Q1 EMT

HIV is caused by what type of organism? A) Virus B) Fungus C) Protozoa D) Bacteria

A

The AED gives a "no shock" message to a patient who is in cardiac arrest. What should you do? A. Resume chest compressions. B. Check for a carotid pulse. C. Reanalyze the cardiac rhythm. D. Deliver two rescue breaths.

A

The CPAP is generally used for which condition? A.Acute pulmonary edema B.Hyperventilation C.Pleural effusion D.Spontaneous pneumothorax

A

What is atelectasis? A.Collapse of the alveolar air spaces of the lungs B.A buildup of excess acid in the blood or body tissues that results from a primary illness C.A buildup of excess base (lack of acids) in the body fluids D.An extreme, life-threatening, systemic allergic reaction that may include shock and respiratory failure

A

What is perfusion? A. The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels B. The force or resistance against which the heart pumps C. The presence of abnormally large amounts of fluid between cells in body tissues, causing swelling of the affected area D. A passive process in which molecules move from an area with a higher concentration of molecules to an area of lower concentration

A

What mnemonic is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? A) OPQRST B) AVPU C) SAMPLE D) TACOS

A

When administered to a patient, a metered-dose inhaler will: A.deliver the same dose each time it is administered. B.be ineffective when given to patients with asthma. C.deliver a different dose each time it is administered. D.be delivered to the lungs over a period of 6 to 8 hours.

A

When performing CPR on an infant, which of the following is correct? A. Place two fingers in the middle of the sternum, just below the nipple line. B. Place the heel of one hand on the lower half of the sternum and the other hand over the first hand. C. Place the heel of one or two hands in the center of the chest, in between the nipples, avoiding the xiphod process. D. Use your index finger on the lower left half of the sternum.

A

Which of the following best describes a communicable disease? A. A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another B. A disease that is transmitted through contaminated drinking water C. Presence of infectious organisms on or in objects D. The growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body

A

Which of the following is an advantage of MDI drug administration over SVN drug administration? A. The MDI route does not require an external oxygen source. B. MDI medications have no side effects. C. MDI medications do not expire. D. The patient does not need to be conscious for MDI drug administration.

A

Which of the following is the last measureable factor to change in shock? A. BP B. HR C. O2 D. LOC

A

Which of the following medications can be used for the treatment of an acute asthma attack? A.Cromolyn B.Albuterol C.Fluticasone D.Salmeterol

A

Why is tuberculosis not more common than it is? A. The BCG vaccine is 95% effective. B. Droplet nuclei that spread the infection have a very short lifespan. C. Infected air is easily diluted with uninfected air, so transmission is inefficient. D. Human beings have natural immunity.

A

The MOST effective way of preventing the spread of disease is: A. hand washing. B.keeping your immunizations up-to-date. C.placing a HEPA respirator on the patient. D.wearing goggles, gloves, a gown, and a mask.

A According to the CDC, the most effective way of preventing the spread of disease is thorough hand washing—especially in between patients. Up-to-date immunizations and PPE will minimize the risk of contracting a disease.

All of the following are potential causes of impaired tissue perfusion, EXCEPT: A.increased number of red blood cells. B.pump failure. C.low fluid volume. D.poor vessel function.

A An increased number of red blood cells would allow adequate oxygen and nutrients to be delivered to the cells.

When communicating with an older patient, you should: A.approach the patient slowly and calmly. B.step back to avoid making the patient uncomfortable. C.raise your voice to ensure that the patient can hear you. D.obtain the majority of your information from family members.

A Approach an older patient slowly and calmly, use him or her as your primary source of information whenever possible, and allow ample time for the patient to respond to your questions. Not all older patients are hearing impaired; if the patient is hearing impaired, you may need to elevate your voice slightly.

Artificial ventilation may result in the stomach becoming filled with air, a condition called: A.gastric distention. B.vomitus. C.abdominal-thrust maneuver. D.acute abdomen.

A Artificial ventilation may result in the stomach becoming filled with air, a condition called gastric distention. Gastric distention is likely to occur if you ventilate too fast, if you give too much air, or if the airway is not opened adequately. Therefore, it is important for you to give slow, gentle breaths.

If an injury distracts an EMT from assessing a more serious underlying illness, the EMT has suffered from: A.tunnel vision. B.index of suspicion. C.virulence. D.a trauma emergency.

A As an EMT, you should use the dispatch information to guide your initial response, but do not get locked into a preconceived idea of the patient's condition strictly from what the dispatcher tells you. Tunnel vision occurs when you become focused on one aspect of the patient's condition and exclude all others, which may cause you to miss an important injury or illness.

Bronchospasm is MOST often associated with: A.asthma. B.bronchitis. C.pneumonia. D.pneumothorax.

A Asthma—a reactive airway disease—is caused by bronchospasm (sustained constriction of the bronchioles). Common triggers to an acute asthma attack include environmental allergens, stress, and temperature changes.

When a team member speaks, you should repeat the message back to him or her. This is an example of: A.closed loop communication. B.a clear message. C.constructive intervention. D.courtesy.

A Closed loop communication helps confirm that you heard and understood the message and will act on it. A clear message is delivered when you speak calmly, confidently, and concisely so that the information delivered, or the action requested is clear to the listener. Constructive intervention takes place when it is necessary for you to respectfully question or correct a team member or leader. You extend courtesy when speaking politely to members of the group.

Your partner is working a 48-hour shift and has had little sleep. He disagrees with you over how to position the patient and how you should drive to the hospital. You should: A.follow your partner's orders and discuss the call after the patient has been dropped off at the hospital. B.confront your partner about his or her behavior in front of the patient. C.tell your partner he or she does not know that they are talking about. D.ask the patient who he or she thinks is correct.

A If the problem causing the conflict does not directly and immediately impact patient care, it is best to wait until after the call to discuss the matter with your partner. It is also important to not have a heated discussion in front of the patient. Rather than contribute to a conflict, take a deep breath and count to 10. Let cooler heads prevail. Finally, do not involve the patient in a conflict; it takes the focus off of patient care.

A 60-year-old woman presents with a BP of 80/60 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 110 beats/min, mottled skin, and a temperature of 103.9°F. She is MOST likely experiencing: A.septic shock. B.neurogenic shock. C.profound heart failure. D.a severe viral infection.

A In septic shock, bacterial toxins damage the blood vessel walls, causing them to leak and rendering them unable to constrict. Widespread dilation of the vessels, in combination with plasma loss through the injured vessel walls, results in shock. A high fever commonly accompanies a bacterial infection.

It is impractical to apply a vest-type extrication device on a critically injured patient to remove him or her from a wrecked vehicle because it: A.takes too long to correctly apply. B.does not fully immobilize the spine. C.cannot be used on patients who are in their car. D.does not provide adequate stabilization.

A It takes several minutes to correctly apply a vest-type extrication device. This is too much time to waste when treating a critically injured patient. A long backboard would be more appropriate. Vest-type immobilization devices, when applied correctly, provide adequate spinal stabilization and are ideal to use in stable patients who need to be removed from their vehicle.

Which of the following patients is the BEST candidate for oral glucose? A.Conscious patient who is showing signs of hypoglycemia B.Unconscious diabetic patient with a documented low blood sugar C.Conscious diabetic patient suspected of being hyperglycemic D.Semiconscious patient with signs and symptoms of low blood sugar

A Oral glucose is given to diabetic patients with suspected or documented hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). It should not be given to unconscious patients or those who are otherwise unable to swallow because it may be aspirated into the lungs.

Placards are used on: A.buildings. B.individual packages. C.storage lockers. D.storage papers.

A Placards are used for buildings and transportation vehicles

A laceration located on the plantar surface is on the: A.sole of the foot. B.palm of the hand. C.back of the body. D.front of the body.

A Plantar refers to the soles of the feet while palmar refers to the palms of the hands. Dorsal or posterior is used when referring to the back of the body. Ventral or anterior is used to when referring to the front of the body.

Prefixes can indicate: A.color. B.conditions. C.body parts. D.procedures.

A Prefixes are used to indicate colors, numbers, position, or direction. Suffixes will indicate a procedure, condition, disease, or part of speech. Word roots will indicate specific body parts.

The process in which oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs is called: A.respiration. B.ventilation. C.metabolism. D.inhalation.

A Respiration is defined as the exchange of gases between the body and its environment. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs is called pulmonary (external) respiration. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the cellular level is called cellular (internal) respiration.

All of the following are responsibilities of the EMS medical director, EXCEPT: A. evaluating patient insurance information. B. serving as a liaison to the medical community. C. ensuring that the appropriate standards are met by EMTs. D. ensuring appropriate EMT education and continuing training.

A Responsibilities of the medical director include serving as a liaison to the medical community, ensuring that appropriate standards are met by EMS personnel, and ensuring appropriate EMT education and continuing training. Insurance matters are handled by the EMS billing department.

Self-concept is: A.our perception of ourselves. B.how we feel about ourselves. C.how we fit in with peers. D.how we react to certain situations.

A Self-concept is how we perceive ourselves.

When assessing a patient with an infectious disease, what is the first action you should perform? A.Size up the scene and take standard precautions. B.Obtain a SAMPLE history. C.Hand the patient off to a paramedic. D.Cover your mouth and nose with your hand.

A The assessment of a patient suspected to have an infectious disease should be approached much like any other medical patient. First, the scene must be sized up and standard precautions taken. Always show respect for the feelings of the patient, family members, and others at the scene.

An 8-year-old boy was struck by a car, is unconscious, and is bleeding from the mouth. A police officer tells you that he is unable to contact the child's parents. You should: A.continue to treat the child and transport as soon as possible. B.cease all treatment until the child's parents can be contacted. C.continue with treatment only if authorized by medical control. D.provide airway management only until the parents are contacted.

A The child in this scenario is critically injured and requires immediate treatment and transport; waiting until his parents are contacted wastes time and increases his chance of a negative outcome. If you are unable to contact a minor's parents or legal guardian, you should proceed with care based on the law of implied consent.

The five most common hazards associated with a structural fire include: A.smoke, oxygen deficiency, high ambient temperatures, toxic gases, and building collapse. B.smoke, oxygen deficiency, inhalation of tar particles, injury from breaking glass, and building collapse. C.smoke, high ambient temperatures, toxic gases, electric shock, and inhalation of tar particles. D.oxygen deficiency, high ambient temperatures, toxic gases, electric shock, and injury from breaking glass.

A The five hazards most commonly associated with a structural fire are smoke, oxygen deficiency, high ambient temperatures, toxic gases, and building collapse.

Which of the following are found in the retroperitoneal space? A.Liver B.Spleen C.Kidneys D.Stomach

A The kidneys lie in the retroperitoneal space—the space behind the abdominal cavity. The spleen, liver, and stomach are all located within the anterior (true) abdomen.

The left atrium of the heart receives ___________ blood from the ___________. A.oxygenated; lungs B.deoxygenated; body C.oxygenated; body D.deoxygenated; lungs

A The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the venae cavae.

Why do finances become an issue during middle adulthood? A.Middle adults are often supporting both their children and their parents. B.Middle adults make less money than early adults. C.Their deteriorating health makes it difficult to get to work. D.Hearing loss prevents them from working.

A The parents of adults in this age group are getting older and now need care. Most of the elderly in the United States are cared for by family members inside the home. Therefore, a person in middle adulthood may need to manage children who are leaving for college while at the same time caring for parents who require greater assistance.

Findings such as inadequate breathing or an altered level of consciousness should be identified in the: A.primary assessment. B.focused assessment. C.secondary assessment. D.reassessment.

A The purpose of the primary assessment is to identify and manage any life threats to the patient, such as inadequate breathing, an altered level of consciousness, or severe hemorrhage.

A body part that lies closer to the midline when compared to another is considered to be: A.medial. B.distal. C.lateral. D.proximal.

A The term medial is used to identify a body part that closer to the midline when compare to another. Distal is used to refer to a body part that is further away from the trunk in comparison to another. Lateral refers to a describe a structure that lies away from midline or towards the side of the body. Proximal is used to describe a body part that is closer to the trunk when compared to another.

The largest part of the brain is the: A.cerebrum. B.brainstem. C.cerebellum. D.foramen magnum.

A The three major parts of the brain are the cerebrum, the brainstem, and the cerebellum. The largest part of the brain is the cerebrum, which is sometimes called the "gray matter." The cerebellum—sometimes called the "athlete's brain"—is the smallest part of the brain. The brainstem is responsible for vital functions such as heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure. The foramen magnum is the large opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes.

A 33-year-old woman presents with a generalized rash, facial swelling, and hypotension approximately 10 minutes after being stung by a hornet. Her BP is 70/50 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. In addition to high-flow oxygen, this patient is in MOST immediate need of: A.epinephrine. B.rapid transport. C.an antihistamine. D.IV fluids.

A This patient is in anaphylactic shock—a life-threatening overexaggeration of the immune system that results in bronchoconstriction and hypotension. After ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation, the MOST important treatment for the patient is epinephrine, which dilates the bronchioles and constricts the vasculature, thus improving breathing and blood pressure, respectively.

The EMT should assess a patient's tidal volume by: A.observing for adequate chest rise. B.assessing the facial area for cyanosis. C.counting the patient's respiratory rate. D.measuring the patient's oxygen saturation.

A Tidal volume—the volume of air that is moved into or out of the lungs in a single breath—is assessed by observing for adequate chest rise. If shallow chest rise is noted, the patient's tidal volume is likely reduced.

Which of the following diseases is potentially drug resistant and is thought to be transmitted by coughing? A.Tuberculosis B.Croup C.Diphtheria D.Epiglottitis

A Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection spread by cough. It is dangerous because many strains are resistant to antibiotics.

You are treating a patient with an apparent emotional crisis. After the patient refuses treatment, you tell him that you will call the police and have him restrained if he does not give you consent. Your actions in this case are an example of: A.assault. B.battery. C.negligence. D.abandonment.

A Unlawfully placing a person in fear of immediate bodily harm (ie, having him restrained) without his consent constitutes assault.

Anaphylactic shock is typically associated with: A.urticaria. B.bradycardia. C.localized welts. D.a severe headache.

A Urticaria (hives) is typically associated with allergic reactions—mild, moderate, and severe. They are caused by the release of histamines from the immune system. In anaphylactic shock, urticaria is also accompanied by cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; severe respiratory distress; and hypotension.

When requesting medical direction for a patient who was involved in a major car accident, the EMT should avoid: A. using radio codes to describe the situation. B. questioning an order that seems inappropriate. C. relaying vital signs unless they are abnormal. D. the use of medical terminology when speaking.

A When giving a report to medical control or requesting medical direction, the EMT should avoid the use of codes, such as "10-50" or "Signal 70." One cannot assume that the physician is familiar with these codes. Plain English is more effective.

To extract a patient from the basement of a building, you must transport the patient up a flight of stairs. In doing this, you must ensure that: A.the elevated head of the backboard goes first. B.the backboard with the elevated foot end goes first. C.the backboard is slightly tilted to the left to distribute weight. D.the patient's feet are higher than his or her head, whichever end is carried first.

A When you carry a patient upstairs or up an incline, you must ensure that the elevated head of the backboard or stretcher goes first. This will help to equally distribute the weight.

During insertion of an oropharyngeal airway into an unconscious patient, she begins to vomit. The first thing you should do is: A.turn the patient on her side. B.remove the airway at once. C.suction the patient's mouth. D.use a smaller-sized oral airway.

A Whenever an unconscious patient begins to vomit—whether you are inserting an oropharyngeal airway or not—you should immediately turn the patient onto his or her side; this will allow drainage of vomit from the mouth and prevent aspiration. After the patient is on his or her side, remove the oral airway and suction the mouth.

Instead of the abdominal-thrust maneuver, use ___________ for women in advanced stages of pregnancy and patients who are obese. A.chest thrusts B.Sellick maneuver C.basic life support D.DNR orders

A You can perform the abdominal-thrust maneuver safely on all adults and children. However, for women in advanced stages of pregnancy and patients who are obese, you should use chest thrusts.

An anaphylactic reaction constitutes what type of medical emergency? A) Toxicologic B) Immunologic C) Cardiovascular D) Hematologic

B

Pharmacology is defined as the: A.study of cells and tissues. B.study of drugs and medications. C.effects of medications in the lungs. distribution of drugs to the body's tissues

B

What is the most appropriate method for oxygen delivery to an adult patient experiencing breathing difficulty? A.Nasal cannula at 2 to 6 L/min B.Nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min C.Venturi mask at 8 L/min D.Bag-mask device at 15 L/min

B

When performing CPR on an adult, you should compress the chest to what depth and at what rate of compressions per minute? A. 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm); 80 to 100 B. 1 to 1.4 inches (2.5 to 3.5 cm); 100 to 120 C. 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm); 100 to 120 D. 1 to 1.4 inches (2.5 to 3.5 cm); 80 to 100

B

When you are performing CPR on an adult or a child, you should reassess the patient for return of respirations and/or circulation approximately every how many minutes? A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 3

B

Which intervention(s) would have the MOST positive impact on the cardiac arrest patient's outcome? A. Advanced airway management B. Early CPR and defibrillation C. IV fluid administration D. Cardiac medications

B

Which of the following diseases is the most virulent? A. Herpes Simplex B. HIV C. Tuberculosis D. Hepatitis B

B

Which of the following is indicated in almost every type of shock? A. Place the patient in a supine position B. Administer high-flow O2 C. Get ALS assistane D. Control Bleeding

B

You are treating a patient presenting with labored breathing, absent peripheral pulses, and dilated pupils. These are indications of what? A. Psychogenic Shock B. Decompensated Shock C. Irreversible Shock D. Compensated Shock

B

You arrive on scene to find a conscious 58-year-old woman sitting up and reporting severe chest pain and shortness of breath. She is anxious and tells you she feels like she is going to die. Physical examination shows that her skin is pale, cool, and clammy and her pulse is rapid, weak, and irregular. Her breathing is labored, with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min. Her SpO2 is 90%. Lung sounds show crackles in all fields. Blood pressure is 92/60 mm Hg. What is your differential diagnosis of this patient? A. Septic Shock B. Cardiogenic Shock C. Neurogenic Shock D. Hypovolemic Shock

B

Your patient is complaining of fever, headache, stiffness of the neck, and red blotches on his skin. He most likely has: A.tuberculosis. B.hepatitis B. C.SARS. D.meningitis.

B

Which of the following situations would MOST likely disqualify a person for EMS certification? A. A misdemeanor committed at age 17 B. Driving under the influence of alcohol C. Possessing a valid driver's license from another state D. A mild hearing impairment that is corrected with hearing aids

B In most states, a person may be denied EMS certification for being convicted of a felony, such as driving under the influence of alcohol or other drugs.

An injured hang glider is trapped at the top of a large mountain and must be evacuated to the ground. The terrain is very rough and uneven. Which of the following devices would be the safest and most appropriate to use? A.Stair chair B.Stokes basket C.Scoop stretcher D.Long backboard

B A basket stretcher, also called a Stokes basket, should be used to carry patients over rough or uneven terrain that is inaccessible by ambulance. Its closed-ended sides protect the patient from falling out of the device.

A disease that can be spread from person-to-person is known as: A.an infectious disease. B.a communicable disease. C.a transmittable disease. D.a spreadable disease.

B A communicable disease can be spread from one person or a species to another.

The pulse rate of a toddler is: A.80 to 140 beats/min B.90 to 150 beats/min C.90 to 180 beats/min D.100 to 160 beats/min

B A toddler's pulse rate is 90 to 150 beats/min.

An infant who is repeatedly rejected experiences what type of attachment? A.Secure attachment B.Anxious-avoidant attachment C.Trust and mistrust D.Rejection attachment

B Anxious-avoidant attachment is observed in infants who are repeatedly rejected. In this attachment style, children show little emotional response to their parents or caregivers and treat them as they would strangers. These children develop an isolated lifestyle where they do not have to depend on the support and care of others.

Which of the following respiratory diseases causes obstruction of the lower airway? A.Croup B.Asthma C.Epiglottitis D.Laryngitis

B Asthma is a lower airway disease that causes the bronchioles in the lungs to constrict (bronchospasm), resulting in various degrees of obstruction. Croup, epiglottitis, and laryngitis cause swelling, inflammation, and varying degrees of obstruction of the upper airway.

Which of the following routes of medication administration has the fastest effect? A.Oral B.Intravenous C.Subcutaneous D.Intramuscular

B Because its administration is directly into a vein, a drug given intravenously enters the body quickly. The intravenous route is the fastest acting of all the routes of medication administration.

During the scene size-up, you should routinely determine all of the following, EXCEPT: A.the mechanism of injury or nature of illness. B.the ratio of pediatric patients to adult patients. C.whether or not additional resources are needed. D.if there are any hazards that will jeopardize safety.

B Components of the scene size-up—after taking standard precautions—include determining if the scene is safe for entry, determining the mechanism of injury or nature of illness, determining the number of patients, and determining if additional resources are needed at the scene.

A school-age child looking for approval from his peers and society is demonstrating what kind of reasoning? A.Preconventional reasoning B.Conventional reasoning C.Postconventional reasoning D.Trust and mistrust

B During school-age development, children begin to develop their self-concept and self-esteem. It is a critical time in human development. Children who look for approval from their peers and society are demonstrating conventional reasoning.

All of the following are causes of acute dyspnea, EXCEPT: A.asthma. B.emphysema. C.pneumothorax. D.pulmonary embolism.

B Emphysema—a form of COPD—is a chronic respiratory disease; therefore, it presents with progressively worsening dyspnea. Asthma, pulmonary embolism, and pneumothorax are all acute conditions; therefore, they typically present with an acute onset of dyspnea.

While caring for a trauma patient, the EMT has blood splashed into her eyes. This is an example of: A.infection. B.exposure. C.indirect contact. D.transmission.

B Exposure occurs when a person comes in (direct or indirect) contact with blood or other bodily fluids. Blood splattered into the eyes is an example of direct contact. It is important to note that exposure does not always lead to infection. Proper use of PPE minimizes this risk.

You and your partner are ventilating an apneic adult when you notice that his stomach is becoming distended. You should: A.suction his airway for up to 15 seconds. B.reposition his head. C.increase the rate and volume of your ventilations. D.decrease your ventilation rate but use more volume.

B Gastric distention occurs when air enters the stomach. Severe gastric distention can result in vomiting and aspiration if not recognized and treated. To minimize the amount of air that enters the stomach during ventilations, you should reposition the patient's head.

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman who fell reveals an altered level of consciousness and a large hematoma to her forehead. After protecting her spine and administering oxygen, you should: A.reassess your interventions. B.perform a rapid exam. C.transport the patient immediately. D.perform a focused assessment of her head.

B If any life-threatening problems are discovered in the primary assessment, they should be addressed immediately. The EMT should then perform a rapid exam to look for other potentially life-threatening injuries or conditions.

What should you do if you are exposed to a patient who is found to have pulmonary tuberculosis? A.Get the BCG vaccine. B.Get a tuberculin skin test. C.Undergo serious therapy. D.No precautions need to be taken.

B If you are exposed to a patient who is found to have pulmonary tuberculosis, you will be given a tuberculin skin test. This simple skin test determines whether a person has been infected with M. tuberculosis.

Which of the following pieces of patient information is of LEAST pertinence when giving a verbal report to a nurse or physician at the hospital? A.The patient's name and age B.The patient's family medical history C.Vital signs that may have changed D.Medications that the patient is taking

B Information given to the receiving nurse or physician should include the patient's name and age, vital signs (especially if they have changed), a summary of the past medical history, and the patient's response to any treatment that you rendered. Family medical history is not essential in the emergency treatment of a patient.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a regular team? A.They serve a specialized role within the larger emergency health care system. B.Members consistently interact with the same partner. C.The team performs special functions across geographic boundaries. D.Regular teams are more common in volunteer EMS systems.

B Members of a regular team consistently interact with the same partner. This allows them to perform as a seamless unit. Special teams serve a specialized role within the larger emergency health care team. Groups perform special functions across geographic boundaries. Temporary teams are common in volunteer EMT systems.

You are managing a 62-year-old woman who complains of crushing chest pain. Her blood pressure is 84/64 mm Hg, and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. Medical control advises you to assist her in taking her prescribed nitroglycerin. After receiving this order, you should: A.reassess the patient's heart rate and then assist with the nitroglycerin. B.repeat the patient's blood pressure to the physician and confirm the order. C.wait 10 minutes, reassess the blood pressure, and then give the nitroglycerin. administer the nitroglycerin to the patient and then reassess her blood pressure

B Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator and lowers blood pressure (BP); therefore, it should not be given to patients with a systolic BP less than 100 mm Hg. If you receive an order to give nitroglycerin to a patient with a systolic BP less than 100 mm Hg, you should ensure that the physician is aware of the patient's BP, then reconfirm the order.

Your patient is having respiratory difficulty and is not responding to your treatment. What is the best method of transport? A.Without lights and siren, to the closest hospital B.With lights and siren, to the closest hospital C.Air transport, to a special facility located 30 miles away D.The patient does not need to be transported.

B Patients with respiratory difficulty generally require high-priority transport, especially if they do not respond to your initial treatment. If a life-threatening condition exists, the transportation should include lights and siren. In this case, it is appropriate to select the closest hospital with an emergency department as your destination.

The term "shock" is MOST accurately defined as: A.a decreased supply of oxygen to the brain. B.cardiovascular collapse leading to inadequate perfusion. C.decreased circulation of blood within the venous circulation. decreased function of the respiratory system leading to hypoxia

B Shock, or hypoperfusion, refers to a state of collapse and failure of the cardiovascular system, or any one of its components (eg, heart, vasculature, blood volume), which leads to inadequate perfusion of the body's cells and tissues.

Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, EXCEPT: A.pink, warm, dry skin. B.shallow chest rise. C.symmetrical chest movement. D.a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min.

B Signs of inadequate breathing in the adult include a respiratory rate less than 12 breaths/min or greater than 20 breaths/min, shallow chest rise (reduced tidal volume), cyanosis, and asymmetrical chest movement (both sides of the chest do not move equally).

Protective measures that prevent health care workers from coming into contact with germs are referred to as: A.exposure. B.standard precautions. C.transmission. D.PPE.

B Standard precautions prevent health care workers from coming into contact with germs.

Which of the following is an example of care that is provided using standing orders? A. Medical control is contacted by the EMT after a patient with chest pain refuses EMS care. B. The EMT defibrillates a patient in cardiac arrest, begins CPR, and then contacts medical control. C. A physician gives the EMT an order via radio to administer oral glucose to a diabetic patient. D. Following an overdose, the EMT contacts the medical director for permission to give activated charcoal.

B Standing orders—a form of off-line (indirect) medical control—involves performing certain life-saving interventions (ie, CPR, defibrillation, bleeding control) before contacting a physician for further instructions.

Once you begin CPR in the field, you must continue until one of the following events occurs: A.The patient stops breathing and has no pulse. B.The patient is transferred to another person who is trained in BLS, to ALS-trained personnel, or to another emergency medical responder. C.You are out of gas in the ambulance. D.A police officer assumes responsibility for the patient and gives direction to discontinue CPR.

B The "T" in the "STOP" mnemonic stands for patient transfer to another person who is trained in BLS, to ALS-trained personnel, or to another emergency medical responder.

The EMT has a legal duty to act if he or she is: A.off duty and witnesses a major car accident. B.a volunteer, is on duty, and is dispatched on a call. C.paid for his or her services, but is not on duty. D.out of his or her jurisdiction and sees a man choking.

B The EMT—paid or volunteer—has a legal duty to act if he or she is on duty and is dispatched on a call, regardless of the nature of the call. If the EMT is off duty and/or out of his or her jurisdiction, he or she has a moral obligation to act, but not necessarily a legal one.

What is the first rule of lifting? A.Twist slowly when you lift. B.Keep your back in a straight position. C.Bend at the waist to pick something up. D.Use your arms to do most of the lifting.

B The first rule of lifting is to always keep your back in a straight, upright, position and use the powerful muscles of your thighs. Never twist while lifting.

The ______________ is a circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band and backboard. A.mechanical piston device B.load-distributing band C.impedance threshold device D.cardiopulmonary resuscitation

B The load-distributing band is a circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band and backboard. The device is either electronically or pneumatically driven to compress the heart by putting inward pressure on the thorax. As with the mechanical piston device, use of the device frees the rescuer to complete other tasks. It is lighter and easier to apply than the mechanical piston device.

The normal resting adult heart rate is: A.50 to 70 beats/min. B.60 to 100 beats/min. C.80 to 110 beats/min. D.110 to 120 beats/min.

B The normal resting heart rate for an adult is 60 to 100 beats/min. Bradycardia exists when the adult heart rate is less than 60 beats/min, and tachycardia exists when it is greater than 100 beats/min.

If an injured patient needs to be moved but is not in immediate danger from fire or building collapse, you should first: A.order the equipment you need for extrication. B.check the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation. C.remove the patient with the rapid extrication technique. D.determine the number of people you will need to move the patient.

B The only time your attention should be directed away from the primary assessment of the patient is when the patient's life or your life is in immediate danger.

Insulin is produced in the: A.liver. B.pancreas. C.thyroid gland. D.adrenal glands.

B The pancreas is a solid organ that produces both insulin and digestive juices. Insulin is produced in the islets of Langerhans, which are a part of the pancreas.

Which stage of grieving commonly results in blame? A.Denial B.Anger, hostility C.Bargaining D.Depression

B The person may lash out at the EMT or blame the EMT for the unfortunate event.

Breathing is controlled by an area in the: A.lungs. B.brainstem. C.spinal cord. D.diaphragm.

B The pons and the medulla are the respiratory centers in the brainstem that control breathing.

A person with bilateral femur fractures has: A.fractured one of his or her femurs. B.fractured both of his or her femurs. C.one femur fractured in two places. D.fractured the lateral aspect of the femur.

B The term bilateral refers to both sides of the body with reference to the midline. Therefore, bilateral femur fractures would indicate that both femurs are fractured.

Epinephrine is given to patients with anaphylactic shock because of its effects of: A.bronchodilation and vasodilation. B.bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. C.vasodilation and bronchoconstriction. D.bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction.

B The two major complications associated with anaphylactic shock are bronchoconstriction, which impairs air movement in and out of the lungs, and vasodilation, which causes a drop in blood pressure. Epinephrine reverses these processes by causing bronchodilation and vasoconstriction, thereby improving breathing and increasing the blood pressure, respectively.

Your 12-year-old patient can speak only two or three words without pausing to take a breath. He has a serious breathing problem known as: A.nasal flaring. B.two- to three-word dyspnea. C.labored breathing. D.shallow respirations.

B Two- to three-word dyspnea is a severe breathing problem in which a patient can speak only two to three words at a time without pausing to take a breath.

Assessment of an unconscious patient's breathing begins by: A.inserting an oral airway. B.manually positioning the head. C.assessing respiratory rate and depth. D.clearing the mouth with suction as needed.

B You cannot assess or treat an unconscious patient's breathing until the airway is patent—that is, open and free of obstructions. Manually open the patient's airway (eg, head tilt-chin lift, jaw-thrust), use suction as needed to clear the airway of blood or other liquids, insert an airway adjunct to assist in maintaining airway patency, and then assess the patient's respiratory effort.

2.Which of the following statements regarding medications is FALSE? A.Many medications are known by different names. B.Some medications affect more than one body system. C.Over-the-counter drugs must be prescribed by a physician. D.EMTs should ask about any herbal remedies or vitamins that the patient may be taking.

C

At what point should you make a preliminary transport decision? A) After the secondary assessment B) During the reassessment C) Once the preliminary assessment is complete D) During scene size-up

C

Distributive shock is the result of which of the following? A. Pump Failure B. Rapid Deoxygenation C. Poor Vessel function D. Low fluid volume

C

During your treatment of a patient having a stroke whose breathing is normal and oxygen saturation is 96%, you administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask at 10 to 15 L/min. This is an example of what? A. Therapeutic Effect B. Skills-based error C. Knowledge-based error D. Rules-based error

C

In the mnemonic PASTE, what does the "S" stand for? A.Symptoms B.Severity C.Sputum D.Syncope

C

What information should you include on your PCR related to a patient's medications? A. Do not document the medication names; these will be determined at the hospital. B. Document the trade name and the generic name of each medication. C. Document the medication names and dosages. D. Document the medication names and expiration dates.

C

When assisting an asthmatic patient with a small-volume nebulizer attached to oxygen, what is the appropriate flow rate for the oxygen? A.2 L/min B.4 L/min C.6 L/min D.10 L/min

C

Which of the following statements is true regarding asthma? A.Asthma involves accumulation of air in the pleural space. B.Asthma involves a collection of fluid in the pleural space. C.Asthma involves excessive mucus production. D.Asthma involves a collection of fluid in the alveoli.

C

Which of the following terms is used to describe a balance of all body systems? A. Perfusion B. Hypothermia C. Homeostasis D. Diffusion

C

Which type of breath sound are you more likely to hear in a person with congestive heart failure? A.Decreased/absent B.Rhonchi C.Crackles D.Stridor

C

Why should you not use an oral route to deliver medication in a patient with an altered LOC? A. The patient will likely be combative so an oral route will be difficult. B. The medication will not work as intended in a patient with altered LOC. C. There is a potential for airway compromise. D. It takes too long for medicine to be delivered using the oral route.

C

In an otherwise healthy individual, the primary stimulus to breathe is a(n): A.increased level of oxygen in the blood. B.decreased level of oxygen in the blood. C.increased level of carbon dioxide in the blood. D.decreased level of carbon dioxide in the blood.

C Under control of the brainstem, rising levels of carbon dioxide in arterial blood normally stimulate breathing in an otherwise healthy patient.

You place a patient in the semi-Fowler position for transport. This means the patient is: A.lying on his or her back. B.lying on his or her stomach. C.sitting at a 45-degree angle. D.sitting at a 90-degree angle.

C A patient that is sitting at a 45-degree angle is said to be in a semi-Fowler position. A patient is said to be supine when positioned on his or her back. When a patient is lying on his or her stomach, they are said to be in a prone position. If you have a patient sitting at a 90-degree angle, you have placed them in a high-Fowler position.

Which of the following patients is competent and can legally refuse EMS care? A.A confused young female who states that she is the president B.A man who is staggering and states that he drank only three beers C.A conscious and alert woman who is in severe pain from a broken leg D.A diabetic patient who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date

C A patient who is of legal age (18 in most states), is conscious, and is alert to person, place, time, and event, likely has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse EMS care. However, patients who are confused, possibly intoxicated, or delusional are not capable of making rational decisions; therefore, you should provide care based on the law of implied consent.

A device that receives a low-frequency signal and then transmits it at a relatively higher frequency is called a: A.duplex. B.scanner. C.repeater. D.receiver.

C A repeater receives messages and signals from one frequency and then automatically transmits them on a second, higher frequency.

You are delivering oxygen to a patient with a nasal cannula at 4 L/min when he begins to complain of a burning sensation in his nose. You should: A. remove the nasal cannula. B. apply a nonrebreathing mask. C. attach an oxygen humidifier. D. increase the flow rate to 6 L/min.

C Administering "dry" oxygen through a nasal cannula—especially over a prolonged period of time—can result in drying of the nasal membranes, in which case the patient might complain of a burning sensation in the nose. Humidified oxygen will serve to keep the nasal membranes moist.

Why should you be concerned about a 16-year-old patient who seems depressed? A.She could be exhibiting rebellious behavior. B.She has just finished her growth spurt and may be disappointed in the results. C.Adolescents are at a higher risk for suicide. D.She may be having unprotected sex.

C Adolescents are struggling to create their own identity but are caught between two worlds. They want to be treated like adults yet want to be cared for like younger children. Many adolescents are fixated on their public image and are terrified of being embarrassed. Because of all these factors, adolescents are at a higher risk than other populations for suicide and depression.

Failure of the EMT to provide the same care as another EMT with the same training is called: A.libel. B.slander. C.negligence. D.abandonment.

C An EMT could be held liable for negligence if he or she fails to provide the same care as another EMT with the same training would provide in the same situation. For example, if an EMT fails to give oxygen to a patient with shortness of breath (an intervention that is clearly indicated), he or she may be held liable for negligence.

An advance directive is: A.a set of specific guidelines that clearly defines the different types of consent. B.a formal list that defines by state law whether a patient has decision-making capacity. C.a written document that specifies the care you should provide if the patient is unable to make decisions. D.a verbal order given to you by a dying patient's family regarding whether treatment should be provided.

C An advance directive is a written document signed by the patient and a witness that specifies the medical care that should be provided if the patient loses decision-making capacity (ie, he or she is no longer deemed competent).

You see an infant capable of reaching out to people and drooling. She is most likely: A.2 months of age. B.3 months of age. C.4 months of age. D.5 months of age.

C An infant's psychosocial development begins at birth and continues to evolve as the infant interacts with, and reacts to, the environment. At 4 months of age, an infant is likely to start reaching out to people and drooling.

Which of the following is a professional responsibility of the EMT? A. Telling the family of a dying patient that everything will be OK B. Maintaining only the skills that he or she feels uncomfortable with C. Maintaining a professional demeanor in even the most stressful situations D. Advising an emergency department nurse that patient reports are given only to a physician

C Because the public relies upon the EMT to remain calm when others cannot, he or she must project a professional and calm demeanor even when under extreme stress.

Potential causes of cardiogenic shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: A.inadequate heart function. B.disease of muscle tissue. C.severe bacterial infection. D.impaired electrical system.

C Cardiogenic shock is caused by inadequate function of the heart, or pump failure. Within certain limits, the heart can adapt to these problems. If too much muscular damage occurs, however, as sometimes happens after a heart attack, the heart no longer functions well. Other causes include disease, injury, and an impaired electrical system.

Your patient believes he has hepatitis and is now exhibiting signs of cirrhosis of the liver. He most likely has: A.hepatitis A. B.hepatitis B. C.hepatitis C. D.hepatitis D.

C Cirrhosis of the liver develops in 50% of patients with chronic hepatitis C.

When treating a trauma patient who is in shock, LOWEST priority should be given to: A.spinal protection. B.thermal management. C.splinting fractures. D.notifying the hospital.

C Critical interventions for a trauma patient in shock include spinal precautions, high-flow oxygen (or assisted ventilation), thermal management, rapid transport, and early notification of a trauma center. Splinting fractures should not be performed at the scene if the patient is critically injured; it takes too long and only delays transport.

An acute bacterial infection that results in swelling of the flap that covers the larynx during swallowing is called: A.croup. B.laryngitis. C.epiglottitis. D.diphtheria.

C Epiglottitis—a potentially life-threatening illness—is an acute bacterial infection that causes swelling of the epiglottis (the flap the covers the larynx during swallowing). It is characterized by a sudden onset of high fever, difficulty breathing, stridor, drooling, and varying degrees of hypoxemia.

You arrive at the scene of an older woman complaining of chest pain. In assessing her, she holds her arm out for you to take her blood pressure. This is an example of: A.implied consent. B.informed consent. C.expressed consent. D.emergency consent.

C Expressed consent (also called actual consent) is when the patient authorizes you to provide treatment and transport, either verbally or nonverbally. For example, a patient who holds out his or her arm to allow you take a blood pressure is nonverbally giving you expressed consent.

The unauthorized confinement of a person is called: A.assault. B.battery. C.false imprisonment. D.slander.

C False imprisonment is defined as the confinement of a person without legal authority or the person's consent.

For CPR to be effective, the patient must be on a firm surface, lying in the ______________ position. A.Fowler B.prone C.supine D.recovery

C For CPR to be effective, the patient must be lying supine on a firm surface, with enough clear space around the patient for two rescuers to perform CPR. If the patient is crumpled up or lying face down, you will need to reposition him or her. The few seconds that you spend repositioning the patient properly will greatly improve the delivery and effectiveness of CPR.

A patient with neurogenic shock would be LEAST likely to present with: A.tachypnea. B.hypotension. C.tachycardia. D.altered mentation.

C In neurogenic shock, the nerves that control the sympathetic nervous system are compromised. The nervous system is responsible for secreting the hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine, which increase the patient's heart rate, constrict the peripheral vasculature, and shunt blood to the body's vital organs. Without the release of these hormones, the compensatory effects of tachycardia and peripheral vasoconstriction are absent.

Essential elements of a group that people must share include: A.focusing on individual goals. B.placing emphasis on one way of accomplishing a task. C.working with a set of shared values. D.promoting a personal identity.

C It is important for groups to have a set of shared values (how the group wants to get things done). In a group the focus needs to be on a common goal. Group members must have a sense of continuity and remember that the group may work together more than once in a different configuration. Finally, a group member should put forth an image of the group as a whole, not one person.

When providing bag-mask ventilations to an infant, what is most important to remember? A.Blood pressure typically increases with age. B.An infant's lungs are fragile. C.An infant grows at a rate of about 30 g per day. D.An infant has a proportionately larger tongue than an adult.

C It is important to remember that an infant's lungs are fragile; ventilations that are too forceful can result in trauma from pressure, or barotrauma. Due to the large size of the infant's occiput and the increased flexibility of the trachea, the airway can easily be inadvertently occluded by incorrect positioning, either overextension or overflexion.

In which of the following patients would a nasopharyngeal airway be contraindicated? A.A semiconscious patient with a gag reflex B.An unconscious patient with an intact gag reflex C.A patient who fell 20 feet and landed on his or her head D.An unconscious patient who gags when you insert an oral airway

C Nasopharyngeal (nasal) airways are contraindicated in patients with severe head or facial injuries and should be used with caution in patients who have delicate nasal membranes or are prone to nosebleeds. The nasal airway is better tolerated in patients who are semiconscious and/or those with a gag reflex

A seizure patient is having what kind of medical emergency? A.Respiratory B.Cardiovascular C.Neurologic D. Immunologic

C Neurologic emergencies involve the brain and may be caused by a seizure, stroke, or fainting (syncope).

Upon arriving at the scene of a domestic dispute, you hear yelling and the sound of breaking glass from inside the residence. You should: A.immediately gain access to the patient. B. carefully enter the house and then call the police. C. retreat to a safe place until the police arrive. D. tell the patient to exit the residence so you can provide care.

C Never enter a scene in which signs of violence are present, including yelling, screaming, or the sound of breaking glass. Law enforcement must secure the scene prior to the EMT's entry.

A patient who requires cardiac monitoring in the field would require, at a minimum, which level of EMS provider? A. EMR B. EMT C. Paramedic D. AEMT

C Of all levels of EMS provider, the paramedic is trained in advanced medical care, including cardiac monitoring, IV therapy, and administration of a variety of emergency drugs.

A semiconscious patient pushes your hand away when you pinch his earlobe. You should describe his level of consciousness as: A.alert. B.unresponsive. C.responsive to painful stimuli. D.responsive to verbal stimuli.

C Semiconscious patients are not alert, nor are they unresponsive. The fact that the patient pushes your hand away when you pinch his earlobe indicates that he is responsive to painful stimuli. If he opens his eyes or responds when you speak to him, he would be described as being responsive to verbal stimuli.

A sudden onset of difficulty breathing, sharp chest pain, and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is MOST consistent with: A.severe pneumonia. B.myocardial infarction. C.a pulmonary embolism. D.a spontaneous pneumothorax.

C Signs of an acute pulmonary embolism include a sudden onset of difficulty breathing, sharp (pleuritic) chest pain, and cyanosis that persists despite the administration of high-flow oxygen. Patients who are immobile for prolonged periods of time (eg, confined to a hospital bed) are prone to a pulmonary embolism.

When treating a potentially hostile patient, you should try to diffuse the situation by: A.assuming an aggressive posture. B.staring at the patient. C.speaking calmly, confidently, and slowly. D.verbally threatening the patient.

C Speak calmly, confidently, and slowly. With your backup clearly visible, advise the patient what needs to be done, or provide the patient with limited, acceptable choices. "Sir, I need you to sit on the ambulance cot now. Either you will sit on the cot, or we will help you to the cot."

_____ connect(s) muscles to bones. A.Ligaments B.Cartilage C.Tendons D.Joints

C Tendons connect muscle to bone. Ligaments connect bone to bone. Cartilage is smooth connective tissue covering the ends of bones at mobile joints. Joints consist of the ends of the bones and the surrounding connecting and supporting tissues.

Which of the following sequences of events describes the AHA chain of survival? A.Early access, integrated post-arrest care, early advanced care, early CPR, early defibrillation, recovery B.Early advanced care, early defibrillation, integrated post-arrest care, early CPR, early access C.Early access, early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care, integrated post-arrest care, recovery D.Early access, early riser, early CPR, early advanced care

C The AHA has determined an ideal sequence of events that, if taken, can improve the chance of successful resuscitation of a patient who has an occurrence of sudden cardiac arrest: early access, early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care, integrated post-arrest care, and a recovery plan. If any one of the links in the chain is absent, the patient is more likely to die.

5.Which of the following statements about the patient care report (PCR) is true? A.It is not a legal document in the eyes of the law. B.It cannot be used for patient billing information. C.It helps ensure efficient continuity of patient care. D.It is intended for use only by the prehospital care provider.

C The PCR is an important document for more than one reason. It helps to ensure efficient continuity of patient care by providing the hospital with an account of all prehospital assessments and treatment. It also serves as a legal document that reflects the care provided by the EMT.

Which of the following techniques is considered to be an emergency move? A.Extremity lift B.Supine transfer C.Firefighter's drag D.Direct ground lift

C The firefighter's drag is a one-person technique that is used when a patient must be removed from a life-threatening situation immediately.

Which of the following statements about red blood cells is FALSE? A.They contain iron. B.They carry oxygen. C.They help to fight infection. D.They give color to the blood.

C The hemoglobin molecules in red blood cells contain iron, give color to the blood, and carry oxygen. White blood cells play a role in helping the body to fight infection.

Quality control in an EMS system is the ultimate responsibility of the: A. paramedic. B. lead EMT. C. medical director. D. EMS administrator.

C The medical director is responsible for maintaining quality control, which ensures that all staff members who are involved in caring for patients meet the standard of care on every call.

10.The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream is called: A.adsorption. B.onset of action. C.absorption. D.transformation.

C The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream is called absorption. Adsorption refers to the binding of one chemical to another. Activated charcoal, for example, delays absorption of certain chemicals into the bloodstream because it adsorbs (binds to) them in the stomach.

Which of the following is NOT a component of continuous quality improvement (CQI)? A. Periodic review of run reports B. Discussion of needs for improvement C. Negative feedback given to those who make mistakes while on a call D. Remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director

C The purpose of CQI is to ensure that the standard of care is provided on all calls. This involves periodic run report reviews, discussing needs for improvement, and providing remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director. Positive feedback should be provided during this process.

When assessing your patient's pain, he says it started in his chest but has spread to his legs. This is an example of what part of the OPQRST mnemonic? A.Onset B.Quality C.Region/radiation D.Severity

C The region/radiation section of the OPQRST mnemonic assesses a patient's pain—where it hurts and where the pain has spread. Because the patient informed you that his pain spread from his chest to his legs, this would be an example of radiation.

Movement of the arm toward midline is referred to as: A.flexion. B.extension. C.adduction. D.abduction.

C The term adduction is used to describe movement of a structure towards the midline of the body. Flexion refers to the bending of a joint. Extension refers to the straightening of a joint. Abduction is used to describe movement of a structure away from the midline of the body.

The MOST prominent landmark on the anterior surface of the neck is the: A.mastoid process. B.cricoid cartilage. C.thyroid cartilage. D.cricothyroid membrane.

C The thyroid cartilage, commonly referred to as the "Adam's apple," is the most prominent landmark on the anterior (front) surface of the neck. The cricoid cartilage is located directly inferior to (below) the thyroid cartilage; it is a less prominent landmark.

Which of the following components of a medical term conveys its essential meaning? A.Prefix B.Suffix C.Word root D.Combining vowels

C The word root conveys the essential meaning of a medical term. The prefix usually describes location or intensity. The suffix will indicate a procedure, condition, disease, or part of speech. Combining vowels are used to connect a word to the suffix or word root.

______ is the fuel to make the body run. A.Sleep B.Exercise C.Food D.Work/life balance

C To perform efficiently, you must eat nutritious food. The physical exertion and stress of your job require high energy output.

Which of the following scenarios would warrant an interruption in CPR procedures? A.A hysterical family member trying to gain access to the unconscious patient B.A vehicle honking its horn anxious to pass by the scene on a blocked road C.A small set of steps leading to the exit of the building, on the way to the ambulance D.Being tired from trying to resuscitate a patient

C Try not to interrupt CPR for more than a few seconds, except when it is absolutely necessary. For example, if you have to move a patient up or down stairs, you should continue CPR until you arrive at the head or foot of the stairs, interrupt CPR at an agreed-on signal, and move quickly to the next level where you can resume CPR.

When lifting a stretcher using the power lift, you should: A.bend at the hips, knees, back, and arms. B.bend at the waist and keep your back straight. C.place your hands palms up on the litter handle. D.place your hands palms down on the litter's side bars.

C When lifting any heavy object, your hands should be facing palms up; this provides better lifting power and is not as stressful on the wrists.

When verbal transfer of care occurs, all team members should do their best to ensure that: A.the transfer of care occurs in a place where many staff members are present to hear. B.lifesaving care is not interrupted if it is being performed by the person giving report. C.everyone is respectful of each team member's role. D.patient care is centered around what you believe is the correct treatment.

C Whenever the verbal transfer of care occurs, all team members should do their best to ensure that each team member is respectful of each other. Transfer of care should occur in a location with the least interference possible. The team member giving the report and the member receiving report should hand off lifesaving care to another team member. Finally, it is important to remember that the team members involved in the transfer of care focus on doing what provides the best care for the patient.

If a "frequent flier" calls 9-1-1 because of a suspected head injury, you should NEVER: A.take the call seriously; don't waste your time or resources on such a caller. B.perform a primary assessment; he called for a head injury last week, and it wasn't serious. C.assume you know what the problem is; every case is different, and you don't want to miss a potentially serious problem. D.treat the patient with respect; he is probably lying.

C You are obligated as a medical professional to refrain from labeling patients and displaying personal biases. Never assume that you know what the problem is, even when you are treating patients who frequently call for EMS. This attitude could result in missing a serious condition.

4.The statement, "the lungs are superior to the bladder" indicates that the lungs are closer to the: A.feet. B.surface of the skin. C.head. D.trunk.

C The term superior is used to indicate a structure is closer to the head than another structure. Inferior is the term used to describe a structure that is closer to the feet. Superficial is used to describe a structure that is closer to the skin than another. Proximal is used to describe a structure that is closer to the trunk in comparison to another.

If your patient takes nitroglycerine for a heart condition, what route of administration does he use? A. Inhaled B. Oral C. Injection D. Sublingual

D

In addition to asthma, which of the following conditions is associated with wheezing? A.Croup B.Epiglottitis C.Pulmonary embolism D.Bronchitis

D

Jaundice is a sign of which disease? A) meningitis B) Herpes Simplex C) HIV D) Hepatitis

D

The process by which a medication works on the body is called what? A. Therapeutic Effect B. Pharmacology C. Pharmacokinetics D. Pharmacodynamics

D

Tylenol is an example of what? A. Chemical Name B. Official Name C. Generic Name D. Trade Name

D

What is an index of suspicion? A. An outcome of scene size-up that indicates whether law enforcement should be called B. The ability to determine how contagious an infectious disease is C. A level of understanding whereby you can determine multiple NOIs D. An awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries or illness may exist

D

What is generally the best position to place a patient with cardiogenic shock? A. Supine B. Fowler C. Left lateral recumbent D. Sitting/semi-sitting

D

What is the maximum amount of time that should be spent checking for spontaneous breathing in an unresponsive child? A. 20 seconds B. 5 seconds C. 15 seconds D. 10 seconds

D

What is the preferred method of removing a foreign body in an unresponsive child? A. Manual removal B. Chest compressions C. Back slaps D. Abdominal thrusts

D

When administering a medication you are unfamiliar with, what is the first thing you should do? A. Check the expiration date and condition of the medication. B. Verify the proper medication and prescription. C. Verify the form, dose, and route of the medication. D. Obtain an order from medical control.

D

When treating a patient in shock from any cause, what is the first thing you should do? A. Maintain normal body temp. B. Control life-threatening hemorrhage with direct pressure or tourniquet application. C. Provie high-flow oxygen. D. Open and maintain the airway.

D

Which of the following is a potentially severe complication of neurogenic shock? A. Syncope B. Pulmonary embolism C. Dehydration D. Hypothermia

D

You are off duty and you come across an unresponsive child lying on the ground at a playground. She does not have a pulse, and no one witnessed the collapse. What should you do? A. Call 9-1-1 immediately, then return to the child and begin CPR. B. Do five cycles of chest compressions, and then call 9-1-1. C. Call for ALS backup immediately. D. Take the child to the nearest hospital in your vehicle.

D

You are treating a patient who tells you he was prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) for his anxiety. What would anxiety be considered? A. Side Effect B.Contraindication C. Intended Effect D. Indication

D

You arrive at a residence where you find a woman in her early 60s. She is anxious and tachycardic, and her fingertips and lips are blue. As you assess her, she coughs up frothy sputum, and you hear crackles and some wheezing as you check for breath sounds. What condition do these findings indicate? A.Spontaneous pneumothorax B.Emphysema C.Bronchitis D.Congestive heart failure

D

You respond to a call in which a 6-year-old was hit by a car. She is responsive but struggling to breathe. What position should you place her in? A. Recovery B. Supine C. Fowler D. Any position of comfort

D

Brain damage is very likely in a brain that does not receive oxygen for: A.0-1 minutes. B.0-4 minutes. C.4-6 minutes. D.6-10 minutes.

D Permanent brain damage is very likely if the brain is without oxygen for 6 minutes or longer. After 10 minutes without oxygen, irreversible brain damage is likely.

Emergency patient care occurs in progressive phases. What occurs first? A.Activation of EMS B.Initial prehospital care C.The patient receives definitive care D.Incident recognition

D Someone must recognize an emergency before EMS can be activated.

A team leader: A.helps individual team members to work together. B.is often defined by policy, procedure, or statute. C.provides coordination, oversight, centralized decision making and support for the team. D.All of the above.

D A team leader is an essential part of successful team. The team leader is often defined by policy, procedure, or statute. He or she provides coordination, oversight, centralized decision making and support for the team. In addition, the team leader will help individuals to not only do their jobs, but also to work together.

Which of the following is an example of abandonment? A.An EMT leaves the scene after a competent adult has refused care. B.An EMT transfers care of a patient to an emergency department nurse. C.An AEMT transfers care of a patient to a paramedic. D.An AEMT transfers care of a patient to an EMR.

D Abandonment occurs when patient care is terminated without the patient's consent or when care is transferred to a provider of lesser training and level of certification.

Activated charcoal is indicated for patients who have ingested certain drugs and toxins because it: A.acts as a direct reversal agent for most medications. B.induces vomiting before the chemical can be digested. C.detoxifies the drug before it can cause harm to the patient. D.binds to chemicals in the stomach and delays absorption.

D Activated charcoal is an adsorbent—that is, it binds to harmful chemicals that have been ingested. This binding effect delays digestion and absorption of the chemical by the body.

After receiving an order from medical control over the radio, the EMT should: A.carry out the order immediately. B.disregard the order if it is not understood. C.obtain the necessary consent from the patient. D.repeat the order to the physician word for word.

D After receiving an order from medical control, the EMT should repeat the order back to the physician word for word. This will ensure that he or she heard the order correctly. After confirming the order, the EMT should obtain the necessary consent from the patient.

Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, is the generic name for: A.Alupent. B.Metaprel. C.Brethine. D.Ventolin.

D Albuterol is the generic name for Ventolin (Proventil). Albuterol is a beta-agonist, which dilates the bronchioles, and is commonly used to treat patients with asthma and other reactive airway diseases.

4.Why do colds develop so easily in toddlers and preschoolers? A.They experience a loss of passive immunity. B.They do not have well-developed lung musculature. C.They are spending a lot of time around playmates and classmates. D.All of the above

D All of these choices contribute to a toddler or preschooler's increased likelihood of contracting a cold.

Why is breathing more labor intensive for the elderly? A.The size of the airway increases, and the surface area of the alveoli decreases. B.The natural elasticity of the lungs decreases. C.The overall strength of the intercostal muscles and the diaphragm decreases. D.All of the above

D All three of these factors make breathing more labor intensive for the elderly.

With regard to pharmacology, the term "action" refers to the: A.ability of a drug to cause harm. B.ability of a drug to produce side effects. C.amount of time it will take the drug to work. D.expected effect of a drug on the patient's body.

D As it applies to pharmacology, the term "action" refers to the effect that a drug is expected to have on a patient's body. Prior to administering any drug, the EMT must be aware of its action(s) on the body.

When using abbreviations, acronyms, or symbols, an EMT should: A.be familiar with those used in your agency. B.use only those that are medically accepted. C.use them to shorten documentation. D.All of the above.

D Before using abbreviations, acronyms, or symbols in your documentation, it is important to know which ones are accepted for use by your agency. You should only use those that are medically accepted so anyone who is reading your report can understand what you are saying. To minimize the length of your documentation you can use abbreviations, acronyms, and/or symbols.

All of the following are factors that increase the risk for developing MRSA, EXCEPT: A.antibiotic therapy. B.prolonged hospital stays. C.exposure to an infected patient. D.close contact with wild birds.

D Factors that increase the risk for developing MRSA include antibiotic therapy, prolonged hospital stays, a stay in intensive care or a burn unit, and exposure to an infected patient. Close contact with wild birds is a factor that may increase the risk of acquiring avian flu.

When health care providers force their cultural values onto their patients because they believe their values are better, they are displaying: A. ethnocentrism. B. proxemics. C. nonverbal communication. D. cultural imposition.

D Forcing your own cultural values onto others because you believe your values are better is referred to as cultural imposition.

All of the following are functions of the emergency medical dispatcher, EXCEPT: A.alerting the appropriate EMS response unit. B.screening a call and assigning it a priority. C.providing emergency medical instructions to the caller. D.providing medical direction to the EMT in the field.

D Functions of the emergency medical dispatcher include screening a call and assigning it a priority, alerting the appropriate EMS response unit, coordinating EMS units with other public safety services, and providing prearrival emergency medical instructions to the caller.

Signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: A.restlessness or anxiety. B.pale, cool, clammy skin. C.a feeling of impending doom. D.weak or absent peripheral pulses.

D In compensated shock, the body is able to maintain perfusion to the vital organs of the body via the autonomic nervous system. Signs include pale, cool, clammy skin; restlessness or anxiety; a feeling of impending doom; and tachycardia. When the body's compensatory mechanism fails, the patient's blood pressure falls; weak or absent peripheral pulses indicates this.

If your medical patient is not in critical condition, how long should you spend on scene? A.10 minutes or less B.30 minutes C.2 hours D.However long it takes to gather as much information as possible

D In many cases, the time on scene may be longer for medical patients than for trauma patients. If the patient is not in critical condition, you should gather as much information as possible from the scene so that you can transmit that information to the physician at the emergency department.

How should you determine the pulse in an unresponsive 8-year-old patient? A.Palpate the radial pulse at the wrist. B.Palpate the brachial pulse inside the upper arm. C.Palpate the radial pulse with your thumb. D.Palpate the carotid pulse in the neck.

D In unresponsive patients older than 1 year, you should palpate the carotid pulse in the neck. If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient, begin CPR.

Members of an interdependent group: A.focus on the goals of their own individual areas. B.rely on the group leader for task assignments. C.have limited ability to adapt and deliver critical care medical care in an uncontrolled field environment. D.work together with shared responsibilities, accountability, and a common goal.

D Members of an interdependent group work together with shared responsibilities, accountability, and a common goal. People who are part of a independent group focus on the goals of their own individual area. Individuals who are part of a dependent group rely on the leader for task assignments and have limited ability to adapt and deliver critical medical care in an uncontrolled field environment.

A condition characterized by reexperiencing an event and overresponding to stimuli that recall the event is called: A.acute stress reaction. B.delayed stress reaction. C.cumulative stress reaction. D. posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).

D PTSD may develop after a person has experienced a psychologically distressing event.

Which of the following should be the EMT's highest priority? A. Controlling severe bleeding B. Maintaining a patient's airway C. Ensuring patient safety D. Ensuring personal safety

D Personal safety is of utmost concern for the EMT. This involves sizing up a scene to determine whether the scene is safe to enter. This will ensure the safety of all personnel.

When two EMTs are lifting a patient on a long backboard, they should: A.lift the patient from the sides of the board. B.make every attempt to lift with their backs. C.position the strongest EMT at the foot of the board. D.position the strongest EMT at the head of the board.

D Since more than half of the patient's weight is distributed to the head end of a backboard or stretcher, you should always ensure that the strongest EMT is at that position. This will reduce the risk of injury to less strong personnel as well as the risk of dropping the patient.

What is the second stage of response in the stress response known as the general adaptation syndrome? A.Recovery B.Exhaustion C.Alarm D.Reaction and resistance

D The body typically reacts to stress in three stages: the alarm response, which is followed by reaction and resistance, and then recovery. If the individual cannot reduce stress, the last stage may progress to exhaustion.

Which of the following would you NOT detect while determining your initial general impression of a patient? A.Cyanosis B.Gurgling respirations C.Severe bleeding D.Rapid heart rate

D The initial general impression is what you first notice as you approach the patient, but before physical contact with the patient is made. It is what you see, hear, or smell. A rapid heart rate (tachycardia) would not be detected until you actually perform the entire primary assessment; you cannot see, hear, or smell tachycardia.

A patient is found unconscious after falling from a third-floor window. His respirations are slow and irregular. You should: A.place him in the recovery position. B.apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C.suction his airway for up to 15 seconds. D.assist his breathing with a bag-mask device.

D The patient is not breathing adequately. Slow, irregular respirations will not result in adequate oxygenation. You should assist the patient's breathing with a bag-mask device attached to 100% oxygen. Suctioning is indicated if the patient has blood or other liquids in the airway; there is no evidence of this in the scenario.

A 20-year-old man was kicked numerous times in the abdomen during an assault. His abdomen is rigid and tender, his heart rate is 120 beats/min, and his respirations are 30 breaths/min. You should treat this patient for: A.a lacerated liver. B.a ruptured spleen. C.respiratory failure. D.hypovolemic shock.

D The patient may have a liver laceration or ruptured spleen—both of which can cause internal blood loss. However, it is far more important to recognize that the patient is in hypovolemic shock and to treat him accordingly

The pulse check should take: A.1 second. B.at least 1 second but no more than 5 seconds. C.at least 10 seconds. at least 5 seconds but no more than 10 seconds

D The pulse check should take at least 5 seconds but no more than 10 seconds.

10.Which of the following statements about records and reports is FALSE? A.Legally, if it was not documented, it was not performed. B.A complete, accurate report is an important safeguard against legal problems. C.An incomplete or untidy patient care report is evidence of incomplete or inexpert emergency medical care. D.Your patient care report does not become a part of the patient's hospital record because your treatment was provided outside the hospital.

D The statement "Your patient care report does not become a part of the patient's hospital record because your treatment was provided outside the hospital" is incorrect. Your patient care report does, in fact, become a permanent part of the patient's hospital record.

The cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: A.costal arch. B. manubrium. C.angle of Louis. D.xiphoid process.

D The xiphoid process projects from the lower part of the sternum. It is made of cartilage and, relative to other parts of the sternum (eg, manubrium, angle of Louis), is soft to palpation.

This is used to identify a body part that is on the "belly side" or anterior surface of the body. A.Deep B.Superficial C.Dorsal D.Ventral

D Ventral is used to identify a body part that is located on the "belly side" or anterior surface of the body. Deep is used to describe a structure that is further away from the skin's surface. Superficial refers to a structure that is close to the skin's surface. Dorsal describes a structure on the back or posterior side of the body.

The plural form of the word bronchus is: A.bronchae. B.bronches. C.bronchices. D.bronchi.

D When a word ends in us, the plural form will end in i. For words that end in a, the plural form will end in ae. When words end in is, the plural form will end in es. Words that end in ex or ix will have a plural form that end in ices.

While caring for a 5-year-old boy with respiratory distress, you should: A.avoid direct eye contact with the child, as this may frighten him. B.avoid letting the child hold any toys, as this may hinder your care. C.avoid alerting the child prior to a patient procedure. D.allow a parent or caregiver to hold the child if the situation allows.

D When caring for children, take special care to avoid upsetting them. Allowing a parent to hold the child or allowing the child to play with a favorite toy often helps to keep the child calm. Never lie to a child, or any other patient for that matter; children can see through lies and deceptions. Assure the child that you can be trusted and are there to help by maintaining eye contact.

Proper guidelines for correct reaching include all of the following, EXCEPT: A.avoiding twisting your back. B.avoiding hyperextension of your back. C.keeping the back in a locked-in position. D.reaching no more than 30 inches in front of your body.

D When reaching, you should keep your back in a locked-in position and avoid twisting or hyperextending your back. Do not reach more than 15-20 inches in front of your body.

When ventilating an apneic adult with a bag-mask device, you should squeeze the bag: A.until it is empty. B.over a period of 2 seconds. C.at a rate of 20 breaths/min. D.until visible chest rise is noted.

D When ventilating any apneic patient with a bag-mask device, you should squeeze the bag over a period of 1 second and observe for visible chest rise. Ventilate the apneic adult at a rate of 10 breaths/min (one breath every 6 seconds). Ventilate infants and children at a rate of 20 to 30 breaths/min (one breath every 2 to 3 seconds).

In infants who have signs and symptoms of an airway infection, you should not waste time trying to dislodge a foreign body. You should intervene only if signs of ____________ develop, such as a weak, ineffective cough; cyanosis; stridor; absent air movement; or a decreasing level of consciousness. A.sudden infant death syndrome B.child abuse C.bronchitis D.severe airway obstruction

D With a mild airway obstruction, the patient can cough forcefully, although there may be wheezing between coughs. As long as the patient can breathe, cough, or talk, you should not interfere with his or her attempts to expel the foreign body. As with an adult, encourage the child to continue coughing. Administer 100% oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask and provide transport to the emergency department.

The rapid extrication technique is a: A. nonurgent move to remove a patient from a vehicle. B.technique used to transfer a patient from a bed to a stretcher. C.technique used to lift a patient with no suspected spinal injury onto a stretcher. D.technique used to quickly remove a patient from a vehicle and onto a backboard.

D With the rapid extrication technique, a seriously injured patient can be moved from a sitting position in a vehicle to a supine position on a backboard while protecting the spine at the same time.

You arrive at the scene of an "injured person." As you exit the ambulance, you see a man lying on the front porch of his house. He appears to have been shot in the head and is lying in a pool of blood. You should: A.immediately assess the patient. B.proceed to the patient with caution. C.quickly assess the scene for a gun. D.retreat to a safe place and wait for law enforcement to arrive.

D Your primary responsibility as an EMT is to protect yourself. Prior to entering any scene, you must assess for potential dangers. In cases where violence has occurred, you must retreat to a safe place and wait for law enforcement personnel to arrive.

Cardiac arrest occurs in children and adults for the same reasons. T/F

False

Decreased, absent, or abnormal breath sounds are also called vesicular breath sounds. True/False

False

Snoring sounds are indicative of a partial lower airway obstruction, usually in the bronchioles. True/False

False

Which of the following are effects of hyperventilation? -Increased blood flow to the heart -Oxygen toxicity -Increased Intrathorvacic pressure -Gastric distention

Increased Intrathorvacic pressure Gastric distention

Adult patients with a respiratory rate of more than 20 breaths/min or fewer than 12 breaths/min should receive high-flow oxygen. True/False

True

In adults, chest compressions should be between 2 and 2.4 inches in depth (5 to 6 cm) and given at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute. T/F

True

you witness a patient's cardiac arrest and an AED is available, deploy the AED immediately and then begin CPR. T/F

True

A(n) ________ can be spread from one person or species to another.

communicable disease

The most common form of COPD is: asthma bronchitis emphysema pneumonia

emphysema

A(n)________ is designed to limit the air entering the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, resulting in negative intrathoracic pressure.

impedance threshold device

Select an option pleural effusion/ pulmonary embolism/ pneumothorax/ pulmonary edema/ pleural effusion is a collection of fluid between the lung and chest wall that may compress the lung.

pleural effusion