READING QUIZZES

A,D,E

A client receiving morphine is being monitored by the nurse for signs and symptoms of overdose. Which clinical findings support a conclusion of overdose? [Select all that apply] A. Slow respirations B. Dilated pupils C. Polyuria D. Bradycardia E. Lethargy

A

A client with a known history of opioid addiction is treated for multiple stab wounds to the abdomen. After surgical repair the nurse notes that the client's pain is not relieved by the prescribed morphine injections. The nurse realizes that the failure to achieve pain relief indicates that the client is probably experiencing the phenomenon of: A. Tolerance B. Habituation C. Physical addiction D. Psychological dependence

False

A drug can have multiple generic names. True False

A

A nurse administers albuterol [Proventil] to a patient with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the patient? A. Tachycardia B. Flushing C. Hypotension D. Dyspnea

B

A nurse educator is conducting a continuing education class on pharmacology. To evaluate the learning of the nurses in the class, the nurse educator asks, "Which drug name gives information about the drug's pharmacologic classification?" Which is the correct response? A. Cipro B. Amoxicillin C. Tylenol D. Motrin

A

A patient is taking rifampin for active tuberculosis. Which of the following assessment findings does the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the drug? A. Jaundice B. Clubbing of the finger nails C. Central cyanosis D. Crackles in bilateral lung bases

D

A nurse is administering a drug that is categorized as Schedule IV. The nurse understands that this means the drug: A. Is a controlled substance with no accepted medical use. B. Has the potential for serious and life-threatening adverse effects. C. Is dangerous to administer to pregnant or breast-feeding patients. D. Has acceptable medical applications with low potential for abuse.

D

A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names? A. They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember. B. They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex. C. They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification. D. They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.

B

A nursing student asks a nurse about pharmaceutical research and wants to know the purpose of randomization in drug trials. The nurse explains that randomization is used to do what? A. To make sure that researchers are unaware of which subjects are in which group B. To ensure that differences in outcomes are the result of treatment and not differences in subjects C. To prevent subjects from knowing which group they are in and prevent preconception bias D. To compare the outcome caused by the treatment to the outcome caused by no treatment

B

A parent asks a nurse about growth suppression resulting from the use of an inhaled glucocorticoid in children. What will the nurse tell the parent? A. The growth rate is not impaired, but overall height will be reduced. B. Growth may be slowed, but eventual adult height will not be reduced. C. Long-term use of the drug results in a decrease in adult height. D. The growth rate slows while the drug is used and only resumes when the drug is stopped.

B

A patient asks a nurse why drugs that have been approved by the FDA still have unknown side effects. What will the nurse tell the patient? A. Researchers tend to conduct studies that will prove the benefits of their new drugs. B. Subjects in drug trials do not always represent the full spectrum of possible patients. C. Patients in drug trials often are biased by their preconceptions of a drug's benefits. D. Testing for all side effects of a medication would be prohibitively expensive.

B

A patient develops flushing, rash, and pruritus during an IV infusion of vancomycin [Vancocin]. Which action should a nurse take? A. Change the IV tubing B. Reduce the infusion rate C. Check the patency of the IV D. Administer diphenhydramine [Benadryl]

C

A patient has a serum potassium level of 6.4 mEq/L and an arterial pH of 7.22. Which medication, if ordered by the physician, should the nurse question? A. Glucose and insulin infusion B. Calcium gluconate infusion C. Spironolactone [Aldactone] by mouth D. Sodium bicarbonate infusion

D

A patient has been prescribed oral ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a skin infection. When administering the medication, it is most important for the nurse to do what? A. Assess the skin for Stevens-Johnson syndrome. B. Inform the healthcare provider if the patient has a history of asthma. C. Monitor for a decrease in the prothrombin time (PT) if the patient is also taking warfarin [Coumadin]. D. Withhold antacids and milk products for 6 hours before or 2 hours afterward.

B

A patient has been receiving IV morphine in the hospital for several days and now he is being discharged with several medications. One of the drugs is Morphine Sulfate ER and the nurse asks you to provide Mr. Walters with the necessary education for taking this particular drug. Mr. Walters demonstrates understanding by all of the following except: A. "If I'm not urinating regularly, I should contact my provider." B. "It's safe to take this with alcohol." C. " An expected side effects is constipation" D. "I might feel drowsy when I take this medication."

C

A patient is admitted to the unit for treatment for an infection. The patient receives and IV aminoglycoside twice a day. When planning for obtaining a peak aminoglycoside level, when should the nurse see that the blood is drawn? A. A peak level is not indicated with twice-daily dosing. B. 1 hour before administration of the IV infusion C. 30 minutes after the IV infusion is complete D. 1 hour after the IV infusion is complete

A

A patient is diagnosed with C. difficile infection. The nurse anticipates administering which medication? A. Metronidazole B. Rifampin C. Daptomycin D. Rifaximin

C

A patient is prescribed NPH insulin. Which statement should the nurse include in the discharge instructions? A. The patient should not mix Lantus with short-acting insulin. B. The patient will have no risk of allergic reactions with this insulin. C. The insulin will have a cloudy appearance in the vial. D. The onset of action is rapid.

C

A patient is prescribed acyclovir [Zovirax] by mouth. The nurse should assess the patient for which adverse effects associated with oral acyclovir therapy? A. Hives, difficulty breathing, and angioedema B. Tinnitus and decreased hearing C. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea D. Stomatitis and gastritis

C

A patient is prescribed insulin glargine [Lantus]. Which statement should the nurse include in the discharge instructions? A. The insulin will have a cloudy appearance in the vial. B. The patient should mix Lantus with the intermediate-acting insulin. C. The patient will have less risk of hypoglycemic reactions with this insulin. D. The insulin should be injected twice daily (before breakfast and dinner).

A

A patient is prescribed metformin. Which statement about metformin does the nurse identify as true? A. Metformin can delay the development of type 2 diabetes in high-risk individuals. B. Metformin increases absorption of vitamin B12. C. Metformin causes patients to gain weight. D. Metformin use predisposes patients to alkalosis.

A

A patient is prescribed spironolactone [Aldactone] for treatment of hypertension. Which foods should the nurse teach the patient to avoid? A. Salt substitutes B. Baked fish. C. Green beans. D. Low-fat milk.

B

A patient is prescribed vancomycin orally for antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis who also has a history of renal impairment. The nurse will monitor the patient for what? A. Leukopenia B. Ototoxicity C. Liver impairment D. "Red man" syndrome

C

A patient is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin]. The nurse identifies which major toxic effect of vancomycin therapy? A. Hepatotoxicity B. Cardiac toxicity C. Nephrotoxicity D. Vision impairment

B

A patient reports having taken morphine for the past 6 months. Which medication, if ordered by the physician, should the nurse question? A. Methylnaltrexone [Relistor] B. Pentazocine [Talwin] C. Promethazine [Phenergan] D. Dextromethorphan [Delsym]

A

A patient who has active tuberculosis is to start a medication regimen that includes pyrazinamide. The nurse identifies a risk for complications if the patient also has which medical condition? A. Alcoholism B. Glaucoma C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Parkinson's disease

D

A patient who has type 2 diabetes will begin taking glipizide [Glucotrol]. Which statement by the patient is concerning to the nurse? A. "It is safe to drink grapefruit juice while taking this drug." B. "I will begin by taking this once daily with breakfast." C. "I will need to check my blood sugar once daily or more." D. "I may continue to have a glass of wine with dinner." Correct

B

A patient who has vomiting and diarrhea is ordered an isotonic intravenous fluid. Which intravenous fluid should the nurse prepare to administer? A. 3% sodium chloride B. 0.9% sodium chloride C. 0.45% sodium chloride D. 0.25% sodium chloride

B

A patient who is receiving an aminoglycoside develops flaccid paralysis and impaired breathing. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering? A. Magnesium sulfate B. Calcium gluconate C. Potassium chloride D. Sodium bicarbonate

C

A patient who takes warfarin has been prescribed sulfadiazine. When teaching the patient about this drug, which statement will the nurse include? A. "You will most likely need to have an increase in the dose of warfarin while taking sulfadiazine." B. "If you become pregnant, it is safe to take sulfadiazine." C. "Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight, wear protective clothing, and apply a sunscreen to exposed skin." D. "You should limit your fluid intake while taking sulfadiazine."

D

A patient who uses an inhaled glucocorticoid for chronic asthma calls the nurse to report hoarseness and speaking difficulty. What should the nurse do next? A. Request an order for an antifungal medication. B. Suggest that the patient be tested for a bronchial infection. C. Tell the patient to discontinue use of the glucocorticoid. D. Ask whether the patient is rinsing their mouth with water and gargling after each dose.

B

A patient who was taking sulfonamides develops Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Upon assessment, the nurse expects to find what? A. Bronchospasm B. Widespread skin lesions C. Hypotension D. Temperature of 35.5 C

B

A patient will be taking oral theophylline [Theochron] twice daily for chronic stable asthma. The nurse knows the patient should receive additional education regarding theophylline when he states the following: A. "I rarely need to use my rescue inhaler when I take my medication regularly." B. "I drink 2-3 cups of coffee a day." C. "I've been a smoker for 30 years, but I quit three years ago." D. "I always take my medication at the same time every day."

A

A patient with HIV contracts herpes simplex virus (HSV), and the prescriber orders acyclovir [Zovirax] 400 mg PO twice daily for 10 days. After 7 days of therapy, the patient reports having an increased number of lesions. The nurse will expect the provider to: A. give intravenous foscarnet every 8 hours for 2 to 3 weeks. B. extend this patient's drug therapy to twice daily for 12 months. C. order intravenous valacyclovir [Valtrex] 1 gm PO twice daily for 10 days. D. increase the acyclovir dose to 800 mg PO 5 times daily.

B

A patient with HIV is prescribed saquinavir [Invirase], a protease inhibitor. It is most important for the nurse to monitor which laboratory value? A. Platelet count B. Blood glucose levels C. Hemoglobin levels D. Serum potassium levels

A

A patient with a serum magnesium level of 0.5 mEq/L receives an intravenous infusion of 10% magnesium at 1.5 mL/min. The nurse should assess the patient for which adverse effects? A. Respiratory paralysis, hypotension, and lethargy B. Muscle twitching, disorientation, and seizures C. Peaked T wave, tingling of the lips, and anxiety D. Skeletal muscle paralysis, bloating, and ileus

C

A patient with a serum potassium of 2.3 mEq/L is ordered to receive a bolus intravenous (IV) dose of potassium chloride. Which action should the nurse take? A. Contact the provider to request oral potassium. B. Recommend that the patient eat more potassium rich foods. C. Hold the dose and contact the prescriber. D. Administer potassium chloride as ordered.

C

A patient with asthma is admitted to an emergency department with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a prolonged expiratory phase, tight wheezes, and an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. The patient reports using an inhaled glucocorticoid, fluticasone [Flovent HFA], 110 mcg twice daily and has used 2 puffs of albuterol [Proventil HFA], 90 mcg/puff, every 4 hours for 2 days. The nurse will expect to administer which drugs? A. Intramuscular glucocorticoids and salmeterol by metered-dose inhaler B. Four puffs of albuterol, oxygen, and intravenous theophylline C. Intravenous glucocorticoids, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium, and oxygen D. Intravenous theophylline, oxygen, and fluticasone (Flovent HFA) 220 mcg

A

A patient with chronic congestive heart failure has repeated hospitalizations in spite of ongoing treatment with hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL] and digoxin. The prescriber has ordered spironolactone [Aldactone] to be added to this patient's drug regimen, and the nurse provides education about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?a. A. "I need to stop taking potassium supplements.". B. "I should watch closely for dehydration." C. "I should use salt substitutes to prevent toxic side effects." D. "I can expect improvement within a few hours of taking this drug"

A,B

A patient with heart failure is currently taking spironolactone [Aldactone] and captopril (an antihypertensive). The patient begins to complain of muscle cramps and shows early signs of respiratory distress. The nurse knows these signs may be related to which factors? [Select all that apply] A. The combination of captopril and spironolactone. B. Potassium = 5.3 mEq/dL C. Sodium = 135 mEq/dL D. The patient's age.

D

A patient with persistent, frequent asthma exacerbations asks a nurse about a long-acting beta2-agonist medication. What will the nurse tell this patient? A. LABAs reduce the risk of asthma-related deaths. B. LABAs are safer than short-acting beta2 agonists. C. LABAs can be used on an as-needed basis to treat symptoms. D. LABAs should be combined with an inhaled glucocorticoid

B

A patient with stable COPD receives prescriptions for an inhaled glucocorticoid and an inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonist. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication regimen? A. "I will need to use the beta2-adrenergic agonist drug daily." B. "The glucocorticoid is used as prophylaxis to prevent exacerbations." C. "The beta2-adrenergic agonist suppresses the synthesis of inflammatory mediators." D. "I should use the glucocorticoid as needed when symptoms flare."

C

A patient with type 1 diabetes is eating breakfast at 7:30 AM. Blood sugars are on a sliding scale and are ordered before a meal and at bedtime. The patient's blood sugar level is 317 mg/dL. Which formulation of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer? A. 70/30 mix B. NPH C. Lispro (Humalog) D. No insulin should be administered.

D

A postoperative patient who received an intravenous infusion of morphine has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute and is lethargic. Which as-needed, prn medication should the nurse administer to the patient? A. Nalbuphine [Nubain] B. Methadone [Dolophine] C. Tramadol [Ultram] D. Naloxone [Narcan]

FALSE

Acyclovir can be administered orally, topically, intravenously, intramuscularly, and subcutaneously. True False

C

Adam is an 11 year old who experiences wheezing and difficulty breathing only during exercise. You would not be surprised if you saw ___________ on Adam's medication list: A. A long-acting beta agonist such as salmeterol. B. A methylxanthine such as theophylline C. A mast cell stabilizer such as cromolyn. D. An anticholinergic such as ipratropium.

C

After surgery, a patient has morphine prescribed for postoperative pain. It is most important for the nurse to make which assessment? A. Heart rate. B. Pain level. C. Respiratory rate. D. Constipation.

TRUE

Aminoglycoside antibiotics are considered bactericidal. True False

D

An older adult patient with congestive heart failure develops crackles in both lungs and pitting edema of all extremities. The physician orders hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]. Before administering this medication, the nurse reviews the patient's chart. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern? A. Elevated serum potassium level B. Low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol C. Normal blood glucose level D. Elevated creatinine clearance

B

Before administering erythromycin to a patient for an upper respiratory tract infection, it is most important for the nurse to determine if the patient is also prescribed which drug? A. Guaifenesin [Guiatuss] B. Verapamil [Calan] C. Nitroglycerin [Tridil] D. Hydrocodone [Vicodin]

B

Before administering gentamycin, an aminoglycoside, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? A. Asthma B. Myasthenia gravis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypertension

B

DP is a 76 year old patient with COPD and a 45 year history of smoking. Which of the following inhaled medications is most helpful for long-term management of the bronchoconstrictive aspect of his disease? A. Albuterol. B. Salmeterol [Serevent]. C. Leukotriene antagonist. D. Glucocorticoids.

C

Fluoroquinolones are known to cause QTc prolongation. Which of the following lab results would cause the nurse to question giving a patient a fluoroquinolone? A. A magnesium level of 2.3 mEq/L B. A chloride level of 98 mEq/L C. A potassium level of 3.1mEq/L D. A sodium level of 139 mEq/L

FALSE

Fluoroquinolones are narrow spectrum agents. True False

D

Fluoroquinolones should be discontinued immediately if what happens? A. Theophylline is prescribed for asthma. B. Dizziness, headache, or confusion occurs. C. Nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea is experienced. D. Tendon pain or inflammation develops.

TRUE

Fluroquinolones carry a black box warning of causing tendon rupture. True False

FALSE

IV Potassium should be infused no faster than 30 mEq/hr in adults. True False

Metabolic acidosis: D Respiratory acidosis: B Metabolic alkalosis: C Respiratory alkalosis: A

Match the following condition with the appropriate descriptor. A. May be caused by hyperventilating B. Lung changes from smoking are a risk factor for developing this condition C. May be associated with prolonged gastric suctioning D. Can occur with salicylate poisoning

Phase I: D Pre-clinical testing: B Phase II: C Phase IV: A

Match the following phase with the correct description: A. This stage requires that drug manufacturers are responsible for publicly reporting how the drug is performing. B. Drugs are tested on non-human models, such as lab animals or scientific models. C. Drugs are tested for safety, effectiveness and dosage in patient volunteers. D. Conducted using healthy volunteers

C

Mr. Krohl has metastatic cancer and is experiencing severe chronic bone pain. He takes oral morphine in doses that have been steadily increasing as he develops tolerance. You would expect that Mr. Krohl would become tolerant to some of morphine's side effects too, but not to: A. Analgesia. B. Respiratory depression. C. Constipation. D. Sedation.

A

Mr. Walters underwent surgery today and will receive morphine for pain. You will be getting him up tonight for the first time. Therefore you will pay particular attention to which expected side effect? A. Orthostatic hypotension B. Constipation. C. Nausea. D. Sedation.

TRUE

Only NPH insulin is appropriate for mixing with short acting insulins like regular, lisper, and aspart. True False

A

Someone asks a nurse about a new drug that is in preclinical testing and wants to know why it cannot be used to treat a friend's illness. Which statement by the nurse is correct? A. "At this stage of drug development, the safety and usefulness of the medication is unknown." B. "A drug at this stage of development can be used only in patients with serious disease." C. "Clinical trials must be completed to make sure the drug is safe to use in humans." D. "Until postmarketing surveillance data are available, the drug cannot be used."

B

TW is a 58 year old man with heart failure. He is currently taking aspirin, digoxin, furosemide, captopril, and metoprolol. He is now being treated with an aminoglycoside antibiotic for a serious infection. This class of drugs is known for its risk of ototoxicity. The nurse is most concerned about which drug increasing this risk? A. Digoxin. B. Furosemide. C. Metoprolol. D. Captopril.

FALSE

Tetracycline antibiotics are bactericidal. True False

FALSE

Tetracyclines are narrow spectrum antibiotics. True False

B

The FDA Amendments Act (FDAAA) was passed in 2007 to address which aspect of drug safety? A. Expediting the approval process of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) so that needed drugs can get to market more quickly. B. Evaluating drug safety information that emerges after a drug has been approved and is in use. C. Requiring manufacturers to notify patients before removing a drug from the market. D. Allowing pharmaceutical companies to identify off-label uses of medications approved for other uses.

C

The primary action of both thiazide and loop diuretics is to: A. Block the action of aldosterone in the distal tubule. B. Increase filtration of sodium in the glomerulus. C. Block sodium and water reabsorption in the tubule. D. Increase the active secretion of water in the tubule.

D

Which acid-base imbalance is caused by chronic renal failure, loss of bicarbonate during severe diarrhea, or metabolic disorders that result in overproduction of lactic acid? A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic acidosis

D

The nurse assesses a newly diagnosed patient for short-term complications of diabetes. What does this assessment include? A. Pedal pulse palpation for arterial insufficiency B. Auscultation of the carotids for bruits associated with atherosclerosis C. ​​​​​Cranial nerve testing for peripheral neuropathy D. Evaluation for hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, and ketoacidosis

C

The nurse caring for a patient taking furosemide (Lasix) is reviewing the patient's most recent laboratory results, which are: sodium, 136 mEq/L; potassium, 3.2 mEq/L; chloride, 100 mEq/L; blood urea nitrogen, 15 mg/dL. Which of the following is the priority nursing action? A. Administer Lasix as ordered. B. Anticipate administering 0.9% normal saline. C. Hold the Lasix and notify the physician. D. Begin a 24-hour urine collection.

C

The nurse develops a care plan for a patient in the continuation phase of treatment for active tuberculosis. The care plan includes teaching about which medication regimen? A. Rifampin and ethambutol B. Ethambutol and isoniazid C. Isoniazid and rifampin D. Pyrazinamide and ethambutol

B

The nurse is administering efavirenz [Sustiva], a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, to a patient with AIDS. What will the nurse do? A. Give the medication without regard to meals. B. Administer the medication on an empty stomach at bedtime. C. Offer St. John's wort with the medication to decrease depression. D. Have the patient take the medication with ice cream or a milkshake.

A

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous acyclovir [Zovirax]. To prevent nephrotoxicity associated with intravenous acyclovir, the nurse will: A. hydrate the patient during the infusion and for 2 hours after the infusion. B. increase the patient's intake of foods rich in vitamin C. C. monitor urinary output every 30 minutes. D. provide a low-protein diet for 1 day before and 2 days after the acyclovir infusion.

D

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous gentamicin, an aminoglycoside for a severe bacterial infection. Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates the patient is experiencing an adverse effect of gentamycin therapy? A. Urinary frequency B. Blurred vision C. Hand tremors D. Tinnitus

B

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving oral magnesium gluconate. Which symptom indicates a common adverse effect of this medication? A. Headache. B. Loose stools. C. Wheezing. D. Urinary retention.

C

The nurse is caring for a patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive and is taking high doses of zidovudine [Retrovir], a nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. The nurse is providing patient education about the adverse effects of the medication. Which statement by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching? A. "I may be more susceptible to infection from neutropenia." B. "I may have a deficiency of folic acid." C. "I may have a deficiency of vitamin B6." D. "I may experience fatigue from anemia."

B

The nurse is preparing a list of medications to give to a patient who is being discharged from the hospital. The nurse should use which drug name for each medication? A. Classification name B. Generic name C. Trade name D. Chemical name

A,B,C,D,E

The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a patient taking tetracycline. Which of the following over the counter items should not be taken at the same time as oral tetracycline? [SELECT ALL THAT APPLY] A. Calcium supplements B. Magnesium-containing laxatives C. Antacids D. Milk products E. Iron supplements

C

The nurse is reviewing laboratory values from a patient who has been prescribed gentamicin, an aminoglycoside. To prevent ototoxicity, it is most important for the nurse to monitor which value(s)? A. Serum alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels B. Peak drugs levels of gentamicin C. Trough drug levels of gentamicin D. Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels

C

The nurse knows that which organ is primarily responsible for maintaining fluid volume and osmolality? A. Liver B. Heart C. Kidneys D. Blood vessels

A

The nurse working on a high-acuity medical-surgical unit is prioritizing care for four patients who were just admitted. Which patient should the nurse assess first? A. The NPO patient with a blood glucose level of 80 mg/dL who just received 20 units of 70/30 Novolin insulin Correct B. The patient with a pulse of 68 beats/min who is about to receive digoxin [Lanoxin] C. The patient with an allergy to penicillin who is receiving an infusion of vancomycin [Vancocin] D. The patient with a blood pressure of 136/92 mm Hg who complains of having a headache

A

The patient is ordered daily divided doses of gentamycin, an aminoglycoside. The patient received an intravenous dose of gentamycin at 4:00 pm. When should the nurse obtain the peak level? A. 4:30 PM B. 5:30 PM C. 5:00 PM D. 6:00 PM

A,B

What are the results of using glucocorticoid drugs to treat asthma? (Select all that apply.) A. Reduced bronchial hyperreactivity B. Reduced edema of the airway C. Reduced number of bronchial beta2 receptors D. Increased synthesis of inflammatory mediators

B

What is the most reliable measure for assessing diabetes control over the preceding 3-month period? A. Self-monitoring blood glucose (SMBG) graph report B. Glycosylated hemoglobin level C. Fasting blood glucose level D. Patient's report

TRUE

When pentazocine is administered to an individual who is physically dependent on opioids, it can precipitate a withdrawal reaction in this patient. True False

C

When providing discharge teaching for a patient who has been prescribed furosemide [Lasix], it is most important for the nurse to include which dietary items to prevent adverse effects of furosemide [Lasix] therapy? A. Tomato juice, skim milk, and cottage cheese B. Baked fish, chicken, and cauliflower C. Oranges, spinach, and potatoes D. Oatmeal, cabbage, and bran flakes

B

Which action is of greatest priority when a patient is diagnosed with hyperkalemia? A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. B. Initiate cardiac monitoring. C. Question the patient about medical history. D. Teach patient to avoid foods high in potassium

C

Which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient about isoniazid (INH) therapy? A. Isoniazid is administered intravenously. B. Tubercle bacilli cannot develop resistance to isoniazid during treatment. C. An adverse effect of isoniazid therapy is peripheral neuropathy, which can be reversed with pyridoxine. D. The dose of isoniazid should be lowered if the patient is also taking phenytoin.

C

Which laboratory results should be reported to the provider if a patient is receiving a thiazide or loop diuretic? A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL B. Uric acid 20mg/dL C. Potssium 3.2 mEq/dL D. Hemoglobin A1c 5.5%

C

Which of the following does the nurse identify as an adverse effect of clindamycin therapy? A. Cyanosis and gray discoloration of the skin B. Elevated bilirubin, with dark urine and jaundice C. Frequent loose, watery stools with mucus and blood D. Reduction in all blood cells produced in the bone marrow

C

Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to a patient taking tetracycline? A. Take the medication with milk B. Take the medication with an antacid C. Take the medication with a full glass of water D. Take the medication at bedtime

C

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which Herpes viruses develop resistance to acyclovir? A. Decreased production of thymidine kinase B. Alteration of viral DNA polymerase such that it is less sensitive to inhibition C. Increasing production of thymidine kinase D. Alteration of thymidine kinase such that it no longer converts acyclovir to acyclo-GMP

B

Which of the following is NOT true regarding spironolactone [Aldactone] ? A. It can cause endocrine problems, such as gynecomastia. B. It's highly effective in ridding the body of sodium and water. C. An adverse effect is hyperkalemia. D. It acts at the aldosterone receptor in the kidney.

A

Which of the following medications is considered the first choice agent for most infections caused by HSV and VZV? A. Acyclovir B. Ribavirin C. Palivizumab D. Tenofovir

B

Which of the following patients is not a candidate for oral tetracycline? A. A 15 year-old male B. A 28 year-old pregnant female C. A 39 year-old male with asthma who is prescribed theophylline D. A 35 year-old female with a severe reaction to penicillins

A,C,E

Which patients may receive gentamicin safely, an aminoglycoside? (Select all that apply.) A. A woman breast-feeding an infant B. A pregnant woman C. A 16-year-old adolescent D. An elderly patient with renal disease E. A 5-year-old child

D

Which statement is accurate about the long-term complications of diabetes? A. Long-term complications are almost always the result of hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. B. Optimal control of type 1 diabetes produces excessive episodes of life-threatening hypoglycemia. C. The complication rates for patients with optimally controlled type 2 diabetes are the same as for those whose disease is not optimally controlled. D. Optimal control of both types of diabetes reduces the risk of eye, kidney, and nerve damage.

C

Which statement will the nurse include when teaching a patient with HIV about management of the disease? A. Blood cultures and red blood cell counts are the principal laboratory tests to guide HIV treatment protocols. B. Drug resistance does not occur in HIV treatment. C. HIV is considered a chronic disease. D. HIV infection can be cured with 1 year of therapy.

A

You have just administered a first dose of morphine to a post-operative patient who has recently returned from the recovery room and is in severe pain. It will be most important for you to monitor him for which adverse effect? A. Respiratory depression. B. Hypertension. C. Constipation. D. Urinary frequency and urgency.