RAD REVIEW EASY QUIZ - PROCEDURES
A type of short bone occurring in hands and feet and embedded in tendons or joint capsules are called A sesamoid B flagellae C sinusoid D accessory
a
How many degrees cephalad should the CR be directed for an AP axial projection of the sigmoid colon? A 30° to 40° B 35° to 45° C 40° to 50° D 45° to 55°
a
If the distance between the ASIS and tabletop is less than 19 cm, the correct tube angle for an AP knee is: A 5 degrees caudad B 5 degrees cephalad C perpendicular D 10 degrees caudad
a
The centering point "2.5 in distal and perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis" identifies correct centering for the AP projection of what body part? A Hip B Pelvis C Knee D Elbow
a
The cervical zygapophyseal articulations are how many degrees to the MSP? A 90° B 95° C 100° D 105°
a
The correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine shows the "Scottie Dog" appearance. Match the following bony parts to which part of the "Scottie Dog" each represents: A Leg = inferior articular process; ear = superior articular process; eye = pedicle; nose = transverse process; neck = pars interarticularis B Leg = transverse process; ear = superior articular process; eye = pedicle; nose = inferior articular process; neck = pars interarticularis C Leg = inferior articular process; ear = pedicle; eye = superior articular process; nose = transverse process; neck = pars interarticularis D Leg = pars interarticularis; ear = superior articular process; eye = pedicle; nose = transverse process; neck = inferior articular process
a
The intertrochanteric crest is located on the A proximal posterior femur. B proximal anterior femur. C distal posterior femur. D distal anterior femur
a
The oblique inferosuperior (tangential) projection of the zygomatic arches requires that the IOML be parallel to the IR, and that the head be rotated how many degrees toward the affected side? A 15° B 25° C 35° D 45°
a
The suprasternal/jugular notch is at what vertebral level? A T2-3 B T10 C L4 D S1-2
a
The thoracic intervertebral foramina are what degree to the MSP? A 90° B 95° C 100° D 105°
a
Unossified points at the junction of sutures on an infant's skull are termed 1. fontanels 2. wormian bones 3. sutural bones A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
a
What type of fracture is described as two or more fragments of bone that are splintered or shattered? A Comminuted B Complete C Compound D Impacted
a
When is the exposure made during imaging of the upper airway? A During slow, deep inspiration B During slow, shallow inspiration C During fast, deep inspiration D During fast, shallow
a
Which body system functions to permit movement, produce blood cells (hematopoiesis), support and protect body organs, and store calcium? A Skeletal system B Respiratory system C Urinary/excretory system D Circulatory
a
Which of the following is the anatomic structure that is a portion of each lumbar lamina lying between the superior and inferior articular processes? A Pars interarticularis B Zygapophyseal joints C Mammillary process D Accessory process
a
Where should the petrous pyramids be projected in the PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the skull using a 15° caudal tube angle? A In the upper two-third of the orbits. B In the lower one third of the orbits. C Below the maxillary sinuses. D Filling the orbits.
b
The adult skeleton consists of how many bones? A 199 B 204 C 206 D 212
c
Flat bones include which of the following? I. Calvarium II. Sternum III. VertebraeIV. Ribs V. Scapulae A I, II B I, II, V C I, IV, V D I, II, IV, V
d
Mediolateral "frog-leg" projections of the hip require femur abduction of how many degrees? A 15-20 B 25-30 C 35-40 D 40-45
d
An inflammatory condition of the vertebra wherein the spine may become completely rigid is termed A spina bifida B ankylosing spondylitis C spondylolysis D spondylolisthesis
b
During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon? A AP or PA erect B Right lateral decubitus C Left lateral decubitus D Ventral decubitus
b
Which of the following is the type of fracture that is commonly found in children and shows a break only on one side of the diaphysis? A Greenstick B Salter-Harris C Bow D Plastic
a
Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying prone recumbent on the radiographic table, and the central ray directed horizontally to the iliac crest? A Ventral decubitus position B Dorsal decubitus position C Left lateral decubitus position D Right lateral decubitus position
a
Which suture separates the frontal bone from the two parietal bones? A Coronal suture B Lambdoidal suture C Sagittal suture D Squamosal suture
a
Which two bones separate the oral and nasal cavities? A the two maxillae B the two palatines C the vomer and perpendicular plate D the vomer and inferior nasal conchae
a
Which of the following characterizes the right and left atlantoaxial joints (C1 and C2)? (select the two that apply) A Diarthrodial B Plane (gliding) C Cartilaginous D Saddle (sellar)
a,b
Which of the following views would be requested for a diagnosis of pneumothorax? (select the three that apply) A PA B Lateral C Inspiration D Expiration
a,c,d
An AP medial oblique projection of the elbow will demonstrate which of the following anatomic parts free of superimposition? A Radial head and neck B Coronoid process C Medial epicondyle D Trochlea
b
An RPO position of the lumbar vertebrae demonstrates zygapophyseal joints poorly visualized and the pedicle is seen anterior on the vertebral body. What does this indicate? A Excessive rotation B Insufficient rotation C Pelvic tilt D Correct positioning
b
In a correctly positioned parietoacanthial projection (Waters method), what anatomical structure(s) should be projected below the maxillary sinuses? A Zygomatic arches B Petrous pyramids C Frontal bone D Mandibular condyles
b
In an AP external rotation projection of the shoulder, the greater tubercle should be seen in profile A superimposed over the humeral head B laterally C medially D partially superimposed by the glenoid cavity
b
Item(s) that must be parallel to each other when performing an axiolateral projection (horizontal beam lateral) of the hip include which of the following? I. Femoral neck II. IR III. CR A I only B I and II only C All of the above D None of the above
b
Radiography of most structures usually requires a minimum of: A four projections at right angles (perpendicular) to each other. B two projections at right angles (perpendicular) to each other. C four projections parallel to each other. D two projections parallel to each other.
b
Select the condition(s) that are likely to require a decrease in exposure: I. Emphysema II. Paralytic ileus III. Hydrocephalus IV. Edema. A I only B I and II only C All of the above D None of the above
b
The AP axial projection of the sacrum requires tube angulation in the cephalad direction of how many degrees? A 10° B 15° C 20° D 25°
b
The AP medial oblique projection of the foot requires what degree of obliquity? A 20° B 30° C 45° D 60°
b
The alveolar process can be found on which bone(s)? 1. Mandible 2. Maxilla 3. Palatine A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
b
The landmark that's formed by the junction of the two nasal bones with the frontal bone is the A glabella B nasion C frontal process of the maxilla D supraorbital groove
b
The lateral malleolus is the distal expanded portion of the A ulna B fibula C radius D tibia
b
The lower GI tract includes which of the following structures? I. Sigmoid colon II. Cecum III. Ileum IV. Jejunum V. Right colic flexure A I, III, IV B I, II, V C III, IV, V D II, III, IV
b
The most effective means of reducing voluntary motion is A expediting the exam. B good communication. C using the shortest possible exposure time. D using immobilization devices/restraints.
b
The spinous process is formed by the posterior unification of which part of the lumbar vertebra? A Pedicles B Laminae C Articular processes D Transverse process
b
To make a patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intra-abdominal pressureinstruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasmprepare a warm barium suspension (98-105°F) to aid in retention A 2 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
b
What angulation is required for the PA axial projection of the mandible in order to demonstrate the condyles and TMJ area? A Caudad B Cephalad C Longitudinal D Horizontal
b
What cervical spine projection(s) is/are used to demonstrate antero-posterior vertebral mobility? A Fuchs or Judd methods B Lateral hyperflexion and hyperextension C Swimmer's lateral position D Both oblique cervical view projections
b
What is the recommended projection/position to demonstrate arthritis in the knees? A Non-weight bearing; supine B Weight-bearing; erect C Non-weight bearing; prone D Non-weight bearing; sitting
b
What kV range is recommended for imaging the upper airway? A 70 to 80 kV B 75 to 85 kV C 80 to 90 kV D 85 to 95 kV
b
What opening is formed when the two half-moon-shaped areas of the superior and inferior vertebral notches line up? A Foramen ovale B Intervertebral foramina C Foramen magnum D Vertebral foramen
b
When performing an axiolateral projection (horizontal beam lateral) of the hip, the CR must be directed perpendicular to the IR and which anatomical structure? A Femoral head B Femoral neck C Pubic symphysis D Lesser trochanter
b
Which body system supplies oxygen to the blood and eliminates carbon dioxide from the blood? A Skeletal system B Respiratory system C Urinary/excretory system D Circulatory
b
Which of the following indicates appropriate use of the left or right (L or R) side marker when positioning a patient for a left posterior oblique (LPO) lumbar spine when using digital imaging? (select the two that provide correct, legal documentation) A Left radiopaque marker placed on the right side of the patient B Left radiopaque marker on the left side of the patient C Right radiopaque marker on the right side of the patient D Right radiopaque marker on the left side of the patient E Post-processing left annotation on the patient's left side F Post-processing right annotation on the patient's right side
b,c
Which of the following changes would correct an open-mouth projection of C1 and C2 if the base of the skull and odontoid process are superimposed? (select the two that apply) A Slight hyperextension of neck B Slight hyperflexion of neck C 3- to 5-degree cephalic angle D 3- to 5-degree caudal angle
b,d
A common fracture of the distal radius, which type of fracture demonstrates posterior displacement of the distal fracture fragment? A Monteggia B Bennett's C Colles D Smith's
c
AP erect left and right bending images of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, to include 1 inch of the iliac crest, are performed to demonstrate A spondylolisthesis. B subluxation. C scoliosis. D arthritis.
c
Articulations of the thorax include which of the following? I. SternoclavicularII.Vertebrochondral III. Costovertebral IV. Costotransverse A I, II, III B II, III, IV C I, III, IV D I, II, III, IV
c
How many posterior ribs should be visualized above the diaphragm in order for a PA chest to be evaluated for adequate inspiration? A 6 B 8 C 10 D 12
c
Irregular bones include which of the following? I. Facial bones II. CarpalsIII. Vertebra IV. Pelvis bones V. Scapula A I, II, III B III, IV, V C I, III, IV D II, IV, V
c
Lumbar zygapophyseal articulations are demonstrated closest to the IR in the A lateral position. B left and right bending positions. C RPO and LPO positions. D RAO and LAO positions.
c
Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A The RAO and LAO positions will demonstrate cervical intervertebral foramina closest to the image receptor. B "Breathing technique" is useful to blur out ribs and pulmonary vascular markings for the lateral projection of the thoracic spine. C During radiographic examination of the large bowel, the AP or PA projection is used to "open up" the sigmoid colon. D During double-contrast BE, the ventral decubitus and lateral rectum may be used to demonstrate the posterior wall of the rectum.
c
The AP axial projection of the cervical spine requires tube angulation in the cephalad direction by how many degrees? A 5° to 10° B 10° to 15° C 15° to 20° D 20° to 25°
c
The LPO and RPO positions of the sacroiliac joints require the affected side to be elevated by how many degrees? A 15° to 20° B 20° to 55° C 25° to 30° D 30° to 35°
c
The LPO and RPO positions of the sacroiliac joints requires that the CR be directed A 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS. B 2 inches medial to the down ASIS. C 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS. D 1 inch medial to the down ASIS.
c
The PA projection, utilizing 15° OML adjustment from the horizontal, is used to demonstrate the A maxillary sinuses. B sphenoid sinuses. C frontal and ethmoid sinuses. D frontal and sphenoid sinuses
c
The classifications of bones are: A articulating and non-articulating. B long, short and sesamoid. C short, flat, irregular and long. D cancellous and cortical.
c
The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is A bronchial asthma. B bronchitis. C emphysema. D TB.
c
The iliac crest is at what vertebral level? A T2-3 B T10 C L4 D S1-2
c
The knees and hips are flexed, and knees supported for an AP projection of the lumbar spine in order to reduce the lordotic curve and better demonstrate A intervertebral foramina. B zygapophyseal joints. C intervertebral joints. D vertebral foramina.
c
The large opening in the base of the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes through is called the A foramen oval B foramen rotundum C foramen magnum D external occipital protuberance
c
The most important way to reduce involuntary motion is A expediting the exam. B good communication. C using the shortest possible exposure time. D using immobilization devices/restraints.
c
The parietal bones meet midline to form the A coronal suture B lambdoidal suture C sagittal suture D squamosal suture
c
The pelvis is made up of which of the following? I. Left innominate bone II. Right innominate bone III. Sacrum IV. Coccyx A I only B I and II only C All of the above D None of the above
c
The typical vertebra includes which of the following articular processes: I. Superior articular II. Lamina III. Spinous IV. Transverse V. Pedicle A I, II, III B II, III, IV C I, III, IV D I, IV, V
c
Typical features of the normal male/android pelvis include which of the following? I. Shallow from anterior to posterior II. Narrow pelvic inlet III. Pubic angle less than 90° IV. Wider and more horizontal A I and III only B II and IV only C II and III only D I, III, and IV
c
What is the name of the uppermost portion of the lungs (i.e., above the level of the clavicles)? A Base B Hilum C Apex D Costophrenic angle
c
What is the optimal body position for radiographic positioning of the paranasal sinuses to demonstrate air/fluid levels? A Recumbent B Decubitus C Erect D Trendelenburg
c
What is the relationship of the epicondyles to the IR in an AP projection of the humerus or elbow? A Vertical B Perpendicular C Parallel D Diagonal
c
What is the single best projection to demonstrate the facial bones? A AP axial projection (Towne method) B PA axial projection (Haas method) C Parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) D PA axial projection (Caldwell method)
c
What term is used to describe turning of the body or arm so that the palm faces backward, with the thumb toward the midline of the body? A Flexion B Circumduction C Pronation D Eversion E Abduction
c
Which body system functions to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance, eliminate some body wastes, and regulate the chemical composition of the blood? A Skeletal system B Respiratory system C Urinary/excretory system D Circulatory
c
Which bone(s) form the bony nasal septum? 1. Palatine 2. Ethmoid 3. Vomer A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
c
Which of the following pathologic conditions is demonstrated as multiple "punched-out" radiolucent lesions? A Osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma) B Ewing sarcoma C Multiple myeloma D Osteoclastoma
c
Which of the following procedures requires that contrast medium be injected into the ureters? A Cystogram B Urethrogram C Retrograde pyelogram D Cystourethrogram
c
Bones embedded in certain tendons, often present near various joints, are called which of the following? A Long B Flat C Short D Sesamoid
d
Radiography of which of the following structure(s) in the AP or PA position will inherently result in an image demonstrating shape distortion of the anatomic part? KidneyScaphoidSigmoid A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
d
The AP oblique, medial rotation, of the ankle requires what degree of obliquity? A 30° B 35° C 40° D 45°
d
The relationship between the plantar surface and the IR in the plantodorsal (axial) projection of the calcaneus is A horizontal B parallel C cephalad D perpendicular
d
The short, thick processes that project posteriorly from the vertebral body are the A transverse processes. B vertebral arches. C laminae. D pedicles.
d
The special type of markers required to properly label radiographs for an intravenous urography are called A directional markers B positional markers C contrast media markers D minute markers
d
To visualize the proximal tibiofibular articulation, the AP knee should be obliqued how many degrees medially? A 30° B 35° C 40° D 45°
d
What anatomical structure connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx? A Cochlea B Stapes C Posterior semicircular canal D Eustachian tube
d
What is the name for a small bone chip that breaks away when a joint is dislocated, or when a tendon is pulled? A Greenstick B Spiral C Comminuted D Avulsion
d
What is the name of the plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior halves? A Mid-sagittal plane (MSP) B Transverse plane C Sagittal plane D Coronal plane
d
What is the name of the vertical portion of the mandible? A Body B Symphysis C Gonion D Ramus
d
What kV range is recommended for chest radiography? A 105 to 120 kV B 105 to 125 kV C 110 to 120 kV D 110 to 125 kV
d
What specific anatomical structure is the body weight resting on when a patient is seated in an upright position? A Ischial ramus B Pubic symphysis C Obturator foramen D Ischial tuberosity
d
Which body habitus is most likely to have the lowest and most medial stomach position? A Hypersthenic B Hyposthenic C Sthenic D Asthenic
d
Which of the following is the prominence on the squamosal portion of the frontal bone that may be used as a positioning landmark? A Nasion B Supraorbital groove C Supraciliary ridge D Glabella
d
Which of the following projections of the elbow will show the radial head, neck, and tuberosity free of superimposition by the ulna? A Lateral projection (lateromedial) B Acute flexion projection C AP medial oblique (internal rotation) D AP lateral oblique (external rotation)
d
Which of the following sinuses is NOT housed within a cranial bone? A Frontal B Ethmoid C Sphenoid D Maxillary
d
Which type of body habitus is likely to have the most long and narrow lung area? A Hypersthenic B Hyposthenic C Sthenic D Asthenic
d
