS B. XaaS C. PaaS D. SaaS

Answer: D Explanation:SaaS, or Software as a Service, is a type of cloud computing that provides ready-to-use software applications over the internet. The software is hosted and managed by the service provider, and the users do not have to install, update, or maintain it. SaaS is suitable for the global franchise because it can provide a unified solution that can be accessed from anywhere, anytime, and on any device. SaaS can also provide real-time operation reports without requiring the intervention of the country franchise managers. SaaS can offer benefits such as scalability, flexibility, cost-effectiveness, and security for the global franchise

A customer requests some changes to a product, and those changes are approved by the CCB. Which of the following should be changed first? A. ROI B. KPI C. RACI D. SOW

Answer: D Explanation:The SOW (statement of work) is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, schedule, andresources of a project. It is a contractual agreement between the buyer and the seller that should bechanged first when there are approved changes to the product. Changing the SOW will ensure thatthe project expectations and requirements are updated and aligned with the customers requests.The other options are not documents that need to be changed first, but rather metrics or tools that can be used to measure or manage the project.

A new project team started work three months ago. The team members are increasing their workproductivity and are comfortable asking for help with tasks. Which of the following describes the current stage of the project team? A. Performing B. Adjourning C. Forming D. Norming

Answer: D Explanation:The current stage of the project team is norming, which is the third stage of the five stages of team development. In this stage, the team members have resolved their conflicts and differences, and have established a sense of cohesion and collaboration. They are more productive, supportive, and cooperative, and they follow the agreed norms and rules of the team. They also communicate effectively and seek feedback and assistance from each other. The norming stage is preceded by the forming stage, where the team members get to know each other and the project goals, and the storming stage, where the team members experience disagreements and challenges. The norming stage is followed by the performing stage, where the team members work efficiently and autonomously towards the project outcomes, and the adjourning stage, where the team members complete the project and celebrate their achievements.

A project manager is receiving reports of the actual project expenditures and, based on this information, is making adjustments to the budget. In which of the following phases does this occur? A. Planning B. Closure C. Initiation D. Execution

Answer: D Explanation:The execution phase is when the project manager and the team execute the project plan, deliver theproject outputs, and monitor and control the project performance. This includes tracking andmanaging the project budget, scope, schedule, quality, and risks. Making adjustments to the budget based on the actual project expenditures is part of the monitoring and controlling process in the execution phase

During a stand-up meeting, a team member asks to include a change that an important stakeholderrequested in the project board. This request is denied, and the team member has to go back to whatwas originally planned for the sprint. Which of the following individuals should the stakeholder have asked to request the change instead of the team member? A. Architect B. Project sponsor C. Scrum master D. Product owner

Answer: D Explanation:The product owner is the person who is responsible for managing the product backlog, which includes adding, removing, or changing items based on stakeholder feedback and business value. The product owner is also the one who can collaborate with the development team and the scrum master to decide if a change can be accommodated in the current sprint or deferred to a future sprint. Therefore, the stakeholder should have asked the product owner to request the change instead of the team member, who is not authorized to make changes to the sprint backlog

During the execution phase, user accepted testing failed; nonetheless, the vendor PM is insisting that the program manager approve the invoice for this phase. Which of the following actions should the Program manager take? A. Escalate the issue with the project sponsor and ask for assistance in managing the situation. B. Work with the vendor to achieve a compromise that benefits everyone. C. Approve the invoice to avoid damaging the relationship with the vendor. D. Schedule a call with the vendor PM and vendor executive to review the statement of work.

Answer: D Explanation:The program manager should schedule a call with the vendor PM and vendor executive to review the statement of work (SOW), which is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, timeline, quality, and payment terms of the project. The program manager should clarify the expectations and criteria for user acceptance testing (UAT), which is a process of verifying that the system meets the users requirements and expectations. The program manager should also discuss the reasons for the UAT failure and the corrective actions needed to resolve the issues. The program manager should not approve the invoice until the UAT is successfully completed, as this would compromise the quality and value of the project. The program manager should also not escalate the issue or work on a compromise without first reviewing the SOW and communicating with the vendor

After months of recruiting, a team finally found the right candidate for a very specific coding language assignment. Due to this delay, the team has a tight timeline without any float. A day before the candidate is scheduled to join the team, the project manager realizes the candidate has a noncompete agreement from the previous employer. Which of the following should the project manager do? A. Withdraw the offer to the candidate and raise this as a risk. B. Ignore a potential lawsuit since this is a critical project. C. Use a third-party company for the contract to legally avoid responsibility. D. Have a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss the situation.

Answer: D Explanation:The project manager should inform the project sponsor about the issue and seek their guidance and support. The project sponsor is the person who provides the resources and authority for the project, and who can help resolve any conflicts or problems that may arise. The project manager should not withdraw the offer, ignore the lawsuit, or use a third-party company without consulting the project sponsor first, as these actions may have legal, ethical, or financial implications for the project and the organization

A contractor attended a project meeting that was exclusively for company employees. Which of the following actions should the PM take? A. Escalate to vendor management. B. Consult the request for proposal. C. Review the meeting cadence. D. Reinforce the rules of engagement.

Answer: D Explanation:The rules of engagement are the guidelines and expectations that define the relationship between the contractor and the company. They may include topics such as communication, confidentiality, access, security, performance, and compliance. The project manager should reinforce the rules of engagement with the contractor to ensure that they understand and respect the boundaries and protocols of the company. This will help to avoid any potential conflicts, misunderstandings, or breaches of contract

After new capabilities were deployed in a system, issues with preexisting capabilities were reported. Which of the following testing cycles should be used to prevent this issue? A. Performance testing B. User acceptance testing C. Stress testing D. Unit testing

Answer: D Explanation:Unit testing is a testing technique that verifies the functionality and quality of individual units or components of software, such as modules, classes, functions, etc. Unit testing can help prevent issues with preexisting capabilities by detecting and fixing errors at an early stage of development, before they affect the integration and system testing. Unit testing can also ensure that new capabilities do not break or interfere with the existing ones, by checking the compatibility and dependencies of the units. Unit testing can be performed by developers using tools and frameworks that automate the process and generate reports

A project manager receives an escalation from an external group reporting that an expected deliverable should have been available some time ago. After analysis, the project team realizes the deliverable was provided on time. Which of the following should the project manager do next? A. Request a change control ticket. B. Review the schedule plan. C. Refine the project documentation. D. Revise the communication plan.

Answer: D Explanation:When a project manager receives an escalation about a deliverable that was actually provided ontime, it indicates a communication issue. The next step should be to revise the communication planto ensure that all stakeholders are properly informed about project progress and deliverables in thefuture. This helps to prevent misunderstandings and ensures that everyone has the correct information.

A stakeholder raises a concern with a project manager because of the number of emails that have been received before a coding release. Which of the following actions should the project manager take next? A. Inform the CCB to stop communication. B. Establish a RACI matrix. C. Escalate the communication issues. D. Revise the communication plan.

Answer: D Explanation:When stakeholders express concerns about the volume of communication, its important to review and adjust the communication plan to ensure it meets the projects needs and stakeholders preferences. A RACI matrix is useful for defining roles and responsibilities but does not address communication frequency or methods directly. Escalating the issue may not be necessary if it can be resolved by revising the plan. Informing the CCB (Change Control Board) to stop communication is not advisable as the CCBs role is to oversee changes, not to manage day-to-day communications.

During the testing phase of a project, the regression test fails due to a specific item that is disrupting the entire system. Which of the following documents should the project manager use to identify who requested this item? A. Issue log B. Risk register C. Defect log D. Traceability matrix

Answer: D Explanation:A traceability matrix is a document that maps the requirements of a project to the deliverables, testcases, and changes that are produced to meet those requirements. It helps the project manager totrack the origin, status, and impact of each requirement throughout the project life cycle. Atraceability matrix can also identify who requested or approved each requirement. Therefore, theproject manager can use the traceability matrix to identify who requested the specific item thatcaused the regression test to fail

A project manager and team are currently in the planning phase of a project. Which of the following should the team do during this phase? A. Identify and assess stakeholders. B. Hold daily status meetings. C. Remove access and plan the project sign-off. D. Review assumptions and constraints for input to the risk register.

Answer: D Explanation:The project manager and team should review assumptions and constraints for input to the riskregister during the planning phase of a project. Assumptions are statements that are considered tobe true for the purpose of planning, but may or may not be valid in reality. Constraints are factorsthat limit the project scope, time, cost, quality, or resources. Both assumptions and constraints canintroduce risks to the project, which are uncertain events or conditions that can have a positive or negative impact on the project objectives. The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their causes, impacts, probabilities, responses, owners, and status. Reviewing assumptions and constraints can help the project manager and team identify, analyze, prioritize, and plan for the potential risks that may affect the project

Which of the following aspects are true of agile as compared to waterfall? (Select two). A. Agile works through larger integrated teams. B. Agile promotes project manager ownership over deliverables. C. Agile reinforces the importance of comprehensive documentation. D. Agile has more customer involvement throughout development. E. Agile is more flexible to allow for changes in scope. F. Agile is comprised of well-defined phases.

Answer: D, E Explanation: Agile is a project management methodology that emphasizes customer collaboration, feedback, and adaptation throughout the project life cycle. Agile teams work in short iterations, called sprints, and deliver working increments of the product or service to the customer for review and approval. Agile teams can also respond to changing requirements and priorities by adjusting the scope, schedule, or quality of the project12. Waterfall, on the other hand, is a project management methodology that follows a linear and sequential process, where each phase of the project must be completed before moving on to the next one. Waterfall teams work with a fixed scope, schedule, and quality, and deliver the final product or service to the customer at the end of the project. Waterfall teams have less customer involvement and flexibility during the project development

As a part of a project, structured cabling activities have been outsourced to another company. The agreement is that work will take six weeks to complete and will be performed at different locations. Which of the following should the project manager do? (Select two). A. Purchase the materials. B. Assign the resources. C. Accept delays in the work. D. Approve the deliverables. E. Monitor the performance. F. Negotiate with the vendors.

Answer: DE Explanation:The project manager should approve the deliverables and monitor the performance of the outsourced structured cabling activities. These are the responsibilities of the project manager when dealing with external vendors or contractors, as they ensure that the quality standards, scope, schedule, and budget are met according to the contract terms and the project plan. The project manager should also communicate regularly with the vendor and provide feedback and guidance as needed. The other options are not correct because:Purchasing the materials is not the responsibility of the project manager, but the vendor who is performing the structured cabling activities. The project manager should only verify that the materials are suitable and available for the project.Assigning the resources is not the responsibility of the project manager, but the vendor who is performing the structured cabling activities. The project manager should only ensure that the vendor has the adequate and qualified resources to complete the work.Accepting delays in the work is not a good practice for the project manager, as it can negatively affect the project schedule, scope, and quality. The project manager should proactively identify and manage the risks and issues that may cause delays, and implement contingency plans or corrective actions if necessary.Negotiating with the vendors is not a task that the project manager should do during the execution of the structured cabling activities, as it should have been done during the planning and procurement phases of the project. The project manager should only adhere to the contract terms and conditions that have been agreed upon with the vendor, and only renegotiate if there are significant changes or disputes that require it.

Which of the following activities would be performed during the project closure phase when the waterfall methodology is being used? (Select two). A. Creating a backlog B. Managing the quality of deliverables C. Updating the issue log D. Performing a risk assessment E. Validating the deliverables F. Reconciling the project budget

Answer: EF Explanation:During the project closure phase in the waterfall methodology, it is crucial to validate the deliverables to ensure that all project requirements have been met and the project outputs are complete and satisfactory. Additionally, reconciling the project budget is performed to ensure all financial records are accurate and reflect the actual project costs, which is essential for the formal closing of the project.