REGISTRY REVIEW

Grid focusing distance is associated with which of the following? a. grid ratio b. lines per inch c. focused grids d. parallel grids

c. focused grids

Biologic material is least sensitive to irradiation under which of the following conditions? a. anoxic b. hypoxic c. oxygenated d. hyperoxia

a. anoxic

A grid error in which there is normal exposure in the center of the image with cutoff visible on the sides is caused by: A. lateral decentering. B. grid-focus decentering. C. off-level grid. D. low kVp.

B. grid-focus decentering.

The word root "lith" means: A. cartilage. B. stone. C. white. D. air.

B. stone.

A lateral radiograph of the paranasal sinuses was taken at 36 inches source-to-image distance (SID) using 25 mAs. To obtain preoperative measurements, the radiologist requested another lateral radiograph be obtained at 72 inches SID. What new mAs must be employed to maintain overall IR exposure? A. 50 mAs B. 100 mAs C. 150 mAs D. 200 mAs

B. 100 mAs

what is a normal respiratory rate for an adult? a. 8 to 12. B. 12 - 16. C. 16 to 20. D. 25 to 30.

B. 12 - 16 respirations per minute

For the axiolateral oblique (modified Law) projection of the TMJ's, how much is the central ray angled and in which direction? A. 15 degrees cephalad B. 15 degrees caudad C. 30 degrees cephalad D. 30 degrees caudad

B. 15 degrees caudad

Total filtration in the x-ray beam must be at least: A. 2.5-mm lead equivalent. B. 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent. C. the same as the amount of compensating filtration. D. the same as the added filtration.

B. 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent.

Twice as many electrons strike the target in the x-ray tube when: A. kVp is doubled. B. mAs is doubled. C. SID is reduced by one-half. D. OID is reduced by one-half.

B. mAs is doubled.

The charge on the atomic nucleus is: A. neutral. B. positive. C. negative. D. a positron.

B. positive.

The suffix "-algia" means: A. like. B. blood. C. pain. D. lung.

C. pain.

The energy of position is called: A. kinetic. B. positive. C. potential. D. synthetic.

C. potential.

Which of the following is the unit of measure for display monitor luminance? a. Cd/m2 b. mGy/s c. Lp/mm d. Lines/cm

a. Cd/m2

_________ dose is the sum of the individual doses received in a given period by a specific population from exposure to a specified source of radiation. a. Collective effective b. Effective c. Genetically significant d. Bone marrow

a. Collective effective

Which of these is the best method to reduce scatter radiation which causes fog? a. Collimation b. Filtration c. Compression d. Speed class

a. Collimation

The radiation dose that would cause the same genetic injury to the population as the sum of doses received by individuals actually being exposed is called: a. GSD b. ALARA c. MMD d. MPD

a. GSD

Which of the following describes a short scale of contrast? a. High contrast b. Low contrast c. High number of brightness differences d. Greater film latitude

a. High contrast

Which two of the following are included in the total filtration of the x-ray beam? a. added filtration b. inherent filtration c. collimation d. gravity filtration

a. added filtration b. inherent filtration

geometric unsharpness is directly proportional to which of the following? 1. SID 2. OID 3. SOD a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

b. 2 only

The exposure field size and image receptor size selected must be within ______ of the source-to-image distance. a. 1% b. 2% c. 3% d. 5%

b. 2%

To avoid shape distortion, which of the following must be paid close attention to? a. SID b. Part angulation c. Part-to-table top distance d. SOD

b. Part angulation

Calipers are used to measure: a. entrance skin exposure. b. anatomical part thickness. c. source-to-image distance. d. occupational dose limits.

b. anatomical part thickness.

Where is the trachea situated in relationship to the esophagus? a. lateral b. anterior c. posterior d. inferior

b. anterior

The relationship between the fractured ends of long bones is called: a. angulation b. apposition c. luxation d. sprain

b. apposition

Select the statement below that is TRUE as it relates to a nonstochastic (deterministic) effect. a. A response is known to occur. b. No threshold dose exists. c. The effect of radiation is unrelated to the dose. d. The effect does not follow any type of dose response curve.

a. A response is known to occur.

The positive side of the x-ray tube is known as the a. anode. b. rotor. c. target. d. stem.

a. anode.

In computed radiography, the primary source of image noise is: a. scatter radiation. b. inadequate sampling. c. the slow scan driver. d. light quanta emitted by the screen.

a. scatter radiation.

What is a 3-dimensional radiograph called that is produced by 2 angled views of the same structure? a. stereoradiograph b. tomogram c. scanogram d. bi-radiograph

a. stereoradiograph

The latent period of gastrointestinal syndrome lasts for approximately: a. 1 to 3 hours. b. 3 to 5 days. c. 2 to 4 weeks. d. 1 to 2 months.

b. 3 to 5 days.

The thyroid cartilage of the larynx is at the level of which cervical vertebra? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

b. 4

A wedge filter is a type of ________ filter. a. inherent b. compensating c. added d. trough

b. compensating

Identify the structure that is identified by the arrow: a. bony nasal septum b. crista galli c. maxillary sinus d. frontal sinus

c. maxillary sinus

Differences between CR and DR include 1. DR images are displayed immediately 2. DR has higher DQE and lower patient dose 3. DR uses IPs a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

Which projection of the chest is used to differentiate the lobes of the lungs, demonstrate the interlobar fissures, and localize pulmonary lesions? a. PA b. lateral c. PA oblique d. AP axial

b. lateral

Which of the following is the basis for all radiation protection standards? a. nonlinear-nonthreshold effect b. linear-nonthreshold effect c. linear-threshold effect d. nonlinear-threshold effect

b. linear-nonthreshold effect

Which of the following means there is no safe level of radiation and the response to the radiation is directly proportional to the dose received? a. nonlinear-nonthreshold effect b. linear-nonthreshold effect c. linear-threshold effect d. nonlinear-threshold effect

b. linear-nonthreshold effect

What instructions for respiration are given to a patient when obtaining an image of lower ribs with an anteroposterior (AP) projection? a. shallow breathing b. normal breathing c. full expiration d. full inspiration

b. normal breathing

Which of the following would NOT be classified as a beam restricting device? a. collimator b. port c. diaphragm d. cylinder

b. port

A patient in a diabetic coma needs which of the following? a. something with sugar b. something salty c. more insulin d. an immediate transfusion

c. more insulin

A 25-gauge, 0.5-inch needle is BEST used for a(n) ________ injection. a. intradermal b. intramuscular c. subcutaneous d. intravenous

c. subcutaneous

When acquiring images of the temporomandibular joints (TMJs), the patient can close the mouth and keep the posterior teeth in contact. Images then can be acquired with the patient's mouth open. The ________ patient population is contraindicated for the open-mouth portion of the examination. a. pediatric b. trauma c. geriatric d. contact precaution

b. trauma

A radiograph that demonstrates acceptable brightness in the middle of the image but shows gradually increasing brightness bilaterally further from the center represents a(n) ________ error. a. grid motion-failed b. upside-down focused grid c. incorrect grid ratio d. off-level grid

b. upside-down focused grid

Blood pressure within vessels is highest during a. ventricular diastole b. ventricular systole c. atrial diastole d. atrial systole

b. ventricular systole

a partially obstructed airway is clinically manifested in which of the following way(s)? 1. Dysphagia 2. noisy, labored breathing 3. nail bed and lip cyanosis a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

c. 2 and 3 only

Patient motion can be used to an advantage in which of the following procedures? a. Chest radiography b. Coronary angiography c. Lateral thoracic spine d. Gastrointestinal radiography

c. Lateral thoracic spine

A medication is used to reduce fever is called: a. emetic b. antihistamine c. antipyretic d. diuretic

c. antipyretic

The MOST superior portion of the stomach is the: a. cardia. b. pyloric portion. c. fundus. d. body.

c. fundus.

According to the CDC, an infection that a patient acquires while in the hospital is known as what? a. viral infection b. gangrenous infection c. health care associated infection d. hospitality infection

c. health care associated infection

Blood vessels, the ureters, nerves, and lymphatic vessels enter and exit the kidney through the: a. renal cortex. b. renal corpuscle. c. hilum. d. renal pelvis

c. hilum.

What type of joint permits motion in one plane only? a. ball-and-socket joint b. pivot joint c. hinge joint d. saddle joint

c. hinge joint

Which of the following is NOT a digestive accessory gland? a. liver b. gallbladder c. pancreas d. spleen

d. spleen

Which of the following tests will determine film-screen contact? a. safelight test b. spinning top test c. acid test d. wire mesh test

d. wire mesh test

The active layer of a direct flat panel detector converts: a. light to electrons. b. x-rays to light. c. electrons to light. d. x-rays to electrons.

d. x-rays to electrons.

Characteristics of anemia include: 1. decreased number of circulating red blood cells 2. decreased hemoglobin 3. hematuria (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

Structures located in the LUQ of the average adult include: 1. ascending colon 2. spleen 3. pancreatic tail (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only

In this diagram, A is (are) the: A. photocathode B. focusing lenses C. output phosphor D. input phosphor

D. input phosphor

What is the greatest advantage of digital imaging? a. Contrast resolution b. Spatial resolution c. Decreased exposure d. Less distortion

a. Contrast resolution

All of the following are considered fluoroscopy viewing systems EXCEPT FOR: a. image intensifiers. b. cathode ray tube monitors. c. liquid crystal displays. d. plasma monitors.

a. image intensifiers.

An increase in image magnification will result from increasing: a. object-to-image distance (OID). b. focal spot size. c. source-to-image distance (SID). d. beam restriction.

a. object-to-image distance (OID).

During fluoroscopy, which of the following will produce the greatest amount of scatter radiation? a. patient b. tube housing c. tabletop d. image intensifier

a. patient

An acceptable image is produced using 72 kVp, 5 mAs, no grid, and 40-inch SID. If the image is repeated using a 12:1 grid, ________ mAs would be needed to maintain receptor exposure. a. 30 b. 25 c. 20 d. 15

b. 25

The flow of energy through the image intensifier tube follows this path: 1. photocathode 2. output phosphor 3. electrostatic lenses 4. input phosphor

4- input phosphor, 1-photocathode, 3-electrostatic lenses, 2-output phosphor

The ASRT document that defines the radiographer's role is the: (A) Standards of Ethics (B) Practice Standards (C) Standard of Care (D) Legal Standards

(B) Practice Standards

The best way to control voluntary motion is: (A) immobilization of the part (B) careful explanation of the procedure (C) short exposure time (D) physical restraint

(B) careful explanation of the procedure

The type(s) of radiation produced at the tungsten target is/are: 1. photoelectric 2. characteristic 3. Bremsstrahlung (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only

Which of the following bones has (have) no body? A. Atlas B. Axis C. Thoracic vertebrae D. Lumbar vertebrae

A. Atlas

What technical factor directly controls differential absorption? A. kVp B. mAs C. SID D. OID

A. kVp

For optimum spatial resolution, focal-spot size should be A. small. B. large. C. grid-controlled. D. average.

A. small.

How short of an exposure is possible with electronic timers? A. 1/10 second B. 1/1000 second C. 1 microsecond D. 1 megasecond

B. 1/1000 second

Rotating anodes can tolerate higher instantaneous heat loads than stationary anodes because: A. rotating anodes are thicker than stationary anodes. B. heat is distributed over a larger area in rotating anodes. C. rotating anodes are made of materials that can withstand greater heat loading. D. none of the above; stationary anodes can actually tolerate higher heat loads than rotating anodes.

B. heat is distributed over a larger area in rotating anodes.

Medical and dental x-rays are examples of: A. natural background radiation. B. human-produced radiation. C. nonionizing radiation. D. ionizing, natural background radiation.

B. human-produced radiation.

The abdominal aorta bifurcates into right and left _______ arteries. A. mesenteric B. iliac C. renal D. femoral

B. iliac

The primary purpose of filtering the x-ray beam is to: A. increase contrast. B. improve safety. C. soften the beam for proper imaging. D. remove short-wavelength rays.

B. improve safety.

As kVp is decreased, the wavelength of the x-ray photon: A. decreases. B. increases. C. remains the same. D. fluctuates.

B. increases.

A digital image is made up of rows and columns known as a: A. photon-induced image. B. matrix. C. paradigm. D. image grid.

B. matrix.

That which has form and occupies space best defines: A. mass. B. matter. C. weight. D. energy.

B. matter.

This is wired between the rectifier and the x-ray tube: A. prereading voltmeter. B. milliammeter. C. transformer. D. semiconductor.

B. milliammeter.

Logrolling is a method of moving patients with suspected: A. head injury B. spinal injury C. bowel obstruction D. extremity fracture

B. spinal injury

In this diagram, G is the: A. step-up transformer. B. step-down transformer. C. rectifier. D. autotransformer.

B. step-down transformer.

which of the following must be done with the cassettes after they are used for an isolation patient? a. Destroyed. B. Set aside for 24 hours. C. Disinfected before being used again. D. Left in the pillow case

C. Disinfected before being used again.

Scattered photons emerging from the patient travel in what kind of paths? A. Right angles only B. Backscatter C. Divergent D. Opposite

C. Divergent

What graphs illustrate the relationship between radiation and the organism's response to it? A. Paradigms B. Histograms C. Dose-response curves D. Matrices

C. Dose-response curves

What is the opening of the external ear canal called? A. Auricle B. Temporal opening C. External auditory meatus D. Sella turcica

C. External auditory meatus

What do we call the process of removing electrons from the atoms of the body by x-ray interactions? A. Electrification B. Exposure C. Ionization D. Beaming

C. Ionization

Which of the following bones has rami? A. Sphenoid bone B. Ethmoid bone C. Mandible D. Maxilla

C. Mandible

Atomic number is represented by the letter: A. M. B. A. C. Z. D. Q.

C. Z.

For optimum spatial resolution, SID should be the A. shortest possible. B. longest possible. C. longest practical. D. average distance

C. longest practical.

How do we measure the workload factor? A. Half-value layer B. Amount of time the beam is on C. mA minutes per week D. Average kVp per week

C. mA minutes per week

In computed radiography, the window level corresponds to the: A. area of the patient being irradiated. B. level of image contrast. C. midpoint of densities. D. toe of the H & D curve.

C. midpoint of densities.

An undistorted radiographic image will result when the object plane and the image plane are: A. angled in relation to each other. B. at right angles. C. parallel. D. perpendicular.

C. parallel.

A term that is synonymous with groove is: A. fossa. B. furrow. C. sulcus. D. sinus.

C. sulcus.

Filaments are primarily made of ____________ because of its high melting point. A. gold B. silver C. tungsten D. platinum

C. tungsten

Which of the following will occur when the tube angle is decreased? a. The image will be foreshortened b. Contrast will be lower c. Shape distortion will decrease d. Size distortion will increase

c. Shape distortion will decrease

Spatial resolution can be improved by which of the following? a. Higher contrast b. Greater brightness c. Smaller focal spot size d. Air gap technique

c. Smaller focal spot size

A flat-panel detector's element (DEL) size determination which of the following? a. Dynamic range b. Detective quantum efficiency (DQE) c. Spatial resolution d. Speed class

c. Spatial resolution

Which of the following is an example of a compensating filter? a. inherent filter b. added filter c. aluminum wedge filter d. collimator

c. aluminum wedge filter

Where does thermionic emission occur? a. step-down transformer b. rectifier c. cathode d. timer

c. cathode

Which of the following is used to limit the area of the patient being irradiated? a. grid b. lead mask c. collimator d. compensating filter

c. collimator

In her studies on death and dying, Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross described the first stage of the grieving process as a. depression b. bargaining c. denial d. anger

c. denial

A characteristic curve graphically demonstrates the relationship between which of the following? a. density and contrast b. detail and distortion c. density and contrast d. contrast and exposure

c. density and contrast

Which of the following occurs when radiation transfers its energy to DNA? a. indirect effect b. target theory c. direct effect d. mutations

c. direct effect

All of the following are quality control (QC) tests for photostimulable imaging detectors EXCEPT FOR: a. uniformity. b. spatial resolution. c. luminance. d. erasure thoroughness

c. luminance.

a cathartic is used to: a. inhibit coughing b. promote elimination of urine c. stimulate defecation d. induce vomiting

c. stimulate defecation

A mechanical method used to clear the patient's airway is called: a. the heimlich maneuver b. CPR c. suctioning d. NG tube insertion

c. suctioning

The size of the pixel produced when a CR imaging plate is read depends on which of the following? 1. The speed of the imaging plate as it passes through the reader 2. The frequency with which the data is sampled 3. The dimension of the laser beam a. 1 only b. 1 & 2 only c. 1 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

d. 1, 2, & 3

Which of the following may be used to control motion during a radiographic examination? 1. Immobilization devices 2. Precise verbal instructions to the patient 3. Shortest possible exposure time a. 1 only b. 1 & 3 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

d. 1, 2, & 3

Which of the following methods can be used to control motion by reducing exposure time? 1. Use highest mA station possible 2. Increase kVp 3. Decrease SID a. 1 only b. 1 & 2 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

d. 1, 2, & 3

a professional assessment of patient's health will require which of the following? 1. observe his physical condition 2. note his mental state 3. be aware of his cultural background a. 1 only b. 1 & 2 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

d. 1, 2, & 3

Examples of biomedical waste include: 1. laboratory and pathology waste 2. used bandages and dressings 3. chest tubes 4. bladder catheters a. 1, 3, and 4 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2, 3, and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

According to the American College of Radiology, which of the following are indications for obtaining a skeletal survey? 1. suspected nonaccidental trauma 2. skeletal dysplasias, syndromes, and metabolic disorders 3. neoplasms a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Conditions requiring oxygen therapy include 1. COPD 2. pneumonia 3. sleep apnea a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Examples of a portal of entry in the cycle of infection include: 1. a break in the skin 2. nasal mucous membrane 3. urinary tract a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Examples of various diverse cultural groups include the following 1. Generational groups 2. Socioeconomic groups 3. Handicapped groups a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Misunderstandings between cultures can happen as a result of: 1. looking directly into someone's eyes 2. the use of certain gestures 3. standing too close while speaking to another a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following image artifacts will appear as an area of increased brightness? 1. nasogastric tube. 2. Swan-Ganz catheter. 3. IV port (Port-A-Cath). a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is/are effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations? 1. use of PA projections 2. use of breast shields 3. use of compensating filtration a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following may cause a patient to faint? 1. Hunger 2. Emotional stress 3. Lack of sleep a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following must be included in a patient's medical record or chart? 1. diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2. medical history 3. informed consent a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Each kidney contains approximately ________ nephron units. a. 100 b. 1,000 c. 100,000 d. 1,000,000

d. 1,000,000

Grids should be used on parts that are: a. 5 cm or smaller. b. 5 cm or larger. c. 10 cm or smaller. d. 10 cm or larger.

d. 10 cm or larger.

The intensity of radiation to an image receptor is 200 mR at 48-inch source-to-image distance (SID). At 40-inch SID, the intensity is: a. 282 mR. b. 284 mR. c. 286 mR. d. 288 mR

d. 288 mR

The pelvis is composed of how many movable joints? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

d. 5

The section of the stomach where the esophagus enters is called the: a. Rugae b. Pylorus c. Fundus d. Cardiac portion

d. Cardiac portion

The lateral surface of the stomach is called the: a. Rugae b. Pylorus c. Fundus d. Greater curvature

d. Greater curvature

What unit of measurement is used for absorbed dose in tissue? a. Gy(a) b. Gy(s) c. Gy(b) d. Gy(t)

d. Gy(t)

Routes of entry of toxic chemicals may include: a. swallowing and inhalation b. inhalation only c. absorption through skin or mucous membranes d. Inhalation, swallowing, or absorption through skin or mucous membranes.

d. Inhalation, swallowing, or absorption through skin or mucous membranes.

Which of the following is used to feed a patient or conduct gastric suction? a. urinary catheter b. chest tube c. ventilator d. NG tube

d. NG tube

All of the following are required on mobile fluoroscopy units EXCEPT a. a cumulative timer. b. a deadman-type switch. c. an exposure factor display. d. a protective drape.

d. a protective drape.

A technique chart needs to be established for each: a. radiographer. b. radiology examination room. c. radiologist. d. patient.

b. radiology examination room.

The abbreviation "Hx" stands for which of the following? a. prognosis b. history c. high blood pressure d. heart attack

b. history

The most effective method of sterilization is: a. dry heat b. moist heat c. pasteurization d. freezing

b. moist heat

The grid conversion factor for a 16:1 grid is A. 3. B. 4. C. 5. D. 6.

D. 6.

The term teleradiology refers to: A. calling a radiologist at home. B. asking a radiologist to read a digital image. C. night hawks. D. electronically transmitting images from one place to another.

D. electronically transmitting images from one place to another.

Charge created in the amorphous silicon layer is collected at the: a. bias line. b. capacitor. c. scintillator. d. display.

b. capacitor.

Which type of radiographic grid has lead lines running in two directions? a. linear b. crossed c. parallel d. focused

b. crossed

Anything that is foreign to the normal radiographic image is called what? a. an artifact b. a blemish c. a foreign body

a. an artifact

An inanimate object that has been in contact with an infectious microorganism is termed a a. vector b. fomite c. host d. reservoir

b. fomite

Kilovoltage peak (kVp) is selected at the: a. autotransformer. b. rheostat. c. step-up transformer. d. rectifier

a. autotransformer.

How are kV and HVL related? a. directly b. inversely c. inverse squared d. direct squared

a. directly

What is the most severe form of convulsive seizures? a. petit mal b. grand mal c. partial d. epileptic

b. grand mal

What effect would changing the x-ray tube filtration from 3.5 mm to 4.0 mm have on the x-ray beam quality? a. decreased quality b. increased quality c. no change in quality

b. increased quality

Identify the structure that is represented by the turquoise color: a. inferior facet of C1 b. joint space between C1 and C2 c. superior facet of C1 d. central incisor tooth

b. joint space between C1 and C2

The central ray placement for a lateral projection of the esophagus is on the ________ plane. a. midsagittal b. midcoronal c. interiliac d. occlusal

b. midcoronal

Which of the following is a cranial bone? a. mandible b. parietal c. vomer d. maxillary

b. parietal

What is the greatest source of scatter radiation during fluoroscopic procedures? a. tube housing b. patient c. tabletop d. image intensifier

b. patient

A patient is having a severe anaphylactic reaction to iodinated contrast media. Her face is beginning to swell and her speech is becoming hoarse and she says it feels like her "throat is closing up." An appropriate medication for this emergency would be: a. epinephrine. b. glucose. c. diazepam (Valium). d. furosemide (Lasix).

a. epinephrine.

What type of bone is the scapula? a. flat b. long c. irregular d. sesamoid

a. flat

Which of the following effects grid efficiency the most? a. grid ratio b. grid focusing distance c. grid frequency d. grid tolerance

a. grid ratio

Which of the following projections would result in a young female patient receiving a significantly lower dose to her breast tissue during a scoliosis x-ray? a. anteroposterior (AP) b. posteroanterior (PA) c. lateral decubitus d. recumbent

b. posteroanterior (PA)

During the ________ stage of gestation, prenatal death can result from exposure to ionizing radiation. a. implantation b. preimplantation c. fetal d. organogenesis

b. preimplantation

Which of the following elements are currently found in all intravenous solutions of contrast media? a. iodine b. nitrogen c. sulfur d. barium

a. iodine

Which of the following technical factors simultaneously affects overall image quality and radiation quantity while producing the x-ray beam? a. kVp b. object-to-image distance (OID) c. half-value layer (HVL) d. detective quantum efficiency (DQE)

a. kVp

The most radiosensitive cells in the body are: a. lymphocytes b. epithelial cells c. nerve cells d. muscle cells

a. lymphocytes

When placing an IV catheter, what should be done shortly after receiving blood return and advancing the catheter? a. wash hands b. release tourniquet c. flush catheter d. clean skin

b. release tourniquet

The process of eliminating all organisms from the environment by gas sterilization, use of germicides, or use of dry heat is called. a. surgical asepsis b. sterilization c. medical asepsis d. autoclaving

a. surgical asepsis

If the radiographer touches hazardous chemicals, what must be done first: a. rinse immediately with warm water b. rinse immediately with cool water for at least 5 minutes c. rinse immediately with cool water for at least 15 minutes d. rinse with the warmer water that can be tolerated.

b. rinse immediately with cool water for at least 5 minutes

The lung field portions of the image demonstrate the technical problem of: a. quantum mottle. b. saturation. c. size distortion. d. motion.

b. saturation.

The spinal needle used in myelography is placed in the __________ space. a. subdural b. subarachnoid c. epidural d. subpia mater

b. subarachnoid

When acquiring a lateral projection of the finger, it is important to keep the finger parallel to the image receptor because in this position: a. the joint spaces are perpendicular to the image receptor and open on the resulting image. b. the joint spaces are parallel to the image receptor and open on the resulting image. c. elongation of the phalanx enables an unobstructed view of a fracture. d. foreshortening of the phalanx enables an unobstructed view of a fracture.

a. the joint spaces are perpendicular to the image receptor and open on the resulting image

What does grid cut-off mean? a. the primary x-rays are absorbed b. the secondary x-rays are absorbed c. the scatter x-rays are absorbed d. the remnant (exit) rays are absorbed

a. the primary x-rays are absorbed

Tinctures, ointments, lotions, and sprays are administered by the ________ route. a. topical b. intravenous c. oral d. intramuscular

a. topical

Which of the following attributes do personnel monitoring devices include? 1. They must not be susceptible to environmental conditions. 2. Devices are designed to record only small exposures. 3. The device must reflect human tissue absorption characteristics. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 3

If the SID is increased the same as the OID, what will the resultant radiograph show? a. No change in size distortion b. An increase in size distortion c. A decrease in size distortion d. An elongated image

b. An increase in size distortion

When applying a topical drug to a patient's skin, the health care provider should first: a. put on gloves. b. wash his or her hands. c. verify patient identification. d. explain the entire procedure to the patient.

b. wash his or her hands.

Which type of compensating filter is the MOST appropriate to use for an AP or AP axial projection of the foot? a. boomerang b. wedge c. trough d. bilateral wedge

b. wedge

________ scattering is another term for classical scattering. a. Compton b. Coherent c. Characteristic d. Photoelectric

b. Coherent

After the values of interest have been determined from the histogram, which of the following is used to readjust those numbers to produce the proper contrast? a. Contrast chart b. Look-up table c. Values graph d. Number diagram

b. Look-up table

he ratio of SID to SOD represents which of the following a. Distortion ratio b. Magnification ratio c. Definition ratio d. Shape ratio

b. Magnification ratio

Spatial resolution can be improved by which of the following? a. Maximum OID b. Maximum SID c. Minimum SID d. Minimum SOD

b. Maximum SID

In many cases, digital fluoroscopy eliminates which of the following? a. The need for a radiographer b. Postprocedure "overhead" images c. Image acquisition d. Accurate positioning

b. Postprocedure "overhead" images

The narrow distal end of the stomach that connects with the small intestine is called the: a. Rugae b. Pylorus c. Fundus d. Greater curvature

b. Pylorus

________ is a short-term somatic effect of radiation exposure a. Cataract formation b. Skin erythema c. Leukemia d. Hereditary alteration

b. Skin erythema

Which of the following radiographic qualities determines the sharpness of detail in the finished radiograph? a. Spatial resolution and contrast b. Spatial resolution and distortion c. Receptor exposure and contrast d. Receptor exposure and distortion

b. Spatial resolution and distortion

Which of the following are considered moderate reactions to iodinated contrast media? 1. nausea and vomiting 2. wheezing 3. pronounced skin reactions a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

c. 2 and 3

Which of the following is/are appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts. 2. maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient 3. call for help and use the log rolling method to turn the patient a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

c. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following structures is/are located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? 1. Spleen 2. Gallbladder 3. Hepatic flexure a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

c. 2 and 3 only

Which ankle projection must be acquired to see an open distal tibiofibular joint? a. AP b. AP oblique with 15°to 20° medial rotation c. AP oblique with 45° medial rotation d. AP oblique with 45° lateral rotation

c. AP oblique with 45° medial rotation

Which of the following can be done to help compensate for an angled part? a. Angle the tube in the opposite direction b. Angle the image receptor in the opposite direction c. Align the tube, part, and image receptor d. Have the patient bend over

c. Align the tube, part, and image receptor

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a sterile field? a. The entire gown is considered sterile as long as an unsterile person has not touched it. b. Unsterile persons can reach over the sterile field as long as they do not touch anything that is considered sterile. c. Anything below the level of the table or the waist is considered unsterile. d. A sealed item that has been exposed to moisture is sterile as long as the seal or container has not been opened.

c. Anything below the level of the table or the waist is considered unsterile.

What is the most common work-related problem among health care workers? a. Disease from dirty needles b. Infection due to patient contact c. Back problems from improper lifting d. Excessive radiation exposure

c. Back problems from improper lifting

Which of the following is an example of good body mechanics? a. Carry objects at arms length b. Bend from the waist c. Bend from the knees d. Keep feet close together

c. Bend from the knees

Spatial resolution can be improved by reducing which of the following? a. SID b. SOD c. Focal spot size d. Patient size

c. Focal spot size

Which of the following directly influences radiographic contrast? a. mA b. SID c. Grid ratio d. Exposure time

c. Grid ratio

What will result from using double-emulsion film in a cassette having a single intensifying screen? (A) double exposure (B) decreased density (C) increased recorded detail (D) greater latitude

(B) decreased density

Somatic effects of radiation refer to effects that are manifested: (A) in the descendants of the exposed individual (B) during the life of the exposed individual (C) in the exposed individual and their descendants (D) in the reproductive cells of the exposed individual

(B) during the life of the exposed individual

A radiographic image exhibiting few shades of gray between black and white is said to possess: (A) no contrast (B) high contrast (C) low contrast (D) little contrast

(B) high contrast

The medical term referring to nosebleed is: (A) vertigo (B) urticaria (C) epistaxis (D) aura

(C) epistaxis

Diseases whose mode of transmission is through the air include: 1. tuberculosis 2. mumps 3. rubella (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

All of the following statements regarding breast cancer management are true, except: (A) early stages of disease respond well to surgical treatment (B) BSE helps provide an early diagnosis (C) survival improves with early diagnosis (D) a baseline mammogram should be made once menopause begins

(D) a baseline mammogram should be made once menopause begins

What is the magnification if an object measure 4 cm but the radiographic image is 8 cm? a. 2x b. 3x c. 4x d. 6x

2x (8/4 alt is SID/SOD)

The liver has a WT of: a. 0.20. b. 0.12. c. 0.05. d. 0.01.

c. 0.05.

Radiation dose limits to the public are generally what fraction of the occupational dose limits? a. 100% b. 50% c. 10% d. 1%

c. 10%

When using magnification mode during fluoroscopy: a. exposure decreases and spatial resolution decreases. b. exposure decreases and spatial resolution increases. c. exposure increases and spatial resolution decreases. d. exposure increases and spatial resolution increases

d. exposure increases and spatial resolution increases

The total electrical charge generated by an x-ray beam per unit mass of air is called: a. the absorbed dose. b. the equivalent dose. c. air kerma. d. exposure.

d. exposure.

What instructions for respiration are given to a patient during a routine chest lateral projection? a. shallow breathing c. normal breathing c. full expiration d. full inspiration

d. full inspiration

Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the: a. position of the organ b. size and shape of the organ c. diverticula d. gastric or bowel mucosa

d. gastric or bowel mucosa

How many lines per inch are needed for grids that are used with CR? a. less than 60 b. 80 c. 100 d. greater than 150

d. greater than 150

The ethical principle that refers to our responsibility to keep our patient from harm and to avoid inflicting harm is: a. fidelity b. veracity c. beneficence d. nonmaleficence

d. nonmaleficence

A malignant primary tumor of bone is a(n): a. chondrosarcoma b. enchondroma c. metastasis d. osteosarcoma

d. osteosarcoma

What is the proper procedure for turning a disabled patient on an x-ray table? a. Turn the patient's legs first b. Turn the patient away from you c. Turn the patient towards you d. Turn the patient whichever way is easier

c. Turn the patient towards you

Which of the following parts is NOT part of a needle? a. cannula b. hub c. bevel d. plunger

d. plunger

Epistaxis is the medical term for: a. double vision. b. dizziness upon standing. c. a nosebleed. d. fainting

c. a nosebleed.

A reduction in entrance skin exposure can be achieved in fluoroscopy procedures by: a. reducing source-to-skin-distance. b. decreasing filtration. c. resetting the cumulative timer. d. reducing input phosphor-to-skin distance.

d. reducing input phosphor-to-skin distance

Assessment of changing patient conditions includes observing for: a. skin that becomes unusually warm b. patient expressions of discomfort or dizziness c. lips that become jaundiced d. skin that becomes diaphoretic, lips and nails that turn cyanotic, and patient complaints of dizziness or discomfort

d. skin that becomes diaphoretic, lips and nails that turn cyanotic, and patient complaints of dizziness or discomfort

7. What organization has the authority to impose professional sanction on a radiographer? (A) ARRT (B) ASRT (C) JRCERT (D) TJC

(A) ARRT

Which of the following types of adult tissues is (are) relatively insensitive to radiation exposure? 1. muscle tissue 2. nerve tissue 3. epithelial tissue (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

Computed radiography may be part of an integrated system of images and text called: A. digital patient record. B. PACS. C. patient information system. D. computed patient file

B. PACS.

The SID at which a focused grid must be used is called: A. grid frequency. B. grid radius. C. grid ratio. D. contrast improvement factor.

B. grid radius.

The active portion of a computed radiography imaging plate (IP) is (are): A. calcium tungstate. B. photostimulable phosphors. C. silver bromide crystals. D. rare earth phosphors.

B. photostimulable phosphors.

which of the following conditions can be treated with the drug aminophylline? A. Heart failure. B. Epilepsy. C. Cancer. D. Asthma

D. Asthma

What transformer operates on the principle of self-induction? A. Step-up transformer B. Self-induced transformer C. Induction transformer D. Autotransformer

D. Autotransformer

Equipment sources of motion may be: A. CR cassette. B. x-ray tube. C. reciprocating grid. D. B and C

D. B and C

Photons travel: A. quickly. B. at the speed of sound. C. at the speed of electrons. D. at the speed of light.

D. at the speed of light.

In this diagram, 1 is the: A. step-up transformer. B. step-down transformer. C. rectifier. D. autotransformer.

D. autotransformer

A skull that is short from front to back and broad from side to side would be described as: A. synarthroses. B. amphiarthroses. C. diarthroses. D. brachycephalic.

D. brachycephalic.

A condition caused by angling the x-ray tube along the long axis of the part is: A. magnification. B. minification. C. foreshortening. D. elongation

D. elongation

X-rays travel as bundles of energy called: A. energy waves. B. phasers. C. electromagnetic bursts. D. photons.

D. photons.

High-frequency full-wave rectification produces what percentage of ripple? A. 13 B. 4 C. 1 D. 100

C. 1

When calculating heat units for single-phase equipment, which equation is used? A. kVp × mAs × 2.00 B. kVp × mAs × 1.41 C. kVp × mAs × 1.00 D. kVp × mAs × 1.35

C. kVp × mAs × 1.00

Modern rectifiers are made of: A. silicone-based semiconductors. B. transistors. C. cathode ray tubes. D. silicon-based semiconductors.

D. silicon-based semiconductors.

Radiation monitors that use lithium fluoride crystals to record dose are called: A. film badges. B. pocket ionization chambers. C. OSL badges D. thermoluminescent dosimeters

D. thermoluminescent dosimeters

What is the name of changes in genetic code passed on to the next generation? a. indirect effect b. target theory c. direct effect d. mutations

d. mutations

The medical abbreviation meaning "after meals is a. gtt b. qid c. qh d. pc

d. pc

Identify the structure that the arrow is pointing to: a. lamina b. pedicle c. spinous process d. transverse foramen

a. lamina

Radiation dose radiation that is a result of using protective shielding is based on which two of the following? (Select two) a. material of the shield b. color of the shield c. thickness of the shield d. manufacturer

a. material of the shield c. thickness of the shield

Patient demographics and examination information are stored with a digital radiography image in the image's. a. metadata. b. radiology information system (RIS). c. study ID. d. modality worklist.

a. metadata.

Leakage radiation is: a. monoenergetic. b. remnant radiation. c. primary radiation. d. a contributor to dose in uncontrolled areas.

a. monoenergetic.

Which of the following are facial bones? a. nasal, lacrimal, vomer, and mandible b. maxillary, zygoma, palatine, and parietal c. vomer, zygoma, sphenoid, and lacrimal d. frontal, ethmoid, vomer, and mandibl

a. nasal, lacrimal, vomer, and mandible

The dimension from one side of a pixel to the other side of the same pixel is the measure of: a. pixel size. b. pixel pitch. c. Nyquist frequency. d. sampling frequency.

a. pixel size.

Which of the following abbreviations means to provide medication "4 times a day"? a. qid b. pm c. q4hr d. qh

a. qid

The auricular surface of the ilium articulates with the: a. ischium b. pubis. c. sacrum. c. femoral head.

c. sacrum.

The patient in insulin shock who is still conscious requires which of the following? a. something with sugar b. something salty c. more insulin d. an immediate transfusion

a. something with sugar

Pre-established guidelines that a radiographer can use to select exposure factors for a radiographic examination are listed on a(n): a. technique chart. b. generator control panel. c. examination requisition. d. accreditation standard.

a. technique chart.

For children older than 3 years, bone age is MOST commonly determined by comparing a radiograph of ________ with a set of reference images. a. the hand and wrist. b. bilateral hips. c. bilateral knees. d. the foot and ankle.

a. the hand and wrist.

Which of the following should be avoided if possible when imaging morbidly obese patients using direct radiography (DR) image receptors? a. the use of full 17 x 17" radiation field b. the use of a grid c. the use of automatic exposure control (AEC) d. the use of positive beam limitation.

a. the use of full 17 x 17" radiation field

Which three of the following would be considered a secondary barrier? (select three) a. walls over 7 feet tall b. wall behind the upright bucky c. control booth d. lead apron

a. walls over 7 feet tall c. control booth d. lead apron

For a lateral projection of the knee, the patient's leg is flexed: a. 5° to 10°. b. 20° to 30°. c. 40° to 45° d. 90°

b. 20° to 30°.

A barium enema bag usually is hung no higher than ________ above a patient's rectum a. 12 inches b. 24 inches c. 36 inches d. 48 inches

b. 24 inches

Natural background radiation represents what percentage of humans' radiation exposure? a. 21% b. 50% c. 82% d. 5%

b. 50%

400 speed rare earth screens require how much less radiation than 200 speed rare earth screens? a. 25% less b. 50% less c. 100% less d. 200% less

b. 50% less

Using a 75 kVp x-ray beam with a 0.25 mm lead-equivalent apron provides protection from _______ of the beam a. 55% b. 66% c. 77% d. 88%

b. 66%

Typical grid ratios found in fluoroscopic units are: a. 5:1 to 6:1. b. 6:1 to 10:1. c. 10:1 to 12:1. d. 12:1 to 16:1.

b. 6:1 to 10:1.

Which of the following serves as a guide to professional conduct? a. ARRT mission statement b. ARRT code of ethics c. ARRT examination content specifications d. ARRT rules of ethics

b. ARRT code of ethics

The following are anatomical features of the femur. Rearrange them in order from distal to proximal. 1. lesser trochanter 2. medial epicondyle 3. head 4. greater trochanter 5. lateral condyle 6. body/shaft a. 5,2,6,1,4,3 b. 2,5,4,1,6,3 c. 3,4,1,6,2,5 d. 3,6,1,4,5,2

a. 5,2,6,1,4,3

According to NCRP report #116, the annual occupational effective dose limit is: a. 50 mSv b. 10 mSv c. 0.50 mSv d. 0.05 mSv

a. 50 mSv

A fracture at the base of the first metacarpal is a ________ fracture. a. Bennett b. boxer c. Colles d. Smith

a. Bennett

What condition is characterized by pouch-like herniations of the colonic wall? a. Diverticula b. Ulcerative colitis c. Pyloric stenosis d. Adynamic ileus

a. Diverticula

If the central ray is perpendicular to the image receptor, but the part is angled, what will be the result? a. Foreshortening b. Elongation c. Minification d. Loss of brightness

a. Foreshortening

Filters used in radiographic x-ray tubes generally are composed of: a. aluminum b. copper c. tin d. lead

a. aluminum

What follows an allergic reaction to foreign proteins? a. anaphylaxis b. cardiogenic shock c. hypovolemic shock d. septic shock

a. anaphylaxis

Which of the following is the correct definition of gonion? a. angle of the mandible b. base of the skull c. the junction of the parietal bone and the temporal bone d. the junction of the occipital and parietal bones

a. angle of the mandible

Who is required to wear personnel dosimeter? a. anyone who may be exposed to an annual occupational dose of 5 millisieverts (mSv) b. anyone who may be exposed to more than 5% of occupational dose limits. c. Anyone who may be exposed to more than 10 millisieverts (mSv) per year. d. anyone who is occupationally exposed to ionizing radiation should wear a personnel dosimeter.

a. anyone who may be exposed to an annual occupational dose of 5 millisieverts (mSv)

For radiographers, the primary biological risk from radiation exposure is: a. carcinogenesis. b. erythema. c. cataractogenesis. d. epilation.

a. carcinogenesis.

Because barium enemas increase the possibility of contact between body substances and clothing, the radiographer should always wear: a. disposable gowns or surgical scrubs b. head covering c. shoe covering d. a regular hospital uniform

a. disposable gowns or surgical scrubs.

What condition involves chronic inflammation of portions of the bowel? a. Annular carcinoma b. Crohn disease c. Hiatal hernia d. Ileus

b. Crohn disease

Choose all of the following statements that are accurate regarding electrostatic charges. a. electrostatics is the study of electric charges at rest b. the movement of electrons from one object to another is called ionization c. like charges attract, and unlike charges repel d. electrostatic charges concentrate on a conductor in the area of greatest curvature d. friction, contact, and induction are methods of ionization

a. electrostatics is the study of electric charges at rest d. electrostatic charges concentrate on a conductor in the area of greatest curvature

Which of the following is a cranial bone that is also part of the orbit? a. ethmoid b. lacrimal c. zygoma d. palatine

a. ethmoid

Which of the following is considered a late nonstochastic effect? a. fibrosis b. cancer c. birth defect d. increased fertility

a. fibrosis

For an AP axial projection, or modified Towne method, of the zygomatic arches, it is recommended that the patient be positioned with the orbitomeatal line (OML) perpendicular to the image receptor with________________angle. a. 37° cephalic b. 37° caudal c. 30° cephalic d. 30° caudal

d. 30° caudal

When using manual exposure controls to complete a pediatric chest x-ray, what mA setting is the best possible option, assuming the mAs remains the same? a. 200 b. 250 c. 300 d. 350

d. 350

Technologists should rotate a patient ________ for anteroposterior (AP) axial oblique projections of the C-spine. a. 15° b. 20° c. 35° d. 45°

d. 45°

What type of complication can occur with the administration of negative contrast agents? a. shock b. seizures c. congestion d. air emboli

d. air emboli

When using fluoroscopy, which of the following is directly proportional to the exposure delievered to the patient? a. kilovoltage peak (kVp) b. milliamperage (mA) c. thickness of the filter d. target-to-tabletop distance

b. milliamperage (mA)

A congenital defect in which the sternum is depressed posteriorly is termed a. pectus carinatum b. pectus excavatum c. flail chest d. atelectasis

b. pectus excavatum

Which of the following photon interactions contribute diagnostic information to the remnant beam? a. coherent scatter b. photoelectric effect c. Compton scatter d. pair production

b. photoelectric effect

What should the radiographer do first when it is suspected a patient is going into shock? a. call for assistance b. place patient in Trendelenburg position c. take patient's blood pressure to confirm shock status d. administer oxygen

b. place patient in Trendelenburg position

The ________ is a collection of disc drives that perform together as a single unit and improve reliability of data storage. a. random access memory (RAM) b. redundant array of independent disks (RAID) c. radiology information system (RIS) d. read-only memory (ROM)

b. redundant array of independent disks (RAID)

What type of medical device is present on the image below? a. pacemaker b. subcutaneous port c. chest tube d. EKG lead

b. subcutaneous port

How would an image with just a few wide brightness differences be described? a. High density b. Low density c. High contrast d. Low spatial resolution

c. High contrast

Projectile electrons are focused on the ________ for x-ray production to take place. a. anode heel b. effective focal spot c. actual focal spot d. target angle

c. actual focal spot

Gross negligence is: a. a case that includes the injured person as a contributing party to the injury b. loss of life or limb c. an act that shows reckless disregard for life or limb d. found in criminal cases only

c. an act that shows reckless disregard for life or limb

Older patients should be scheduled: a. late in the day to give them time to build their strength b. for one examination at a time c. as early in the day as possible d. only when no one else is in the department.

c. as early in the day as possible

What type of radiographic study is used to evaluate skeletal maturity? a. skeletal survey b. arthrography c. bone age d. myelography

c. bone age

The junction between the coronal and sagittal sutures of the skull is called the: a. asterion b. lambda c. bregma d. squama

c. bregma

Examples of negative contrast agents include: a. iodinated contrast b. barium sulfate c. carbon dioxide d. water-soluble

c. carbon dioxide

Which of the following drugs is synonymous with Adrenaline? a. benadryl b. nitroglycerin c. epinephrine d. heparin

c. epinephrine

If ________ occurs, applying pressure to the injection site can help relieve patient discomfort. a. redness b. scarring c. extravasation d. necrosis

c. extravasation

Which of the following factors affects subject contrast? a. grids b. OID c. mAs c. filtration

c. filtration

A negative charge is applied to the _______to minimize electrostatic repulsion. a. stator b. induction motor c. focusing cup d. anode

c. focusing cup

What condition is caused by loss of a large amount of blood or plasma? a. anaphylaxis b. cardiogenic shock c. hypovolemic shock d. septic shock

c. hypovolemic shock

The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the a. transverse processes b. vertebral arches c. laminae d. pedicles

c. laminae

The single most important source of scattered radiation in both radiography and fluoroscopy is the a. x-ray table b. x-ray tube c. patient d. IR

c. patient

The anatomical name for the structure that carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder is the: a. renal papilla. b. renal pelvis. c. ureter. d. urethra.

c. ureter.

The HVL for a 90 kVp beam is _____________ mm of aluminum equivalent (Al/eq) a. 1.3 b. 1.5 c. 2.3 d. 2.5

d. 2.5

The device that functions to terminate the x-ray exposure following ionization of a particular quantity of an air is the: a. image intensifier AEC b. output screen c. grid d. AEC

d. AEC

Which of the following contains points that are enforceable? a. ARRT Mission statement b. ARRT code of ethics c. ARRT examination content specifications d. ARRT rules of ethics

d. ARRT rules of ethics

The probability of x-ray attenuation is affected by all of the following EXCEPT: a. atomic number. b. photon energy. c. part thickness. d. milliamperage.

d. milliamperage.

Anodes consist of all the following materials EXCEPT FOR: a. tungsten. b. molybdenum. c. rhenium. d. nickel.

d. nickel.

What describes torts? a. violations of criminal law b. considered part of personal injury law c. provide for compensation for injury d. violations of civil law that are part of personal injury law and provide for compensation for injury.

d. violations of civil law that are part of personal injury law and provide for compensation for injury.

An image with many gray tones is referred to as: A. long-scale contrast. B. poor detail. C. low distortion. D. high contrast.

A. long-scale contrast.

A device used for most quality control testing is the: A. sensitometer. B. densitometer. C. ionization chamber. D. digital dosimeter.

D. digital dosimeter.

Any misrepresentation of an anatomic structure on an image receptor that alters its size and/or shape defines: A. elongation. B. magnification. C. definition. D. distortion

D. distortion

Ionization is the removal of a(n): A. proton from the outer shell of an atom. B. electron from the nucleus. C. neutron from the nucleus. D. electron.

D. electron.

To enter an operating room, a technologist MUST be wearing "scrubs" (shirt and pants acquired in the surgical suite) and: a. a sterile gown, sterile gloves, and a hat or cap. b. a hat or cap, shoe covers, and a mask. c. a mask, sterile gloves, and a sterile gown. d. a hat or cap and shoe covers.

b. a hat or cap, shoe covers, and a mask.

What type of precautions is used to prevent the spread of bronchial secretions during coughing? a. contact precautions b. airborne precautions c. protective isolation d. strict isolation

b. airborne precautions

A detector used for direct capture in digital radiography is made up of: a. cesium iodide + amorphous silicon photodiodes. b. amorphous selenium. c. CCD sensors. d. barium fluorohalide.

b. amorphous selenium.

The distance between the lead strips of a focused grid to a point where all lines converge is known as what? a. grid ratio b. grid focusing distance c. grid frequency d. grid tolerance

b. grid focusing distance

The specific purpose of a contrast medium is to: a. show surrounding tissue with the same density as the region of interest. b. help distinguish differences between anatomic tissues. c. produce density changes in soft tissue anatomy. d. reduce the radiologist's need for ambient light.

b. help distinguish differences between anatomic tissues.

To reduce occupational exposure during fluoroscopy, where is the most acceptable position for the technologist to stand? a. in the room, next to the patient b. in the fluoroscopy room, as far from the patient as practical c. in the fluoroscopy room, next to the radiologist d. holding the patient

b. in the fluoroscopy room, as far from the patient as practical

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about source-to-image distance (SID)? a. increasing SID decreases contrast b. increasing SID increases spatial resolution c. decreasing SID increases photoelectric absorption d. decreasing SID decreases receptor exposure

b. increasing SID increases spatial resolution

When obtaining a radiograph of the third digit on the hand, the central ray entrance point is the ________ on the affected digit. a. distal interphalangeal joint b. proximal interphalangeal joint c. middle phalanx d. proximal phalanx

b. proximal interphalangeal joint

At the first indication of a contrast agent reaction, the radiographer should: a. immediately shout for help b. stop the examination and obtain help so as not to alarm the patient c. continue with the examination because most reactions turn out to be minor d. call a respiratory or cardiac arrest code

b. stop the examination and obtain help so as not to alarm the patient

When putting on gloves for a procedure, which of the following should occur first? a. carefully open glove package, and avoid touching outside of gloves b. wash hands c. place glove package in center of sterile field in preparation for the procedure. d. put on one glove immediately so that on hand is protected and the other is free.

b. wash hands

Select all of the following that are condition(s) necessary for the production of x-rays: 1. Source of electrons 2. Acceleration of electrons 3. Sudden stoppage of electrons against target material 4. Rotating anode A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 B. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Current that flows back and forth is called: A. DC. B. fluctuating. C. rectified. D. AC.

D. AC.

The wrist and ankle have what type of movement? A. Hinge B. Pivot C. Saddle D. Gliding

D. Gliding

When kVp is increased, which of the following happens? A. Brightness decreases B. Contrast increases C. Spatial resolution increases D. Scale of contrast lengthens

D. Scale of contrast lengthens

Energy in a computed radiography imaging plate is released after exposure to: A. a high-intensity magnetic field. B. gamma radiation. C. ultrasound. D. a laser beam.

D. a laser beam.

Radiographic grids are used to: A. decrease the exposure to the patient. B. increase image brightness. C. decrease image contrast. D. clean up scatter radiation before it reaches the IR.

D. clean up scatter radiation before it reaches the IR.

The measure of a grid's ability to enhance contrast is called: A. grid ratio. B. grid selectivity. C. speed. D. contrast improvement factor.

D. contrast improvement factor.

This forms the medial part of the anterior chest wall: A. manubrium. B. floating. C. xiphoid. D. sternum.

D. sternum.

When H2O gains an electron it becomes: a. HOH+. b. HOH=. c. HOH-. d. H*OH*.

c. HOH-.

Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Radiation causes an increase in the number of mature blood cells. b.. Most red blood cells are manufactured in the lymph nodes. c. Higher radiation doses to bone marrow increase blood cell depletion. d. Lymphocytes have the longest life span of all blood cell types.

c. Higher radiation doses to bone marrow increase blood cell depletion.

Vectors may be: a. insects b. persons c. plants d. objects

a. insects

The photomultiplier tube in a phosphor plate reader system converts: a. light to electrons. b. x-rays to electrons. c. light to digital values. d. x-rays to digital values.

a. light to electrons.

The lumbar spine has a normal curve that is ________, which is considered a ________ curve. a. lordotic; secondary or compensatory b. kyphotic; secondary or compensatory c. lordotic; primary d. kyphotic; primary

a. lordotic; secondary or compensatory

The sampling frequency of an imaging system determines the: a. pixel size. b. bit depth. c. dynamic range. d. detective quantum efficiency

a. pixel size.

A contrast medium that lets x-ray photons easily pass through it is considered: a. radiolucent. b. radiopaque. c. opaque. d. transparent.

a. radiolucent.

Right and left bending (lateral flexion) images of the lumbar spine demonstrate the: a. range of motion of the lumbar spine b. open intervertebral disks spaces clearly c. zygapophyseal joints d. scottie dogs

a. range of motion of the lumbar spine

The anteroposterior (AP) oblique projection of the ribs with the patient in the right posterior oblique (RPO) position best shows the ________ portion of the ribs. a. right axillary b. left axillary c. bilateral axillary d. bilateral posterior

a. right axillary

This picture is representative of: a. the anode heel effect b. the line-focus principle c. the inverse-square law d. the reciprocity law

a. the anode heel effect

The placement of barriers between the health care worker and the patient assumes that: a. there is always a contagion present b. no one wants to be touched. c. every patient should be in isolation d. every health care worker is carrying something contagious

a. there is always a contagion present

For a PA projection of the hand, the central ray enters perpendicular to the: a. third metacarpophalangeal joint. b. second metacarpophalangeal joint. c. third metacarpal bone. d. second metacarpal bone.

a. third metacarpophalangeal joint.

Assault means: a. threatening the patient or causing the patient to be apprehensive. b. striking the patient c. touching the patient without consent. d. performing radiography against the patient's will

a. threatening the patient or causing the patient to be apprehensive.

Identify the structure that is represented by the arrows: a. trachea b. posterior ribs c. spinous process of C7 d. humerus

a. trachea

Leakage radiation in the radiography/fluoroscopy exposure room is emitted from the: a. x-ray tube housing. b. image intensifier tube. c. Bucky slot cover. d. gaps in protective draping.

a. x-ray tube housing.

The typical flow rate for drip infusion drug administration is ________ drops per minute. a. 5 to 10 b. 10 to 20 c. 20 to 30 d. 30 to 40

b. 10 to 20

When motion is a problem, time can be reduced by ½ if the kVp is increased by what percentage? a. 5% b. 15% c. 25% d. 35%

b. 15%

X-ray tubes are operated at or above ______ kVp to avoid being space-charge limited. a. 35 b. 40 c. 55 d. 70

b. 40

Luminance refers to the brightness of the light emitted from an image display monitor. What are the SI units for luminance? a. Joules per volt b. Candela per square meter c. Coulombs per meter squared d. Newtons per watt

b. Candela per square meter

According to Maslow's hierarchy, which of the following is a person's most basic need? a. Safety and security b. Physiological needs c. Self-esteem d. Self-actualization

b. Physiological need

Of the following, ___________ is the MOST likely to result in changes in the DNA of circulating lymphocytes. a. a magnetic resonance exam b. an ultrasound exam c. cardiac catheterization d. chest radiography

c. cardiac catheterization

The negative side of the x-ray tube is known as the: a. anode. b. focusing cup. c. cathode. d. rotor.

c. cathode.

Which of the following is NOT a means of delivering oxygen to a patient? a. nasal cannula b. mechanical ventilator c. chest tube d. non-rebreathing mask

c. chest tube

Which of the following is also known as coherent scattering? a. photoelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. classical scatter d. pair production

c. classical scatter

Which of the following is the only photon-tissue interaction that does not result in ionization? a. photoelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. coherent scatter d. pair production

c. coherent scatter

Which of the following produces scatter as a result of vibration of orbital electrons? a. photoelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. coherent scatter d. pair production

c. coherent scatter

The belief that one's own cultural ways are superior to any other is termed: a. ethnology b. ethnobiology c. ethnocentrism d. ethnography

c. ethnocentrism

If the center cell is selected for an anteroposterior (AP) lumbar spine, the MOST likely response of the automatic exposure control (AEC) if the spine is not over the ion chamber is that: a. kVp will decrease. b. mAs will increase. c. exposure time will decrease. d. Milliamperage will increase

c. exposure time will decrease.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the ARRT Standards of Ethics for Radiologic Technologists? a. statement of purpose b. code of ethics c. practice standards d. rules of ethics

c. practice standards

The radiographer can best control the production of scatter radiation by: a. increasing the kVp. b. adding filtration. c. reducing field size. d. using a grid.

c. reducing field size.

What is the first treatment for extravasation of contrast media during an IV injection? a. apply a hot compress b. apply a cold compress c. remove needle and apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops d. remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately

c. remove needle and apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops

Genetic defects and cancer are examples of ________ effects a. deterministic b. nonstochastic c. stochastic d. nonlinear

c. stochastic

The medical term for congenital clubfoot is: a. coxa plana b. osteochondritis c. talipes d. muscular dystrophy

c. talipes

Lead aprons used in fluoroscopy must be at least: a. 0.5 mm lead b. 0.25 mm lead c. 0.1 mm lead d. 0.25 mm lead equivalent

d. 0.25 mm lead equivalent

A misrepresentation of the shape of an object may be caused by which of the following? 1. An angled object 2. An angled central ray 3. An angled image receptor a. 1 & 2 only b. 1 & 3 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

d. 1, 2, & 3

The histogram is used to automatically rescale the image to the proper brightness. which of the following could cause an error with the histogram analysis? 1) exposure field not detected 2)unexpected metal in the data set 3)gross overexposure a. 1 & 2 only b. 1 & 3 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

d. 1, 2, & 3

When should a grid be used? 1. When radiographing body parts greater than 10 cm 2. When using high kVp 3. When scatter radiation is high a. 1 & 2 only b. 1 & 3 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

d. 1, 2, & 3

Which of the following can be used to reduce unsharpness? 1. Increase SID 2. Decrease focal spot size 3. Decrease OID a. 1 & 2 only b. 1 & 3 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

d. 1, 2, & 3

Pathogenic microorganisms that require contact precautions include: 1. MRSA 2. Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) 3. hepatitis A A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual's health care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is the 1. advance health care directive 2. living will 3. health care proxy a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

The average temporal artery temperature for a patient is: a. 97° b. 98.6° c. 99.5° d. 100°

d. 100°

According to NCRP Report No. 116, annual occupational exposure to the lens of the eye should not exceed: a. 25 mSv. b. 50 mSv. c. 100 mSv. d. 150 mSv

d. 150 mSv

according to NCRP report #116, what is the annual effective occupational dose limit for the lens of the eye? a. 1.5 mSv b. 1.0 mSv c. 100 mSv d. 150 mSv

d. 150 mSv

A technique of 400 mA, .25 seconds, non-grid could be converted to a technique of 200 mA, with an 8:1 grid and how many seconds? a. .50 b. .75 c. 1.0 d. 2.0

d. 2.0

The normal adult body temperature taken orally is: a. 98.6 C b. 98 C to 99 C c. 99.6 F d. 98 F to 99 F

d. 98 F to 99 F

Which of the following is NOT an effective way to predict risk of a patient falling in the radiology department? a. watch the patient closely to assess the amount of assistance the patient might need b. look for fall hazards such as socks without grips, untied shoes, or a long hospital gown c. inquire about a patient's fasting status and use of sedatives d. ask the patient's family if they are at risk of falling

d. ask the patient's family if they are at risk of falling

What body type is a slender build? a. hypersthenic habitus b. sthenic habitus c. hyposthenic habitus d. asthenic habitus

d. asthenic habitus

An air-gap technique can be used in place of a grid in some instances because of: a. the inverse square law. b. anode heel effect. c. a heterogeneous beam. d. beam divergence.

d. beam divergence.

The ________ separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity a. trachea b. parenchyma c. carina d. diaphragm

d. diaphragm

When acquiring nontrauma radiographs on the ankle it is important to place the foot in a(n) ________ position. a. inverted b. everted c. plantarflexed d. dorsiflexed

d. dorsiflexed

What are graphs called that show the relationship between dose of radiation received and incidence of effects? a. nonlinear-nonthreshold effect b. linear-nonthreshold effect c. radiation-effect curves d. dose-response curves

d. dose-response curves

The photoelectric process is an interaction between an x-ray photon and: (A) an inner shell electron (B) an outer shell electron (C) a nucleus (D) another photon

(A) an inner shell electron

The threat to do harm is referred to as: (A) assault (B) battery (C) slander (D) libel

(A) assault

Patients' rights include the following: 1. the right to refuse treatment 2. the right to confidentiality 3. the right to possess one's medical records (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

What is used to account for the relative radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs? 1. radiation weighting factors (Wr) 2. tissue weighting factors (Wt) 3. absorbed dose (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 2 only

Types of positive contrast agents include: 1. barium sulfate suspension 2. water-based iodinated media 3. carbon dioxide (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 2 only

Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called: 1. antiseptics 2. germicides 3. disinfectants (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only

Rugae may be found in the: a. Esophagus b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine

b. Stomach

Three-phase, six-pulse, full-wave rectification produces what percentage of ripple? A. 13 B. 4 C. 1 D. 100

A. 13

The photon-tissue interaction that produces scatter that exits the patient is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.

A. Compton.

Motion results in: A. poorer spatial resolution. B. better spatial resolution. C. no effect on the image.

A. poorer spatial resolution.

X-ray transmission occurs MOST readily through: a. bone. b. muscle. c. air. d. fat.

c. air.

A radiographic grid should be used when: 1. the body area to be radiographed measures more than 10 cm. 2. a field size larger than 10 × 12 inches is used. 3. more than 60 kVp is required to penetrate a body part. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 3 only

Under what dose must an uncontrolled area be kept? A. 10 μSv per week B. 20 μSv per week C. 50 μSv per week D. 100 μSv per week

B. 20 μSv per week

The suffix "-ectasis" means: A. excision. B. expansion. C. surgical correction. D. tumor.

B. expansion.

As the potential difference increases, electrons from the cathode strike the anode in greater numbers and with: A. less energy. B. greater energy. C. shorter wavelengths. D. longer wavelengths.

B. greater energy.

Because the output phosphor is smaller than the input phosphor, there is an increase in brightness, called: A. flux gain. B. minification gain. C. total brightness gain. D. image gain.

B. minification gain.

Which of the following equations expresses grid ratio? A. r1:r2::h2:d2 B. r = h/d C. h = old D2 r D. D = h/r

B. r = h/d

The portion of contrast represented by the anatomy and physiology is: A. IR contrast. B. subject contrast. C. pathology contrast. D. trauma contrast.

B. subject contrast.

The voltage actually used in three-phase, six-pulse units is about: A. 99% of the kVp set on the control panel. B. 96% of the kVp set on the control panel. C. 87% of the kVp set on the control panel. D. 50% of the kVp set on the control panel.

C. 87% of the kVp set on the control panel

Using this diagram as a guide, under what portion of the beam would you place the thicker part to be irradiated? A. Anode B. Anode heel C. Cathode D. Center

C. Cathode

Compared with conventional radiography, computed radiography exhibits: A. poorer visualization of bone and soft tissue. B. narrower exposure latitude. C. better visualization of soft tissue and bone. D. less detail.

C. better visualization of soft tissue and bone.

Movement of electrons in a conductor produces a magnetic field around the conductor; a coiled conductor (i.e., a wire), through which an electric current is flowing, will have overlapping magnetic fields and describes: A. Ohm's law. B. electrostatics. C. electromagnetism. D. laws of magnetics.

C. electromagnetism

Which three of the following statements are true when positioning for an anteroposterior (AP) open mouth projection of the cervical spine? (Select three) a. The central ray is angled 15 degrees cephalad b. The occlusal plane is perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) c. The midsagittal plane (MSP) is perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) d. The image demonstrates cervical vertebrae C1 through C5 e. The image demonstrates the atlantoaxial joint.

b. The occlusal plane is perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) c. The midsagittal plane (MSP) is perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) e. The image demonstrates the atlantoaxial joint.

Photons are: A. packets of protons. B. bundles of light. C. bundles of energy. D. pieces of electrons.

C. bundles of energy.

Differences in adjacent densities on a radiograph defines: A. density. B. detail. C. contrast. D. distortion.

C. contrast.

This type of timer is controlled by a microprocessor: A. manual. B. synchronous. C. electronic. D. impulse.

C. electronic.

The amount of darkness on a radiograph is primarily controlled by: A. kVp. B. scatter radiation. C. collimation. D. milliampere-seconds.

D. milliampere-seconds.

Which of the following screen speeds will produce the best recorded detail? a. 50 b. 100 c. 200 d. 400

a. 50

"Minimal (M) readings on dosimeter reports mean: a. A dose below the sensitivity of the dosimeter has been received b. A maximum dose has been received c. A mean (average) dose has been received d. Much radiation has been received"

a. A dose below the sensitivity of the dosimeter has been received

The image in an image receptor after exposure but before processing is known as what? a. A latent image b. A manifest image c. A visible image d. An imaginary image

a. A latent image

What is the annual whole-body radiation dose limit for infrequent exposure to the general public? a. 2.5 millisievert (mSv) b. 5 millisievert (mSv) c. 25 millisievert (mSv) d. 50 millisievert (mSv)

b. 5 millisievert (mSv)

In which bone are the optic foramina located? a. sphenoid bone b. frontal bone c. palatine bone d. ethmoid bone

a. sphenoid bone

Which of the following materials would NOT be used in the interspaces of a grid? a. aluminum b. fiber (cardboard) c. polyester plastic Which of the following materials would NOT be used in the interspaces of a grid? a. aluminum b. fiber (cardboard) c. polyester plastic d. lead

d. lead

When performing venipuncture, the technologist should stabilize the vein before inserting a needle for intravenous drug injection to: a. ensure the correct vein is identified. b. apply pressure to the vein. c. stop blood flow to the vein. d. prevent the vein from rolling before injection.

d. prevent the vein from rolling before injection.

If the source-to-image distance (SID) is doubled, the x-ray intensity at the image receptor is: a. increased 4-fold. b. doubled. c. reduced by one half. d. reduced to one fourth

d. reduced to one fourth

Cells that are least sensitive to radiation exposure include: a. ova and sperm b. epithelial cells c. nerve and muscle cells d. blood cells

b. epithelial cells

Technologists should be aware that one of the greatest concerns for an elderly patient is fear of: a. being too cold in the examination room. b. falling. c. having to hold an uncomfortable position for too long. d.0 examination results.

b. falling.

Sesamoid bones of the foot are usually located beneath the: a. head of the fifth metatarsal. b. head of the first metatarsal. c. base of the first metatarsal. d. third metatarsophalangeal joint.

b. head of the first metatarsal.

On an oblique lumbar spine radiograph, the body of the scottie dog represents the: a. pedicle b. lamina c. pars interarticularis d. superior articular process

b. lamina

Which 2 positions place the patient in such a way that barium sulfate can be seen in the fundus region of the stomach for a double-contrast upper GI examination? a. lateral and prone b. left posterior oblique and supine c. right anterior oblique and prone d. left anterior oblique and supine

b. left posterior oblique and supine

photocathode

number 1

The potential difference in a circuit of 20 amperes and 10 ohms is ________ volts (V). a. 2 b. 20 c. 200 d. 2000

c. 200

Scatter radiation will have the greatest effect on which of these radiographic qualities? a. Spatial resolution b. Receptor exposure c. Contrast d. Distortion

c. Contrast

Decreased pixel density: a. increases matrix size. b. increases contrast resolution. c. decreases spatial resolution. d. decreases pixel pitch.

c. decreases spatial resolution.

Which of the following is an example of a primary barrier? a. lead apron b. lead gloves c. exposure room door d. control booth window

c. exposure room door

Scatter production is affected by: a. grid ratio. b. object-to-image distance. c. patient motion. d. filtration.

d. filtration.

Which of the following is NOT a method of sterilization? a. chemicals b. dry heat c. steam under pressure d. handwashing

d. handwashing

All of the following are techniques and procedures designed to reduce occupational dose during fluoroscopy, EXCEPT: a. intermittent activation of views. b. optimizing dose rates using AEC. c. remote-controlled fluoroscopy. d. high-level-control fluoroscopy.

d. high-level-control fluoroscopy.

Which of the following is a symptom (are symptoms of a contrast agent reaction? a. hoarseness and sneezing b. sneezing only c. urticaria is the primary symptom d. hoarseness, sneezing, urticaria, and vomiting

d. hoarseness, sneezing, urticaria, and vomiting

The temporal mandibular joint (TMJ) is a ________ joint a. fibrous suture b. fibrous hinge and gliding c. synovial suture d. synovial hinge and gliding

d. synovial hinge and gliding

An emergency department patient arrives in the radiology department. The patient seems stable but is breathing rapidly. The technologist communicates this concern to the radiologist as: a. bradypnea. b. tachycardia. c. bradycardia. d. tachypnea.

d. tachypnea.

A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg reveals that: a. the pressure is 120 mm Hg when the heart is at rest b. the diastolic pressure is 120 mm Hg c. the systolic pressure is 80 mm Hg d. the pressure is 80 mm Hg when the heart is at rest.

d. the pressure is 80 mm Hg when the heart is at rest.

Fluoroscopic units display the radiation quantity used for the procedure as: A. air kerma B. absorbed dose C. equivalent dose D. effective dose

A. air kerma

The unit of radioactivity is the: A. becquerel. B. gray. C. quality factor. D. Sievert.

A. becquerel.

The distance from peak to peak of sine waves is called: A. frequency. A. frequency. B. wavelength. C. hertz. D. cycle. C. hertz. D. cycle.

A. frequency. B. wavelength. C. hertz. D. cycle.

The radiation dose that, if received by the entire population, would cause the same genetic injury as the total of doses received by the members actually being exposed is called: A. genetically significant dose. B. doubling dose. C. mean marrow dose. D. genetic dose.

A. genetically significant dose.

Rotation of the target allows for: A. greater heat dissipation. B. greater x-ray production. C. longer exposure times. D. lower radiation dose.

A. greater heat dissipation.

The factor that is expressed as the ratio of primary radiation transmitted through the grid to secondary radiation transmitted through the grid is: A. grid selectivity. B. grid ratio. C. contrast improvement factor. D. grid radius.

A. grid selectivity.

The composition of the x-ray beam as it leaves the anode is: A. heterogeneous. B. homogeneous. C. monoenergetic. D. monochromatic.

A. heterogeneous.

The area on the image that represents: Frontal sinus

B

what is the normal range of a diastolic pressure for adults? a. 40 to 80 mm Hg B. 60 to 90 mm Hg C. 80 to 120 mm Hg D. 110 to 140 mm Hg

B. 60 to 90 mm Hg

For high-ratio grids, the grid radius is: A. wide. B. narrow. C. irrelevant. D. nonexistent

B. narrow.

In this diagram, B is (are) the: A. photocathode. B. focusing lenses. C. output phosphor. D. input phosphor.

A. photocathode.

Force applied on an object over a distance defines: A. energy. B. matter. C. mass. D. work.

D. work.

The collection of all different energies (wavelengths) of x-rays is called the: A. x-ray rainbow. B. x-ray homogeneous beam. C. x-ray emission spectrum. D. peak electron energy.

C. x-ray emission spectrum.

How will increasing SID affect spatial resolution in a radiography a. Increase spatial resolution b. Decrease spatial resolution c. Eliminate spatial resolution d. Will have no effect on spatial resolution

a. Increase spatial resolution

When positioning for an AP projection of the scapula, the arm on the affected side should be ________ at a right angle to the body. This frees the _______ portion of the scapula of superimposition from the ribs. a. abducted; lateral b. abducted; medial c. adducted; lateral d. adducted; medial

a. abducted; lateral

The Gray (Gy) is the unit measure for: a. absorbed dose. b. equivalent dose. c. effective dose. d. exposure.

a. absorbed dose.

The wing-shaped lateral mass on the base of the sacrum: a. ala b. body c. canal d. hiatus

a. ala

The reservoir of infection is located: a. anywhere organisms can thrive b. on all surfaces c. only on patients in insolation d. only on already contaminated surfaces.

a. anywhere organisms can thrive

X-ray verification of pacemaker leads placement should identify the catheter's tip at the: a. apex of the right ventricle b. apex of the left ventricle c. right or left pulmonary artery d. superior or inferior vena cava

a. apex of the right ventricle

The misrepresentation of the size or shape of an object is referred to as: a. distortion. b. contrast. c. spatial resolution. d. smoothing.

a. distortion.

What part of the "scottie dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine, represents the vertebral pedicle? a. eye b. nose c. body d. neck

a. eye

Beam penetrability is affected by: a. filtration. b. collimation. c. receptor size. d. milliamperage.

a. filtration.

All of the following affect tube output EXCEPT FOR: a. focal spot size. b. target material. c. filtration. d. kilovoltage peak (kVp).

a. focal spot size.

The base layer of a flat-panel detector is made of: a. glass. b. lead. c. thorium. d. molybdenum.

a. glass.

Unintentional misconduct is also called: a. negligence b. an accident c. libel d. slander

a. negligence

The HVL for a 70 kVp beam is _____________ of aluminum equivalent (Al/eq). a. 1.3 mm. b. 1.5 mm. c. 2.3 mm. d. 2.5 mm.

b. 1.5 mm.

A benign tumor consisting of cartilage is a(n): a. chondrosarcoma. b. enchondroma. c. Ewing sarcoma. d. osteosarcoma.

b. enchondroma.

Which sinus group is within the red circle on this image? a. ethmoidal b. frontal c. maxillary d. sphenoidal

b. frontal

Which of the following is the primary absorber of x-ray photons during fluoroscopic procedures? a. primary barrier b. patient c. table d. image intensifier

b. patient

The study of contrast agents, their administration, and possible reactions fall under the category of: a. nursing b. pharmacology c. emergency care d. respiratory care

b. pharmacology

On reviewing a patient's blood chemistry, which of the following adult blood urea nitrogen (BUN) ranges is considered normal? a. 0.6-1.5 mg/dL b. 4.5-6 mg/dL c. 7-20 mg/dL d. Up to 50 mg/dL

c. 7-20 mg/dL

To demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic vertebrae, a radiographer should place the patient in a ________ position. a. lateral b. 45° oblique c. 70° oblique d. PA

c. 70° oblique

The ___________ mode of transmission spreads pathogens through contaminated objects such as a patient's belongings. a. direct contact b. endogenous c. indirect contact d. vector

c. indirect contact

Which of the following is a facial bone that is also part of the orbit? a. temporal b. inferior nasal concha c. lacrimal d. frontal

c. lacrimal

What plane passes vertically through the midline of the body from front to back? a. transverse plane b. midcoronal plane c. median sagittal plane d. sagittal plane

c. median sagittal plane

Which of the following is a reason for the loss of spatial resolution in a radiograph? a. A large focal spot b. Increased OID c. Patient motion d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Personnel monitoring reports must be available for occupational workers' reviews: a. every three months b. once a month c. twice a year d. annually

d. annually

If a given exposure rate at 48 inches SSD is 80 R/min, the rate at 96 inches is ________ R/min. a. 20 b. 40 c. 160 d. 320

a. 20

Which of the following groups of technical factors will deliver the least amount of exposure to the patient? a. 400 mA, 0.25 s, 100 kVp b. 600 mA, 0.33 s, 90 kVp c. 800 mA, 0.5 s, 80 kVp d. 800 mA, 1.0 s, 70 kVp

a. 400 mA, 0.25 s, 100 kVp

According to NCRP Report #116, what is the annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming infrequent exposure? a. 5 mSv b. 0.1 mSv c. 10 mSv d. 0.05 mSv

a. 5 mSv

The portion of the small bowel that connects with the stomach is called the: a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Ileum d. Ascending

a. Duodenum

What describes any plane parallel to the midsagittal plane? a. transverse plane b. midcoronal plane c. median sagittal plane d. sagittal plane

d. sagittal plane

An increase in collimation in fluoroscopy decreases: 1. integral dose. 2. image quality. 3. scatter production. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 3

Which of the following is always a part of the radiographer's scope of practice? a. patient education b. administration of medications c. serve as a resource person for referring physicians d. serving on the hospital's radiation safety committee.

a. patient education

For optimum spatial resolution, OID should be the: A. shortest possible. B. longest possible. C. longest practical. D. average distance.

A. shortest possible.

Effects of radiation where the probability of occurrence, not severity of occurrence, is proportional to the dose are called: a. stochastic effects b. deterministic effects c. genetic effects d. somatic effects

a. stochastic effects

A slit camera is used to measure: 1. focal spot size 2. intensifying screen resolution 3. source-to-image-receptor distance (SID) resolution (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

What minimum total amount of filtration (inherent plus added) is required in x-ray equipment operated above 70 kV? (A) 2.5 mm Al equivalent (B) 3.5 mm Al equivalent (C) 2.5 mm Cu equivalent (D) 3.5 mm Cu equivalent

(A) 2.5 mm Al equivalent

Symptoms of shock include: 1. pallor and weakness 2. increased pulse rate 3. fever (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

What thickness of protective shielding is required in the bucky slot cover of a fluoroscopic imaging unit? a. 0.25 mm lead equivalent b. 0.25 mm aluminum equivalent c. 0.5 mm lead equivalent d. 0.5 mm lead aluminum equivalent

a. 0.25 mm lead equivalent

What does number 85 represent in the blood pressure reading 145/85 mm Hg? 1. the phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue 2. the phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue 3. higher than desirable diastolic pressure 4. lower than normal diastolic pressure a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4

a. 1 and 3

If a patient's exposure at a distance of 2 meters is 24 mGy, the exposure at 8 meters would be ________ mGy. a. 1.5 b. 6 c. 12 d. 18

a. 1.5

Edge enhancement is an example of image processing based on: a. subject contrast b. noise reduction c. spatial frequency d. image distortion

c. spatial frequency

Which of the following may result in occupational exposure for a radiographer? a. photoelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. coherent scatter d. pair production

b. compton interaction

When positioning the patient for an AP projection of the scapula, the central ray should pass through the ________, which is located about 2 inches inferior to the coracoid process. a. medial border of the scapula b. midscapular area c. acromion process d. inferior angle of the scapula

b. midscapular area

A shallow dose refers to which of the following? a. whole-body dose b. surface dose c. extremity dose d. fetal dose

b. surface dose

Which of the following are properties of positive contrast agents? 1. composed of low-atomic number elements 2. increase x-ray attenuation 3. produce areas of decreased density on the image a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

c. 2 and 3

Which of the following is a legitimate contraindication to the use of iodinated contrast media? a. allergy to seafood b. known sensitivity to proteins. c. previous sensitivity to contrast agents d. allergy to any medications

d. allergy to any medications

Which of the following grid interspaces will produce the most satisfactory radiograph? a. fiber (cardboard) b. polyester c. plastic d. aluminum

d. aluminum

A radiograph that demonstrates acceptable brightness along one side of the image but NOT on the opposite side represents a(n) ________ error. a. grid motion too slow b. upside-down focused grid c. incorrect grid ratio d. off-level grid

d. off-level grid

The optic nerve passes into the orbit through the a. superior orbital fissure. b. inferior orbital fissure. c. optic groove. d. optic foramen

d. optic foramen

Which of the following photon-tissue interactions does not occur in diagnostic radiography? a. photoelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. coherent scatter d. pair production

d. pair production

Marks on the anode resulting from bombardment by electrons are called: A. pitting. B. cracks. C. bullet marks. D. craters.

A. pitting

The primary type of grid used in diagnostic imaging is: A. crosshatch. B. parallel. C. rhombic. D. focused.

D. focused.

The device that concentrates electrons boiling off the filaments into a narrow stream for travel toward the anode is the: A. cathode. B. anode. C. rectifier. D. focusing cup.

D. focusing cup.

The number of x-ray waves passing a given point per unit time is called: A. wavelength. B. photonic frequency. C. urgency. D. frequency.

D. frequency.

The quantity of x-rays produced is directly controlled by: A. filtration. B. kVp. C. focal-spot size. D. mAs.

D. mAs.

Decreased SID causes image: A. minification. B. foreshortening. C. elongation. D. magnification.

D. magnification

The waves of electromagnetic radiation are called: A. sign waves. B. current. C. light. D. sine waves.

D. sine waves.

A cavity within a bone is described as a: A. fossa. B. groove. C. sulcus. D. sinus.

D. sinus.

The grid conversion factor for a 12:1 grid is: A. 3. B. 4. C. 5. D. 6.

C. 5.

The factor that is expressed as the ratio of primary radiation transmitted through the grid to secondary radiation transmitted through the grid is: A. grid selectivity. B. grid ratio. C. contrast improvement factor. D. grid radius.

A. grid selectivity

Because an x-ray beam has a range of photon energies, it may be classified as: A. heterogeneous. B. homogeneous. C. heterologic. D. homologic.

A. heterogeneous.

Aluminum filtration has its greatest effect on A. low-energy x-ray photons B. high-energy x-ray photons C. low-energy scattered photons D. high-energy scattered photons

A. low-energy x-ray photons

This causes anatomic structures to appear larger on the image than in reality: A. magnification. B. minification. C. foreshortening. D. elongation.

A. magnification.

Electrons are held in orbit around the nucleus by a force called: A. gravity. B. electron-binding energy. C. centrifugal force. D. slingshot effect.

B. electron-binding energy

An image with few gray tones, mainly black and white, is referred to as: A. low contrast. B. poor detail. C. low distortion. D. high contrast.

D. high contrast.

Grid frequency is described as the: A. height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips. B. distance between the lead strips divided by the height of the lead strips. C. number of lead strips per inch or centimeter. D. SID at which the grid may be used.

C. number of lead strips per inch or centimeter.

The Bucky slot cover must be at least: A. 0.50-mm lead equivalent. B. 0.25-mm aluminum equivalent. C. 0.10-mm lead equivalent. D. 0.25-mm lead equivalent.

D. 0.25-mm lead equivalent.

The lowest contrast would be produced by which of the following sets of exposure factors? A. 60 mAs, 80 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID B. 30 mAs, 92 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID C. 120 mAs, 92 kVp, 20-inch SID, 4-inch OID D. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID

D. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID

The lowest patient dose would be administered by which of the following sets of exposure factors? A. 60 mAs, 80 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID B. 30 mAs, 92 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID C. 120 mAs, 92 kVp, 20-inch SID, 4-inch OID D. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID

D. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID

Three-phase, six-pulse equipment produces how much higher average photon energy? A. 1.41% B. 41% C. 1.35% D. 35%

D. 35%

This diagram illustrates A. characteristic x-ray production. B. photoelectric effect. C. Compton scatter. D. Brems x-ray production.

D. Brems x-ray production.

The measurement of the half-value layer of the beam is an assessment of: a. filtration. b. linearity. c. reproducibility. d. beam congruity.

a. filtration.

The ________ is the portion of the rotating anode x-ray tube that does not move. a. stator b. rotor c. stem d. target

a. stator

Contrast resolution increases from an increase in a. pixel size. b. bit depth. c. field of view. d. pixel pitch.

b. bit depth.

What is the main reason why beam filters are used in radiography? a. improves contrast b. improves radiographic quality c. reduces patient exposure d. prolongs tube life

c. reduces patient exposure

Which of the following can a technologist use to help reduce occupational dose during fluoroscopic procedures? a. pulsed fluoroscopy b. longer fluoroscopy time at shorter distances c. more images per series d. lower kVp

a. pulsed fluoroscopy

All of the following are regarded as special considerations when establishing technique charts EXCEPT: a. radiographer skill. b. patient age. c. casts. d. contrast media.

a. radiographer skill

This type of shock often associated with pulmonary embolism or myocardial infarction is classified as a. neurogenic b. cardiogenic c. hypovolemic d. septic

b. cardiogenic

When mA is increased, what must be done to exposure time in order to maintain the same exposure? a. increase time b. decrease time c. keep the same time d. match time with kVp

b. decrease time

Decreasing the kVp will ________ receptor exposure and ________ contrast. a. decrease; decrease b. decrease; increase c. increase; decrease d. increase; increase

b. decrease; increase

Which of the following might cause an increase in quantum mottle? a. increasing the mAs b. decreasing the field size c. increasing the filament size d. decreasing the grid ratio

b. decreasing the field size

Current that flows in only one direction is called _________ current. a. battery b. direct c. alternating d. outlet

b. direct

When an object is placed halfway between the tube and image receptor, the image will be how many times larger? a. 2x b. 3x c. 4x d. 8x

a. 2x

Minimizing patient exposure occurs when all of the following EXCEPT ________ are done. a. adding contrast medium b. reducing the mAs c. adding filtration d. reducing the object-to-image distance (OID)

a. adding contrast medium

The ________ of the syringe holds the medication for injection. a. barrel b. plunger c. bevel d. cap

a. barrel

The fluoroscopic foot switch is a: a. positive-pressure switch. b. negative-pressure switch. c. toggle switch. d. variable resistor.

a. positive-pressure switch.

Which of the following has the HIGHEST specificity for indicating nonaccidental trauma in pediatric patients? a. posterior rib fractures at different stages of healing b. a single long bone fracture with corresponding accidental history c. a single clavicle fracture status following motor vehicle collision d. several fractures with clinical documentation of osteogenesis imperfecta

a. posterior rib fractures at different stages of healing

All of the following factors EXCEPT ________ are used to calculate cumulative air kerma. a. kilovoltage peak b. focal spot size c. milliamperage d. exposure time

b. focal spot size

Common vehicle transmission involves: a. the spread of infection in crowded forms of public transportation, such as jet aircrafts, subways and trains b. food, water medications and equipment c. animals d. plants

b. food, water medications and equipment

Direct contact allows an infectious organism to move: a. from the susceptible host directly to the infected person b. from the infected person directly to the susceptible host c. in either direction

b. from the infected person directly to the susceptible host

A primary benefit of the AP oblique projection, or Grashey method, of the shoulder is that the: a. greater tubercle is always in profile. b. glenohumeral and scapula humeral joint spaces are open. c. coracoid process is free of superimposition. d. acromion is demonstrated in profile.

b. glenohumeral and scapula humeral joint spaces are open.

What can happen if a diabetic patient has taken his/her normal dose of insulin but has been NPO since midnight? a. go into diabetic coma b. go into insulin shock c. develop difficulty breathing d. dehydrate

b. go into insulin shock

X-ray photons that do not have the energy to penetrate the patient will result in: a. decreased patient skin dose b. decrease scatter c. increased patient skin dose d. decreased image quality

c. increased patient skin dose

The anatomic snuffbox overlies the ________ bone and the radial artery. Tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox is a clinical sign suggesting fracture of this bone, the MOST commonly fractured carpal bone. a. capitate b. lunate c. trapezium d. scaphoid

d. scaphoid

When a quality control test is performed to ensure that the collimator is providing appropriate Safety, the result must be within this amount: A. 2% of SID B. 4% C. 10% D. 5%

A. 2% of SID

Which of the following imaging plates should be selected to produce an image with the best spatial resolution? a. 18 cm x 24 cm (8x10) b. 24 cm x 30 cm (10 x 12) c. 30 cm x 35 cm (11x14) d. 35 cm x 43 cm (14x17)

a. 18 cm x 24 cm (8x10)

How much should kVp be increased when an extension cylinder is used to cone down on an area of interest? a. 5 kVp b. 10 kVp c. 15 kVp d. 20 kVp

a. 5 kVp

what is the annual effective dose limit for a radiographer? a. 50 millisieverts (mSv) b. 150 millisieverts (mSv) c. 250 millisieverts (mSv) d. 500 millisieverts (mSv)

a. 50 millisieverts (mSv)

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation? a. AP b. lateral c. 30 degrees RPO d. 45 degrees LPO

c. 30 degrees RPO

In patient care, the radiographer must be constantly aware of the myriad of variations among people of all backgrounds and experiences. This involves the study and understanding of: a. nonverbal communication b. diversity c. verbal communication only d. patient preferences

b. diversity

A patient experiencing an episode of syncope should be place in which of the following positions? a. dorsal recumbent with head elevated b. dorsal recumbent with feet elevated c. lateral recumbent d. seated with feet supported

b. dorsal recumbent with feet elevated

All of the following EXCEPT _______________can be used to monitor occupational exposure a. optically stimulated luminescent dosimeters b. dose-area product meters c. thermoluminescent dosimeters d film badges

b. dose-area product meters

Airborne transmission of infection may occur as a result of contact with: a. bird droppings, acid rain, or air pollution b. droplets and dust c. animals d. other humans

b. droplets and dust

Drugs that are administered intramuscularly require that the needle be inserted at a ________ angle. a. 15° b. 30° c. 45° d. 90°

d. 90°

During a mobile exam, the radiographer will receive the LEAST amount of scattered radiation when standing at a ____ angle to the patient. a. 15° b. 30° c. 45° d. 90°

d. 90°

The ________ receives electrons immediately after they are read out from an imaging detector. a. transformer b. helium neon laser c. liquid crystal display d. analog-to-digital converter

d. analog-to-digital converter

Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace? a. patient supine with CR 30-35 degrees angle cephalad b. patient supine with CR 30-35 degrees angle caudad c. patient supine with 0 degrees CR angle d. patient lateral recumbent, CR coned to L5

a. patient supine with CR 30-35 degrees angle cephalad

The spatial resolution of a detector is controlled by the: a. sampling frequency. b. matrix size. c. milliampere-seconds (mAs). d. analog-to-digital converter (ADC)

a. sampling frequency.

The need for ________ is at the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. a. self-actualization b. belonging and love c. esteem d. physiologic safety or comfort (food, shelter, clothing)

a. self-actualization

Federal law on radiation protection requires which two of the following? (select two) a. signage for radiation areas b. maintaining personnel dose records c. publication of personnel dose records d. dosimeters for all employees exposed to radiation

a. signage for radiation areas b. maintaining personnel dose records

What degree of reaction is dyspnea? a. mild to moderate reaction to contrast agent b. severe reaction to contrast agent c. not considered a reaction to contrast agent

b. severe reaction to contrast agent

The portion of the light localizing collimator that reduces off-focus radiation striking the patient is the: a. filtration added at the lower shutter. b. shutter closest to the tube port. c. reflective mirror. d. dose area product (DAP) meter.

b. shutter closest to the tube port.

The central ray is angled ________ in a ________ direction for the AP axial projection (Ferguson method) of the lumbosacral junction. a. 5° to 8°; caudad b. 30° to 35°; cephalad c. 45°; cephalad d. 45°; caudad

b. 30° to 35°; cephalad

How much mAs will be generated if the control panel is set at 200 mA and 1/5 second ? a. 20 mAs b. 40 mAs c. 80 mAs d. 100 mAs

b. 40 mAs

A smaller, easier-to-handle injection set that includes plastic projections on both sides of the needle and may be used for venipuncture is called a: a. venous catheter b. butterfly c. hypodermic needle d. single-injection needle

b. butterfly

The ________ sphincter prevents reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus. a. pyloric b. cardiac c. ileocecal d. duodenal

b. cardiac

An MRI procedure is contraindicated for a patient who has: a. a herniated disk b. cochlear implant c. dental filings d. subdural bleeding

b. cochlear implant

When wearing protective aprons, radiographers should place radiation monitoring devices at: a. collar level, under the apron. b. collar level, outside the apron. c. waist level, under the apron. d. waist level, outside the apron.

b. collar level, outside the apron.

On a PA chest radiograph, which of the following is MOST inferior? a. apices b. costophrenic angles c. mediastinum d. lingula

b. costophrenic angles

Of the following tarsal bones, which is located on the MOST lateral aspect of the foot? a. navicular b. cuboid c. intermediate cuneiform d. lateral cuneiform

b. cuboid

When electrons move through a conductor, ________ is said to flow a. voltage b. current c. resistance d. potential difference

b. current

A sphygmomanometer is used to: a. heat the heartbeat b. hear the blood pressure c. measure blood pressure d. measure body temperature

c. measure blood pressure

Effects of radiation that become more severe as dose increases are called: a. dose-response curves b. deterministic effects c. genetic effects d. somatic effects

b. deterministic effects

If SID is doubled, IR exposure is: A. doubled. B. halved. C. cut to one fourth. D. quadrupled.

C. cut to one fourth.

The letter "U" as an abbreviation can be mistaken for: a. 0. b. unilateral. c. under. d. microliters.

a. 0.

What type of device is the mA selector? a. capacitor b. inverter c. rectifier d. rheostat

d. rheostat

The front of a cassette can be made from which of the following materials? 1. Bakelite 2. Aluminum 3. Plastic

1. Bakelite 2. Aluminum 3. Plastic

The flow of electrons through the x-ray circuit follows this order: 1. Rectifier 2. autotransformer 3. anode 4. step-up transformer 5. cathode

2. autotransformer 4. step-up transformer 1. rectifier 5. cathode 3. anode

The voltage ripple of a high-frequency generator is: < 1%. 12%. 50%. 100%.

< 1%.

If the foramen magnum is NOT well visualized on an AP axial (Towne) projection radiograph of the skull, what must be done to correct it A. Increase CR angle caudally B. Decrease CR angle caudally C. Eliminate CR angle D. Orbitomeatal line is parallel

A. Increase CR angle caudally

In the image-intensifier tube, conversion factor is a product of what? A. Minification gain times flux gain B. Input phosphor-to-output phosphor ratio C. X-ray energy times light energy D. Photocathode to output phosphor ratio

A. Minification gain times flux gain

Voltage in the circuit is equal to the current times resistance describes what law? A. Ohm's law B. Inverse square law C. Law of relativity D. Right hand rule

A. Ohm's law

which of the following methods of administering a drug would not be considered parental? A. Oral. B. Intravenous. C. Intramuscular. D. Subcutaneous

A. Oral.

Which position/projection would be used to best demonstrate the frontal bone? A. PA axial (Caldwell) projection B. AP axial ( Towne ) projection C. Submentovertex (full basal) projection D . Lateral

A. PA axial (Caldwell) projection

The volt is related to potential difference as the ampere is related to: A. current. B. resistance. C. capacitance. D. back EMF.

A. current.

As the wavelength of the x-rays increases, penetrating ability: A. decreases. B. increases. C. remains the same. D. fluctuates.

A. decreases.

How much may female gonadal dose be reduced by using proper shielding? A. Up to 50% B. Up to 75% C. Up to 85% D. Up to 95%

A. Up to 50%

normal serum creatinine levels for an adult range from: a. .2 - .4 mg per deciliter. B. .6 - 1.3 mg per deciliter. C. 2.0 - 3.2 mg per deciliter. D. 4.0 - 6.3 milligrams per deciliter

B. .6 - 1.3 mg per deciliter.

The diagnostic useful range of x-rays is from: A. 0.01 to 0.05 angstrom. B. 0.1 to 0.5 angstrom. C. 1.0 to 5.0 angstrom. D. 10.0 to 50.0 angstrom.

B. 0.1 to 0.5 angstrom.

What is the unit of air kerma? A. Becquerel B. GrayA C. Sievert D. GrayT

B. GrayA

Electron energy is converted to light in what part of the image-intensifier tube? A. Input phosphor B. Output phosphor C. Photocathode D. Electrostatic lenses

B. Output phosphor

kVp determines what aspect of the x-ray beam? A. Quantity B. Penetrating ability C. Detail D. Distortion

B. Penetrating ability

Which of these describes somatic effects of radiation? A. They are common. B. They are caused when a large dose of high-LET radiation is received by a large area of the body. C. They result from exposure of DNA. D. They include genetic mutations.

B. They are caused when a large dose of high-LET radiation is received by a large area of the body.

What regulates the duration of x-ray production? A. Autotransformer B. Timer C. Step-up transformer D. Rectifier

B. Timer

Which photon-tissue interaction is responsible for producing radiographic contrast? A. Compton B. Coherent C. Photoelectric D. Pair production

C. Photoelectric

which of the following is an example of a fomite? A. An insect. B. A method of sterilization. C. A small animal. D. a radiographic cassette.

D. a radiographic cassette.

The automatic exposure device that is located immediately under the x-ray table is the: (A) ionization chamber (B) scintillation camera (C) photomultiplier (D) photocathode

(A) ionization chamber

An ambulatory patient is one who: (A) is able to walk (B) is unable to walk (C) has difficulty breathing (D) arrives by ambulance

(A) is able to walk

The sigmoid colon is located in the: (A) left lower quadrant (LLQ) (B) left upper quadrant (LUQ) (C) right lower quadrant (RLQ) (D) right upper quadrant (RUQ)

(A) left lower quadrant (LLQ)

To produce just a perceptible increase in radiographic density, the radiographer must increase the: (A) mAs by 30% (B) mAs by 15% (C) kV by 15% (D) kV by 30%

(A) mAs by 30%

The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classified as: (A) neurogenic (B) cardiogenic (C) hypovolemic (D) septic

(A) neurogenic

A radiograph demonstrating a long scale of contrast is most likely to be produced by increasing: (A) photon energy (B) screen speed (C) mAs (D) SID

(A) photon energy

An accurately positioned oblique projection of the first through fourth lumbar vertebrae will demonstrate the classic "scotty dog." What bony structure does the scotty dog's "ear" represent? (A) superior articular process (B) pedicle (C) transverse process (D) pars interarticularis

(A) superior articular process

What portion of a CR cassette records the radiologic image? (A) the photostimulable phosphor (B) the scanner/reader (C) the emulsion (D) the helium-neon laser

(A) the photostimulable phosphor

In which of the following conditions is protective or "reverse" isolation required? 1. tuberculosis 2. burns 3. leukemia (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only

All of the following statements concerning respiratory structures are true, except: (A) the right lung has two lobes (B) the uppermost portion of the lung is the apex (C) each lung is enclosed in pleura (D) the trachea bifurcates into mainstem bronchi

(A) the right lung has two lobes

The right colic flexure is formed by the junction of the: (A) transverse and ascending colon (B) descending and transverse colon (C) descending and sigmoid colon (D) cecum and ascending colon

(A) transverse and ascending colon

The term effective dose refers to: (A) whole-body dose (B) localized organ dose (C) genetic effects (D) somatic and genetic effects (E) flexion and extension laterals

(A) whole-body dose

What apparatus is needed for the construction of a characteristic curve? 1. penetrometer 2. densitometer 3. electrolytic canister (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only

The most distal portion of the pharynx is the a. laryngopharynx b. nasopharynx c. epiglottis d. oropharynx

a. laryngopharynx

Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure? 1. pulse oximeter 2. stethoscope 3. sphygmomanometer (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only

Classify the following tissues in order of decreasing radiosensitivity: 1. liver cells 2. intestinal crypt cells 3. muscle cells (A) 1, 3, 2 (B) 2, 3, 1 (C) 2, 1, 3 (D) 3, 1, 2

(C) 2, 1, 3

An exposure was made at 38-inches SID using 300 mA, 0.03-second exposure, and 80 kV with a 400 film-screen combination and an 8:1 grid. It is desired to repeat the radiograph and, to improve recorded detail, use 42-inches SID and 200 film-screen combination. With all other factors remaining constant, what exposure time will be required to maintain the original radiographic density? (A) 0.03 second (B) 0.07 second (C) 0.14 second (D) 0.36 second

(B) 0.07 second

What is the intensity of scattered radiation perpendicular to and 1 meter from the patient, compared to the useful beam at the patient's surface? (A) 0.01% (B) 0.1% (C) 1.0% (D) 10.0%

(B) 0.1%

What is the fetal dose limit for pregnant radiographers for the entire gestation period? (A) 0.1 rem (B) 0.5 rem (C) 5.0 rem (D) 10 rem

(B) 0.5 rem

During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will usually demonstrate: 1. barium-filled fundus 2. double-contrast of distal stomach portions 3. barium-filled duodenum and pylorus (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

Which of the following will have an effect on radiographic contrast? 1. beam restriction 2. grids 3. focal spot size (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

Of the following groups of technical factors, which will produce the greatest radiographic density? (A) 10 mAs, 74 kV, 44-inches SID (B) 10 mAs, 74 kV, 36-inches SID (C) 5 mAs, 85 kV, 48-inches SID (D) 5 mAs, 85 kV, 40-inches SID

(B) 10 mAs, 74 kV, 36-inches SID

The term that refers to parts closer to the source or beginning is: (A) cephalad (B) caudad (C) proximal (D) medial

(C) proximal

Benadryl is associated with the treatment of which of the following? a. vomiting b. allergies c. hypotension d. epilepsy

b. allergies

The total number of x-ray photons produced at the target is contingent on: 1. tube current 2. target material 3. square of the kilovoltage (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

The voltage ripple associated with a 3-phase, 12-pulse rectified generator is approximately: (A) 100% (B) 32% (C) 13% (D) 3%

(D) 3%

An increase in ________ will decrease image contrast. a. object-to-image distance (OID) b. bit depth c. sampling frequency d. kVp

d. kVp

A large volume of medication introduced intravenously over a longer period of time is termed: a. an IV push b. an infusion c. a bolus d. a hypodermic

b. an infusion

Which of the following medical abbreviations mean three times a day? (A) TID (B) QID (C) QH (D) PC

(A) TID

The dose of radiation that will cause a noticeable skin reaction is referred to as the: (A) LET (B) SSD (C) SED (D) SID

(C) SED

what is the normal range for systolic pressure in an adult? A. 40 to 80. B. 60 to 70. C. 80 to 120. D. 110 - 140

110 - 140 mm of Hg

What is an area called that is primarily used by people trained in radiation safety and wearing personnel monitoring devices? A. Controlled area B. Uncontrolled area C. Off-limits area D. Radiation area

A. Controlled area

Which of the following bones has a glabella? A. Frontal bone B. Temporal bone C. Occipital bone D. Mandible

A. Frontal bone

Which of the following correctly indicates the different forms of energy, in proper progression, that make up the fluoroscopic image as produced by an image intensifier? A. X-ray photons, light photons, electrons, light photons B. Light photons, electrons, light photons, x-ray photons C. Electrons, light photons, x-ray photons, light photons D. Light photons, x-ray photons, light photons, electrons

A. X-ray photons, light photons, electrons, light photons

This device is wired in the circuit between the autotransformer and the high-voltage transformer: A. timer. B. rectifier. C. step-down transformer. D. cathode.

A. timer.

What is the limit on leakage radiation from a diagnostic x-ray tube? A. 10 mGya per hour at a distance of 1 m from the housing B. 1 mGya per hour at a distance of 1 m from the housing C. 100 mGya per hour at a distance of 1 m from the housing D. No leakage is allowed

B. 1 mGya per hour at a distance of 1 m from the housing

Possible side effects of an iodinated contrast medium that is administered intravenously include which of the following? 1. a warm, flushed feeling 2. altered taste 3. itching 4. sneezing 5. nausea 6. rash and hives A. 1, 5, and 6 B. 1, 2, and 5 C. 3, 4, and 5 D. 2, 5 and 6

B. 1, 2, and 5

What is the thickness of a lead apron that should be worn while being exposed to scatter radiation? A. 0.10-mm lead equivalent B. 0.50-mm lead equivalent C. 0.50-mm aluminum equivalent D. 0.10-mm aluminum equivalent

B. 0.50-mm lead equivalent

Three-phase, 12-pulse equipment produces how much higher average photon energy? A. 1.41% B. 41% C. 1.35% D. 35%

B. 41%

In an x-ray tube circuit with four rectifiers, how much will exposure output decrease if one of the rectifiers fails? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

B. 50%

The device that is responsible for producing the high voltage necessary for x-ray production is the: a. battery. b. transformer. c. generator. d. motor.

b. transformer.

Which of the following bones has the external acoustic meatus? A. Frontal bone B. Temporal bone C. Occipital bone D. Mandible

B. Temporal bone

In this diagram, D is (are) the: A. photocathode. B. focusing lenses. C. output phosphor. D. input phosphor.

B. focusing lenses.

How are mAs and seconds related to each other when used to maintain receptor exposure? a. Directly proportional b. Inversely proportional c. Mutually exclusive d. No relationship exists

b. Inversely proportional

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the rectum filled with barium? A. RPO B. Supine C. Lateral D. Erect

C. Lateral

The sharpness with which anatomic structures are displayed in an image defines: A. detail visibility. B. contrast. C. spatial resolution. D. brightness

C. spatial resolution.

The carpometacarpal joint of the thumb has what type of movement? A. Hinge B. Pivot C. Saddle D. Gliding

C. Saddle

Decreased receptor exposure along the periphery of an image may be caused by A. grid frequency. B. grid ratio. C. grid cutoff. D. high mAs.

C. grid cutoff.

Magnification may be caused by: A. short OID. B. long SID. C. short SOD. D. large focal spot.

C. short SOD.

Like poles repel, unlike poles attract, and the force of attraction between poles is governed by the inverse square law describes: A. Ohm's law. B. inverse square law. C. law of relativity. D. law of magnetics.

D. law of magnetics.

Which of the following is used to administer nutrition or long-term chemotherapy? a. urinary catheter b. chest tube c. ventilator d. venous catheter

d. venous catheter

The x-ray machine receives what type of current from the incoming line? A. 120 watt B. 240 DC C. 120-Hz DC D. 120-Hz AC

D. 120-Hz AC

What letters designate the first four inner shells of an atom? A. A, B, C, D B. W, X, Y, Z C. N, M, L, K D. K, L, M, N

D. K, L, M, N

The composition of the x-ray beam comes from which energy conversions? A. Photoelectric and Compton B. Characteristic C. Brems D. More than one of the above

D. More than one of the above

What is the most frequent cellular response to ionizing radiation? A. Mutations B. Ionization of atoms in the cells C. Cell death D. Nothing

D. Nothing

mAs controls the: A. quality of x-rays produced at the anode. B. quantity of x-rays produced at the cathode. C. quantity of x-rays produced at the filament. D. quantity of x-rays produced at the anode.

D. quantity of x-rays produced at the anode.

Tube angulation will produce which of the following types of shape distortion? a. Elongation b. Foreshortening c. Magnification d. Minification

a. Elongation

This structure is approximately 12 cm long and is located in front of the esophagus: a. Trachea b. Left lung c. Right lung d. Hilus

a. Trachea

Minimizing patient exposure can be accomplished by using all of the following EXCEPT: a. a single-phase generator. b. added tube filtration. c. beam restriction. d. low mAs settings.

a. a single-phase generator.

The purpose of the dose area product (DAP) meter is to: a. measure patient dose. b. measure personnel dose. c. perform area monitoring functions. d. terminate exposure after a certain dose has been reached.

a. measure patient dose.

The foot is placed on the ________ surface for a lateral projection of the first toe. a. medial b. lateral c. plantar d. dorsal

a. medial

When a patient has just had a barium enema and is preparing to leave the examination room, the patient should be told: a. to drink plenty of fluids to keep the barium moving through the colon to avoid impaction. b. the preliminary results of the examination by the technologist. c. to resume the prep instructions for 1 more day to expel the barium from the colon. d. that bed rest for the remainder of the day is recommended

a. to drink plenty of fluids to keep the barium moving through the colon to avoid impaction.

Combining 2 hydroxyl radicals (OH*) will form: a. H2O+. b. H2O2. c. H3O. d. H2O3+.

b. H2O2.

A venous catheter: a. is less flexible and more difficult to use then a needle or butterfly b. Is a combination unit with a needle inside a flexible plastic catheter; both the needle and the catheter are inserted into the vein, after which the needle is withdrawn c. Is only use for chemotherapy

b. Is a combination unit with a needle inside a flexible plastic catheter; both the needle and the catheter are inserted into the vein, after which the needle is withdrawn

A technologist is asked to develop a new protocol for knee x-rays that will decrease magnification. Which of the following technical factors should be increased? a. focal spot size b. SID c. grid ratio d. OID

b. SID

Which of the following would not be used as contrast median is radiography? a. Air b. Saline c. Barium sulfate d. Iodine

b. Saline

What type of distortion results from an increase in OID? a. Minification b. Size c. Elongation d. Shape

b. Size

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding venipuncture for a normal adult? a. The vein is stabilized by placing a thumb on the tissue just below the site and gently pulling the skin and vein toward the patient's hand. b. The needle should be held with the bevel facing upward. c. The needle should be inserted into the vein at a 45° angle. d. A tourniquet should be applied above the site using sufficient tension to impede the flow of blood in the vein.

b. The needle should be held with the bevel facing upward.

What should be your first action if a patient is bleeding profusely from an open leg wound? a. go for a nurse b. apply direct pressure to the wound c. go for a doctor d. finish the radiographs quickly

b. apply direct pressure to the wound

Milliamperage (mA) is selected at the: a. autotransformer. b. rheostat. c. step-up transformer. d. rectifier

b. rheostat.

HIPAA stands for: a. Health Insurance Property and Accountability Act. b. Health Insurance Portability and Accuracy Act. c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. d. Health Insurance Patient Accountability Act.

c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

The portion of the small bowel that connects with the cecum is called the: a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Ileum d. Ascending

c. Ileum

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding adverse reactions to contrast media? a. Technologists are responsible for recognizing signs and symptoms of an adverse reaction. b. Technologists should have adequate knowledge of how to treat any adverse reaction. c. Most adverse reactions are associated with radiolucent contrast agents. d. Adverse reactions should be thoroughly documented in the patient's chart.

c. Most adverse reactions are associated with radiolucent contrast agents.

Which of the following should be done when moving a patient with a broken arm? a. Support only wrist b. Support only the forearm c. Support the entire arm d. Support only elbow

c. Support the entire arm

An acceptable image is produced using a particular set of exposure parameters. The image is repeated using the air-gap technique with all other factors remaining constant. Given this scenario, all of the following will decrease EXCEPT: a. sharpness. b. receptor exposure. c. contrast. d. spatial resolution.

c. contrast.

Which of the following radiation situations is potentially the most harmful? a. a large dose to a specific area all at once b. a small dose to the whole body over period of time c. a large dose to the whole body all at one time d. a small dose to a specific area over a period of time

c. a large dose to the whole body all at one time

What is the correct name for the loss of sharpness due to the use of a large focal spot? a. Umbra b. Mottle c. Blue d. Unsharpness

d. Unsharpness

The rule or law that governs changing technique using kVp is the: A. inverse square law. B. density maintenance law. C. 50-50 rule. D. 15% rule.

D. 15% rule.

Which of the following is an advantage of the air gap technique? ​ A. Easier to position the patient ​ B. Greater exposure latitude ​ C. Allows for a short SID ​ D. Eliminates the need for a grid

​ D. Eliminates the need for a grid

By which of the following tests is intensifying screen contact evaluated? (A) spinning top test (B) wire-mesh test (C) penetrometer test (D) star-pattern test

(B) wire-mesh test

The total brightness gain of an image intensifier is a result of: 1. flux gain 2. minification gain 3. focusing gain (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 2 only

In the lateral projection of the foot, the: 1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the image receptor 2. metatarsals are superimposed 3. talofibular joint should be visualized (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

As tube current is increased, the following occur(s): 1. The quantity of x-ray photons will increase. 2. The quantity of x-ray photons will decrease. 3. The energy level of x-ray photons will increase. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 3 only

A. 1 only

Radiation is more intense on which side of the x-ray tube? A. Anode B. Cathode C. Positive D. Neither side

B. Cathode

which of the following procedures would require an informed consent form be completed? A. Upper GI series. B. Cerebral angiogram. C. T tube cholangiogram. D. Barium enema.

B. Cerebral angiogram.

a written page or spoken word are examples of which of the following components of communication? a. Message. B. Channel. C. Source. D. Feedback.

B. Channel.

Which of the following is the part of the skull that surrounds and protects the brain? A. Facial bones B. Cranium C. Foramen magnum D. Cerebrum

B. Cranium

The exposure switch on a fluoroscope must be what type? A. Operated by hand only B. Dead-man C. Electronic D. Operated by foot only

B. Dead-man

which of the following conditions would be considered easy to penetrate? A. Edema. B. Degenerative arthritis. C. Paget's disease. D. Pneumonia.

B. Degenerative arthritis.

The minimum lead equivalent requirement for gonadal shielding is _____. a. 0.25 mm b. 0.50 mm c. 0.75 mm d. 1 mm

a. 0.25 mm

According to NCRP report #116, what is the embryo or fetus equivalent dose limit per month? a. 0.5 mSv b. 0.1 mSv c. 5 mSv d. 0.05 mSv

a. 0.5 mSv

As image compression ratio increases: a. image quality degrades. b. more image storage space is required. c. image transmission is slower. d. compression tolerance is not approached.

a. image quality degrades.

Which of the following induces radiolysis? a. indirect effect b. target theory c. direct effect d. doubling dose

a. indirect effect

Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? a. appendicitis b. intussusception c. regional enteritis d. ulcerative colitis

b. intussusception

The right kidney is placed perpendicular to the image receptor in the ________ position. a. left posterior oblique (LPO) b. right posterior oblique (RPO) c. lateral d. supine

b. right posterior oblique (RPO)

When positioning a patient for an AP projection (open-mouth technique) for C1-C2, the ________ plane/lines should be perpendicular to the image receptor. a. coronal b. interpupillary c. occlusal d. mentomeatal

c. occlusal

Another name for the calcaneus is the: a. os coxae. b. os magnum. c. os calcis. d. os capitatum

c. os calcis.

Which of the following is a symptom of shock? a. accelerated pulse; extremely warm skin b. accelerated pulse; cool, clammy, pale skin c. systolic pressure less than 50 mm Hg d. accelerated pulse; cool, clammy, pale skin; systolic blood pressure less than 30 mm Hg

d. accelerated pulse; cool, clammy, pale skin; systolic blood pressure less than 30 mm Hg

The lifetime whole-body dose limit for a radiographer is calculated as: a. age x 10 millisieverts (mSv) b. age x 50 millisieverts (mSv) c. 5 millisieverts (mSv) + 0.5 millisieverts (mSv) per month d. Age + 20 millisieverts (mSv)

a. age x 10 millisieverts (mSv)

For a given dose of radiation, which of the following radiation types will yield the highest equivalent dose? a. alpha particles b. beta particles c. x-ray photons d. all have the same equivalent dose

a. alpha particles

Using the anode heel effect would be MOST advantageous when acquiring a(n) ________ image. a. posteroanterior wrist b. lateral skull c. anteroposterior thoracic spine d. lateral tibia-fibula

c. anteroposterior thoracic spine

A radiographer should wear eye protection: a. any time blood may be present b. any time an injection is being made c. any time there is a possibility of blood splashing d. with nearly all patients.

c. any time there is a possibility of blood splashing

Patients with diabetes should be scheduled: a. late in the day to give them time to build their strength b. only after they have had their insulin c. as early in the day as possible d. immediately after a full breakfast.

c. as early in the day as possible

An examination requisition states that the next patient is blind. When providing instructions for a chest radiograph, the technologist should: a. speak loudly so the patient can hear. b. skip the explanation and try to complete the exam as quickly as possible. c. ask the patient how they would like to receive instructions. d. proceed with the examination, pantomiming instructions to the patient.

c. ask the patient how they would like to receive instructions.

Expectant mothers who are technologists should wear a fetal dosimeter at what location? a. at the collar b. at the thyroid c. at the waist d. outside the apron

c. at the waist

The central ray enters the ________ during an axial plantodorsal projection of the calcaneus. a. head of the third metatarsal b. tuberosity of the calcaneus c. base of the third metatarsal d. third metatarsophalangeal joint

c. base of the third metatarsal

Which of the following is an example of invasions of privacy? a. radiographing the wrong patient b. unjustified restraint of patient c. improperly exposing the patient's body d. radiographing the wrong body part.

c. improperly exposing the patient's body

An increase in patient exposure will result from: a. decreasing mAs. b. decreasing object-to-imaged distance OID. c. increasing grid ratio. d. increasing focal spot size.

c. increasing grid ratio.

According to the emission spectra below, an increase in kVp affects the characteristic interaction by: a. increasing the energy of the interaction. b. decreasing the energy of the interaction. c. increasing the number of interactions. d. decreasing the number of interactions

c. increasing the number of interactions.

For a submentovertical projection of the zygomatic arches, the ________ line should be as close as possible to parallel with the image receptor for accurate extension. a. acanthiomeatal (AML) b. glabellomeatal (GML) c. infraorbitomeatal (IOML) d. orbitomeatal (OML)

c. infraorbitomeatal (IOML)

For a lateral projection of the cranium, the ________ line is perpendicular to the front edge of the image receptor. a. acanthiomeatal line (AML) b. glabellomeatal line (GML) c. infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) d. orbitomeatal line (OML)

c. infraorbitomeatal line (IOML)

When acquiring a lateral projection of the first/great toe, the central ray enters the: a. proximal interphalangeal joint. b. distal interphalangeal joint. c. interphalangeal joint. d. third metatarsophalangeal joint.

c. interphalangeal joint.

The ________ is an automatic exposure device that uses a gas-filled container. a. photomultiplier b. diode sensor c. ionization chamber d. charge-coupled device

c. ionization chamber

Which of the four primary factors in the production of a radiograph is regarded as the factor of penetration? a. mA b. seconds c. kVp d. SID

c. kVp

Which of the following BEST describes the term air kerma? a. weighted for tissue type b. absorbed dose c. kinetic energy transferred d. equivalent dose

c. kinetic energy transferred

Which of the following would be appropriate when a sterile gown must be worn during fluoroscopy? a. lead apron worn backward b. lead apron cannot be worn c. lead apron worn under the gown d. lead apron worn over the gown

c. lead apron worn under the gown

Occupational exposure limits are based on the ________ response-dose relationship. a. nonlinear, nonthreshold b. nonlinear, threshold c. linear, non-threshold d. linear, threshold

c. linear, non-threshold

Which of the following are categorized as chemotherapy wastes? 1. Expired drugs 2. Aborted dosages 3. Contaminated personal protective equipment a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

According to NCRP report #116, the annual occupational cumulative effective dose limit = age in years x what does? a. 5 mSv b. 0.1 mSv c. 0.5 mSv d. 10 mSv

d. 10 mSv

Which of the following radiographic evaluation criterion demonstrates proper inspiration on a PA projection of the chest? a.sternal ends of the clavicles equidistant from the vertebral column b. trachea visible in the midline of the body c. scapulae projected outside of lung field d. 10 posterior ribs visible above diaphragm

d. 10 posterior ribs visible above diaphragm

The central ray should be angled ________ for an AP axial projection of the foot a. 90° b. 45° c. 30° d. 10°

d. 10°

Which of the following grid ratios should be used to maintain contrast when using over 100 kVp? a. 5:1 b. 6:1 c. 8:1 d. 12:1

d. 12:1

A bit depth of ________ bits produces an image with the greatest contrast resolution a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14

d. 14

In a PA axial oblique projection of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed: a. parallel to C4 b. perpendicular to C4 c. 15 degrees cephalad to C4 d. 15 degrees caudad to C4

d. 15 degrees caudad to C4

With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle? a. 5-15 degrees caudad b. 5-15 degrees cephalad c. 15-30 degrees cephalad d. 15-30 degrees caudad

d. 15-30 degrees caudad

An order comes in for a PA axial, or Caldwell method, of the skull. The patient is supine and is wearing a cervical collar. The patient's AML is perpendicular to the image receptor. Using the included table as a resource, the angle should be ________ in a ________ direction to compensate. a. 33°; caudal b. 15°; cephalic c. 48°; caudal d. 18°; caudal

d. 18°; caudal

The cineradiography frame rate with the highest dose would be _____ frames per second. a. 3.5 b. 7.5 c. 15 d. 30

d. 30

The rotating anode target material that is responsible for helping to cool and conduct electrons through the x-ray circuitry is comprised of how many materials from the list below? tungsten thorium rhenium molybdenum graphite a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

d. 4

For a superoinferior axial inlet projection/Bridgeman method, the radiographer should direct the central ray ______________, entering at the midsagittal plane and the level of the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). a. 15° cephalad b. 10° caudad c. 30° cephalad d. 40° caudad

d. 40° caudad

The International Commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP) dose equivalent limit for the hands is_______ mSv a. 20 b. 50 c. 150 d. 500

d. 500

What is the annual dose equivalent limit for a radiographer's hands? a. 50 millisieverts (mSv) b. 150 millisieverts (mSv) c. 250 millisieverts (mSv) d. 500 millisieverts (mSv)

d. 500 millisieverts (mSv)

A radiographic grid should be used whenever kVp exceeds which of the following? a. 30 kVp b. 40 kVp c. 50 kVp d. 60 kVp

d. 60 kVp

When acquiring an image of bilateral acromioclavicular joints, the preferred source-to-image distance (SID) is ________ inches. a. 40 b. 48 c. 60 d. 72

d. 72

Which of the following distances would produce the least distortion? a. 40" b. 55" c. 60" d. 72"

d. 72"

A properly formulated technique chart could accurately be used for what percentage of patients? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90%

d. 90%

If an individual received 90 mR while standing 4 feet from a source of radiation for 2 minutes, standing ________ feet from the source for ______ minutes will MOST effectively reduce radiation exposure. a. 8; 3 b. 2; 2 c. 4; 1 d. 9; 1

d. 9; 1

The 3 projections taken for a long-bone measurement (scanography technique) of the lower extremity include: a. AP hip, lateral femur, and AP lower leg b. AP hip, lateral knee, and AP lower leg c. AP femur, AP lower leg, and AP foot d. AP hip, AP knee, and AP ankle

d. AP hip, AP knee, and AP ankle

Which of the following is the BEST projection for demonstrating the intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine? a. AP axial b. AP open-mouth technique c. lateral d. AP/PA axial oblique

d. AP/PA axial oblique

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding anatomically programmed radiography (APR)? a. It can be used in conjunction with automatic exposure control (AEC). b. APR allows for specific anatomical part selection. c. It displays manual exposure factors. d. APR prevents making adjustments to mAs

d. APR prevents making adjustments to mAs

What body type has the stomach and gallbladder low, vertical, and near the midline? a. Hypersthenic habitus b. Sthenic habitus c. Hyposthenic habitus d. Asthenic habitus

d. Asthenic habitus

Inherent filtration refers to filtration that is: a. not aluminum but added b. found outside of the glass envelope c. found inside of the glass envelope d. part of the x-ray tube design

d. part of the x-ray tube design

Which of the following requires that all equipment and personnel be carefully covered? a. airborne precautions b. contact precautions c. droplet precautions d. patient with neutropenia

d. patient with neutropenia

What type of radiation dosimeter is likely to give inaccurate readings if it is not read each day? a. OSL b. thermoluminescent c. film d. pocket ion chamber

d. pocket ion chamber

Personnel cumulative radiation monitoring is NOT performed with a(n): a. film badge. b. thermoluminescent dosimeter badge. c. optically stimulated luminescence badge. d. pocket ion chamber.

d. pocket ion chamber.

What type of personnel dosimeter can give false high reading when shaken or subjected to mechanical shock? a. thermoluminescent dosimeter b. film badge c. optically stimulated dosimeter d. pocket ionization chamber

d. pocket ionization chamber

All of the following factors influence the tabletop exposure rate during fluoroscopic procedures EXCEPT: a. filtration b. kilovoltage peak (kVp) c. target-to-panel distance d. position of the table

d. position of the table

What is the purpose of a compensating filter? a. reduce patient exposure b. reduce skin dose c. produce better detail in a radiograph d. produce uniform exposure in an image

d. produce uniform exposure in an image

To reduce the back strain that can result from moving heavy objects, the radiographer should: a. hold the object away from his or her body when lifting b. bend at the waist and pull c. pull the object d. push the object

d. push the object

Increasing the kVp from 70 to 80 will result in an increase in all of the following EXCEPT the ________ of ________ photons. a. quantity; bremsstrahlung b. quantity; characteristic c. quality; bremsstrahlung d. quality; characteristic

d. quality; characteristic

Which of the following examinations was designed to acquire images of immobilized trauma patients' elbows? a. distal humerus - AP projection - acute flexion b. proximal forearm - PA projection - acute flexion c. radial head - lateral projection - rotation of hand d. radial head and coronoid process - axiolateral projection - Coyle method

d. radial head and coronoid process - axiolateral projection - Coyle method0

Medical imaging order entry and scheduling of imaging visits occurs in the: a. picture archiving and communications system (PACS). b. acquisition workstation. c. electronic health record (EHR). d. radiology information system (RIS).

d. radiology information system (RIS).

Which of the following is the correct circuitry sequence for incoming voltage in a high-frequency generator? a. transformer, inverter, capacitor, rectifier, capacitor, rectifier b. capacitor, transformer, rectifier, inverter, capacitor, rectifier c. inverter, rectifier, transformer, capacitor, rectifier, capacitor d. rectifier, capacitor, inverter, transformer, rectifier, capacitor

d. rectifier, capacitor, inverter, transformer, rectifier, capacitor

The device that permits the flow of electrons in one direction only is the: a. battery. b. motor. c. generator. d. rectifier.

d. rectifier.

The ________ risk model predicts that excess cancer deaths from irradiation will increase over time as the naturally occurring risk increases with age in the nonirradiated population. a. absolute b. lethal dose (LD) 50/30 c. threshold response d. relative

d. relative

Radiation that exits the patient and is directed toward the receptor is referred to as ________ radiation. a. primary b. scatter c. secondary d. remnant

d. remnant

Which type of urography involves a urologist catheterizing the ureters and instilling a water-soluble iodinated contrast medium? a. cystourethrography b. intravenous urography c. cystoureterography d. retrograde urography

d. retrograde urography

Evaluation of ________ are the primary indications for arthrography of the shoulder. a. rotator cuff tears or sternoclavicular joint separation b. labral tears or sternoclavicular joint separation c. rotator cuff tears or acromioclavicular joint separation d. rotator cuff tears or labral tears

d. rotator cuff tears or labral tears

Which of the following components make up the induction motor in an imaging system? a. anode and cathode b. rectifiers and transformer c. inverter and capacitor d. rotor and stators

d. rotor and stators

When imaging the skull with the OML perpendicular to the image receptor and the CR directed 25-degrees cephalad: 1. the occipital bone is well demonstrated 2. the dorsum sella is seen within the foramen magnum 3. the petrous pyramids fill the orbits (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

Characteristics of a 16:1 grid include: 1. absorbs more primary radiation than an 8:1 grid 2. has more centering latitude than an 8:1 grid 3. used with higher kV exposures than an 8:1 grid (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 3 only

Which of the following imaging procedures do not require the use of ionizing radiation to produce an image? 1. sonography 2. computerized tomography 3. magnetic resonance imaging (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 3 only

With the body in the erect position, the diaphragm moves: (A) 2-4 inches higher than when recumbent (B) 2-4 inches lower than when recumbent (C) 2-4 inches superiorly (D) very slightly

(B) 2-4 inches lower than when recumbent

Exposure latitude is wider at: A. higher kVp levels. B. lower kVp levels. C. lower mAs levels. D. higher mAs levels.

A. higher kVp levels.

The fluoroscopic image is brightened and reduced in size by means of the: A. image intensifier. B. cine camera. C. television camera. D. video disc scanner.

A. image intensifier.

Wavelength and frequency are: A. inversely proportional. B. directly proportional. C. directly related. D. indirectly related.

A. inversely proportional.

A grid error in which cutoff is visible more to one side of the radiograph is caused by: A. lateral decentering. B. off-level grid. C. upside-down grid. D. grid-focus decentering.

A. lateral decentering.

The x-ray circuit depends on a constant source of power, has power coming into the radiology department may vary, keeps incoming voltage adjusted to the proper value, and usually operates automatically but may be manually adjusted on older equipment. This is the: A. line voltage compensator. B. phototimer. C. autotransformer. D. ionization chamber.

A. line voltage compensator.

The law of conservation of matter states: A. matter cannot be created or destroyed, only in changed in form. B. energy cannot be created or destroyed. C. matter cannot be created, but energy can. D. energy cannot be created, but matter can.

A. matter cannot be created or destroyed, only in changed in form.

The accuracy of kVp at 70 kVp must be: A. no lower than 63 kVp and no higher than 77 kVp. B. no lower than 69 kVp and no higher than 71 kVp. C. no lower than 66 kVp and no higher than 74 kVp. D. no lower than 68 kVp and no higher than 72 kVp.

A. no lower than 63 kVp and no higher than 77 kVp.

When reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal creatinine range? (A) 0.6-1.5 mg/100 mL (B) 4.5-6 mg/100 mL (C) 8-25 mg/100 mL (D) up to 50 mg/100 mL

(A) 0.6-1.5 mg/100 mL

The following bones participate in the formation of the knee joint: 1. femur 2. tibia 3. patella (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 and 2 only

Violations of the ARRT Rules of Ethics include: 1. accepting responsibility to perform a function outside the scope of practice 2. failure to obtain pertinent information for the radiologist 3. failure to share newly acquired knowledge with peers (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

An abnormal passage between organs is a/an: (A) fistula (B) polyp (C) diverticulum (D) absces

(A) fistula

Mobile fluoroscopic equipment has all of the following features, except: (A) an image intensifier (B) a spot-film device (C) a TV monitor (D) a TV camera

(B) a spot-film device

Which of the following is usually recommended for cleaning CR image plates? (A) denatured alcohol (B) anhydrous ethanol (C) soap and water (D) intensifying screen cleaner

(B) anhydrous ethanol

In which of the following locations can the pulse be detected only by the use of a stethoscope? (A) wrist (B) apex of the heart (C) groin (D) neck

(B) apex of the heart

Red blood cells are formed in the: (A) liver (B) spleen (C) bone marrow (D) small intestine

(C) bone marrow

A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found liable for: (A) assault (B) battery (C) intimidation (D) defamation

(D) defamation

In which body position would a patient suffering from orthopnea experience the least discomfort? (A) Fowler (B) Trendelenburg (C) recumbent (D) erect

(D) erect

The phenomenon in which the radiographic information recorded on the PSP/IP upon exposure to x-rays decreases with the elapsed time until it is read by the scanner/reader is termed: (A) excitation (B) photostimulable luminescence (C) scatter (D) fading

(D) fading

Which ethical principle below is most closely related to truth telling? (A) autonomy (B) beneficence (C) fidelity (D) veracity

(D) veracity

How can the production of scatter be reduced? 1. increase kVp 2. use close collimation 3. increase beam filtration

2. use close collimation

If the air kerma 4 feet from the x-ray table is 2 Gya, what is the dose at a distance of 8 feet? A. 0.5 Gya B. 1.0 Gya C. 4.0 Gya D. 6.0 Gya

A. 0.5 Gya

Why do the backs of cassettes contain lead? 1. Stops backscatter from fogging the image receptor 2. Stops scatter from striking the patient 3. Stops x rays from leaving the cassette A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

A. 1 only

What is the minimum source-to-skin distance for fixed fluoroscopes? A. 15 inches B. 20 inches C. 10 inches D. 12 inches

A. 15 inches

X-ray energy is converted to light energy in what part of the image-intensifier tube? A. Input phosphor B. Output phosphor C. Photocathode D. Electrostatic lenses

A. Input phosphor

How does the energy of a scattered photon compare with that of the incident photon? A. Less B. Greater C. Equal to D. It has no energy.

A. Less

an estimated GFR of _____ indicates that IV I donated contrast is contraindicated due to poor kidney function. A. Less than 30 ml/minute / 1.73 m squared B. between 30 and 60 ml/ minute / 1.73 meters squared. C. greater than 60 milliliters/ minute / 1.73 m squared D. Greater than 85 milliliters/ minute / 1.73 m squared

A. Less than 30 ml/minute / 1.73 m squared

What is the process of somatic cell division called? A. Mitosis B. Spermatogenesis C. Organogenesis D. Cytogenesis

A. Mitosis

At the moment of exposure, the focusing cup has what type of charge applied? A. Negative B. Neutral C. Positive D. None

A. Negative

What tissues or cells are relatively insensitive to radiation? A. Nerve tissue B. Reproductive cells C. Epithelial tissue D. Immature sperm cells

A. Nerve tissue

What is the name of the part of the temporal bone that houses the organs of hearing and equilibrium? A. Petrous B. Squamous C. Mastoid D. Alveolar

A. Petrous

What is atomic mass? A. The number of protons plus the number of neutrons B. The number of photons C. The number of electrons D. The number of protons plus the number of electrons

A. The number of protons plus the number of neutrons

A CCD may be used in the television system instead of what device(s)? A. Vidicon and Plumbicon tubes B. C-arm C. Automatic brightness control D. Output phosphor

A. Vidicon and Plumbicon tubes

An electromagnetic device that changes alternating current from high voltage to low voltage is called: A. a step-down transformer. B. a step-up transformer. C. an electric motor. D. rectification.

A. a step-down transformer.

mAs controls the number of electrons passing from: A. cathode to anode in the x-ray tube. B. anode to cathode in the x-ray tube. C. the x-ray tube to the patient. D. the x-ray tube to the image receptor.

A. cathode to anode in the x-ray tube.

This diagram illustrates: A. characteristic x-ray production. B. photoelectric effect. C. Compton scatter. D. Brems x-ray production.

A. characteristic x-ray production.

The suffix "-osis" means: A. condition. B. tumor. C. disease. D. excision.

A. condition.

When going from single-phase to three-phase or high-frequency machines, kVp values may be: A. decreased 12% to 16%. B. increased 10% to 20%. C. decreased 20% to 25%. D. increased only slightly.

A. decreased 12% to 16%.

The ability to do work defines: A. energy. B. matter. C. mass. D. ionization.

A. energy.

The primary circuit of the x-ray generator is also called the: A. low-voltage circuit. B. high-voltage circuit. C. booster circuit. D. Coolidge circuit.

A. low-voltage circuit.

In this diagram, F is the: A. mA meter. B. timer. C. kVp select. D. step-down transformer.

A. mA meter.

The upper part of the sternum is called the: A. manubrium. B. floating. C. xiphoid. D. jugular notch

A. manubrium

The amount of matter in an object best defines: A. mass. B. matter. C. weight. D. energy.

A. mass.

Walls that may be struck by scatter or leakage radiation require: A. secondary protective barriers. B. lead. C. primary protective barriers. D. None of the above

A. secondary protective barriers.

The simplest type of current, this voltage (and accompanying current) flows as a sine wave, begins at zero, peaks at full value at the crest of the wave, returns to zero, reverses, and again peaks on the inverse portion of the cycle at the trough. This describes: A. single-phase, two-pulse alternating current. B. three-phase alternating current. C. high-frequency current. D. direct current.

A. single-phase, two-pulse alternating current.

There are two types of distortion: A. size and shape. B. definition and resolution. C. large and small. D. None of the above

A. size and shape.

In this diagram, D is the: A. step-up transformer. B. step-down transformer. C. rectifier. D. autotransformer.

A. step-up transformer.

The unit of electromotive force is the: A. volt. B. ohm. C. ampere. D. resistor.

A. volt.

The blood count is depressed following a whole-body dose equivalent of at least how many sievert? A. 0.10 B. 0.25 C. 5.0 D. 100.0

B. 0.25

When kilovoltage is increased: 1. intensity increases. 2. wavelengths become shorter. 3. wavelengths become longer. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

How may cell damage be manifested? 1. Loss of function 2. Nothing occurs 3. Abnormal function A. 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. NULL

B. 1 and 3

How many half-value layers (HVL) are required to decrease beam intensity from 100% to 12.5%? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

B. 3

If the orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the image receptor for an AP axial (Towne) projection, how much caudad angle is required? A. 25 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 37 degrees D. 40 degrees

B. 30 degrees

Three-phase, 12-pulse, full-wave rectification produces what percentage of ripple? A. 13 B. 4 C. 1 D. 100

B. 4

How many kilovolts equal 70,000 volts? A. 7 B. 70 C. 700 D. 7000

B. 70

X-rays produced by the slowing (braking) of projectile electrons are a result of what interaction? A. Characteristic B. Brems C. Photoelectric D. Compton

B. Brems

epinephrine is what type of drug? A. Antibiotic. B. Bronchodilator. C. Anesthetic. D. Anti-arrhythmic

B. Bronchodilator.

What effect does increasing filtration have on contrast? A. Increase contrast B. Decrease contrast C. No effect D. Varying effect

B. Decrease contrast

The suffix "-ectomy" means: A. pain. B. surgical condition. C. excision. D. origin.

C. excision.

A change in wavelength will always correspond to a change in: A. x-ray beam speed. B. altitude. C. frequency. D. amplitude.

C. frequency.

Which of the following bones has nasal conchae? A. Sphenoid bone B. Ethmoid bone C. Mandible D. Maxilla

B. Ethmoid bone

What type of imaging equipment provides dynamic visualization of internal structures? A. Computed tomography B. Fluoroscopy C. Conventional radiography D. Computed radiography

B. Fluoroscopy

What is the name of the mucosal folds that are visible when the stomach is empty? A. Haustra B. Gastric folds C. Omentum D. Villi

B. Gastric folds

The Establishment and growth of microorganisms on or in a host defines which of the following? A. Pathogen. B. Infection. C. Disease. D. Bacteria.

B. Infection.

SID and receptor exposure are governed by what law or rule? A. Reciprocity law B. Inverse square law C. 15% rule D. Ohm's law

B. Inverse square law

The intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance describes: A. Reciprocity law B. Inverse square law C. 15% rule D. Ohm's law

B. Inverse square law

Which of the following statements is true? A. High kVp = high contrast = short-scale contrast = few gray tones B. Low kVp = high contrast = short-scale contrast = few gray tones C. When kVp is increased, there is an increase in the number of photoelectric interactions that occur. D. When kVp is decreased, there is an increase in the number of Compton interactions that occur.

B. Low kVp = high contrast = short-scale contrast = few gray tones

Which of the following grid errors will result in an image that shows decreased IR exposure across the entire radiograph? A. Upside down B. Off-level C. Lateral decentering D. Grid-focus decentering

B. Off-level

Inside the tube housing, what is the x-ray tube immersed in to assist with cooling and additional electrical insulation? A. Plastic B. Oil C. Water D. Coolant

B. Oil

A line drawn between the lateral margin of the orbit and the E.A.M. is called what? A. Glabellomeatal line B. Orbitomeatal line C. Outer orbital line D. External meatal line

B. Orbitomeatal line

A focused grid must be used with specific ranges of: A. kVp. B. SID. C. OID. D. focal-spot sizes.

B. SID.

a patient with a head injury should be kept in which of the following positions? A. Erect. B. Semi-erect. C. Supine. D. Trendelenburg

B. Semi-erect.

The open mouth parietoacanthial (Waters), horizontal beam projection is used to demonstrate which of the paranasal sinuses? A . Frontal B. Sphenoid C. Maxillary D . Ethmoid

B. Sphenoid

In a full-wave rectification circuit, the: A. negative wave of alternating current is suppressed. B. positive wave of alternating current is suppressed. C. negative wave of alternating current is changed into a second positive wave. D. positive wave alternating current is changed into a second negative wave.

C. negative wave of alternating current is changed into a second positive wave.

What is the area called for the general public, such as a waiting room? A. Controlled area B. Uncontrolled area C. Off-limits area D. Radiation area

B. Uncontrolled area

What is contained within the x-ray tube to prevent the filament's electrons from colliding with the atoms of gas? A. Metal anode B. Vacuum C. Sterile air D. Plastic cathode

B. Vacuum

when the body is invaded by pathogens, what is the response in the bloodstream? a. Red blood cells increase. B. White blood cells increase. C. DNA increases. D. Serum increases.

B. White blood cells increase

Using an increased OID that allows scatter to miss the IR is called: A. autotomography. B. air gap technique. C. scatter technique. D. cervical spine technique.

B. air gap technique.

One of the functions of the vacuum created by the glass envelope surrounding the working components of the x-ray tube is to: A. decrease the risk of electrical shock. B. allow free flow of electrons from cathode to anode. C. decrease the amount of leakage radiation leaving the tube. D. eliminate the buildup of heat units inside the tube.

B. allow free flow of electrons from cathode to anode.

Cartilaginous joints are called: A. synarthroses. B. amphiarthroses. C. diarthroses. D. mesocephalic.

B. amphiarthroses.

In computed radiography, image brightness may be adjusted by: A. doubling the mAs. B. changing the window level. C. changing the window width. D. adjusting the window depth.

B. changing the window level.

The production of x-rays comes from two interactions with the anode: A. photoelectric and Compton. B. characteristic and Brems. C. coherent and pair production. D. classical and photoelectric.

B. characteristic and Brems.

The photon-tissue interaction that is also known as classical or Thompson's is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.

B. coherent.

The law that states that the intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the source of the x-rays and the object is: A. Ohm's law. B. inverse square law. C. law of relativity. D. left hand rule.

B. inverse square law.

When calculating heat units for three-phase, 12-pulse equipment, which equation is used? A. kVp × mAs × 2.00 B. kVp × mAs × 1.41 C. kVp × mAs × 1.00 D. kVp × mAs × 1.35

B. kVp × mAs × 1.41

Exposure latitude is narrower at: A. higher kVp levels. B. lower kVp levels. C. lower mAs levels. D. higher mAs levels.

B. lower kVp levels.

The operating portion of this device consists of silicon-based n-type and p-type semiconductors: A. timer. B. rectifier. C. autotransformer. D. prereading voltmeter.

B. rectifier.

This device is located between the step-up transformer and the x-ray tube: A. timer. B. rectifier. C. autotransformer. D. prereading voltmeter.

B. rectifier.

The exposure switch must be placed so that the radiographer stays behind the: A. primary protective barrier. B. secondary protective barrier. C. x-ray tube. D. door.

B. secondary protective barrier.

Voltage wave forms are created 120 degrees out of phase with one another. This describes: A. single-phase, two-pulse alternating current. B. three-phase alternating current. C. high-frequency current. D. direct current.

B. three-phase alternating current.

In this diagram, C is the: A. mA meter. B. timer. C. kVp select. D. step-down transformer.

B. timer.

The concept that although x-ray photons exist as waves, they exhibit properties of particles is known as: A. law of contradiction. B. wave-particle duality. C. Einstein's law. D. Bohr's law.

B. wave-particle duality.

Geometric sharpness: 1. is defined in terms of the distinct shadow evident on an image. 2. should ideally originate from a point source. 3. is not dependent on the relationship of the object to the image detector or location within the x-ray beam. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 2 only

Methods of electrification include: 1. friction. 2. contact. 3. induction. 4. self-induction. A. 1 and 4 B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 3 and 4

C. 1, 2, and 3

Where does most radiation-induced damage to cells occur? A. At diagnostic levels of radiation B. During fluoroscopy C. At doses of radiation much higher than that used in radiography D. From background radiation

C. At doses of radiation much higher than that used in radiography

What device may be used to ensure consistency of radiographic quality from one exposure to the next? A. Electronic timer B. Step-up transformer C. Automatic exposure control D. High-frequency generator

C. Automatic exposure control

A radiographic examination of the nasal bones would consist of which of the following positions/projections? A. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection and lateral B. Paretoacanthial ( Waters ) and PA axial ( Caldwell ) projections C. Panetoacanthial ( Waters ) projection and both laterals D. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection, AP axial (Towne) projection and lateral

C. Panetoacanthial ( Waters ) projection and both laterals

Visible light is converted into an electronic image in what part of the image-intensifier tube? A. Input phosphor B. Output phosphor C. Photocathode D. Electrostatic lenses

C. Photocathode

What is the main reason why beam filters are used in radiography? ​ A. Improves contrast ​ B. Improves radiographic quality ​ C. Reduces patient exposure ​ D. Prolongs tube life

C. Reduces patient exposure

What suture separates the two parietal bones? A. Coronal B. Lambdoidal C. Sagittal D. Squamosal

C. Sagittal

To what height must in-wall secondary protective barriers extend? A. 7 feet B. 6 feet C. The ceiling D. 10 feet

C. The ceiling

Which of the following bones has (have) costal facets? A. Atlas B. Axis C. Thoracic vertebrae D. Lumbar vertebrae

C. Thoracic vertebrae

Which of the following statements is true? A. High kVp = high contrast = short-scale contrast = few gray tones B. Low kVp = low contrast = long-scale contrast = many gray tones C. When kVp is increased, there is an increase in the number of Compton interactions that occur. D. When kVp is decreased, there is an increase in the number of Compton interactions that occur.

C. When kVp is increased, there is an increase in the number of Compton interactions that occur.

when is an IV considered to be infiltrated? A period when blood is seen in the IV tubing. B. When the needle is accidentally pulled out. C. When the solution is leaking into the tissue. D. When the IV is injected into.

C. When the solution is leaking into the tissue.

One of the factors that causes magnification of the radiographic image is: A. speed of the rotating anode. B. an increase in the source-to-object distance. C. a decrease in the source-to-object distance. D. kilovoltage range.

C. a decrease in the source-to-object distance.

When the x-ray beam is attenuated, the IR receives: A. a greater number of low-energy photons. B. the same number of both low-energy and high-energy photons. C. a greater number of high-energy photons. D. no photons.

C. a greater number of high-energy photons.

The unit of electric current is the: A. volt. B. ohm. C. ampere. D. resistor.

C. ampere.

The filament and the focusing cup are part of the A. anode assembly. B. cathode ray tube. C. cathode assembly. D. generator.

C. cathode assembly.

The negative electrode of an x-ray tube is termed the: A. anode. B. electric ground. C. cathode. D. target.

C. cathode.

The purpose of beam limitation devices is to: A. focus the electron beam. B. focus the photon beam. C. control scatter radiation. D. change the quality of the radiographic beam.

C. control scatter radiation.

The variation in how the x-ray beam interacts with the body is called: A. flux. B. emission spectrum. C. differential absorption. D. x-ray variation.

C. differential absorption.

The relationship between kVp and receptor exposure is: A. indirect. B. directly proportional. C. direct, although not proportional. D. inverse.

C. direct, although not proportional

Movement of electrons in a conductor produces a magnetic field around the conductor; a coiled conductor (i.e., a wire), through which an electric current is flowing, will have overlapping magnetic fields and describes: A. Ohm's law. B. electrostatics. C. electromagnetism. D. laws of magnetics.

C. electromagnetism.

The increased brightness of an image resulting from accelerated electrons traveling across to the output phosphor is called: A. minification gain. B. brightness gain. C. flux gain. D. electrostatic gain.

C. flux gain.

Grids that have strips angled to coincide with divergence of the x-ray beam are called: A. parallel. B. crosshatch. C. focused. D. rhombic.

C. focused.

A condition caused by angling the x-ray tube against the main axis of the part is: A. magnification. B. minification. C. foreshortening. D. elongation

C. foreshortening.

The maximum energy an x-ray photon can have corresponds to what technical factor? A. mAs B. SID C. kVp D. Focal-spot size

C. kVp

In this diagram, B is the: A. mA meter. B. timer. C. kVp select. D. step-down transformer.

C. kVp select.

When a grid is used, what technical factor must be increased to compensate for the loss of image-forming rays? A. kVp B. Time C. mAs D. Distance

C. mAs

In this diagram, F is (are) the: A. photocathode. B. focusing lenses. C. output phosphor. D. input phosphor.

C. output phosphor

Walls that may be struck by the primary beam require: A. secondary protective barriers. B. lead. C. primary protective barriers. D. None of the above

C. primary protective barriers.

The atomic number of an atom is the number of: A. protons plus neutrons. B. electrons. C. protons. D. neutrons.

C. protons.

The device in the x-ray circuit that changes AC to DC is the: A. autotransformer. B. step-up transformer. C. rectifier. D. falling load generator.

C. rectifier.

The posterior side of the scapula is divided into 2 sections by the ________. The 2 sections are the supraspinatus fossa and the infraspinatus fossa—from which the correspondingly named muscles originate. A. inferior border B. medial border C. scapular spine D. lateral border

C. scapular spine

Autotransformers operate on the principle of: A. mutual induction. B. self-circuitry. C. self-induction. D. current conversion.

C. self-induction.

Opposing voltage created in a conductor by passing alternating current through it describes: A. electromagnetism. B. electrodynamics. C. self-induction. D. mutual induction.

C. self-induction.

As kVp increases, there is an increased production of: A. long wavelengths. B. low-energy waves. C. short wavelengths. D. electrons.

C. short wavelengths.

Electrons are boiled off the filament during exposure in a process known as: A. electron boiling procedure. B. focusing. C. thermionic emission. D. space charging.

C. thermionic emission.

The density (mass per unit volume) of the patient or part under study can affect: 1. radiographic density. 2. radiographic contrast. 3. differential absorption. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

by what method are pathogens spread when a person coughs or sneezes? a. Vector. B. Vehicle. C. Direct contact. D. Droplet.

D. Droplet.

What type of x-ray machine uses a continually decreasing mA for the shortest times possible? A. Ionization chamber B. Portable C. C-arm D. Falling load generator

D. Falling load generator

Beam quality is expressed using what unit of measurement? A. mAs B. Focal-spot size C. Gray D. Half-value layer

D. Half-value layer

Which of the following is attributed to linear energy transfer? A. It is the same for all types of radiation. B. It is the same for wave and particulate radiations used in diagnosis and treatment. C. It only occurs during x-ray procedures. D. It varies for different types of radiation.

D. It varies for different types of radiation.

Which of the following does not occur when the first stage of a two-stage exposure switch is depressed? A. A space charge is created. B. Electrons are liberated from the cathode. C. The anode will begin to rotate. D. Kilovoltage is applied.

D. Kilovoltage is applied.

What is the name of the point where the two parietals articulate with the occipital bone? A. Bregma B. Acanthion C. Canthus D. Lambda

D. Lambda

Special wiring patterns called wye, star, or delta produce what type of power? A. Single-phase B. High C. High-frequency D. Three-phase

D. Three-phase

What components of the x-ray circuit operate on the principle of mutual induction? A. Rectifiers B. Collimators C. AEC D. Transformers

D. Transformers

if a patient is known to be infected with a pathogenic organism or communicable disease which of the following is applied? A. Isolation precautions. B. Reverse isolation. C. Personal precautions. D. Transmission based precautions.

D. Transmission based precautions

Selecting exposure factors of ________ milliampere-seconds (mAs) and _______peak kilovoltage (kVp) delivers the LEAST amount of radiation to the patient. a. 100;100 b. 200;90 c. 400;80 d. 800;70

a. 100;100

For a posteroanterior (PA) axial oblique projection of the C-spine, the central ray is angled ________° in the _______ direction a. 15 to 20; caudad b. 15 to 20; cephalad c. 45; caudad d. 45; cephalad

a. 15 to 20; caudad

LET and biological damage are: a. Directly proportional b. Indirectly proportional c. Inversely proportional d. Unrelated

a. Directly proportional

An increase in image contrast will result from increasing which of the following? a. OID b. SID c. kVp d. focal spot size

a. OID

Which of the following would describe a paraplegic? a. Paralyzed from the waist down b. Paralyzed from the waist up c. Paralyzed on one side d. Paralyzed on all four extremities

a. Paralyzed from the waist down

which of the following terms is best defined as any disease producing microorganism? a. Pathogen. B. Fungus. C. Bacterium. D. Asepsis

a. Pathogen.

Which of the following will have the greatest effect on reducing motion on an abdomen radiograph? a. Suspend respiration b. Compression device c. High mA d. Increased SID

a. Suspend respiration

For a lateral projection of the chest, the longitudinal central ray entrance level is ________ and the transverse entrance level is ________. a. T7; the midcoronal plane b. T7; the midsagittal plane c. the midcoronal plane; T7 d. the midsagittal plane; T7

a. T7; the midcoronal plane

How should staff dispose of needles? a. in a puncture-resistant sharps container b. capped and in the trash receptacle c. not capped and in the biohazard receptacle. d. directly to sanitation staff

a. in a puncture-resistant sharps container

The technologist choose to use a grid for an exam. What effect will this have on the patient exposure while ensuring proper image quality? a. increase patient exposure b. decrease patient exposure c. no effect on patient exposure

a. increase patient exposure

The selection of a small focal spot size helps to: a. increase spatial resolution. b. minimize motion blur. c. decrease entrance skin exposure. d. increase contrast resolution

a. increase spatial resolution

A transformer that has a greater number of turns in the secondary side will result in: a. increased voltage. b. decreased voltage. c. increased amperage. d. decreased power.

a. increased voltage.

Which three of the following may be used to reduce patient exposure during pediatric procedures? (select three) a. selecting high milliampere (mA) station b. using effective immobilization techniques c. selecting high milliampere-seconds (mAs) d. gaining cooperation during the procedure e. selecting very long exposure times

a. selecting high milliampere (mA) station b. using effective immobilization techniques d. gaining cooperation during the procedure

Minimized patient exposure can be achieved with the use of: a. well-calibrated automatic exposure control (AEC) b. stationary grids c. personnel monitoring d. high milliampere-seconds (mAs)

a. well-calibrated automatic exposure control (AEC)

The concept used in barrier design that describes the total beam-on time for a radiography room per week is: a. workload. b. use factor. c. weighting factor. d. occupancy factor.

a. workload

Changing the shape of an object is called what? a. Magnification b. Distortion c. Minification d. Definition

b. Distortion

When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table, which action would you do first? a. Raise footrests out of the way b. Put wheelchair parallel to the table c. Lock the wheelchairs brakes d. Help patient stand

b. Put wheelchair parallel to the table

Per the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP), personnel protective lead aprons used during fluoroscopy should be at least: a. 0.25 millimeters of lead equivalent b. 0.35 millimeters of lead equivalent c. 0.50 millimeters of lead equivalent d. 0.75 millimeters of lead equivalent

c. 0.50 millimeters of lead equivalent

How many phalanges are located in the foot? a. 5 b. 7 c. 14 d. 15

c. 14

For the right anterior oblique (RAO) position during an upper GI examination, the patient should be rotated approximately: a. 10° to 20°. b. 20° to 30°. c. 40° to 70°. d. 70° to 90

c. 40° to 70°.

"Touching a patient without permission" is the legal definition of what? a. Malpractice b. Perjury c. Assault d. Battery

c. Assault

Which of the following will keep size distortion to a minimum? a. Increase kVp b. Increase grid ratio c. Increase SID d. Increase focal spot size

c. Increase SID

How will decreasing the focal spot size affect spatial resolution? a. It will increase the blur b. It will increase unsharpness c. It will decrease unsharpness d. It will decrease recorded detail

c. It will decrease unsharpness

The inferior coastal margin is an external landmark that can be used to identify which level? a. T9-T10 b. T12-L1 c. L2-L3 d. L4-L5

c. L2-L3

The W(r) used in calculating sievert takes into account which of the following? a. meiosis b. age c. LET d. pregnancy

c. LET

Written instructions for handling of biohazardous materials, safe use of the product, and cleanup and disposal directions are called. a. package inserts b. HIPAA c. MSDS d. Biohazardous warning systems

c. MSDS

What agency publishes radiation protection standards based on scientific research? a. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) b. American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT) c. National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) d. Bureau of Radiological Health (BRH)

c. National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP)

Which of the following is the most important factor in controlling size distortion? a. Focal spot size b. SID c. OID d. Exposure time

c. OID

________ is the MOST important factor in controlling size distortion. a. Focal spot size b. Source-to-image distance (SID) c. Object-to-image distance (OID) d. Exposure time

c. Object-to-image distance (OID)

It would be inappropriate to refer to a patient who is over 65 years old as "geriatric" because: a. the person might not look 65 years old. b. geriatric refers to the study of aging, not populations. c. it can make the person feel alienated and disrespected. d. the label applies only to those who are older than 75 years.

c. it can make the person feel alienated and disrespected.

What characteristic x-rays are useful for image production? a. n-shell b. p-shell c. k-shell d. o-shell

c. k-shell

Low energy x-ray photons absorbed in the patient's skin will usually result in increased: a. detector exposure b. scatter production c. patient exposure d. image contrast

c. patient exposure

Why is automatic exposure control (AEC) useful in controlling receptor exposure? 1. Receptor exposure remains constant based on patient thickness 2. Faulty receptor exposure causes repeats 3. Receptor exposure greatly affects quality a. 1 only b. 1 & 3 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

d. 1, 2, & 3

Which one of the following is NOT a feature of fluoroscopy equipment designed specifically to reduce the amount of scatter radiation striking personnel? a. a protective curtain b. a Bucky slot cover c. collimation d. a cumulative timer

d. a cumulative timer

Which of the following is a type of primary shielding? a. lead apron b. shadow shield c. shaped contact shield d. collimation

d. collimation

The decreased brightness along the periphery of an image that occurs when using image-intensified fluoroscopy is referred to as: a. pincushion distortion. b. veiling glare. c. minification gain. d. vignetting

d. vignetting

Output phosphor

number 3

Input phosphor

number 4

Mutual induction is key to the operation of what device?. A. Rectifier B. Autotransformer C. X-ray tube D. Step-up and step-down transformers

D. Step-up and step-down transformers

This is located on the superior border of the manubrium: A. manubrium. B. floating. C. xiphoid. D. jugular notch.

D. jugular notch.

The collision of projectile electrons with the atoms of the target material causes a conversion of the electrons' kinetic energy to: A. gamma rays and x-ray. B. x-rays and light. C. x-rays and protons. D. heat and x-rays.

D. heat and x-rays.

For an AP axial projection of the clavicle with the patient supine, the central ray should be angled: a. 15° to 30° cephalad. b. 30° to 45° cephalad. c. 15° to 30° caudad. d. 30° to 45° caudad.

a. 15° to 30° cephalad.

When caring for a patient with an IV line, the radiographer should keep the medication. a. 18-24 inches above the level of the vein b. 18-24 inches below the level of the vein c. 28-30 inches above the level of the vein d. 28-30 inches below the level of the vein

a. 18-24 inches above the level of the vein

While in the x-ray tube, x-rays travel at: a. 3 x 108 m/s. b. 3.4 x 102 m/s. c. 2 x 105 m/s. d. 1.5 x 104 m/s.

a. 3 x 108 m/s.

What condition may occur after injection of an iodinated contrast agent? a. anaphylaxis b. cardiogenic shock c. hypovolemic shock d. septic shock

a. anaphylaxis

Which of the following contains all the instruments and medications necessary for dealing with cardiac arrest? a. crash cart b. tackle box c. IVP cabinet d. Code cabinet

a. crash cart

The safety features of fluoroscopic equipment include all of the following EXCEPT: a. high grid ratio b. deadman switch c. bucky slot cover d. cumulative timer

a. high grid ratio

Use of technique charts: a. improves exposure consistency. b. has no effect on the need for repeat images. c. replaces critical thinking skills. d. has no effect on patient dose.

a. improves exposure consistency.

The outer portion of the double-walled sac in the abdominal cavity is called the: a. parietal peritoneum. b. visceral peritoneum. c. parietal pleura. d. visceral pleura

a. parietal peritoneum.

Which elbow fat pad is not visible radiographically in the lateral projection of the normal elbow? a. anterior b. posterior c. supinator d. pronator

b. posterior

A 10-year-old girl comes to the radiology department for scoliosis evaluation. To produce the highest degree of radiation protection for her developing breast tissue, which of the following projections should the technologist use? a. anteroposterior b. posteroanterior c. left anterior oblique d. right posterior oblique

b. posteroanterior

Which three of the following are included in a personnel monitoring report? (select three) a. total effective dose equivalent b. quarterly accumulated dose equivalent c. year to date dose equivalent d. lifetime dose equivalent

b. quarterly accumulated dose equivalent c. year to date dose equivalent d. lifetime dose equivalent

What is the dose limit for the lens of the eye for occupational workers in radiation per the National council on radiation protection and measurements (NCRP) 116? a. 20 millisieverts (mSv) b. 50 millisieverts (mSv) c. 150 millisieverts (mSv) d. 250 millisieverts (mSv)

c. 150 millisieverts (mSv)

Defecography is used to measure and study the: a. length of the transverse colon. b. angles of the right and left colic flexures. c. anorectal angle. d. length of the sigmoid colon

c. anorectal angle.

During a barium enema exam the enema tip should be inserted in the ________ direction initially and while the patient is ________. a. posterior; exhaling b. posterior; inhaling c. anterior; exhaling d. anterior; inhaling

c. anterior; exhaling

If the primary beam area is doubled by opening the collimator, patient dose and exposure to the operator will: a. increase by a factor of 4 b. increase by a factor of 3 c. increase by a factor of 2 d. remain the same

c. increase by a factor of 2

Increasing the kVp from 60 to 68 will result in: a. increased energy of characteristic photons. b. an increase in the number of characteristic photons. c. increased quantity of bremsstrahlung photons. d. a leftward shift of the emission spectrum.

c. increased quantity of bremsstrahlung photons

The quality of x-ray photons is affected by: a. collimation. b. focal spot size. c. kilovoltage. d. exposure time

c. kilovoltage.

Recorded detail/spatial resolution can be improved by which of the following? a. higher contrast b. greater density c. smaller focal spot size d. air gap technique

c. smaller focal spot size

The CDC has revised the isolation precautions to clarify confusing terms such as universal precautions and body substance isolation. What is the correct terminology? a. personnel precautions b. protective isolation c. standard precautions d. isolation techniques

c. standard precautions

Probabilistic effects also are referred to as ________ effects. a. opportunistic b. nonstochastic c. stochastic d. deterministic

c. stochastic

The ________ tendon inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus. a. supraspinatus b. infraspinatus c. subscapularis d. deltoid

c. subscapularis

The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the: a. costal margin b. umbilicus c. xiphoid tip d. fourth lumbar vertebra

d. fourth lumbar vertebra

The ________ is NOT a primary factor in the production of a radiograph. a. milliamperage (mA) b. time (seconds) c. kilovoltage peak (kVp) d. generator phase

d. generator phase

Which imaging informatics system is a communication network of computers for image acquisition, display, and storage? a. picture archiving and communications system (PACS) b. radiology information system (RIS) c. health information system (HIS) d. electronic health record (EHR)

a. picture archiving and communications system (PACS)

The hub of a needle is the: a. point where the needle attaches to the syringe. b. part that changes the pressure within the syringe. c. part that holds the medication. d. beveled portion of the needle.

a. point where the needle attaches to the syringe.

While reviewing a posteroanterior (PA) chest radiograph of a 72-year-old male patient, the radiographer notices that the image does NOT show the right heart border because the right middle lobe is consolidated. This is described as the ________ sign. a. silhouette b. cardiac c. pneumonia d. halo

a. silhouette

The AP axial oblique projections of the C-spine demonstrate the ___________ that are ___________ the image receptor. a. zygapophyseal joints; closest to b. zygapophyseal joints; farthest from c. intervertebral foramina; closest to d. intervertebral foramina; farthest from

d. intervertebral foramina; farthest from

Administration of a contrast agent for radiographic demonstration of the spinal canal and adjacent structures is performed using which of the following routes? a. subcutaneous b. intravenous c. intramuscular d. intrathecal

d. intrathecal

The________ projection best demonstrates the rectum in a contrast enema study. a. right posterior oblique (RPO) b. left posterior oblique (LPO) c. left anterior oblique (LAO) d. lateral

d. lateral

Exposure of an embryo or fetus to radiation from ________________ can result in congenital abnormalities. a. 0 days to 9 days of development b. 10 days to 6 weeks of development c. 6 weeks to 20 weeks of development d. 21 weeks to term

b. 10 days to 6 weeks of development

The central ray angle for an AP axial projection of the foot is: a. 0°. b. 10°. c. 15°. d. 30° to 45°.

b. 10°.

Dose area product (DAP) determined by fluoroscopic machines is equal to: a. Air kerma (Gy) x fluoroscopy time (s) b. Air kerma (Gy) x area of exposure field (cm^2). c. fluoroscopy time (s) x area of exposure field (cm^2) d. Air kerma (Gy) divided by the area of exposure field (cm^2)

b. Air kerma (Gy) x area of exposure field (cm^2).

Which image display monitor works by accelerating electrons toward a fluorescent screen? a. liquid crystal display b. cathode ray tube c. thin-film transistor d. photostimulable phosphor plate

b. cathode ray tube

All of the following are considered portions of the small intestine EXCEPT the: a. jejunum. b. cecum. c. ileum. d. duodenum.

b. cecum

Which of the following acute radiation syndromes has a threshold of 50 Gy? a. gastrointestinal syndrome b. central nervous system syndrome c. hemopoietic syndrome d. reproductive syndrome

b. central nervous system syndrome

On a PA axial projection of the mandibular rami, the central ray is angled 20° in a _________ direction and should exit the ________. a. caudal; acanthion b. cephalic; acanthion c. caudal; mental point of the mandible d. cephalic; mental point of the mandible

b. cephalic; acanthion

What component is commonly replacing the vidicon camera found in older fluoroscopic units? a. plumbicon camera b. charge-coupled device c. image intensifier d. beam-splitting mirror

b. charge-coupled device

Which of the following photon-tissue interactions necessitates the use of the gird? a. photoelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. coherent scatter d. pair production

b. compton interaction

What effect does adding more half-value layers (HVL) have on the quality of the x-ray beam? a. decreased quality b. increased quality c. no change in quality

b. increased quality

All of the following EXCEPT ________ will result in an increase in AEC response time. a. decreasing the kVp b. increasing the focal spot size c. increasing the part thickness d. increasing the source-to-image distance (SID

b. increasing the focal spot size

In which stage of infection do the infective microbes begin to multiply? a. latent period b. incubation period c. disease phase d. convalescent phase

b. incubation period

What route of transmission involves touching a susceptible person with a contaminated object (e.g., an IR)? a. droplet transmission b. indirect contact c. direct contact d. airborne transmission

b. indirect contact

Which of the following are methods used to help reduce colonic spasms during fluoroscopic filling of the large bowel? 1. placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position 2. administration of glucagon prior to the examination 3. temporarily slowing or stopping the flow of barium (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only

Which of the following is/are well demonstrated in the lateral position of the cervical spine? 1. intervertebral foramina 2. apophyseal joints 3. intervertebral joints (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation? (A) AP (B) 90-degree mediolateral (C) 45-degree internal rotation (D) 45-degree external rotation

(C) 45-degree internal rotation

The microswitch for controlling the amount of replenishment used in an automatic processor is located at the: (A) receiving bin (B) crossover roller (C) entrance roller (D) replenishment pump

(C) entrance roller

The law of conservation of energy states: A. matter cannot be created or destroyed. B. energy cannot be created or destroyed, only in changed in form. C. matter cannot be created, but energy can. D. energy cannot be created, but matter can.

B. energy cannot be created or destroyed, only in changed in form.

The unit of absorbed dose is the: A. coulomb/kilogram. B. gray. C. Becquerel D. Sievert

B. gray.

A backup timer is used in automatic exposure devices to: A. control minimum response time of the equipment. B. limit exposure in case of equipment failure. C. allow longer time exposure for extremely large patients. D. control tissue density altered by pathology.

B. limit exposure in case of equipment failure.

An algorithm is a(n): A. arithmetic hypothesis used in image reconstruction. B. mathematical formula used to reconstruct the image in digital imaging. C. advanced imaging procedure. D. an image of a cardiac arrhythmia.

B. mathematical formula used to reconstruct the image in digital imaging.

X-ray tube current is measured in: A. kilovoltage. B. milliamperes. C. electromotive force. D. anode revolutions per minute.

B. milliamperes.

After completing an AP shoulder examination, the radiographer sees the greater tubercle superimposed partially on the humeral head. The humerus was positioned for this radiograph in A. external rotation. B. neutral rotation. C. internal rotation. D. anterior position.

B. neutral rotation.

A material that may act as an insulator or conductor under different conditions is called a: A. rectifier. B. semiconductor. C. sine wave. D. solenoid.

B. semiconductor.

The movement of electrons between objects is called: A. electromagnetism. B. electrostatics. C. electrification. D. electrodynamics

C. electrification.

In the production of x-rays, the liberation of electrons from the cathode filament is called: A. Thompson emission. B. cold cathode emission. C. thermionic emission. D. orbital shell capture.

C. thermionic emission.

The target is primarily made of ______________ because of its high melting point. A. gold B. silver C. tungsten D. platinum

C. tungsten

What are possible results of ionization? 1. Unstable atoms 2. Production of low-energy x-rays 3. Formation of new molecules harmful to the cell A. 1 and 3 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

When all other types of immobilization have proven inadequate, the first choices to assist with immobilization of the patient might be: 1. nonradiology employees. 2. male family members of the patient. 3. radiology personnel not routinely exposed. 4. students. A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Grids are used beginning at what patient part thickness? A. 10 inches B. 5 cm C. 12 inches D. 10 cm

D. 10 cm

What new kVp is needed to double receptor exposure if the original kVp is 100? A. 85 B. 90 C. 105 D. 115

D. 115

What is the cumulative effective dose limit for a 31-year-old radiographer? A. 31 Sv B. 16 mSv C. 11 Sv D. 31 mSv

D. 31 mSv

When a quality control test is performed to ensure that the same exposure factors produce consistent x-ray output, successive exposures must be within this amount of one another: A. 2% of SID B. 4% C. 10% D. 5%

D. 5%

Electrical generating stations produce what type of current? A. Direct B. Altered C. Pulsating direct D. Alternating

D. Alternating

A haustrum may be found in the: A. esophagus. B. stomach. C. small intestine. D. large intestine.

D. large intestine.

Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated? a. AP and PA through the foramen magnum b. AP or oblique with right and left hand rotation c. horizontal beam lateral d. AP axial

a. AP and PA through the foramen magnum

What type of drug is benadryl? a. antihistamine b. vasodilator c. anticoagulant d. anesthetic

a. antihistamine

Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax? 1. LAO 2. LPO 3. RAO a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

a. 1 only

The maximum annual exposure for the general population is ____ mSv/year, which is ____ that permissible for occupationally exposed individuals. a. 5; 1/10 b. 50; 1/20 c. 500; 1/20 d. 0.5; 1/10

a. 5; 1/10

Which two of the following is accomplished with pulsed fluoroscopy? (select two) a. decreased patient dose b. extended tube life c. continuous activation of the x-ray tube d. increased signal-to-noise ration

a. decreased patient dose b. extended tube life

Which image receptor would produce images that are less likely to be repeated even when the selected of technical factors results in less than ideal exposure? a. digital image receptor b. film-screen image receptor c. direct exposure film

a. digital image receptor

The ability of a system to record detail (expressed as the number of line pairs per millimeter) is known as: a. spatial resolution. b. quality assurance. c. detail factor. d. finite factor.

a. spatial resolution.

The BEST reason to use touch for emphasis when performing a radiologic examination is to: a. specify instructions or locations. b. convey empathy. c. measure a body part before choosing exposure factors. d. identify landmarks on the patient.

a. specify instructions or locations.

What is used for total protection of the health care worker from every method of transmission possible in the work setting? a. standard precautions b. airborne precautions c. contact precautions d. droplet precautions

a. standard precautions

A patient in a wheelchair states that he feels steady enough to transfer from the wheelchair to the table. The best method of transfer with the least amount of technologist movement is the: a. standby assist transfer. b. assisted standing pivot transfer. c. 2-person lift. d. hydraulic lift.

a. standby assist transfer.

Which of the following scales of contrast will produce a more consistent radiographic quality? a. Short scale contrast b. Long scale contrast c. Narrow scale contrast d. Low scale

b. Long scale contrast

which of the following will have the greatest effect on size distortion? a. SID b. OID c. Focal spot size d. Image size

b. OID

Which of the following would describe an ambulatory patient? a. One that is bedridden b. One that is able to walk c. One that cannot speak d. One that arrived by ambulance

b. One that is able to walk

One of the functions of the stomach is to: a. eliminate waste products. b. break down food. c. absorb nutrients. d. reabsorb fluids.

b. break down food.

When performing mobile radiography on a patient in isolation, which two radiographers are designated? a. primary and secondary b. clean and contaminated c. technologist and student d. clean and dry

b. clean and contaminated

A ________ can be used to create even exposure across an image receptor when imaging anatomy with uneven thickness. a. collimator b. compensating filter c. shadow shield d. positioning sponge

b. compensating filter

Which of the following primarily involves loosely bound outer-shell electrons? a. photoelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. coherent scatter d. pair production

b. compton interaction

Which of the following produces scatter radiation that exits the patient and may fog the image? a. photoelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. coherent scatter d. pair production

b. compton interaction

The upright abdomen must include the: a. pubic symphysis at the bottom of the image. b. diaphragm at the top of the image. c. bladder at the bottom of the image. d. apices of the lungs at the top of the image

b. diaphragm at the top of the image.

What type of personnel radiation monitoring device has a gas-filled ionization chamber and provides a reading at any time via internet connection? a. pocket dosimeter b. direct ion storage dosimeter c. optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter d. thermoluminescent dosimeter

b. direct ion storage dosimeter

For an AP projection of the humerus, it is necessary to have the coronal plane passing through the humeral epicondyles aligned ________ to the image receptor. a. perpendicular b. parallel c. at a 45 ° angle d. at a 30° angle

b. parallel

When seeking informed consent from a 14-year old patient, who must sign the completed form? a. patient or parent b. parent or legal guardian c. requesting physician d. interpreting physician

b. parent or legal guardian

Which of the following is NOT TRUE concerning operator consoles? a. They contain an exposure button. b. Consoles allow for focal spot size selection. c. Consoles are supplied with high voltage. e. They display AEC settings

c. Consoles are supplied with high voltage.

The greatest source of natural background radiation exposure is: a. cosmic rays b. radioactive materials c. the body itself d. radon gas

d. radon gas

Which of the following structures is located in the mediastinum? a. right middle lobe and esophagus b. left upper lobe and heart c. aorta and thyroid d. trachea and thymus

d. trachea and thymus

Which of the following is the main determinant in selecting a focal spot size? ​ A. The kVp used ​ B. The mA used ​ C. The equipment manufacturer ​ D. The SID

​ B. The mA used

When should a grid be used? 1. When radiographing body parts greater than 10 cm 2. When using high kVp 3. When scatter radiation is high ​ A. 1 & 2 only ​ B. 1 & 3 only ​ C. 2 & 3 only ​ D. 1, 2 & 3

​ D. 1, 2 & 3

Which of the following statements concerning a 16:1 ratio grid is/are true? 1. Effectively absorbs scatter rays 2. Designed for high kVp techniques 3. Has little positioning latitude ​ A. 1 only ​ B. 1 & 3 only ​ C. 2 & 3 only ​ D. 1, 2 & 3

​ D. 1, 2 & 3

Which of the following materials would NOT be used in the interspaces of a grid? ​ A. Aluminum ​ B. Fiber (cardboard) ​ C. Polyester plastic ​ D. Lead

​ D. Lead

What is the purpose of a compensating filter? ​ A. Reduce patient exposure ​ B. Reduce skin dose ​ C. Produce better detail in a radiograph ​ D. Produce uniform exposure in an image

​ D. Produce uniform exposure in an image

nitroglycerin is used medically as which of the following? A. A vasoconstrictor. B. An anaesthetic. C. An analgesic. D. A vasodilator

D. A vasodilator

Current that flows in one direction only is called: A. DC. B. fluctuating. C. rectified. D. AC.

A. DC.

Proper care of leaded apparel includes: 1. periodic check for cracks 2. careful folding following each use 3. routine laundering with soap and water (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

You encounter a person who is apparently unconscious. Although his airway is open, there is no rise and fall of his chest and you can hear no breath sounds. You should: (A) begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths (B) proceed with the Heimlich maneuver (C) begin external chest compressions at a rate of 80 to 100 per minute (D) begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 per minute

(A) begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths

To demonstrate the pulmonary apices in the AP position, the: (A) central ray is directed 15- to 20-degree cephalad (B) central ray is directed 15- to 20-degree caudad (C) exposure is made on full exhalation (D) patient's shoulders are rolled forward

(A) central ray is directed 15- to 20-degree cephalad

Proper body mechanics includes a wide base of support. The base of support is the portion of the body: (A) in contact with the floor or other horizontal surface (B) in the midportion of the pelvis or lower abdomen (C) passing through the center of gravity (D) none of the above

(A) in contact with the floor or other horizontal surface

The legislation that guarantees confidentiality of all patient information is: (A) HSS (B) HIPAA (C) HIPPA (D) MQSA

(B) HIPAA

Atomic mass is represented by the letter: A. M. B. A. C. Z. D. Q.

B. A.

An individual's legal document that names the person authorized to make all health care decisions, should they be unable to, is called a: 1. Living Will 2. Advance Health Care Directive 3. Last Will and Testament (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is approximately at the same level as the: (A) costal margin (B) umbilicus (C) xiphoid tip (D) fourth lumbar vertebra

(D) fourth lumbar vertebra

With the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters method), and the central ray directed through the patient's open mouth, which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated through the open mouth? (A) frontal (B) ethmoid (C) maxillary (D) sphenoid

(D) sphenoid

Which of the following statements concerning a 16:1 grid ratio is true? 1. effectively absorbs scatter rays 2. designed for high kVp techniques 3. has little positioning latitude

1, 2 and 3

How can a compression band improve image quality? 1. reduce scatter radiation 2. reduce patient motion 3. improve image contrast

1, 2, and 3

The image on the output phosphor of the intensifier tube is: 1. brighter than the input phosphor. 2. dimmer than the input phosphor. 3. larger than the input phosphor. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 3 only

A. 1 only

Artifacts in computed radiography may be caused by which of the following? 1. Scatter radiation 2. Improper use of grids causing a moiré pattern 3. Dust on the imaging plate (IP) A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 1 and 2 C. 2 D. 3

A. 1, 2, and 3

Characteristics of computed radiography include which of the following? 1. Accurate positioning is critical 2. Radiographer selects exposure factors as in conventional radiography 3. Film-screen system is replaced by an imaging plate (IP) 4. Insensitivity to scatter radiation A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 C. 4 D. 1 and 2

A. 1, 2, and 3

The image after processing is known as what? ​ A. A latent image ​ B. A manifest image ​ C. An invisible image ​ D. An imaginary image

B. A manifest image

Spatial resolution may also be known as: 1. sharpness. 2. definition. 3. image resolution. A. 3 B. 1, 2 C. 1 D. 1, 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3

The x-ray tube manufacturer's warm-up procedure should be followed to: A. prevent excessive evaporation of the filament. B. allow for slow heating of the filament. C. cause localized melting of the target. D. allow for even expansion of the target.

D. allow for even expansion of the target.

It is recommended that PSPs be read soon after exposure, principally to avoid: (A) aliasing artifacts (B) image fading (C) overdevelopment (D) excessive brightness

(B) image fading

Symptoms associated with a respiratory reaction to contrast media include 1. sneezing. 2. dyspnea. 3. asthma attack. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Symptoms of imminent anaphylactic shock include: 1. dysphagia 2. itching of palms and soles 3. constriction of the throat (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

The factor(s) that can be used to regulate radiographic density is (are): 1. milliamperage 2. exposure time 3. kilovoltage (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following can contribute to radiographic image distortion? 1. tube angle 2. the position of the organ or structure within the body 3. radiographic positioning of the part (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Poor film-screen contact can be caused by which of the following? 1. warped cassette 2. bent cassette frame 3. broken cassette latch

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following conditions will cause grid cut-off with a focused grid? 1. CR not centered to the grid 2. grid angled 3. tube angled across the grid

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is (are) located just below the head of the humerus? A. Greater and lesser tubercles B. Bicipital groove C. Capitulum D. Trochlea

A. Greater and lesser tubercles

What effect do beam restrictors have on contrast? A. Increase contrast B. Decrease contrast C. No effect D. Varying effect

A. Increase contrast

What effect do grids have on image contrast? A. Increase contrast B. Decrease contrast C. No effect D. Varying effect

A. Increase contrast

Most of the mass of an atom is contained in the: A. nucleus. B. shells. C. electrons. D. neutrons.

A. nucleus

For low-ratio grids, the grid radius is: A. wide. B. narrow. C. irrelevant. D. nonexistent

A. wide.

The effects of radiation to biologic material are dependent on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect: (A) will be greater than if it were delivered all at one time (B) will be less than if it were delivered all at one time (C) has no relation to how it is delivered in time (D) is solely dependent on the radiation quality

B) will be less than if it were delivered all at one time

what is the average pulse rate of an infant? A. 30 to 40. B. 50 to 60. C. 70 to 80 D. 115 to 130

D. 115 to 130 beats per minute

A radiographer wishes to provide more uniform image brightness when obtaining a dorsoplantar projection of a patient's foot. To accomplish this, the radiographer could: A. decrease 10 kVp and double the original mAs. B. increase 10 kVp and reduce the original mAs by one half. C. use a trough filter. D. use a wedge filter placing the thick portion toward the toes and the thin portion toward the heel.

D. use a wedge filter placing the thick portion toward the toes and the thin portion toward the heel.

When performing a quality control test to ensure that the penetrating ability of the x-ray beam is accurate, the result must be within this amount of the control panel setting: A. ±2% of SID. B. ±4%. C. ±10 % D. ±4 kVp.

D. ±4 kVp.

The secondary protective barrier must overlap the primary protective barrier by at least: A. 1/10 inch. B. 1 inch. C. 1 foot. D. ½ inch.

D. ½ inch.

The minimum lead equivalent for lead gloves is: a. 0.25 mm. b. 0.50 mm. c. 0.75 mm. d. 1 mm

a. 0.25 mm.

Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a patient consent to be valid? 1. the patient must sign the consent form before receiving sedation 2. the physician named on the consent from must perform the procedure 3. blank spaces on the form must be completed by the physician after patient signature a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

a. 1 and 2 only

Leakage radiation from the x-ray tube is limited to: a. 1 milligray/hour at 1 meter b. 1 gray/hour at 2 meters c. 10 milligray/minute at 1 meter d. 10 milligray/hour at 2 meters

a. 1 milligray/hour at 1 meter

What is used to account for differences in tissue characteristics when determining effective dose to biologic material? 1. tissue weighting factors W(t) 2. radiation weighting factors W(r) 3. absorbed dose a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

a. 1 only

What body type has the stomach and gallbladder high and horizontal? a. Hypersthenic habitus b. Sthenic habitus c. Hyposthenic habitus d. Asthenic habitus

a. Hypersthenic habitus

What is the correct order for administering basic life support? a. circulation, airway, breathing b. airway, circulation, breathing c. breathing, circulation, airway d. airway, breathing, circulation

a. circulation, airway, breathing

Anteroposterior (AP) oblique images of the chest can be used when a patient is too ill for upright or prone positioning. When the patient is in a 45° right posterior oblique (RPO) position: a. the right lung field is best displayed. b. the left lung field is best displayed. c. both lungs are well displayed. d. neither lung is well displayed.

a. the right lung field is best displayed.

When a patient is in a 45° left anterior oblique position: a. the right lung field is best displayed. b. the left lung field is best displayed. c. both lungs are well displayed. d. neither lung is well displayed

a. the right lung field is best displayed.

The characteristic peak will shift to the left on an emission spectrum when: a. the target material is changed. b.. the kVp is increased. c. the amount of filtration is altered. d. the mAs is decreased.

a. the target material is changed.

Choose all that are properties of x-rays (choose 6): a. electrically negative b. affect film emulsion c. scatter and produce secondary radiation d. invisible to the human eye e. travel at the speed of light (186,000 miles per hours) f. possess wavelength between 1 A and 5 A g. travel in bundles of energy called protons h. can ionize matter and gases i. can be focused by collimators j. cause phosphors to fluoresce

b, c, d, g, h, j

The minimum lead equivalent for thyroid shields is a. 0.25 mm. b. 0.50 mm. c. 0.75 mm. d. 1 mm.

b. 0.50 mm.

Which of the following would be used to minimize size distortion? 1. Shortest possible OID 2. Smallest focal spot size 3. Longest SID a. 1 only b. 1 & 3 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

b. 1 & 3 only

A kyphotic curve is formed by the: 1. sacral vertebrae 2. thoracic vertebrae 3. lumbar vertebrae 4. cervical vertebrae a. 1, 2, and 4 b. 1 and 2 c. 3 and 4 d. 1, 3, and 4 e. 2 and 4

b. 1 and 2

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degree medially (toward the shoulder). Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? 1. radial head 2. capitulum 3. coronoid process a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

Size distortion is affected by which of the following? a. Intrinsic factors b. Geometric factors c. Motion factors d. Technical factors

b. Geometric factors

The data contained in a digital image is ________ data. a. qualitative b. numerical c. logarithmic d. exponential

b. numerical

Anteroposterior (AP) oblique projections of the chest can be used when the patient is too ill for upright or prone positioning. When the patient is in a 45° left posterior oblique (LPO) position: a. the right lung field is best displayed. b. the left lung field is best displayed. c. both lungs are well displayed. d. neither lung is well displayed.

b. the left lung field is best displayed.

Which of the following is the main determinant in selecting a focal spot? a. the kVp used b. the mA used c. the equipment manufactorer d. the SID

b. the mA used

What is the definition of recorded detail? a. the contrast in an image b. the sharpness of the structural lines c. the lack of distortion in an image d. all of the above

b. the sharpness of the structural lines

The ejection of electrons as a result of heating is known as: a. thermal reactance. b. thermionic emission. c. heat-induced decay. d. thermal luminescence.

b. thermionic emission.

The laryngeal prominence is formed by the a. thyroid gland b. thyroid cartilage c. vocal cords d. pharynx

b. thyroid cartilage

The AP projection of the sacrum requires that the CR should be directed: 1. 15 degrees cephalad 2. two inches superior to the pubic symphysis 3. 10 degrees caudad a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

Guidelines for cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces include which of the following? 1. clean from the least contaminated to the most contaminated areas 2. clean in a circular motion, starting from the center and working outward 3. clean from the top down a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

c. 1 and 3 only

________ is the primary cause of decreased spatial resolution on radiographs. a. Failure to use a grid b. Incorrect milliampere-seconds (mAs) c. Patient motion d. Improper kilovoltage peak (kVp) selection

c. Patient motion

When lifting a patient, what must you remember? 1. Keep your back straight 2 . Keep your arms straight 3. Keep your legs straight a. 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 1 only

d. 1 only

All of the following are correct concepts of good body mechanics during patient lifting/moving/ except a. the radiographer should stand with feet approximately 12 inches apart, with one food slightly forward b. the body's center of gravity should be positioned over its base of support c. the back should be kept straight; avoid twisting d. when carrying a heavy object, hold it away from the body

d. when carrying a heavy object, hold it away from the body

No practical amount of mAs can ever compensate for which of the following? ​ A. Inadequate exposure time ​ B. Inadequate kVp ​ C. Inadequate SID ​ D. Inadequate grid ratio

​ A. Inadequate exposure time

What is a 3-dimensional radiograph called that is produced by two angled views of the same structure? ​ A. Stereoradiograph ​ B. Tomogram ​ C. Scanogram ​ D. Bi-radiograph

​ A. Stereoradiograph

How can the production of scatter radiation be reduced? 1. Increase kVp 2. Use close collimation 3. Increase beam filtration ​ A. 1 only ​ B. 2 only ​ C. 1 & 3 only ​ D. 1, 2 & 3

​ B. 2 only

Off-center grid cut-off would demonstrate which of these? a. the top of the image would be underexposed b. one side of the image would be underexposed c. both sides of the image would be underexposed d. bottom of the image would be underexposed

b. one side of the image would be underexposed

The ability of different types of radiation to produce the same biological response in an organism is called: a. LET b. W(r) c. RBE d. Doubling dose

c. RBE

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right zygapophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae? a. PA b. left lateral c. RPO d. LPO

c. RPO

Which of the following tests will determine the focal spot size? a. safelight test b. wire mesh test c. wisconsin test cassette d. star pattern test

d. star pattern test

The ICRP dose equivalent limit for the skin is_______ mSv. a. 20 b. 50 c. 150 d. 500

d. 500

What projection of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, plantar surface vertical and perpendicular to the image receptor, and central ray directed 40-degree caudad? (A) axial plantodorsal projection (B) axial dorsoplantar projection (C) lateral projection (D) weight-bearing lateral

(B) axial dorsoplantar projection

What do you call the organ of voice? A. Larynx B. Pharynx C. Thymus D. Epiglottis

A. Larynx

The distance from the object being imaged to the image receptor is: A. SID. B. OID. C. focal-spot size. D. SOD.

B. OID.

The suffix "-itis" means: A. pain. B. excision. C. origin. D. inflammation.

D. inflammation.

The kidneys are located in the: a. peritoneal cavity. b. anteroperitoneum. c. supraperitoneum. d. retroperitoneum.

d. retroperitoneum.

Which of the following causes the most repeated images in an all-digital imaging department? ​ A. Motion ​ B. Positioning errors ​ C. Under and over exposed images ​ D. Poor contrast

​ B. Positioning errors

If the patient lacks decision-making capacity, their rights can be exercised on their behalf by: 1. designated surrogate 2. designated proxy 3. no one (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 3 only

(C) 1 and 2 only

A primary advantage to digital fluoroscopy is: A. postprocessing manipulation of the image. B. radiation dose to the patient is substantially lower. C. no radiologist is needed. D. lower cost

A. postprocessing manipulation of the image.

What type of current is required for proper operation of the x-ray tube? A. Direct B. Falling load C. Alternating D. Fluctuating

A. Direct

For shielding purposes, what is the x-ray control booth considered? A. Secondary protective barrier B. Primary protective barrier C. Equivalent to a lead apron D. A tertiary protective barrier

A. Secondary protective barrier

What transformer is used in the high-voltage section of the x-ray circuit? A. Step-up transformer B. Autotransformer C. Step-down transformer D. Rectifying transformer

A. Step-up transformer

Which of the following effects describes the following: Increased dose equals increased probability of effects? A. Stochastic effects B. Deterministic effects C. Direct effect D. Indirect effect

A. Stochastic effects

What takes into account the amount of time the beam is on and directed at a particular barrier? A. Use factor B. Shielding factor C. Occupancy D. Workload

A. Use factor

when a disease is spread by an insect depositing the pathogens on or in a human, it is transmitted by what method? A. Vector. B. Vehicle. C. Direct contact. D. Droplet.

A. Vector.

An interaction that produces x-rays at the anode as a result of outer shell electrons filling holes in the K shell is called: A. characteristic. B. photoelectric. C. Compton. D. Brems.

A. characteristic.

One of the purposes of the backup timer used with automatic exposure control (AEC) devices is to: A. prevent excessive exposure to the patient. B. control the minimal response time of the AEC device. C. prevent excessive production of IR exposure. D. ensure a proper level of radiographic contrast.

A. prevent excessive exposure to the patient.

The laws of electrostatics state that: A. unlike charges attract; like charges repel. B. electrostatic charges reside on the outer surface of a conductor and are concentrated at the area of least curvature. C. only positive charges move. D. like charges attract; unlike charges repel.

A. unlike charges attract; like charges repel.

X-ray verification of central venous catheter (CVC) placement should identify the catheter's distal tip a the A. vena cava near the right atrium B. vena cava near the left atrium C. aorta near the right atrium D. aorta near the lift atrium

A. vena cava near the right atrium

Which of the following statements concerning alternating current, direct current, and the x-ray circuit is true? Transformers require: A. DC, but x-ray tubes work more efficiently with AC. B. AC, but x-ray tubes work more efficiently with DC. C. AC, and x-ray tubes work more efficiently with AC. D. DC, and x-ray tubes work more efficiently with DC.

B. AC, but x-ray tubes work more efficiently with DC.

Compared to a low ratio grid, a high ratio grid will do which of the following? ​ A. Absorb more primary radiation ​ B. Absorb more scatter radiation ​ C. Absorb less primary radiation ​ D. Absorb less scatter radiation

B. Absorb more scatter radiation

what type of drug is Dilantin? A. Anticoagulant. B. Anti-epileptic. C. Antihistamine. D. Anti heart failure medications

B. Anti-epileptic

What is the smallest particle of an element that retains the characteristics of the element? A. Mole B. Atom C. Molecule D. Quark

B. Atom

When an AEC is used, where is the ionization chamber? A. Behind the IR B. Between the IR and the patient C. Between the patient and the x-ray tube D. In front of the x-ray tube

B. Between the IR and the patient

What is contained in the orbital shells of an atom? A. Protons B. Electrons C. Neutrons D. Negatrons

B. Electrons

What is another name for posterior angle of the mandible? A. Iniorn B. Gonion C. Pinna D. Mental point

B. Gonion

which of the following drugs is an anticoagulant? A. Demerol. B. Heparin. C. Benadryl D. Penicillin

B. Heparin.

In digital fluoroscopy, what equipment should be used to view the image? A. Conventional view box B. High-resolution monitor capable of displaying millions of pixels C. High-definition television D. Plasma TV required

B. High-resolution monitor capable of displaying millions of pixels

The photon-tissue interaction that may simply cause electrons to vibrate from the energy of the incident photons is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.

B. coherent.

The photon-tissue interaction that results from very-low-energy x-rays is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.

B. coherent.

Filters that provide a more uniform image of anatomic parts with significant differences in thickness are called: A. inherent. B. compensating. C. eveners. D. thoreous.

B. compensating.

A condition caused by improper tube, part, or IR alignment is: A. definition. B. distortion. C. minification. D. None of the above

B. distortion.

The shortest time possible to operate an AEC is called: A. phototiming. B. minimum response time. C. backup time. D. None of the above

B. minimum response time.

When beam restriction is used, receptor exposure: A. increases. B. decreases. C. remains the same. D. varies.

B. decreases

When beam restriction is used, scatter production: A. increases. B. decreases. C. remains the same. D. varies.

B. decreases.

Radiation may also exist as particles, such as: A. radiation only exists as rays. B. alpha and beta particles. C. electrons and protons. D. waves and quarks.

B. alpha and beta particles.

As kVp increases, a greater potential difference exists between: A. tube and patient. B. anode and cathode. C. photoelectric and Compton Interactions. D. kVp and mAs.

B. anode and cathode

A device in which the x-ray tube and image intensifier are located on opposite cusps of a semicircular arch is called a: A. portable x-ray machine. B. c-arm. C. mammographic unit. D. dedicated chest room.

B. c-arm.

Radiographic contrast in computed radiography may be adjusted by changing the: A. window level. B. window width. C. area of the patient being irradiated. D. imaging plate.

B. window width.

What is the best way to keep radiation dose to the patient low? A. Distance B. Shielding C. Time D. Avoidance of repeat exposures

D. Avoidance of repeat exposures

From the following, select the four circumstances that violate ARRT rules of ethics and can lead to ARRT professional sanction. 1. Soliciting/receiving examination information that uses language similar to that found on the certification 2. Providing incorrect/misleading information regarding one's ARRT credentials or qualifications 3. Assisting in billing practices that violate Federal or State laws 4. inappropriate use of radiographic equipment 5. failure to respect the patient's privacy 6. providing false information regarding continuing education (CE) compliance A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 B. 1, 3, 5, and 6 C. 1, 2, 3, and 6 D. 2, 4, 5, and 6

C. 1, 2, 3, and 6

When performing a quality control test to ensure that adjacent mA stations are accurate, the results must be within this amount of one another: A. 2% of SID B. 4% C. 10% D. 5%

C. 10%

How does beam restriction affect contrast? A. Decreases contrast B. Longer scale of contrast C. Shorter scale of contrast D. No effect on contrast

C. Shorter scale of contrast

The height of a sine wave is called: A. photonic height. B. altitude. C. amplitude. D. wavelength.

C. amplitude

.In digital fluoroscopy and computed radiography, the energy must be changed to a digital format by a(n): A. digital-to-analog converter. B. dilithium crystal. C. analog-to-digital converter. D. digital amplifier.

C. analog-to-digital converter.

The variation of x-ray intensity along the longitudinal axis of the x-ray beam describes: A. cathode heel effect. B. anode angle effect. C. anode heel effect. D. line-focus principle.

C. anode heel effect.

This causes anatomic structures to appear shorter on the image than in reality: A. magnification. B. minification. C. foreshortening. D. elongation.

C. foreshortening.

Full-wave rectification produces: A. direct current. B. alternating current. C. pulsating direct current. D. pulsating alternating current.

C. pulsating direct current.

What is the cell's master molecule? A. RNA B. Hydrogen peroxide C. A free radical D. DNA

D. DNA

When an AEC is used, the backup timer: A. protects the patient from overexposure. B. prevents the x-ray tube from overheating. C. replaces the radiographer's professional judgment. D. More than one of the above

D. More than one of the above

What describes oxygenated cell's radiosensitivity? A. Target theory B. Direct effect C. Doubling dose D. Oxygen enhancement ratio

D. Oxygen enhancement ratio

Mobile radiographic units operate on: A. alternating current. B. 220 volts. C. 110 volts. D. Rechargeable batteries.

D. Rechargeable batteries.

If the CR enters at a point 3/4" anterior and 3/4" superior to the E.A.M, what structure would be visualized? A . Petrous pyramid B. Foramen magnum C. Floor of the cranium D. Sella turcica

D. Sella turcica

When a predetermined level of ionization is reached in the ionization chamber, what does the machine do? A. The unit shuts off as a result of a malfunction B. The maximum allowable time has been reached C. A warning light illuminates D. The exposure is terminated

D. The exposure is terminated

A large rounded projection is called a: A. prominence. B. sharp prominence. C. tubercle. D. tuberosity.

D. tuberosity.

Patient who have been NPO should be scheduled: a. last b. first c. just before lunch d. In any way that helps the work flow

b. first

The minimum length of the exposure cord for mobile x-ray units is: a. 12 feet. b. 9 feet. c. 6 feet. d. 3 feet

c. 6 feet.

The ________ foramina house the spinal cord. a. transverse b. intervertebral c. vertebral d. sacral

c. vertebral

Spatial resolution is not affected by which of the following? a. SID b. SOD c. OID d. kVp

d. kVp

When oxygen is administered, the usual rate is: a. 3 to 5 lb/minute b. 3 to 5 l/hour c. 3 to 5 l/minute d. 5 to 7 l/minute

c. 3 to 5 l/minute

Off-distance grid cutoff is characterized by which of the following? ​ A. The top of the image is underexposed ​ B. Both sides of the image are underexposed ​ C. One side of the image is underexposed ​ D. The bottom of the image is underexposed

​ B. Both sides of the image are underexposed

According to NCRP report #116, what is the annual effective dose limit for radiography students older than age 18? a. 50 mSv b. 0.1 mSv c. 10 mSv d. 0.05 mSv

a. 50 mSv

Which of the following is considered a late somatic effect? a. carcinogenesis b. genetic effect c. Alzheimer disease d. parkinson disease

a. carcinogenesis

A malignant tumor arising from cartilage cells is a(n): a. chondrosarcoma. b. enchondroma. c. Ewing sarcoma. d. osteosarcoma.

a. chondrosarcoma.

Which two of the following are features of fluoroscopic equipment designed to reduce radiation exposure to the patient? (Select two) a. collimation b. protective lead curtain c. deadman switch d. bucky slot cover

a. collimation c. deadman switch

Positive beam limitation (PBL) technology is applied to which of the following devices? a. collimator b. cone c. cylinder d. aperture diaphragm

a. collimator

Which of the following beam restriction devices is the most versatile for defining the size and shape of the radiographic beam? a. collimator b. cone c. cylinder d. aperture diaphragm

a. collimator

All of the following EXCEPT ________ minimize patient exposure. a. compensating filters b. lead aprons c. communication d. collimation

a. compensating filters

Which of the following would provide fluoroscopic imaging personnel with the BEST radiation protection opportunity? a. controlling the fluoroscopic system b. decreased distance from the patient c. wearing protective shielding d. reducing time spent in the fluoroscopic procedure.

a. controlling the fluoroscopic system

The poorest spatial resolution would be produced by which of the following sets of exposure factors? A. 60 mAs, 80 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID (object-to-image distance) B. 30 mAs, 92 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID C. 120 mAs, 92 kVp, 20-inch SID, 4-inch OID D. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID

C. 120 mAs, 92 kVp, 20-inch SID, 4-inch OID

X-ray photons have no: 1. energy. 2. electric charge. 3. mass. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

All of the following are located in the secondary x-ray circuit EXCEPT for: a. rectifiers. b. the anode. c. filaments. d. stators.

c. filaments.

Which are the appropriate methods to ensure the correct drug is administered to the patient? 1. Confirm the correct medication. 2. Record the time and date of administration. 3. Check the label at least 3 times.

1. Confirm the correct medication. 3. Check the label at least 3 times.

The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions? a. right iliac b. left iliac c. right lumbar d. hypogastric

a. right iliac

A case involving obvious negligence would be defined by the doctrine of: a. respondeat superior b. slander c. libel d. res ipsa loquitur

d. res ipsa loquitur

The safety features of a fluoroscopic unit do not include a: a. high-grid ratio b. deadman switch c. bucky slot cover d. cumulative timer

a. high-grid ratio

On a lateral image of the cranium, which of the following structures should be clearly shown? a. superimposed orbital roofs and greater wings of the sphenoid; sella turcica in profile b. orbits filled by the petrous ridges of the temporal bone c. dorsum sellae and posterior clinoid processes visible within foramen magnum d. cranial base with symmetric images of the petrosal, the foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum

a. superimposed orbital roofs and greater wings of the sphenoid; sella turcica in profile

On an axiolateral projection of the temporomandibular joints (TMJs), the patient's head is placed in a lateral position with the TMJ of interest closest to the image receptor. The central ray is angled caudally about 30°. On the image, the TMJ of interest will be projected ________ to the other TMJ. a. superiorly b. inferiorly c. anteriorly d. posteriorly

a. superiorly

Esophageal fluoroscopic studies generally begin with the patient in the ________ position. a. upright b. lithotomy c. Sims d. recumbent

a. upright

A feature of fluoroscopic x-ray machine that automatically adjusts kVp and mA so as to maintain image brightness for necessary image quality is called: a. automatic imaging b automatic brightness control (ABC) c. automatic image processing d. Constant exposure output

b automatic brightness control (ABC)

Which one of the following DQE measurements identifies an image receptor with the greatest efficiency? a. 1.2 b. 0.9 c. 0.7 d. 0.3

b. 0.9

A radiographer should recognize that gerontologic patients often have undergone physical changes that include loss of: 1. muscle mass 2. bone calcium 3. mental alertness a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

The basic difference between the sievert and other units that measure radioactivity is that the sievert is: a. the only international system (SI) unit for radiation dose. b. used only for radiation protection purposes. c. used to indicate the activity level of radionuclides. d. used to indicate the exposure rate for a given exposure.

b. used only for radiation protection purposes.

The ________ pleura closely adheres to the surface of the lung. a. parietal b. visceral c. lingula d. cardiac

b. visceral

Primary radiation barriers must be AT LEAST ______ feet high. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8

c. 7

The ________ and the ________ form the zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine. a. inferior vertebral notches; superior articular processes b. inferior vertebral notches; superior vertebral notches c. superior articular processes; inferior articular processes d. inferior costal facets; superior costal facets

c. superior articular processes; inferior articular processes

If levels C7 through T1 are NOT demonstrated on a lateral projection (Grandy method) of the cervical spine, a lateral projection using the ________ method/technique should be performed. a. Ferguson b. Fuchs c. swimmer's d. Ottonello

c. swimmer's

Respondeat superior means: a. "the thing that speaks for itself" b. a radiographer has no need to carry malpractice insurance c. the reasonable and prudent person should make the decision d. "let the master answer"

d. "let the master answer"

If 90 kVp is used with a single-phase generator, the minimum electron voltage across the tube is ________ keV. a. 90 b. 60 c. 30 d. 0

d. 0

Which of the following is NOT a primary factor in the production of a radiograph? a. mA b. seconds c. kVp d. intensification factor

d. intensification factor

Which of the following is the definition of fraud? a. when a patient is restrained or believes that he or she is being restrained against his or her will b. when a patient believes that he or she has been threatened in a manner to invoke fear or expect immediate bodily harm c. touching a patient without his or her consent, normally when the patient perceives he or she has been touched in an offensive way d. willful and intentional misrepresentation of facts that might cause harm to an individual or result in a loss of right or property

d. willful and intentional misrepresentation of facts that might cause harm to an individual or result in a loss of right or property

which of the following must be followed when pouring Solutions into a container on a sterile tray? 1. Hold the solution well above the tray. 2. Prevent the solution from splashing. 3. Prevent drips from landing on the tray.

one, two and three

When a patient arrives in the radiology department with a urinary Foley catheter bag, it is important to (A) place the drainage bag above the level of the bladder. (B) place the drainage bag at the same level as the bladder. (C) place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder. (D) clamp the Foley catheter.

(C) place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder.

Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs? (A) pneumothorax (B) atelectasis (C) pulmonary embolism (D) hypoxia

(C) pulmonary embolism

All of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single-contrast and doublecontrast examinations of the large bowel, except: (A) lateral rectum (B) AP axial rectosigmoid (C) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen (D) RAO and LAO abdomen

(C) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen

Characteristics of the typical diagnostic x-ray tube and its construction include: 1. the target material should have a high atomic number and melting point 2. the useful beam emerges from the port window 3. the cathode assembly receives both low and high voltages (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate: 1. pneumothorax 2. foreign body 3. atelectasis (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Radiation exposure to the developing fetus can cause: 1. mental retardation 2. growth retardation 3. organ damage (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

mA linearity must be recalibrated when a difference greater than: A. 10% is noted throughout the mA range of the equipment being tested. B. 20% is noted throughout the mA range of the equipment being tested. C. 30% is noted throughout the mA range of the equipment being tested. D. 40% is noted throughout the mA range of the equipment being tested.

A. 10% is noted throughout the mA range of the equipment being tested.

The distance from the x-ray tube to the image receptor is: A. SID. B. OID. C. focal-spot size. D. SOD.

A. SID.

What dose-response curve best illustrates cataractogenesis, which does not occur at low levels of radiation exposure? A. Threshold B. Nonthreshold C. Low dose D. Occupational dose

A. Threshold

The target angle allows for a: A. larger actual focal spot and a smaller effective focal spot. B. smaller actual focal spot and a larger effective focal spot. C. grid-controlled assembly to be added. D. smaller anode to be used.

A. larger actual focal spot and a smaller effective focal spot.

What is the primary function of contrast? A. To make a pleasing image B. To control recorded detail C. To make detail visible D. To reduce distortion

C. To make detail visible

In this diagram, E is the: A. step-up transformer. B. step-down transformer. C. rectifier. D. autotransformer.

C. rectifier

The protective curtain hanging from the fluoro tower must be at least A. 0.50-mm lead equivalent. B. 0.25-mm aluminum equivalent. C. 0.10-mm lead equivalent. D. 0.25-mm lead equivalent.

D. 0.25-mm lead equivalent.

An image with few gray tones, mainly black and white, is referred to as: A. low contrast. B. poor detail. C. low distortion. D. short-scale contrast.

D. short-scale contrast.

The area on the image that represents the Petrous ridge

F

Sievert is calculated by multiplying gray by a. W(r) b. W(a) c. W(t) d. mAs

a. W(r)

What is hypervolemia? a. excess fluid in the blood b. excessive cleansing of the colon c. excessive loss of body water d. excess sodium in the blood

a. excess fluid in the blood

The degree of needle angulation for venipuncture varies depending on the thickness of the patient's skin because: a. the thickness of the subcutaneous tissue varies from patient to patient. b. skin thicknesses are affected by age but not weight. c. the needle gauge varies to match tissue thickness. d. the skin of elderly patients can be much harder to puncture.

a. the thickness of the subcutaneous tissue varies from patient to patient.

A patient history should be taken by the radiographer: a. to assist the radiographer in understanding the patient's injury and to assist the radiologist with interpretation of the images b. to verify patient name and form of payment c. only on patients from the ED d. only in the absence of the patient's chart.

a. to assist the radiographer in understanding the patient's injury and to assist the radiologist with interpretation of the images

What is the site of most nosocomial (health care-acquired) infections? a. urinary catheter b. chest tube c. NG tube d. Venous catheter

a. urinary catheter

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to 1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR 2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR 3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

Decreasing the detector element size will affect which of the following? a. bit depth b. spatial resolution c. dynamic range d. signal-to-noise ratio

b. spatial resolution

If the exposure rate for a fluoroscopic procedure is 2.5 mGy/hr, the total exposure for a procedure with 3 minutes of fluoroscopy time would be ______ mGy. a. 0.75 b. 0.25 c. 0.125 d. 0.075

c. 0.125

Forms of intentional misconduct include 1. slander 2. invasion of privacy 3. negligence a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 1, 2, and 3

c. 1 and 2 only

Patient respiration when imaging the lower ribs is: a. suspended at the end of deep inspiration b. suspended c. suspended at the end of second inspiration d. suspended at the end of expiration

d. suspended at the end of expiration

The exposure factors used for a particular nongrid radiograph were 400 mA, 0.02 second, and 90 kV. Another radiograph using an 8:1 grid is requested. Which of the following groups of factors is most appropriate? (A) 400 mA, 0.02 second, 110 kV (B) 200 mA, 0.08 second, 90 kV (C) 300 mA, 0.05 second, 100 kV (D) 400 mA, 0.08 second, 90 kV

(D) 400 mA, 0.08 second, 90 kV

A radiograph made with a parallel grid demonstrates decreased density on its lateral edges. This is most likely caused by: (A) static electrical discharge (B) the grid off-centered (C) improper tube angle (D) decreased SID

(D) decreased SID

The stomach of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located: (A) high, transverse, and lateral (B) low, transverse, and lateral (C) high, vertical, and toward the midline (D) low, vertical, and toward the midline

(D) low, vertical, and toward the midline

Which of the following formulas would the radiographer use to determine the total number of heat units produced with a given exposure using 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment? (A) mA × time × kV (B) mA × time × kV × 3.0 (C) mA × time × kV × 1.35 (D) mA × time × kV × 1.41

(D) mA × time × kV × 1.41

The ________ x-ray interaction is MOST common in the human body. a. Compton b. characteristic c. photoelectric d. bremsstrahlung

a. Compton

A backup timer for the automatic exposure control (AEC) serves to: a. terminate the exposure in the event of equipment or operator error. b. limit the thermal loading of the anode. c. increase inherent filtration. d. modulate tube current to reduce patient exposure.

a. terminate the exposure in the event of equipment or operator error.

There must be ___________ for current to flow. a. voltage b. a vacuum c. resistance d. potential capacitance

a. voltage

Which of the following statements correctly describes how and why technical factors MUST be changed from an anteroposterior (AP) lumbar spine to an oblique lumbar spine image? a. the abdomen becomes denser; technique must increase b. the abdomen becomes less dense; technique must decrease c. the abdomen becomes thicker; technique must increase d. the abdomen becomes less thick; technique must decrease

c. the abdomen becomes thicker; technique must increase

A reaction that causes the patient's skin to turn cyanotic means: a. the skin is turning yellow b. the skin is turning white c. the skin is turning blue d. the skin is turning red

c. the skin is turning blue

The average lifespan of an erythrocyte is ________ days. a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120

d. 120

How is the thickness of the tomographic section related to the tomographic angle? (A) the greater the tomographic angle, the thicker the section (B) the greater the tomographic angle, the thinner the section (C) the lesser the tomographic angle, the thinner the section (D) the tomographic angle is unrelated to section thickness

(B) the greater the tomographic angle, the thinner the section

Glenohumeral joint dislocation can be evaluated with which of the following? 1. inferosuperior axial 2. transthoracic lateral 3. scapular Y projection (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only

Radiographers use monitoring devices to record their monthly exposure to radiation. The types of devices suited for this purpose include: 1. pocket dosimeter 2. TLD 3. OSL (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only

The blue-green PSL that corresponds to the visible x-ray image occurs: 1. immediately upon the initial prompt emission of light 2. some time after the initial prompt emission of light 3. upon stimulation by finely focused infrared light (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only

The voltage actually used in high frequency is about: A. 99% of the kVp set on the control panel. B. 96% of the kVp set on the control panel. C. 87% of the kVp set on the control panel. D. 50% of the kVp set on the control panel.

A. 99% of the kVp set on the control panel.

Which of the following devices permits the radiographer to vary the kilovoltage in the x-ray circuit? A. Autotransformer B. Induction motor C. Rectifier D. Prereading kilovoltmeter

A. Autotransformer

X-rays produced by a cascade effect of outer shell electrons filling inner shell vacancies are a result of what interaction? A. Characteristic B. Brems C. Photoelectric D. Compton

A. Characteristic

Which photon-tissue interaction may expose radiographers during fluoroscopy? A. Compton B. Coherent C. Photoelectric interaction D. Pair production

A. Compton

The photon-tissue interaction that occurs when an outer shell electron is struck by an incident photon is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.

A. Compton.

The photon-tissue interaction that produces a recoil electron is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.

A. Compton.

Which of the following grid errors will result in an image that shows normal IR exposure in the middle but decreased IR exposure on the sides and may follow removal and replacement of the grid? A. Upside-down grid B. Off-focus grid C. Lateral decentering D. Grid-focus decentering

A. Upside-down grid

Portable radiography of a fractured bone should include two projections, one at a right angle to the other, to demonstrate: A. alignment of the fragments. B. arterial damage. C. muscle insertion sites. D. porosity.

A. alignment of the fragments.

Partial absorption of the energy of an x-ray beam as it traverses an object is called: A. attenuation. B. transmission. C. law of reduced energy. D. filtration.

A. attenuation.

This device is also known as a variable transformer: A. autotransformer. B. step-up transformer. C. step-down transformer. D. x-ray generator.

A. autotransformer.

A compound's smallest component is the: A. electron. B. molecule. C. element. D. atom.

B. molecule

Which of the following is not a property of x-rays? A. Electrically neutral B. Invisible to the human eye C. Travel at the speed of sound D. Travel as bundles of energy

C. Travel at the speed of sound

What supports and protects the x-ray tube, restricts leakage radiation during exposure, and provides electrical insulation? A. Glass envelope B. Vacuum C. Tube housing D. Grid-controlled cathode

C. Tube housing

The accuracy of collimation at a 60-inch SID must be: A. ±6 inches. B. ±3 inches. C. ±2 inches. D. ±1.2 inches.

D. ±1.2 inches.

Which of the following is a property of x-rays? A. Can be focused by collimators B. Possess wavelengths between 1 and 5 angstroms C. Have no effect on chemicals D. Travel in bundles of energy called photons

D. Travel in bundles of energy called photons

What facility design factor considers the volume and types of exams performed in the room? A. Use factor B. Shielding factor C. Volume factor D. Workload

D. Workload

A primary protective barrier of _____ lead equivalent is required for an image intensifier unit. a. 0.25 mm b. 0.5 mm c. 1.0 mm d. 2.0 mm

d. 2.0 mm

As filtration increases, the patient dose will: a. increase b. decrease c. remain the same

b. decrease

How thick are secondary protective barriers? A. 1/32-inch lead equivalent B. 1/16-inch aluminum equivalent C. 1/32-inch concrete D. 1/16-inch lead equivalent

A. 1/32-inch lead equivalent

The elbow has what type of movement? A. Hinge B. Pivot C. Saddle D. Gliding

A. Hinge

As kVp is increased, the wavelength of the x-ray photons: A. decreases. B. increases. C. remains the same. D. fluctuates.

A. decreases

The atomic number, tissue density, and tissue thickness of the part being imaged cause: A. differential absorption. B. recorded detail. C. motion. D. distortion.

A. differential absorption.

Electron flow from negative to positive is: A. electric current. B. electromotive force. C. potential difference. D. resistance

A. electric current.

By increasing the mA control on the operating console of the x-ray machine, the radiographer can increase the: A. number of electrons boiled off the filament. B. length of time that electrons take to cross the tube gap. C. energy of the electrons crossing the gap. D. wavelength of the x-rays produced.

A. number of electrons boiled off the filament.

To prolong the life of the x-ray tube, all of the following procedures should be followed except: A. preheat anode with a single high-mA, high-kVp, longtime exposure. B. minimize rotor depression time. C. sequence exams so that the view requiring the largest exposure is first. D. keep heat units to a minimum.

A. preheat anode with a single high-mA, high-kVp, longtime exposure.

Compared with conventional radiography, computed radiography exhibits: A. wider exposure latitude. B. narrower exposure latitude. C. a "noisier" image. D. no quantum mottle.

A. wider exposure latitude.

With automatic exposure control (AEC) techniques, the radiographer must consider: 1. the position of the part relative to the AEC sensor. 2. minimal response time of the AEC unit. 3. mAs value needed A. 1 only. B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Transformer that decreases voltage from the primary to the secondary coil and increases current in the same proportion; it has more turns in the primary coil than in the secondary coil; it is used in the filament portion of the x-ray circuit to increase current flow to the cathode. This is the: A. rectifier. B. step-down transformer. C. autotransformer. D. step-up transformer.

B. step-down transformer.

The function of the autotransformer is to: A. vary the voltage going to the primary coil of the step-down transformer. B. vary the voltage going to the primary coil of the step-up transformer. C. vary the voltage going to the primary coil of the rheostat. D. change current from AC to DC.

B. vary the voltage going to the primary coil of the step-up transformer

According to government regulations, the x-ray beam must be within ________ degree(s) of perpendicular. a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 10

a. 1

if CPR is not started within ______ of cardiac arrest, there will be brain damage due to lack of oxygen.. a. 1 - 3 minutes. B. 4 to 6 minutes. c. 7 to 10 minutes. D. 15 minutes

a. 1 - 3 minutes.

Types of inflammatory bowel disease include: 1. crohn's disease 2. ulcerative colitis 3. intussusception a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

The kinetic energy deposited per unit mass of air from an x-ray beam is measured by: a. absorbed dose. b. equivalent dose. c. air kerma. d. exposure.

c. air kerma.

A technologist notices that a co-worker selects exposure factors for a patient's examination that are much higher than indicated by department protocol or technique charts. The technologist should: a. defer to a more senior technologist's experience and do not say anything. b. go immediately to the department supervisor and suggest an investigation. c. talk to the technologist about why those exposure factors were chosen and express concern about overexposing the patient. d. express concern to other technologists in the department.

c. talk to the technologist about why those exposure factors were chosen and express concern about overexposing the patient.

The effective focal spot size is affected by which of the following? a. anode rotation speed b. filament composition c. target angle d. anode heel effect

c. target angle

Which of the following will NOT affect the effective focal spot size? a. filament size b. anode angle c. target material d. actual focal spot size

c. target material

The portion of the anode that stops the stream of electrons during x-ray production is the: a. rotor. b. stem. c. target. d. focusing cup.

c. target.

The major differences between a 200 speed screen and a 400 speed screen is which of the following? a. size of phosphor b. shape of phosphor c. thickness of phosphor layer d. color of reflective light

c. thickness of phosphor layer

After the radiographer is gowned and gloved for a procedure, hands may not be placed: a. anywhere on the body because the gown and gloves are sterile b. anywhere on the front of sides of the gown. c. anywhere on the table containing the sterile field d. under the arms or on the side or back of the gown

d. under the arms or on the side or back of the gown

Pathologic microorganisms spread by direct or close contact include 1. MRSA 2. Conjunctivitis 3. Rotavirus a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

The increase in brightness caused by acceleration of the electrons in the image intensifier is called: A. flux gain. B. minification gain. C. total brightness gain. D. image gain.

A. flux gain.

An image with many gray tones is referred to as: A. low contrast. B. poor detail. C. low distortion. D. high contrast.

A. low contrast.

What is a major benefit of a fixed kVp technique chart? a. adequate part penetration b. decreased exposure latitude c. increased tube loading d. increase in patient exposure

a. adequate part penetration

The area on the image that represents: Lateral mass of atlas

2

Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the: (A) lateral projection (B) PA axial (Caldwell method) projection (C) parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection (D) AP axial (Towne method) projection

(C) parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection

When a patient is received in the radiology department with a urinary Foley catheter bag, it is important to: (A) place the drainage bag above the level of the bladder (B) place the drainage bag at the same level as the bladder (C) place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder (D) clamp the Foley catheter

(C) place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder

What is meant by the term controlled area? 1. one that is occupied by people trained in radiation safety 2. one that is occupied by people who wear radiation monitors 3. one whose occupancy factor is 1 (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following factor(s) is (are) important in determining thickness of protective barriers? 1. distance between x-ray source and barrier 2. occupancy factor time 3. workload (mA-min/wk) (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following factors impacts radiation damage to biologic tissue? 1. radiation quality 2. absorbed dose 3. size of irradiated area (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following refer(s) to the patient's right to privacy? 1. patient modesty must be preserved 2. patient dignity must be respected 3. patient confidentiality must be respected (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Shape distortion can be: 1. minimized with perpendicular beam projections. 2. elongated with tube-angled projections. 3. foreshortened with tube-angled projections. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is not a property of x-rays? A. Electrically negative B. Invisible to the human eye C. Travel at the speed of light D. Travel as bundles of energy

A. Electrically negative

The overall exposure to the image receptor is affected by patient anatomy through its variation of: 1. atomic number. 2. tissue thickness. 3. tissue density. A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is equivalent to the speed of light in a vacuum? 1. 3 × 108 meters per second 2. 3 × 1010 cm per second 3. 186,000 miles per second A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

The focusing cup is located at the: A. cathode. B. anode. C. x-ray tube window. D. control panel.

A. cathode.

Structures seen outside of the collimated area on a radiograph, produced by "off-focus" (extra focal) radiation, are the result of: A. electron interaction within the x-ray tube at a point other than the focal spot. B. scatter radiation emanating from the patient or tabletop. C. the use of an SID not recommended with the grid in use. D. the x-ray tube positioned off center to the grid.

A. electron interaction within the x-ray tube at a point other than the focal spot.

Magnification may be caused by: A. excessive OID. B. long SID. C. small focal spot. D. high kVp.

A. excessive OID.

Beam restrictors reduce the amount of scatter produced by reducing which of the following? A. Characteristic rays B. Photoelectric effect C. Compton interactions D. Pair production

C. Compton interactions

When acquiring a PA axial projection of the scaphoid using the Stecher method and a perpendicular central ray, the finger end of the image receptor is elevated: a. 15°. b. 20°. c. 25°. d. 30°.

b. 20°.

Which of the following statements are true regarding the function of kVp? As kVp is increased: 1. Speed of electrons will increase. 2. Percentage of electrons converting their energy to x-ray photons will increase. 3. Frequency of the x-ray wavelength will increase. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Some proteins in latex can produce mild-to-severe allergic reactions. Which of the following medical equipment could contain latex? 1. stethoscopes 2. enema tips 3. bed linen 4. disposable needles 5. bedpans 6. syringes A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 4, 5, and 6 C. 2, 4 and 5 D. 1, 2, and 6

D. 1, 2, and 6

What is the thickness of a thyroid shield that should be worn during fluoroscopy? A. 0.10-mm lead equivalent B. 0.50-mm lead equivalent C. 0.50-mm aluminum equivalent D. 0.10-mm aluminum equivalent

B. 0.50-mm lead equivalent

Following single-phase full-wave rectification, the waveform contains two pulses per cycle, or: A. 60 pulses per second. B. 120 pulses per second. C. 2 pulses per second. D. 360 pulses per second.

B. 120 pulses per second.

400 speed rare earth screens require how much less radiation than 200 speed rare earth screens? ​ A. 25% less ​ B. 50% less ​ C. 100% less ​ D. 200% less

B. 50% less

Normal BUN levels for a young adult range from: A. 2 to 6 mg/dl. B. 7 to 18 mg/dl. C. 20 to 32 mg/dl. D. 40 to 63 mg/dl.

B. 7 to 18 mg/dl.

The voltage actually used in three-phase, 12-pulse units is about: A. 99% of the kVp set on the control panel. B. 96% of the kVp set on the control panel. C. 87% of the kVp set on the control panel. D. 50% of the kVp set on the control panel.

B. 96% of the kVp set on the control panel.

How thick are primary protective barriers? A. 1/32-inch lead equivalent B. 1/16-inch aluminum equivalent C. 1/32-inch concrete D. 1/16-inch lead equivalent

D. 1/16-inch lead equivalent

How thick is the secondary protective barrier used in room shielding required to be? A. 1/32-inch aluminum equivalent B. 1/16-inch concrete equivalent C. 1/16-inch lead equivalent D. 1/32-inch lead equivalent

D. 1/32-inch lead equivalent

Which of the following are well visualized by a double-contrast barium enema? A. Peptic ulcers B. Colon polyps C. G.I. bleeders D. Hemorrhoids

B. Colon polyps

Which of the following would best help reduce radiation exposure to the radiographer? A. Increasing kilovoltage peak (kVp) B. Increasing distance from the x-ray tube C. Increasing the focal spot size (FSS) D. Providing detailed instructions to the patient

B. Increasing distance from the x-ray tube

Which of the following vessels transports blood from the abdomen back to the heart? A. Superior vena cava B. Inferior vena cava C. Superior mesenteric vein D. Inferior mesenteric vein

B. Inferior vena cava

Which of the following surrounds a current running through a conductor? A. Alpha particles B. Magnetic field C. Insulator D. Circuit

B. Magnetic field

The relationship between mAs and density is governed by what law or rule? A. Ohm's law B. Reciprocity law C. Inverse law D. Power equation

B. Reciprocity law

The larger the actual focal spot, the greater the heat capacity; the smaller the effective focal spot, the greater the spatial resolution. This is called: A. anode heel effect. B. line-focus principle. C. magnification technique. D. dual-focus tube.

B. line-focus principle.

Attenuation may be defined as: A. radiation that emerges from the patient. B. changes in the x-ray beam as it travels through the patient. C. interactions that only produce scatter radiation. D. interactions that only occur at doses used in radiation therapy.

B. changes in the x-ray beam as it travels through the patient.

The result of thermionic emission is a(n): A. recoil electron. B. electron cloud. C. scattered photon. D. characteristic photon.

B. electron cloud.

The study of stationary electric charges is: A. electromagnetism. B. electrostatics. C. electrification. D. electrodynamics.

B. electrostatics.

The rotation of the target is stopped by a braking action provided by the: A. anode. B. induction motor that spins the anode. C. induction motor that controls the cathode. D. collimator.

B. induction motor that spins the anode.

what is the average pulse rate for an adult? A. 32 to40. B. 50 to 60. C. 70 to 80 D. 90 to 99

C. 70 to 80 beats per minute

Magnification may be caused by: A. short OID. B. short SID. C. small focal spot. D. large focal spot.

B. short SID.

The intensity of the scattered beam is 1/1000th the intensity of the primary beam at what angle from the patient? A. 45-degree B. 180-degree C. 90-degree D. 25-degree

C. 90-degree

Single-phase full-wave rectification produces what percentage of ripple? A. 13 B. 4 C. 1 D. 100

D. 100

The relationship between kVp and IR exposure is governed by what rule or law? A. Reciprocity law B. Inverse square law C. 15% rule D. Ohm's law

C. 15% rule

for a patient with IV Therapy, how high above the vein should the container or solution be kept? a. As high as possible. B. 10 to 12 inches. C. 18 to 20 inches. D. 28 to 30 inches

C. 18 to 20 inches.

Given an original technique of 10 mAs and 70 kVp, which of the following will produce a radiograph with double the receptor exposure? A. 20 mAs, 80 kVp B. 30 mAs, 92 kVp C. 20 mAs, 70 kVp D. 15 mAs, 82 kVp

C. 20 mAs, 70 kVp

What new kVp is needed to halve IR exposure if the original kVp is 80? A. 75 B. 60 C. 68 D. 72

C. 68

To what height must in-wall primary protective barriers extend? A. 4 feet B. 10 feet C. 7 feet D. 12 feet

C. 7 feet

Grid focusing distance is associated with which of the following? ​ A. Grid ratio ​ B. Lines per inch ​ C. Focused grids ​ D. Parallel grids

C. Focused grids

which of the following diseases is not considered communicable? a. Pneumonia. B. Tuberculosis. C. Gastritis. D. Hepatitis.

C. Gastritis.

Grid ratio is expressed by the equation: A. D/H. B. H & D. C. H/D. D. H D.

C. H/D.

digoxin is associated with a treatment of which of the following? A. Cancer. B. Barbituate poisoning. C. Heart failure. D. Asthma

C. Heart failure

The process of causing an electric current to flow in a conductor when it is placed within the force field of another conductor describes: A. electromagnetism. B. electrodynamics. C. sine waves. D. electromagnetic induction.

D. electromagnetic induction.

This causes anatomic structures to appear longer on the image than in reality: A. magnification. B. minification. C. foreshortening. D. elongation

D. elongation

In which of the abdominal regions will the duodenum be located? A. Hypogastric B. Epigastric C. Umbilical D. Left hypochondriac

C. Umbilical

medication reconciliation refers to: a. Not giving a patient medication if it is not the right one for the exam. B. determining whether the medications a patient is taking are the right ones for the exam. C. reviewing the medications a patient is taking and determining if there are any concerns for administering contrast media. d. all of the above

C. reviewing the medications a patient is taking and determining if there are any concerns for administering contrast media.

Electromagnetic radiation travels: A. in curves. B. in straight lines. C. as waves in straight lines. D. at the speed of sound.

C. as waves in straight lines.

The feature of the image intensifier that automatically adjusts kVp and mAs during fluoroscopy is the: A. photocathode. B. electron-focusing lens. C. automatic gain control. D. automatic exposure control.

C. automatic gain control.

Some x-ray tubes use the focusing cup as an electronic grid that can turn the current on and off rapidly, allowing for very short and precise exposure times such as those needed for rapid serial exposures. These x-ray tubes are referred to as: A. trielectrode tubes. B. dual-focus tubes. C. grid-controlled tubes. D. cathode ray tubes.

C. grid-controlled tubes.

What stage of grieving is the terminally ill patient when he/she begins to deal with his/her pain and illness? a. Anger stage b. Acceptance stage c. Depression stage d. Bargaining stage

b. Acceptance stage

The suffix "-tomy" means: A. inspection. B. inflammation. C. incision. D. enlargement

C. incision.

Atoms with the same number of protons but with a different number of neutrons are called: A. stable. B. ions. C. isotopes. D. radicals.

C. isotopes.

A grid error in which exposure is decreased across the entire radiograph is caused by: A. high kVp. B. lateral decentering. C. off-level grid. D. grid-focus decentering.

C. off-level grid.

which of the following conditions would be considered "hard to penetrate? A. emphysema. B. osteoporosis. C. osteosclerosis D. Pneumothorax

C. osteosclerosis

Over time, filaments will vaporize and coat the inner surface of the x-ray tube with: A. gold. B. silver. C. tungsten. D. platinum.

C. tungsten.

The photocathode of the image intensification tube will convert: A. x-ray photons into visible light. B. electrons into visible light. C. visible light into electrons. D. electrons into x-ray photons.

C. visible light into electrons.

In computed radiography, each pixel corresponds to a shade of gray representing an area in the patient known as a(n): A. pathology. B. detector element. C. voxel. D. artifact.

C. voxel.

What condition occurs secondary to heart failure or interference with heart function? a. anaphylaxis b. cardiogenic shock c. hypovolemic shock d. septic shock

b. cardiogenic shock

The tangential projection, or Gaynor-Hart method, of the wrist evaluates the: a. carpal bridge. b. carpal canal. c. trapezium. d. styloid tip of the radius.

b. carpal canal.

An image produced by using a horizontal beam is useful in the evaluation of 1. fluid-filled sinuses. 2. free air in the abdomen taken with the left side of the patient superior and the right side inferior. 3. free air in the abdomen taken with the right side of the patient superior and the left side inferior. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

What is the annual effective absorbed dose equivalent limit for the general public (frequent exposure)? A. 0.1 mSv B. 500 mSv C. 0.05 Sv D. 1 mSv

D. 1 mSv

A clinical history can be a significant factor in the formulation of an x-ray technique because: 1. centimeter measurements may be misleading. 2. pathology may affect the absorption of x radiation. 3. contrast and density limitations are often the result of pathologic conditions A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

A picture archiving and communication system may involve which of the following? 1. Hospital information system 2. Digital images 3. Radiology information system A. 2 B. 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Geometric unsharpness within the radiographic image can be minimized by using the: 1. smallest focal spot. 2. shortest OID. 3. longest SID. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Matter: 1. has form. 2. has shape. 3. occupies space. A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Postprocessing image manipulation in computed radiography allows for which of the following? 1. Black/white reversal 2. Contrast and edge enhancement 3. Subtraction A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

A line between the acanthion and the external auditory meatus is known as what? A. Glabellomeatal line B. Mentomeatal line C. Alveolar line D. Acanthiomeatal line

D. Acanthiomeatal line

Grids are made up of lead strips alternated with what type of interspacers? A. Lead B. Cardboard C. Tungsten D. Aluminum

D. Aluminum

what is the definition of a fomite? A. An insect. B. A method of sterilization. C. A small animal. D. An item to which microorganisms cling.

D. An item to which microorganisms cling.

This diagram illustrates which of the following? A. Line-focus principle B. Cathode heel effect C. Emission spectrum D. Anode heel effect

D. Anode heel effect

an unconscious patient whose skin is dry and has a fruity odor on his or her breath is a classic example of what? a. Drunkenness. B. Insulin shock. C. Diabetes. D. Diabetic coma.

D. Diabetic coma.

When kVp is decreased, which of the following happens? A. receptor exposure increases B. Contrast decreases C. Spatial resolution decreases D. Contrast increases

D. Contrast increases

What are highly reactive ions with unpaired outer shell electrons called? A. Electrified B. Radiolytic C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Free radicals

D. Free radicals

Which of the following bones has a coronoid process? A. Frontal bone B. Temporal bone C. Occipital bone D. Mandible

D. Mandible

What imaging modality uses the unit of measurement known as the Bq? A. Computed radiography B. Direct digital radiography C. Sonography D. Nuclear medicine

D. Nuclear medicine

An x-ray machine that makes maximum use of heat loading potential uses a(n): A. ionization chamber. B. phototimer. C. automatic exposure control (AEC). D. falling load generator.

D. falling load generator.

Grid conversion factor (Bucky factor) is described as the: A. height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips. B. distance between the lead strips divided by the height of the lead strips. C. number of lead strips per inch or centimeter. D. amount of exposure increase necessary to compensate for the absorption of image-forming rays and scatter in the cleanup process.

D. amount of exposure increase necessary to compensate for the absorption of image-forming rays and scatter in the cleanup process.

Electrons in motion in a conductor are called: A. potential energy. B. heat energy. C. ionizing. D. current.

D. current.

An opening is described as a: A. fossa. B. groove. C. sulcus. D. foramen.

D. foramen.

The filtration needed to attenuate the intensity of the beam by half is called: A. tenth-value layer. B. kVp reduced layer. C. inherent filtration. D. half-value layer.

D. half-value layer.

Grid ratio is expressed as: A. length of the lead strips to the space between them. B. height of the aluminum strips to the space between them. C. height of the interspacers to the lead strips. D. height of the lead strips to the space between them

D. height of the lead strips to the space between them

As mAs is increased, receptor exposure: A. decreases. B. increases. C. remains the same. D. increases in the same amount.

D. increases in the same amount.

When calculating heat units for three-phase, six-pulse equipment, which equation is used? A. kVp × mAs × 2.00 B. kVp × mAs × 1.41 C. kVp × mAs × 1.00 D. kVp × mAs × 1.35

D. kVp × mAs × 1.35

Decreased sharpness caused by x-rays emanating from a larger area of the anode is a result of: A. too long of an OID. B. too short of an SID. C. small focal-spot size. D. large focal-spot size.

D. large focal-spot size.

A digital image may be printed on to film using a: A. high-resolution dot matrix printer. B. photon transfer imager. C. flux capacitor. D. laser camera.

D. laser camera.

The word root "hepat" means: A. stomach. B. pancreas. C. spleen. D. liver.

D. liver.

Increased OID causes image: A. minification. B. foreshortening. C. elongation. D. magnification.

D. magnification.

Size distortion is also called: A. minification. B. elongation. C. foreshortening. D. magnification.

D. magnification.

Inducing current flow in a secondary coil by varying the current flow through a primary coil describes: A. electromagnetism. B. electrodynamics. C. self-induction. D. mutual induction.

D. mutual induction.

Increasing the kVp of an x-ray beam will result in the photons having: A. longer wavelength. B. increased velocity. C. lower frequency. D. shorter wavelength

D. shorter wavelength

A half-value layer test is performed to determine the x-ray beam's: A. mAs reproducibility characteristics. B. resolution characteristics. C. rectification characteristics. D. penetrability characteristics.

D. penetrability characteristics.

If SID is halved, what may be said about radiographic receptor exposure? A. Density doubles B. receptor exposure is reduced by half C. receptor exposure is reduced by one half of the mAs D. receptor exposure is quadrupled

D. receptor exposure is quadrupled

The device that makes use of solid-state, silicon-based diodes is the: A. transformer. B. cathode. C. anode. D. rectifier.

D. rectifier.

Grids: A. increase the amount of scatter produced. B. increase the amount of scatter reaching the IR. C. reduce the amount of scatter produced. D. reduce the amount of scatter reaching the IR.

D. reduce the amount of scatter reaching the IR.

This type of transformer increases voltage from the primary to the secondary coil and decreases current in the same proportion; it has more turns in the secondary than in the primary coil; it is used in the x-ray circuit to increase voltage to the kilovoltage level for x-ray production. This is the: A. rectifier. B. step-down transformer. C. autotransformer. D. step-up transformer.

D. step-up transformer.

This changes electric voltage and current into higher or lower values and operates on the principle of mutual induction, so it requires alternating current. This is called the: A. rectifier. B. autotransformer. C. timer. D. transformer.

D. transformer.

Which of the following causes the most repeated images in an all-digital imaging department? a. motion b. positioning errors c. under and over exposed images d. poor contrast

b. positioning errors

For upright chest and abdominal examinations of pediatric patients up to about 3 years old, radiographers often use: a. a Pigg-O-Stat. b. thermoplastic mesh. c. a Gill-Thomas-Cosman system. d. foam wedges and Velcro straps.

a. a Pigg-O-Stat.

The MOST common subcutaneous sites for drug injections are the: a. abdomen and outer thighs. b. outer thighs and deltoid muscle. c. deltoid muscle and abdomen. d. gluteal folds and outer thighs.

a. abdomen and outer thighs.

Which three of the following are types of filtration found in the x-ray imaging system? (select three) a. added b. inherent c. lead d. aluminum

a. added b. inherent d. aluminum

Which of the following techniques may be used to distend the larynx and trachea with air during a lateral projection of the neck? a. Valsalva maneuver b. full inspiration c. Trendelenburg position d. weights to draw the shoulders down

a. Valsalva maneuver

Which of the following is NOT a property of x-rays? a. X-rays have mass. b. X-rays can interact with matter. c. X-rays can act like a particle. d. X-rays are electrically neutral.

a. X-rays have mass.

Air must not be injected when performing venipuncture because: a. An air embolus would form and may become fatal to the patient b. most examinations requiring injection are not air contrast studies c. It would interfere with the iodine. d. it would prevent visualization of the iodine

a. An air embolus would form and may become fatal to the patient

The speed at which the anode rotates in the rotating anode x-ray tube can be: 1. 3000 rpm 2. 10 000 rpm 3. 15 000 rpm a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3

a. 1 and 2

The standard of ethics is made up of: 1. code of ethics 2. rules of ethics 3. patient's bill of rights 4. patient care partnership a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2 and 4 c. 2, 3, and 4 d. 3 and 4

a. 1 and 2

Which two of the following precautions should be used when microbes are transmitted in air or dust particles? 1. droplet precautions 2. airborne precautions 3. contact precautions 4. vector precautions a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 3 and 4

a. 1 and 2

If medication needs to be ordered for a patient in the radiology department, a physician always: 1. Chooses the drug and the dosage 2. selects the route of administration 3. administers the drug. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

a. 1 and 2 only

A light radiograph may be caused by which of the following? 1. Grid cutoff 2. SID too low 3. Grid ratio too low a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 & 3 only

a. 1 only

How does magnification affect image quality? 1. Decreases spatial resolution 2. Decreases receptor exposure 3. Lowers contrast a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2, & 3

a. 1 only

The AP axial projection of the cervical spine demonstrates which of the following? 1. C3-C7 cervical bodies 2. intervertebral foramina 3. zygapophyseal joints a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

a. 1 only

Why is contrast needed in a radiographic image? 1. Makes detail visible 2. Increases sharpness of detail 3. Decreases need for distortion a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 & 2 only

a. 1 only

Which of the following statements are true concerning valid (informed) consent? 1. patient muse be of legal age 2. patient must be given a brochure describing the risks of the procedure in lay terms 3. consent must be offered voluntarily 4. patient must be mentally competent 5. patient must completely understand all aspects of the procedure: a. 1, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 c. 1, 2, 3, 4 d, 1, 2, 3, 5

a. 1, 3, 4

For an AP projection of the ribs above the diaphragm, which of the following statements is true? 1. The top of the image receptor is placed 1 to 2 inches above the shoulders 2. The shoulders are relaxed, and the scapulae are flat against the table. 3. The central ray is directed to T7 4. Exposure is performed on full expiration to depress the diaphragm a. 1,3 b. 1,2,3,4 c. 1,2,3 d. 1,3,4

a. 1,3

Of the following, a whole-body radiation exposure of 2 Gy over a period of ________ would be MOST hazardous to an individual. a. 10 seconds b. 10 hours c. 10 days d. 10 weeks

a. 10 seconds

The electricity provided to the radiology department operates at: a. 120 pulses per second b. 60 pulses per second c. 110 pulses per second d. 220 pulses per second

a. 120 pulses per second

What is the annual dose equivalent limit for the lens of the eye for occupational workers? a. 150 millisieverts (mSv) b. 50 millisieverts (mSv) c. 250 millisieverts (mSv) d. 500 millisieverts (mSv)

a. 150 millisieverts (mSv)

The vertebral/neural arch is formed by the 1. articular processes 2. pedicles 3. laminae 4. transverse processes 5. vertebral body a. 2 and 3 only b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2, 3, and 5 d. 2, 3, and 4

a. 2 and 3 only

For an upright abdomen, the central ray should be placed on the midsagittal plane and: a. 2 inches above the iliac crests. b. at the level of the iliac crests. c. 2 inches below the iliac crests. d. at the level of the axillae.

a. 2 inches above the iliac crests.

The central ray entrance point for an AP oblique projection, or Grashey method, of the shoulder is: a. 2 inches medial and 2 inches inferior to the superolateral border of the scapula. b. at the coracoid process. c. 1 inch inferior to the coracoid process. d. at the acromion.

a. 2 inches medial and 2 inches inferior to the superolateral border of the scapula.

According to National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurement (NCRP) guidelines, a medical x-ray tube must include aluminum equivalent filtration equal to a minimum of: a. 2.5 mm b. 2.0 mm c. 3.5 mm d. 0.25 mm

a. 2.5 mm

The radiation used during a surgical procedure resulted in entrance skin exposure of 70 milligrays (mGy). The technologist collimated to an area of 6 centimeters (cm) by 8 cm during the procedure. What is the dose area product (DAP) for the exam? a. 3360 mGy-cm^2 b. 5250 mGy-cm^2 c. 3300 mGy-cm^2 d. 3306 mGy-cm^2

a. 3360 mGy-cm^2

All of the following are within acceptable kVp accuracy variance for an exposure using 80 kVp EXCEPT FOR ________ kVp. a. 86 b. 84 c. 82 d. 76

a. 86

If someone needs to hold a patient during a radiographic procedure, who should be asked? a. The patient's family member b. Another technologist c. A student d. A nurse's aide

a. The patient's family member

For conventional fluoroscopy, the light intensities must be converted by the ________ to be viewed on a television monitor. a. CCD b. electrostatic lenses c. output phosphor d. focal point

a. CCD

Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. High linear energy transfer (LET) radiation has a high relative biological effectiveness (RBE). b. Low LET radiation has a high RBE. c. Low RBE radiation has a high LET. d. LET and RBE have no correlation to each other.

a. High linear energy transfer (LET) radiation has a high relative biological effectiveness (RBE).

Identify the structure that is represented by the number 22 a. Intervertebral dis space of L3-L4 b. vertebral body of L2 c. Sacroiliac joint d. spinous process of L3

a. Intervertebral dis space of L3-L4

The amount of energy deposited by radiation per unit length of tissue being traversed is: a. LET, which determines the use of a W(r) when the equivalent dose is being calculated b. Linear energy transfer c. higher for wave radiations than for particulate radiations d. LET, which is expressed as a W(r) when absorbed dose is being calculated

a. LET, which determines the use of a W(r) when the equivalent dose is being calculated

The ________ position BEST demonstrates the right sacroiliac joint. a. LPO b. RPO c. LAO d. right lateral

a. LPO

Which of the following controls contrast in a digital system? a. Look-up table b. Histogram c. High-frequency laser d. Analog-to-digital converter

a. Look-up table

Fog will have the greatest adverse effect on which of the following? a. Low brightness areas of the image b. Middle range brightness areas of the image c. High brightness areas of the image d. Maximum brightness areas of the image

a. Low brightness areas of the image

Which of the following is FALSE about Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)? a. MSDS information should be provided to patients near hazardous material storage. b. MSDS information is on file and should be available and accessible to all personnel. c. MSDS information indicates the required equipment and procedure for safe handling in the event of a spill. d. MSDS information is required by OSHA.

a. MSDS information should be provided to patients near hazardous material storage.

How well an imaging system reproduces the actual object is referred to as what? a. Modulation transfer function b. Resolving power c. Lines per inch d. Linear image transfer

a. Modulation transfer function

How should used needles be disposed of? a. Placed, uncapped, in a sharp container b. Placed, recapped, in a sharps container c. Placed, recapped, in a red trash bag d. Placed, uncapped, in a red trash bag

a. Placed, uncapped, in a sharp container

How will the use of radiographic grids affect the contrast of an image? a. Produce higher contrast b. Produce lower contrast c. Eliminate contrast d. Have no effect on contrast

a. Produce higher contrast

Which of the following occurs when the imaging plate or flat-panel detector is grossly overexposed? a. Saturation b. Intensification c. Dynamic quantum d. Dynamic inefficiency

a. Saturation

What are the two types of distortion that can reduce the quality of a radiograph? a. Size and shape b. Size and contrast c. Receptor exposure and contrast d. Long and short

a. Size and shape

The ability of a digital system to display details (expressed as the number of line pairs per millimeter) is known as what? a. Spatial resolution b. Quality assurance c. Detail factor d. Finite factor

a. Spatial resolution

Which of the following would be considered an example of negative non-verbal communication? a. Standing with your arms crossed b. Eye contact c. Leaning toward patient when talking d. A smile

a. Standing with your arms crossed

Which of the following may be used for 3 months at a time? a. TLD b. film badge c. pocket ionization chamber d. geiger-mueller detector

a. TLD

A 70-year-old man is scheduled for pelvic radiography. He is in a wheelchair and the patient tells the technologist that he can move from the wheelchair to the table with the radiographer's assistance. This type of transfer is called: a. an assisted standing pivot transfer. b. a standby assist transfer. c. the 2-person lift. d. hydraulic lift assist.

a. an assisted standing pivot transfer.

If a technologist notices an occurrence such as an accident or emergency in a health care facility that could be potentially harmful to a patient, staff, or visitors, the technologist should immediately: a. assist the person affected. b. notify a supervisor. c. fill out an incidence report and record the event in the patient's chart. d. ensure that other individuals do not repeat the occurrence.

a. assist the person affected.

While performing intravenous drug injections, it is necessary to decrease the angle of the needle once a flashback is seen in the intravenous catheter to a. avoid passing through the vein. b. avoid puncturing a vein. c. stabilize the vein. d. release pressure on the vein.

a. avoid passing through the vein.

The ________ vein is BEST suited for venipuncture. a. basilic b. popliteal c. femoral d. right internal jugular

a. basilic

The formula 2n represents a. bit depth. b. pixel size. c. field of view. d. matrix size.

a. bit depth.

The ________ of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with the heads of the ribs. a. bodies b. laminae c. pedicles d. transverse processes

a. bodies

If fluoroscopic equipment does not automatically report radiation exposure, which two of the following should be documented? (select two) a. cumulative exposure time b. the number of images taken c. the amount of contrast media used d. the calculations of dose area product (DAP)

a. cumulative exposure time b. the number of images taken

Which of the following may alert fluoroscopic x-ray production after a preset period of time? a. cumulative timer b. deadman switch c. cumulative dose timer d. fluorescent timer

a. cumulative timer

The use of intensifying screens will have which of the following effects? a. decrease patient exposure b. decrease contrast c. decrease density d. decrease radiographic fog

a. decrease patient exposure

Increasing diagnostic filtration results in which of the following? a. decreased patient dose b. increased contrast c. increased image receptor exposure d. decreased spatial resolution

a. decreased patient dose

The total of air kerma over the exposed area of the patient is called: a. dose area product b. mean marrow dose c. genetically significant dose d. total patient dose

a. dose area product

Personnel dosimeters are worn for which three of the following reasons? (select three) a. evaluate radiation safety practices b. evaluate risk of radiation-induced conditions c. evaluate deterministic or tissue reaction risks d. measure patient exposure to ionizing radiation

a. evaluate radiation safety practices b. evaluate risk of radiation-induced conditions c. evaluate deterministic or tissue reaction risks

An RPO position poorly demonstrates the lumbar zygapophyseal articulations and the pedicles are seen on posterior portion of the vertebral body. What does that indicate? a. excessive rotation b. insufficient rotation c. pelvic tilt d. correct positioning

a. excessive rotation

A reaction at the site of injection of iodinated contrast media may be caused by: a. extravasation of contrast agent b. allergy to seafood c. anaphylaxis d. allergy to certain medications

a. extravasation of contrast agent

The thickness of a half-value layer (HVL) is dependent on which two of the following? (select two) a. filter material b. energy of the x-ray beam c. source-to-image distance (SID) d. milliamperage

a. filter material b. energy of the x-ray beam

Which of the following radiography equipment features is designed to eliminate unnecessary radiation exposure to the patient? a. filtration b. minimum source-to-skin distance (SSD) of 30 inches c. tube window d. light localized collimation

a. filtration

Which of the following influence the fluoroscopic tabletop exposure rate? (select three) a. filtration b. kilovoltage peak (kVp) c. target-to-panel distance d. position of the table

a. filtration b. kilovoltage peak (kVp) c. target-to-panel distance

The ________ detector consists of a thin-film transistor array. a. flat-panel b. photostimulable phosphor plate (PSP) c. charge coupled device (CCD) d. complementary metal-oxide semidonductor (CMOS)

a. flat-panel

Which of the following is the most effective method for achieving medical asepsis? a. frequent handwashing b. having employees in perfect health c. changing linen after every patient d. cleaning the x-ray table often

a. frequent handwashing

How should the scrub be performed when preparing a patient's skin for a special procedure? a. from the center out b. from the outside in c. right to left d. top to bottom

a. from the center out

The unit of measurement for absorbed dose is the: a. gray. b. sievert. c. becquerel. d. coulomb/kg.

a. gray.

The height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips defines which of the following? a. grid ratio b. grid focusing distance c. grid frequency d. grid tolerance

a. grid ratio

Which of the following is true in regard to grid use in fluoroscopy? a. grid ratios used in fluoroscopy are generally lower than common radiographic grid ratios b. grid ratios used in fluoroscopy are generally higher than common radiographic grid ratios c. grid ratios used in fluoroscopy are generally the same as those used in radiography d. grids are not used in fluoroscopy due to a decreased production of scatter radiation.

a. grid ratios used in fluoroscopy are generally lower than common radiographic grid ratios

The thickness of a material needed to decrease the intensity of an x-ray beam by 50% of its original value is termed the: a. half-value layer b. half-life c. inverse square law d. direct square law

a. half-value layer

What effect will decreased collimation (larger exposure field) have on the patient's effective dose when using a fixed technique? a. increases patient effective dose b. decreases patient effective dose c. directly related to patient effective dose d. not related to patient effective dose

a. increases patient effective dose

A technologist acquires an image without a primary beam restrictor, and then repeats the image using the device. To maintain exposure to the image receptor for the second image, the technologist must modify the technical factors by: a. increasing technique. b. increasing source-to-image distance (SID). c. increasing focal spot size. d. increasing object-to-image distance (OID).

a. increasing technique.

Filtration affects the primary beam by: a. increasing the average energy of the primary beam. b. decreasing the average energy of the primary beam. c. making the primary beam more penetrating. d. increasing the intensity of the primary beam.

a. increasing the average energy of the primary beam.

What is a body tissue called that dies due to lack of blood supply? a. infarct b. thrombus c. embolism d. hemorrhage

a. infarct

The purpose of a "Do Not Resuscitate" (DNR) order is to prevent the: a. initiation of CPR. b. insertion of a feeding tube. c. continuation of a patient's course of treatment. d. insertion of a central venous line.

a. initiation of CPR.

Radiodermatitis is a local tissue effect of the ________ system. a. integumentary b. gastrointestinal c. hematopoietic d. central nervous

a. integumentary

Exposure required without screens divided by exposure required with screens defines which of the following? a. intensification factor b. reciprocity ratio c. image intensification d. resolving ratio

a. intensification factor

Which of the following urography examinations demonstrates the physiologic function of the urinary system? a. intravenous urography b. percutaneous antegrade pyelography c. retrograde urography d. cystography

a. intravenous urography

The prolapse of one part of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract into the lumen of an adjacent part of the GI tract is known as: a. intussusception. b. volvulus. c. diverticulosis. d. ileus.

a. intussusception.

What law describes the relationship between absorbed dose and the distance from a radiation source? a. inverse square law b. direct square law c. reciprocity law d. radiosensivity law

a. inverse square law

The ejection of an electron from an atom or molecule is known as: a. ionization. b. trephination. c. excitation. d. polymerization.

a. ionization.

All of the following affect the spatial resolution of an image EXCEPT FOR: a. kVp. b. part size. c. tube angle. d. SID.

a. kVp.

The quality, wavelength, and frequency of the x-ray photon is controlled by the: a. kVp. b. mAs. c. tube current. d. filament circuit.

a. kVp.

What is the purpose of primary beam restriction? (select all that apply) a. keep the amount of tissue irradiation to a minimum b. improve image quality c. reduce patient exposure d. reduce scatter production

a. keep the amount of tissue irradiation to a minimum b. improve image quality c. reduce patient exposure d. reduce scatter production

What is the most effective and often used material in protective barriers? a. lead b. aluminum c. copper d. molybdenum

a. lead

Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25 degree RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS? a. left sacroiliac joint b. right sacroiliac joint c. left ilium d. right ilium

a. left sacroiliac joint

Where should the petrous pyramids be found on an appropriately positioned PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the skull? a. lower third of the orbits b. filling the orbits c. lower half of the maxillary sinuses d. inferior to the maxillary sinses

a. lower third of the orbits

A patient's carpal bone is 6 inches from the image receptor and measures 2 inches on the first image. If the carpal bone remains 6 inches from the image receptor but the source-to-image distance is increased an additional 10 inches for the second image, the carpal will: a. measure less than 2 inches and closer to actual size. b. measure more than 2 inches and closer to actual size. c. appear smaller than the actual size of the carpal bone. d. not change because SID does not relate to object size.

a. measure less than 2 inches and closer to actual size.

What degree of reaction is vomiting? a. mild to moderate reaction to contrast agent b. severe reaction to contrast agent c. not considered reaction to contrast agent

a. mild to moderate reaction to contrast agent

Why is the use of a higher kilovoltage peak recommended? (select three) a. milliampere-seconds (mAs) can be reduced. b. penetration is increased. c. milliampere-seconds (mAs) can be increased d. penetration is required e. patient exposure may be reduced.

a. milliampere-seconds (mAs) can be reduced. b. penetration is increased. e. patient exposure may be reduced.

Any area that is touched by body fluids: a. must be washed completely b. must be covered and isolated for the reminder of the day c. must be evaluated by infection control d. must be reported to risk management

a. must be washed completely

Needles should be recapped after use: a. never b. always c. in a nonsterile field d. only during procedures involving a sterile field

a. never

The patient may be left alone following injections of a contrast agent: a. never b. after several minutes have passed and there is no sign of a reaction c. immediately since contrast agent reactions are rare d. if they are of legal age

a. never

Which of the following means there is no safe level of radiation and the response to the radiation is not directly proportional to the dose received? a. nonlinear-nonthreshold effect b. linear-nonthreshold effect c. linear-threshold effect d. nonlinear-threshold effect

a. nonlinear-nonthreshold effect

Which of the following characteristics describes the female pelvis? a. a heavy bony structure b. a deep shape c. an oval-shaped inlet d. a narrow shape to the outlet

c. an oval-shaped inlet

The usual patient preparation for an upper GI examination is a. nothing by mouth (NPO) 8 hours before the examination b. light breakfast only on the morning of the examination c. clear fluids only on the morning of the examination d. 2 ounces of castor oil and enemas until clear

a. nothing by mouth (NPO) 8 hours before the examination

What type of personnel dosimeter uses aluminum oxide as the absorbing material? a. optically stimulable luminescent dosimeter (OSL) b. film badge c. thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) d. pocket dosimeter0

a. optically stimulable luminescent dosimeter (OSL)

The addition of filtration within the x-ray tube is designed to block the low-energy photons from reaching the: a. patient b. detector c. cathode d. anode

a. patient

The primary function of filtration is to reduce a. patient skin dose. b. operator dose. c. film noise. d. scattered radiation.

a. patient skin dose.

When evaluating an oblique image of the L-spine, the radiographer notices that the eye of the "Scottie dog" is projected on the anterior aspect of the vertebral body. This indicates that the: a. patient was not rotated enough. b. central ray was not angled enough. c. patient was rotated too much. d. central ray was angled too much

a. patient was not rotated enough.

For a lateral projection of the humerus, it is necessary to have the coronal plane passing through the humeral epicondyles aligned ________ to the image receptor. a. perpendicular b. parallel c. at a 45° angle d. at a 30° angle

a. perpendicular

Which of the following results in the production of a photoelectron that is ejected from the atom? a. photelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. coherent scatter d. pair production

a. photelectric interaction

Which of the following is responsible for creating the conditions for contrast on the image? a. photoelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. coherent scatter d. pair production

a. photoelectric interaction

Which of the following photo-tissue interactions primarily involves K-shell electrons? a. photoelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. coherent scatter d. pair production

a. photoelectric interaction

Which of the following results in total absorption of an incident x-ray photon? a. photoelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. classic scatter d. pair production

a. photoelectric interaction

An iatrogenic infection is the one caused by: a. physician intervention b. blood-borne pathogens c. chemotherapy d. infected droplets

a. physician intervention

Radon gas: a. presents a danger when undetected b. is present in doses proportional to other sources c. is entirely human-made d. is the source of 100% of annual background dose

a. presents a danger when undetected

The central ray is directed to the ________ joint when performing a lateral projection of the fourth toe. a. proximal interphalangeal b. distal interphalangeal c. metatarsophalangeal d. tarsometatarsal

a. proximal interphalangeal

A transformer that has more turns in the secondary coil than in the primary coil is called a: a. step-up transformer b. solenoid c. step-down transformer d. filament transformer

a. step-up transformer

Which of the following radiographic evaluation criterion demonstrates NO rotation on a PA projection of the chest? a. sternal ends of the clavicles equidistant from the vertebral column b. T4 superimposed on the manubrium c. scapulae projected outside of the lung field d. 10 posterior ribs visible above diaphragm

a. sternal ends of the clavicles equidistant from the vertebral column

An increase in the difference between the atomic numbers or densities of adjacent tissues results in increased: a. subject contrast. b. distortion. c. spatial resolution. d. receptor exposure.

a. subject contrast.

On an axiolateral oblique projection of the temporomandibular joints (TMJs), the patient's head begins in a lateral position and is then rotated so that the midsagittal plane moves approximately 15° toward the image receptor. The central ray is angled caudally about 15°. The TMJ of interest is closest to the image receptor. On the image, the TMJ of interest will be projected ________ and ________ to the other TMJ. a. superiorly; posteriorly b. inferiorly; posteriorly c. superiorly; anteriorly d. inferiorly; anteriorly

a. superiorly; posteriorly

When evaluating an AP projection (open-mouth) radiograph of C1-C2, the occlusal surface of the ________ should be superimposed with the ________. a. top incisors; base of the skull b. bottom incisors; base of the skull c. top incisors; dens d. bottom incisors; inferior articular process of C1

a. top incisors; base of the skull

When acquiring a lateral projection of the chest, which position is BEST for demonstrating the heart and left lung? a. upright; left lateral b. upright; right lateral c. recumbent; left lateral d. recumbent; right lateral

a. upright; left lateral

A 59-year-old man with acute diverticulitis is in the radiology department for a barium enema. The patient is in pain and is complaining of a fever. For this patient, a ________ contrast medium should be used. a. water-soluble iodinated b. barium sulfate, single c. barium sulfate, double d. glucagon

a. water-soluble iodinated

What medium is injected into the joint of a patient undergoing positive single-contrast radiographic arthrography? a. water-soluble iodinated contrast b. oil-soluble iodinated contrast c. air d. barium sulfate

a. water-soluble iodinated contrast

What is the angle of the central ray in relation to the IR on an axiolateral projection of the mandibular ramus? a. 20-degrees caudal b. 25-degrees cephalad c. 30-degrees caudal d. 35-degrees cephalad

b. 25-degrees cephalad

The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a/an: a. AP projection b. 30 degrees oblique c. 45 degrees oblique d. AP axial projection

b. 30 degrees oblique

hat advantage is there to magnifying an object? 1. Spatial resolution increases 2. Small objects become visible 3. There is less distortion a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 & 2 only d. 1, 2, & 3

b. 2 only

What is the usual rate of flow for an adult with an I.V. in use? a. 2 drops per minute b. 20 drops per minute c. 60 drops per minute d. 99 drops per minute

b. 20 drops per minute

A patient is rotated ________ for contrast urography oblique positions. a. 15° b. 30° c. 45° d. 60°

b. 30°

Which of the following will produce the largest image? a. 40" SID, 3" OID b. 40" SID, 5" OID c. 72" SID, 3" OID d. 72" SID, 5" OID

b. 40" SID, 5" OID

An acceptable PA chest exam is taken using 300 mA, 0.008 seconds, and 110 kVp. If this examination is repeated using an AEC that has a minimum response time of 10 ms, which of the following exposure factors would be appropriate? a. 400 mA, 0.006 seconds, 110 kVp b. 200 mA, 0.012 seconds, 110 kVp c. 600 mA, 0.004 seconds, 110 kVp d. All of the above would be appropriate

b. 200 mA, 0.012 seconds, 110 kVp

Which of the following body parts is/are included in whole-body dose? 1. gonads 2. blood-forming organs 3. extremities a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following is/are recommended to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region? 1. close collimation 2. lead mat on table posterior to the patient 3. decreased SID a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

An increase in kVp increases: 1. transmission. 2. photoelectric effect. 3. Compton scatter a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 3

Which of the following are advantages to using a fixed kVp/variable mAs chart? 1. Part measure is not critical. 2. Radiographic contrast is inherently short scale. 3. The patient dose is lower. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 3

The average oxygen delivery rate via nasal cannula for a patient who is having a difficult time breathing and does NOT have a documented lung disease is: a. 0.5 to 2.0 L/min. b. 1 to 6 L/min. c. 4 to 9 L/min. d. 10 to 12 L/min.

b. 1 to 6 L/min.

Possible side effects of an iodinated contrast medium that is administered intravenously include which of the following? 1. A warm, flushed feeling 2. Altered taste 3. Itching 4. Sneezing 5. Nausea 6. rash and hives a. 1, 5, and 6 b. 1, 2 and 5 c. 3, 4, and 5 d. 2, 5, and 6

b. 1, 2 and 5

Features of the first cervical vertebra include 1. lateral masses 2. transverse foramina 3. odontoid process 4. body 5. posterior arch a. 1, 3, and 4 b. 1, 2, and 5 c. 2, 3, and 4 d. 2, 4, and 5

b. 1, 2, and 5

According NCRP report #116, what is the annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming frequent exposure? a. 5 mSv b. 1.0 mSv c. 0.5 mSv d. 0.05 mSv

b. 1.0 mSv

An acceptable exposure indicator was achieved using 72 kVp and 20 mAs. A setting of ________ mAs should be used to produce a comparable exposure indicator if the exposure is repeated using 83 kVp. a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 40

b. 10

For mobile or portable fluoroscopic equipment (C-arm), inherent provisions must be made so that the machine cannot be operated at less than: a. 6 inches (15cm) source-to-skin distance (SSD) b. 12 inches (30 cm) source-to-skin distance (SSD) c. 15 inches (38 cm) source-to-skin distance (SSD) d. 24 inches (60 cm) source-to-skin distance (SSD)

b. 12 inches (30 cm) source-to-skin distance (SSD)

Which of the following is a guideline used to reduce personnel and patient dose during fixed fluoroscopy? a. 30 Roentgens (R)/min maximum tabletop exposure rate b. 15-inch minimum SSD c. minimum filtration of 1.5 mm aluminum equivalent d. 0.5 mm primary protective barrier

b. 15-inch minimum SSD

The neck of the femur is angled anteriorly from the femoral body by approximately: a. 5° to 10°. b. 15° to 20°. c. 30° to 40°. d. 40° to 60°.

b. 15° to 20°.

Examples of unintentional misconduct include: 1. battery 2. negligence 3. slander 4. malpractice 5. false imprisonment a. 1, 3, and 4 b. 2 and 4 c. 2, 3, and 5 d. 1, 4, and 5

b. 2 and 4

Which of the following does not require the use of gloves? 1. airborne 2. droplet 3. contact a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1, 2 d. 1, 3

b. 2 only

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding standard precautions for venipuncture? a. Standard precautions are not necessary for simple needle sticks. b. All patients are potentially infected with bloodborne pathogens. c. Only pediatric patients require the use of standard precautions. d. Standard precautions are designed solely to protect health care workers.

b. All patients are potentially infected with bloodborne pathogens.

The "threat of touching a person in a harmful manner" is the legal definition of what? a. Battery b. Assault c. Negligence d. Injury

b. Assault

Patient transfers from cart to x-ray table and back to cart should be performed: a. by the radiographer alone if the patient is ambulatory b. By two or more radiographers to ensure patient and radiographer safety. c. by the radiographer alone if the department is short staffed. d. by the radiographer alone so as not to frighten the patient.

b. By two or more radiographers to ensure patient and radiographer safety

The formula Ei = Es + (Eb + EKE) is for calculating the energy of a scattered photon created during a(n) ________ scattering interaction. a. unmodified b. Compton c. coherent d. classical

b. Compton

The difference in brightness between adjacent areas in a radiograph is a definition for which of the following? a. Receptor exposure b. Contrast c. Distortion d. Spatial resolution

b. Contrast

How should the 15% rule be applied to reduce exposure to the patient while maintaining exposure to the image receptor? a. Increase mAs by half and reduce kVp by 15%. b. Decrease mAs by half and increase kVp by 15%. c. Increase mAs by 15% and reduce kVp by half. d. Decrease mAs by 15% and increase kVp by half.

b. Decrease mAs by half and increase kVp by 15%.

How will increasing the OID affect the spatial resolution in a radiograph? a. Increase spatial resolution b. Decrease spatial resolution c. Eliminate spatial resolution d. Will have no effect on spatial

b. Decrease spatial resolution

How will increasing the focal spot size affect spatial resolution in a radiograph? a. Increase spatial resolution b. Decrease spatial resolution c. Eliminate spatial resolution d. Will have no effect on spatial resolution

b. Decrease spatial resolution

If the mA is increased, how must the time be changed in order to maintain the same receptor exposure? a. Increased b. Decreased c. Doubled d. Reduced by half

b. Decreased

The portion of the colon located between the splenic flexure and the sigmoid portion is called the: a. Duodenum b. Descending c. Ileum d. Ascending

b. Descending

________ is the software function that enhances contrast along the boundaries of a structure. a. The look-up table (LUT) b. Edge enhancement c. Equalization d. Contrast enhancement

b. Edge enhancement

Which of the following is FALSE about the laboratory value GFR? a. GFR stands for glomerular filtration rate. b. GFR is calculated from the results of a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test. c. GFR estimates how much blood passes through the glomeruli of the kidney. d. GFR is a measure of kidney function and estimation of degree of kidney disease.

b. GFR is calculated from the results of a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test.

The preferred fluoroscopic technique utilizes: a. low kilovoltage peak (kVp) and high milliampere-seconds (mAs) b. High kilovoltage peak (kVp) and low milliampere-seconds (mAs) c. high kilovoltage peak (kVp) and high milliampere-seconds (mAs) d. low kilovoltage peak (kVp) and low milliampere-seconds (mAs)

b. High kilovoltage peak (kVp) and low milliampere-seconds (mAs)

Which of the following occurs when the OID is increased? a. Image size is reduced b. Image is magnified c. Image is elongated d. Image is foreshortened

b. Image is magnified

No practical amount of mAs can ever compensate for which of the following? a. Inadequate exposure time b. Inadequate kVp c. Inadequate SID d. Inadequate grid ratio

b. Inadequate kVp

If it is impossible to get the part close to the image receptor, what can be done to compensate? a. Increase exposure time b. Increase SID c. Decrease kVp d. Decrease screen speed

b. Increase SID

Barium sulfate is classified as a(n): a. dissolvable organic salt b. Inert inorganic salt c. nonionic contrast agent d. iodinate contrast agent

b. Inert inorganic salt

Used bandages and dressings must be placed: a. Inside contaminated linens so they are not touched b. Into red plastic biohazard bags and sealed c. into sharps containers d. In a nearby waste container.

b. Into red plastic biohazard bags and sealed

Cell radiosensitivity is described by the: a. Inverse square law b. Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau c. Reciprocity law d. Ohm's law

b. Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau

Access to information about one's own medical care, establishment of advance directives, and protection of privacy is information that can be found in the: a. Health Insurance and Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). b. Patient Care Partnership (also known as the Patient's Bill of Rights). c. Joint Commission Act. d. Affordable Care Act.

b. Patient Care Partnership (also known as the Patient's Bill of Rights).

Technologists should become familiar with the basic social norms of varying cultural and ethnic groups because: a. Patients and visitors often do not listen closely to what a healthcare professional says. b. Some actions, such as touching a patient, can be misinterpreted by patients of varying cultural backgrounds. c. Most patients do not respond well to nonverbal communication cues. d. Patients will be less likely to refuse the examination.

b. Some actions, such as touching a patient, can be misinterpreted by patients of varying cultural backgrounds.

Which of the following radiographic evaluation criterion demonstrates NO tilt on a PA projection of the chest? a. sternal ends of the clavicles equidistant from the vertebral column b. T4 superimposed on the manubrium c. scapulae projected outside of the lung field d. 10 posterior ribs visible above diaphragm

b. T4 superimposed on the manubrium

What type of shock can result from a severe reaction to the contrast media used in radiographic exams? a. hypovolemic shock b. septic shock c. anaphylactic shock d. cardiogenic shock

c. anaphylactic shock

Which of the following is FALSE regarding a colostomy study of the large intestine? a. Bowel preparation includes irrigation of the stoma on the night before and the morning of the exam. b. The radiographer should insert the catheter tip into the patient's stoma. c. The same barium sulfate formula is used as for routine contrast enema studies. d. Sterile technique is not required to perform the exam

b. The radiographer should insert the catheter tip into the patient's stoma.

What condition is a severe inflammation of the colon and rectum with loss of mucosal lining? a. Diverticula b. Ulcerative colitis c. Pyloric stenosis d. Adynamic ileus

b. Ulcerative colitis

A 51-year-old female patient has been experiencing pain in her abdominal area, unusual bowel movements, and recurrent urinary tract infections. The referring physician has ordered a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG), upper GI, and barium enema for the patient. The patient wants to have the studies completed over 2 days. In what order should the studies be conducted? a. barium enema, upper GI, VCUG b. VCUG, barium enema, upper GI c. VCUG, upper GI, barium enema d. upper GI, VCUG, barium enema

b. VCUG, barium enema, upper GI

For a submentovertical projection of the zygomatic arches, the central ray is perpendicular to the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) and enters the throat at: a. the level of the outer canthus. b. a level 1 inch posterior to the outer canthus. c. the level of the external acoustic meatus (EAM). d. a level 1 inch posterior to the EAM.

b. a level 1 inch posterior to the outer canthus.

A small container holding several doses of medication is termed: a. an ampoule b. a vial c. a bolus d. a carafe

b. a vial

Compared to a low grid ratio, a high grid ratio will do which of the following? a. absorb more primary radiation b. absorb more scatter radiation c. absorb less primary radiation d. absorb less scatter radiation

b. absorb more scatter radiation

Compared with a low-ratio grid, a high-ratio grid: a. reduces image contrast. b. absorbs more scatter radiation. c. absorbs less primary radiation. d. reduces patient dose

b. absorbs more scatter radiation.

The femoral head articulates with the ________ of the hip bone. a. ala b. acetabulum c. obturator foramen d. ischial ramus

b. acetabulum

The purpose of a technique chart is to: a. minimize scatter. b. adhere to ALARA principles. c. reduce positioning errors. d. control for patient motion.

b. adhere to ALARA principles.

A document that provides instructions regarding medical care that a patient may prepare before incapacitation is called a(n): a. preplanning order b. advance directive c. physician notice d. informed consent

b. advance directive

Indirect contact involves: a. coughs or sneezes b. an object containing pathogenic organisms c. plants and animals d. other humans

b. an object containing pathogenic organisms

Which of the following statements are true concerning positive contrast media? (choose 4) a. Air is the most commonly used b. aqueous iodine compounds may be used if perforations are suspected c. Barium should be mixed with cold water for retrograde administration d. Nonionic contrast media are ideal for injection because they do not contain iodine, reducing the risk of reactions e. barium is an inert substance f. aqueous iodine compounds may cause serious dehydration g. barium is a surgical contaminant

b. aqueous iodine compounds may be used if perforations are suspected e. barium is an inert substance f. aqueous iodine compounds may cause serious dehydration g. barium is a surgical contaminant

For a supine abdomen, the central ray enters at the midsagittal plane and a. 2 inches above the iliac crests. b. at the level of the iliac crests. c. 2 inches below the iliac crests. d. at the pubic symphysis

b. at the level of the iliac crests.

For a lateral projection of the orbit, the central ray is perpendicular to the image receptor and enters: a. at the acanthion. b. at the outer canthus. c. 2 inches superior to the external acoustic meatus (EAM). d. at the midpoint of the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML).

b. at the outer canthus.

Staphylococci and bacilli are classified as what type of microorganisms? a. viruses b. bacteria c. fungi d. molds

b. bacteria

Subject contrast is affected by: a. mAs. b. barium. c. object-to-image distance (OID). d. all of the above.

b. barium.`

An unexposed radiographic film will have a slight density after processing. What is this density called? a. fog b. base plus fog c. base density d. gamma

b. base plus fog

Hands should be washed: a. at least five times during each shift to help stop the spread of infections b. before and after contact with each patient and before touching equipment c. every hour regardless of patient contact d. both with and without gloves

b. before and after contact with each patient and before touching equipment

Where should a patient's urinary bag be kept while transferring him/her from the stretcher to the x-ray table? a. resting on patient's legs b. below bladder level c. at bladder level d. between the stretcher and table

b. below bladder level

Where is the ionization chamber (photocell) located in an automatic exposure control (AEC) device? a. between the tube and the patient b. between the patient and the image receptor c. behind the image receptor d. below the bucky tray

b. between the patient and the image receptor

Contrast resolution of a CR/DR image is determined by the ________ of the system. a. matrix size b. bit depth c. sampling frequency d. dynamic range

b. bit depth

A patient is injected with a large volume of fluid intravenously; this is called a(n): a. intravenous push. b. bolus. c. drip infusion. d. drop flow.

b. bolus.

Of the following, the greatest attenuator of x-rays is: a. air b. bone c. muscle d. fat

b. bone

Off-distance cut off is characterized by which of the following? a. top of image is underexposed b. both sides of the image are underexposed c. one side of the image is underexposed d. bottom of image is underexposed

b. both sides of the image are underexposed

The Joint Commission or the American Osteopathic Association via its Healthcare Facilities Accreditation Program (HFAP) are organizations that: a. develop a prospective payment system (PPS). b. certify health care facilities in the United States. c. monitor the Index of Radiologic Diagnoses (IRD). d. determine the correct Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes for specific procedures.

b. certify health care facilities in the United States.

A radiographer receives an order from the emergency department for a right hand radiograph on a 62-year-old man. The indication is to rule out a third metacarpophalangeal joint fracture. The patient is unable to extend his fingers fully when trying to position the hand for the PA projection. The radiographer should: a. leave the hand positioned for the PA projection with the fingers flexed. b. consider an AP projection of the hand. c. force the fingers into extension by taping the hand flat to the image receptor. d. skip the PA projection and obtain only lateral and oblique images.

b. consider an AP projection of the hand.

When discussing the grid, the letter "K" represents the ________. a. grid ratio b. contrast improvement factor c. Bucky factor d. selectivity

b. contrast improvement factor

On a radiograph of an osteoporotic spine, image ________ is ________ compared with an image of a nonosteoporotic spine. a. density; decreased b. contrast; lower c. contrast; higher d. resolution; decreased

b. contrast; lower

Identify the structure that is represented by the highlighted line: a. sphenoid sinus b. coronal suture c. sella turcica d. lambdoidal suture

b. coronal suture

Irradiation of the embryo during the first week of development to equivalent doses exceeding 200 mSv frequently results in: a. no effect. b. death. c. sensory organ damage. d. microcephaly

b. death.

What effect does decreasing the primary beam field size (increasing collimation) have on the amount of scatter radiation reaching the image receptor (IR)? a. increases amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR b. decreases amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR c. Increasing collimation has no effect on the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR

b. decreases amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR

The act of ________ is observed on fluoroscopy during an esophagram. a. mastication b. deglutition c. digestion d. defecation

b. deglutition

Which of the following is the least acceptable beam restricting device? a. collimator b. diaphragm c. cone d. cylinder

b. diaphragm

The joint located between the distal and middle phalanx of toes 2-5 is the ________ joint. a. proximal interphalangeal b. distal interphalangeal c. metatarsophalangeal d. middle interphalangeal

b. distal interphalangeal

Select the item below that is NOT required as part of a standardized technique chart. a. source-to-image distance (SID) object-to-image b. distance (OID) c. mA d. kVp

b. distance (OID)

Somatic effects of radiation refer to effects that are manifested a. in the descendants of the exposed individuals b. during the life of the exposed individual c. in the exposed individual and his or her descendants d. in the reproductive cells of the exposed individual

b. during the life of the exposed individual

On a submentovertical projection of the sinuses, which 2 sinuses are BEST displayed on the radiograph? a. frontal and ethmoidal b. ethmoidal and sphenoidal c. frontal and sphenoidal d. ethmoidal and maxillary

b. ethmoidal and sphenoidal

Which of the following includes filters for measurement of radiation energy? a. TLD b. film badge c. OSL d. handheld ionization chamber

b. film badge

Endoscopic procedures should be scheduled: a. after ingestion of barium for increased contrast b. first in a series of procedures c. after a series of procedures so as to verify the diagnosis d. only by the endoscopy department.

b. first in a series of procedures

A fixed kVp technique chart uses which of the following? a. fixed kVp and fixed mAs b. fixed kVp and variable mAs c. fixed kVp and variable kVp d. variable mAs and variable kVp

b. fixed kVp and variable mAs0

The ________ is the portion of the x-ray tube that possesses a negative charge and aligns the flow of electrons from the cathode to the anode in the x-ray tube. a. filament b. focusing cup c. focal track d. focal spot

b. focusing cup

Inpatient billing, diagnostic report generation, imaging order entry, and scheduling of all diagnostic service visits occurs in the: a. picture archiving and communications system (PACS). b. hospital information system (HIS). c. electronic health record (EHR). d. acquisition workstation.

b. hospital information system (HIS).

The concept of the reasonably prudent person is interpreted as: a. how a reasonable jury member would perform the act b. how a professional who has similar education training, and experience would perform the act. c. how a prudent attorney would interpret the act d. how a reasonable and prudent judge would rule on the act.

b. how a professional who has similar education training, and experience would perform the act. 09

An adult female patient has a temperature of 98.7, a pulse of 78 bpm, and a blood pressure of 142/93 mm Hg. What term best describes the patient's condition? a. bradycardia b. hypertension c. febrile d. tachypnea

b. hypertension

Radiographers can decrease patient dose by using all of the following EXCEPT: a. added filtration. b. increased grid ratio. c. adjustment of mAs using the 15% rule. d. reduced exposure field size.

b. increased grid ratio.

When performing procedures that cause pain, discomfort, or strange sensations, the radiographer should do which of the following? (select three) a. overemphasize the painful aspect of the examination b. inform the patient before the procedure c. answer any questions the patient may have d. make sure the patient is comfortable with proceeding with the exam

b. inform the patient before the procedure c. answer any questions the patient may have d. make sure the patient is comfortable with proceeding with the exam

An LPO fails to clearly demonstrate the lumbar zygapophyseal articulations. The pedicles are seen on the anterior portion of the vertebral body. What does this indicate? a. excessive rotation b. insufficient rotation c. pelvic tilt d. correct positioning

b. insufficient rotation

Which two of the following positioning instructions would be appropriate for a lateral facial bone image? (select two) a. midsagittal plane (MSP) forms 45-degree angle with the image receptor b. interpupillary line perpendicular to the image receptor c. chin slightly elevated d. coronal plane parallel to image receptor

b. interpupillary line perpendicular to the image receptor c. chin slightly elevated

Modern automatic exposure control (AEC) sensors are of the ________ type. a. scintillator b. ionization chamber c. autotransformer d. phototimer

b. ionization chamber

Which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between the second and third thoracic vertebrae? a. manubrium b. jugular notch c. sternal angle d. xiphoid process

b. jugular notch

he quality or energy of an x-ray beam is determined by which of the following a. mAs b. kVp c. SID d. Focal spot size

b. kVp

Which two of the following would help reduce unnecessary radiation during fluoroscopy to the patient? (Select two) a. protective lead drape b. last image hold c. bucky slot cover d. pulsed fluoroscopy

b. last image hold d. pulsed fluoroscopy

Which of the following is the BEST projection for demonstrating the intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine? a. AP b. lateral c. oblique d. lateral-- swimmer's technique

b. lateral

For the optimum image of the right kidney during urography, what position should a patient should be in? a. right posterior oblique (RPO) b. left posterior oblique (LPO) c. lateral d. supine

b. left posterior oblique (LPO)

The AP axial projection of the C-spine must demonstrate: a. levels C1 through C7. b. levels C3 through T2. c. levels C1 throughT1. d. the zygapophyseal joints between C1 and C2.

b. levels C3 through T2.

The curve below represents a ________ relationship. a. linear nonthreshold b. linear threshold c. linear quadratic d. linear stochastic

b. linear threshold

The ________ dose-response model best represents the basis for radiation protection guidelines. a. linear, threshold b. linear, nonthreshold c. nonlinear, threshold d. nonlinear, nonthreshold

b. linear, nonthreshold

The ________ is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. a. spleen b. liver c. stomach d. right lung

b. liver

A(n) ________ document dictates in advance how a patient would like to be treated if they become unable to make health care decisions. a. legal tort b. living will c. Safe Harbor d. informed consent

b. living will

Unequal bone/limb growth is an indication for performing a: a. scoliosis survey. b. long-bone measurement study. c. bone age study. d. bone survey.

b. long-bone measurement study.

An image that has many shades of gray with few differences among them is defined as exhibiting: a. high spatial resolution. b. low contrast. c. high dynamic range. d. low bit depth.

b. low contrast.

Which of the following sets of exposure factors would result in the lowest dose to the patient? a. high mAs, low kVp b. low mAs, high kVp c. low mAs, high kVp, small focal spot d. low mAs, high kVp, large focal spot

b. low mAs, high kVp

The image after processing is known as what? a. latent image b. manifest image c. invisible image d. imaginary image

b. manifest image

An adverse reaction to contrast media that is NOT immediately life threatening, but often requires treatment is considered: a. mild b. moderate c. severe d. extreme

b. moderate

Radiation dose to personnel is reduced by following the guideline stating that exposure cords: a. on fixed equipment are at least 6 feet long. b. must be at least 6 feet long on mobile equipment. c. should be coiled on fixed and mobile equipment. d. must be a length that allow personnel to stand next to the patient.

b. must be at least 6 feet long on mobile equipment.

Which type of communication includes eye contact, touch and tone of voice? a. verbal b. nonverbal c. paralanguage d. body language

b. nonverbal

The lumbar vertebral transverse process is represented by which part of the "scottie dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine? a. eye b. nose c. body d. ear

b. nose

An electromechanical device that regulates the heart rate by providing low levels of electrical stimulation to the heart muscle is called a: a. PICC line. b. pacemaker. c. Swan-Ganz line. d. laparoscope

b. pacemaker.

Which of the following bones are part of the orbit? a. frontal, maxilla, and temporal b. palatine, lacrimal, and maxilla c. frontal, sphenoid, and occipital d. mandible, maxilla, and frontal

b. palatine, lacrimal, and maxilla

What view of the facial bones will best demonstrate both the orbits free of superimposition by either the the temporal bones or the contralateral orbit? a. PA axial projection (Caldwell method) b. parietocanthial projection (Waters method) c. AP axial projection (Towne method) d. lateral projection

b. parietocanthial projection (Waters method)

Which of the following occurs when a multi-focus image intensifier tube is operated in magnification mode? a. larger area of the input phosphor is used b. patient dose will be increased c. image quality will be reduced d. less voltage is applied to the electrostatic lenses.

b. patient dose will be increased

Patient exposure can be reduced by using the highest: a. milliampere-seconds (mAs). b. peak kilovoltage (kVp). c grid ratio. d. mA.

b. peak kilovoltage (kVp).

Beam quality relates to: a. primary beam photon number. b. penetrating power of the primary beam. c. mAs. d. number of Compton interactions.

b. penetrating power of the primary beam.

During myelography, the patient's neck should be hyperextended when the contrast medium nears the cervical region of the spine to: a. make the patient more comfortable. b. prevent the contrast medium from entering the cerebral ventricles. c. prevent the contrast medium from entering the subarachnoid space. d. prevent the contrast medium from entering the thoracic region of the spine.

b. prevent the contrast medium from entering the cerebral ventricles.

Which of the following may be considered as an example of battery? a. violating HIPAA b. radiographing the wrong patient or body part c. verbally abusing a partner d. criticizing a physician's order in front of a patient

b. radiographing the wrong patient or body part

Contrast media that readily absorb x-ray photons are considered: a. radioluent. b. radiopaque. c. opaque. d. transparent

b. radiopaque.

After injection of iodinated contrast media, the radiographer should: a. leave the patient to rest b. remain with the patient and have a conversation with the patient, listening for signs of laryngeal swelling c. tell the patient a funny story as a means of alleviating anxiety about the procedure. d. alert a radiologist

b. remain with the patient and have a conversation with the patient, listening for signs of laryngeal swelling

A patient is scheduled for a barium swallow. As the technologist begins to review the instructions with the patient, it is evident that the patient seems lethargic. The technologist should: a. continue with the examination. b. reschedule the examination because the patient will not be able to swallow properly. c. wait until the patient is more alert before administering barium. d. use an alternative contrast medium for the examination.

b. reschedule the examination because the patient will not be able to swallow properly

The protective booth that the radiographer stands behind when making the x-ray exposure is a ________ barrier. a. primary b. secondary c. useful beam d. remnant radiation

b. secondary

The two types of electromagnetic induction are: a. autoinduction and mutual induction b. self-induction and mutual induction c. generated induction and self induction d. current induction and voltage induction

b. self-induction and mutual induction

What degree of reaction is cardiac arrest? a. mild to moderate reaction to contrast agent b. severe reaction to contrast agent c. not considered a reaction to contrast agent

b. severe reaction to contrast agent

The benefit of obtaining an image of the acromioclavicular joints with weights is that the addition of weights: a. shows separation of the sternoclavicular joint space. b. shows separation of the acromioclavicular joint space. c. enhances the appearance of metastatic disease. d. increases the spatial resolution of the image.

b. shows separation of the acromioclavicular joint space.

Which of the following affect the spatial resolution of an image? a. mAs and object-to-image distance (OID) b. source-to-image distance (SID) and focal spot size c. kVp and mAs d. tube angle and kVp

b. source-to-image distance (SID) and focal spot size

The letter D represents which anatomical structure in the radiograph a. hyoid cartilage b. spinous process c. pedicle d. transverse process

b. spinous process

A system that emphasizes the placement of barriers between the health care worker and the patient is called: a. universal precautions b. standard precautions c. universal safety d. infection barriers

b. standard precautions

What is the most common body habitus, present in about 50% of the population a. hypersthenic habitus b. sthenic habitus c. hyposthenic habitus d. asthenic habitus

b. sthenic habitus

Which of the following is a disadvantage of film-based dosimeters? a. cost b. temperature sensitivity c. measurement of x- and gamma radiation d. energy discrimination

b. temperature sensitivity

When a patient has parenteral administration of medication, the medication is NOT delivered via: a. injection into a muscle. b. the gastrointestinal system. c. the sublingual area. d. injection into a vein.

b. the gastrointestinal system.

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to assisting a patient from a wheelchair to an x-ray table? a. the wheelchair should be parallel with the x-ray table b. the wheelchair should be angled 45 degrees to the x-ray table c. the wheelchair should directly face the x-ray table d. the wheelchair footrests should be folded down for foot support during transfer. [

b. the wheelchair should be angled 45 degrees to the x-ray table

The ____________ is useful for obtaining a lateral projection of the shoulder in trauma patients. a. AP oblique projection (Apple method) b. transthoracic projection (Lawrence method) c. AP oblique projection (Grashey method) d. tangential projection (Neer method)

b. transthoracic projection (Lawrence method)

Key points in performing pediatric radiography are: a. work quickly and impersonally, use gonadal shielding, report suspected child abuse, keep parents in waiting room b. work quickly, communicate clearly with child and parents, use gonadal shielding , report suspected child abuse c. work quickly and impersonally, report suspected child abuse, keep parents in waiting room, always use pigg-o-stat d. work quickly and impersonally, use gonadal shielding only on abdominal exams, report suspected child abuse, keep parents in waiting room.

b. work quickly, communicate clearly with child and parents, use gonadal shielding , report suspected child abuse

Two half-value layers would result in a decrease in beam intensity by what percent? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%

c. 75%

The angle of the anode in the region of the target has a variation of ________ ° to ________ °. a. 0; 3 b. 5; 6 c. 7; 20 d. 20; 45

c. 7; 20

When operating fluoroscopic equipment in normal mode, the air kerma rate (AKR) shall not exceed: a. 22 mGy/min. b. 44 mGy/min. c. 88 mGy/min. d. 176 mGy/min.

c. 88 mGy/min.

A tracheostomy is: a. use of an endotracheal tube in the trachea to assist in respiration. b. a feeding tube that ends in the C-loop of the duodenum. c. a surgical opening in the trachea to provide a temporary or permanent artificial airway. d. a procedure that is performed to drain fluid from the trachea

c. a surgical opening in the trachea to provide a temporary or permanent artificial airway.

Subtraction technique is used for which of the following situations? a. orthopedic studies b. gastrointestinal studies c. angiographic studies d. tomographic studies

c. angiographic studies

Walls that are considered to be secondary barriers should be: a. 0.25 mm of lead thickness and be 1.5 meters (5 feet) tall b. 0.4 mm of lead thickness and be 1.5 meters (5 feet) tall c. 0.8 mm of lead thickness and be 2.1 meters (7 feet) tall d. 1.6 mm of lead thickness and be 2.1 meters (7 feet) tall

c. 0.8 mm of lead thickness and be 2.1 meters (7 feet) tall

Which of the following statements regarding tracheostomy patients is true? 1. tracheostomy patients have difficulty in speaking 2. mobile chest imaging requires any tracheostomy tube to be rotated out of view 3. audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3 only

The National Council for Radiation Protection and Measurement (NCRP) requires that leakage radiation from the fluoroscopic tube must be below: a. 10 milligray/hour at 1 meter from the tube b. 100 milligray/hour at 1 meter from the tube c. 1 milligray/hour at 1 meter from the tube d. 0.1 milligray/hour at 1 meter from the tube

c. 1 milligray/hour at 1 meter from the tube

Select the three symptom/reactions that would be classified as mild anaphylactic symptoms. 1. tingling/itching at injection site 2. nasal congestion 3. wheezing 4 Anxious feeling a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 2, 3, and 4 c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 1, 3, and 4

c. 1, 2 and 4

Which of the following statements apply when radiography is performed on trauma patients? 1. Work quietly and efficiently 2. Patient may be left alone if unconscious 3. Spinal injury may be ruled out if patient is not on a spine board or wearing a cervical collar 4. Observe for changes in wound dressing while performing radiography 5. Document in writing changes in patient's condition a. 1, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 1, 4, 5 d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

c. 1, 4, 5

For x-ray tubes with a peak energy of 120 kVp, what thickness of lead is required for a primary protective barrier? a. 0.25 mm (1/64 inch) b. 0.5 mm (1/32 inch) c. 1.6 mm (1/16 inch) d. 2.4 mm (3/32 inch)

c. 1.6 mm (1/16 inch)

Generally speaking, the dose to staff standing 1 meter from the patient is approximately ______ of the incident exposure. a. 1/10 b. 1/100 c. 1/1,000 d. 1/10,000

c. 1/1,000

The primary barriers in an x-ray room must have a thickness of: a. 1/16" (1.6 mm) aluminum equivalent b. 1/32" (0.8 mm) aluminum equivalent c. 1/16" (1.6 mm) lead equivalent d. 1/32" (0.8mm) lead equivalent

c. 1/16" (1.6 mm) lead equivalent

Current federal standards limit entrance skin exposure rates of general-purpose intensified fluoroscopic units to a maximum of: a. 10 milligrays (mGy) per hour b. 10 milligrays (mGy) per minute c. 100 milligrays (mGy) per minute d. 100 milligrays (mGy) per hour

c. 100 milligrays (mGy) per minute

A total of ________ dots on the receptor is the proper number during a spinning top test of a singlephase, fully rectified generator at 0.10 seconds a. 3 b. 6 c. 12 d. 18

c. 12

The source-to-skin-distance (SSD) in fixed fluoroscopic equipment be at least: a. 6 inches b. 12 inches c. 15 inches d. 24 inches

c. 15 inches

A 55-year-old woman is in the radiology department for a barium enema. She is anxious about the examination and says that she heard it is "painful and horrible." The technologist should communicate with the patient by: 1. using medical and technical terminology when explaining the procedure. 2. keeping explanations simple and truthful. 3. using eye contact and an empathetic tone when explaining the procedure. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

c. 2 and 3

The CR is parallel to the intervertebral foramina in which of the following projections? 1. lateral cervical spine 2. lateral thoracic spine 3. lateral lumbar spine a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

c. 2 and 3 only

A small bowel series on a patient with normal intestinal motility usually is completed within approximately: a. 10 minutes. b. 30 minutes. c. 2 hours. d. 4 hours.

c. 2 hours.

If the patient suffers as a result of the radiographer's actions, the radiographer can be charged with professional negligence. Many courts will apply res ipsa loquitur, "the thing speaks for itself." Select the three circumstances from the following that could subject the radiographer for an accusation of negligence. 1. failure to explain the x-ray examination to the patient 2. imaging the wrong patient 3. cropping/masking an electronic image to make it look collimated 4. modification of exposure indicator (EI) values 5. failure to address the patient in a professional manner a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1, 4, and 5 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 3, 5, and 6

c. 2, 3 and 4

A patient suffers as a result of the radiographer's actions, the radiographer can be charged with professional negligence. Many courts will apply res ipsa loquitur, "the thing that speaks for itself." Select the three circumstances from the following that could subject the radiographer to an accusation of negligence. 1. failure to explain the x-ray examination to the patient. 2. imaging the wrong patient 3. cropping/masking an electronic image to make it look collimated. 4. modification of exposure indicatior (EI) values 5. Failure to address the patient in a professional manner. a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1, 4, and 5 c. 2, 3, and 4 d. 3, 5, and 6

c. 2, 3, and 4

Components of the bony thorax include the: 1. scapulae 2. manubrium 3. clavicles 4. ribs 5. thoracic vertebrae a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 2, 3, and 4 only c. 2, 4, and 5 only d. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only

c. 2, 4, and 5 only

According to the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP), total filtration that is permanently fixed in the useful beam for fluoroscopic equipment that operate higher than 70 kilovoltage peak (kVp) may not be less than: a. 1.5 millimeters aluminum equivalent b. 2.0 millimeters aluminum equivalent c. 2.5 millimeters aluminum equivalent d. 3.0 millimeters aluminum equivalent

c. 2.5 millimeters aluminum equivalent

If a fluoroscopic procedure takes 1 hour to perform, and the exposure rate is 48 mrem/hr, the patient dose for a procedure time of 30 minutes would be ______ mrem. a. 12 b. 18 c. 24 d. 6

c. 24

To visualize or "open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned: a. 30-40 degrees LPO b. 30-40 degrees RPO c. 25-30 degrees LPO d. 25-30 degrees RPO

c. 25-30 degrees LPO

How many transformers from the list below work based upon mutual induction? air core transformer open core transformer autotransformer closed core transformer a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

c. 3

Exposure of an embryo or fetus to radiation from _____________ is MOST likely to result in a skeletal abnormality a. 0 days to 9 days of development b. 10 days to 2 weeks of development c. 3 weeks to 20 weeks of development d. 21 weeks to term

c. 3 weeks to 20 weeks of development

Place the following steps for performing venipuncture in the proper order. 1. secure tourniquet in place 2. thoroughly cleanse the skin 3. wash hands 4. select vein 5. put on gloves 6. perform puncture 7. cover wound and compress site 8. inject contrast agent 9. check wound for swelling 10. observe blood return a. 5, 4, 1, 6, 8, 7 b. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2, 6, 10, 8, 7, 9 c. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 10, 8, 7, 9 d. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 8, 9, 10, 7

c. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 10, 8, 7, 9

Which of the following x-ray generators will yield the highest tube output if an exposure is made using 75 kVp and 12 mAs, and all other factors are equal? a. 3-phase, 6-pulse b. single-phase, full-wave c. 3-phase, 12-pulse d. single-phase, half-wave

c. 3-phase, 12-pulse

When performing the Rafert-Long method scaphoid series, the radiographer positions the patient's wrist in extreme ulnar deviation and acquires a series of ______ PA and PA axial images with varying central ray angulations. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

c. 4

The cumulative timer on the fluoroscopy unit is a protective device to remind the operator of the exposure time. The cumulative timer must be reset every ______ minutes. a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10

c. 5

A cumulative timer must be provided and used with each fluoroscopic unit. This resettable device times the x-ray beam-on time and sounds an audible alarm or temporarily interrupts the exposure after the fluoroscope has been activated for: a. 1 minute b. 3 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes

c. 5 minutes

For an image of the chest with a patient in a decubitus position, the patient should be in position for ________ prior to the exposure so that fluid can settle and air can rise. a. 30 seconds b. 1 minute c. 5 minutes d. 15 minutes

c. 5 minutes

If the kVp is increased 15%, how much must the mAs be reduced in order to maintain the same receptor exposure? a. 15% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100%

c. 50%

To reduce occupational exposure, what is the minimum length required for a mobile x-ray machine's handheld exposure switch cord? a. 3 feet b. 5 feet c. 6 feet d. 4 feet

c. 6 feet

The first ________ ribs are called "true ribs" because they attach directly to the sternum. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8

c. 7

When a patient is ambulatory and capable of standing safely, it is preferred to obtain a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the chest at the upright receptor with a ________-inch source-to-image distance (SID), to ________ a. 40; reduce magnification of the heart b. 40; increase object-to-image distance (OID) c. 72; reduce magnification of the heart d. 72; increase OID

c. 72; reduce magnification of the heart

Which of the following is FALSE regarding patient access to health records? a. Patients have the right to a copy of their personal medical record. b. There are penalties for wrongful disclosure of individually identifiable information. c. A facility cannot prohibit patient access to their health care information. d. A facility has the right to require patient authorization to release information.

c. A facility cannot prohibit patient access to their health care information

Which of the following statements is true? a. A long grayscale has a few shades of gray b. A long grayscale is high contrast c. A long grayscale has several shades of gray d. High contrast has several shades of gray

c. A long grayscale has several shades of gray

The feature that maintains image quality at the lowest dose in fluoroscopy is abbreviated as: a. AEC. b. ABC. c. AERC. d. ATC

c. AERC.

The fluoroscopic feature that maintains the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) is abbreviated as: a. MTF. b. DQE. c. AERC. d. AEC.

c. AERC.

In order to obtain the most spatial resolution the OID should be what? a. The same for every image b. As long as possible c. As short as possible d. Equal to the SID

c. As short as possible

The winged infusion set used for venipuncture is also known as: a. IV catheter b. Hypodermic needle c. Butterfly d. Winged injection set

c. Butterfly

A fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement is a ________ fracture. a. Bennett b. boxer c. Colles d. Smith

c. Colles

Misrepresentation of the true size or shape of an object is the definition of which of the following? a. Spatial resolution b. Elongation c. Distortion d. Magnification

c. Distortion

If the exposure time is cut in half, how must the mAs be adjusted to maintain the same receptor exposure? a. Cut in half b. Reduced two times c. Doubled d. Increased 4 times

c. Doubled

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding entries made into a patient's health record a. Information fields may be left blank if unknown. b. Providers are encouraged to use abbreviations. c. Entries must be dated and their author identified. d. Patients may request for an original entry to be altered

c. Entries must be dated and their author identified.

Which of the following would describe the Fowler's position? a. Lateral recumbent b. Prone c. Feet lower than head d. Head lower than feet

c. Feet lower than head

Which of the following units would be used to describe the radiation present in a fluoroscopic room? a. Bq b. Sv c. Gy(a) d. Gy(t)

c. Gy(a)

When evaluating an image of the pelvis, the radiographer notes that there is maximum demonstration of the lesser trochanters. Was this patient positioned correctly for a non-trauma AP projection of the pelvis? a. Yes, because the lesser trochanters are demonstrated in profile. b. Yes, because there is no foreshortening of the femoral necks. c. No, because the femoral necks are not parallel with the image receptor. d. No, because the femora have not been rotated enough in the lateral direction.

c. No, because the femoral necks are not parallel with the image receptor.

What condition causes a narrowing of the sphincter at the distal end of the stomach? a. Diverticula b. Ulcerative colitis c. Pyloric stenosis d. Adynamic ileus

c. Pyloric stenosis

Changing the mAs controls which of the following? a. Penetrating power of the x-ray beam b. Quality of the x-ray beam c. Quantity of the x-ray beam d. Average photon energy of the x-ray beam

c. Quantity of the x-ray beam

An insufficient amount of mAs will produce a digital image with: a. Distortion b. Loss of contrast c. Quantum noise d. Loss of brightness

c. Quantum noise

Which of the following positions/projections is used to demonstrate a nearly frontal view of the sternum? a. AP b. PA c. RAO d. LAO

c. RAO

________ are used to reduce the effect of scatter radiation. a. Intensifying screens b. Compensating filters c. Radiographic grids d. Compression devices

c. Radiographic grids

What unit of measurement is used for effective dose limits? a. becquerel b. Gy(t) c. Seivert d. Gy(a)

c. Seivert

A ________ is used to assess display monitors a. pinhole camera b. line-pair test tool c. Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE) test pattern d. dose area product (DAP) meter

c. Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE) test pattern

Which of the following will occur when the OID is decreased? a. The image will be magnified b. The image will be minified c. The image is closer to its actual size d. The image is elongated

c. The image is closer to its actual size

A radiographer's primary responsibility is to which of the following? a. The radiology department b. The hospital c. The patient's needs d. The radiologist

c. The patient's needs

Charges separate in amorphous silicon when: a. light interacts with the array. b. the charge-coupled device (CCD) activates the array. c. an electric field is applied to the array. d. the capacitor is activated.

c. an electric field is applied to the array.

You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious and unresponsive. There is no rise and fall of the chest, and you can hear no breath sounds. You should first: a. begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing giving two full breaths. b. proceed with the Heimlich maneuver c. begin with 30 external chest compressions at a rate of 100 compressions/min. d. begin with 5 external chest compressions at a rate of 50 compressions/min.

c. begin with 30 external chest compressions at a rate of 100 compressions/min.

Blood flows into the left ventricle via the a. tricuspid valve during atrial systole b. tricuspid valve during ventricular systole c. bicuspid valve during atrial systole d. bicuspid valve during ventricular systole

c. bicuspid valve during atrial systole

For RAO position of the sternum: a. the body should be rotated 45 to 60 degrees to prevent superimposition of the sternum and spine b. the patient is supine c. breathing should be shallow during exposure; a falling load generator should not be used, if possible d. the best image is obtained with suspended breathing

c. breathing should be shallow during exposure; a falling load generator should not be used, if possible

Personnel dosimeters should always be worn at the: a. waist, outside of the lead apron b. collar, inside the lead apron c. collar, outside of the lead apron d. waist, inside of the lead apron

c. collar, outside of the lead apron

Contrast injected into the cystic duct during cholangiography drains immediately into what duct? a. right hepatic b. common hepatic c. common bile d. pancreatic

c. common bile

Until a photostimulable phosphor plate (PSP) is processed, electrons freed upon irradiation are stored it the: a. valence band. b. photodetector. c. conduction band. d. conductive layer.

c. conduction band

If you come across a sterile tray that has no expiration date on it, what should you do? a. use it immediately b. use it within a week c. consider it unsterile d. consider it sterile

c. consider it unsterile

The main purpose of adding filtration to the x-ray tube is to: a. decrease occupational dose b. increase spatial resolution c. decrease patient dose d. increase image contrast

c. decrease patient dose

What is the most likely impact if a facility changes their portable KUB technique 65 kVp and 60 mAs to 75 kVp and 30 mAs? a. decrease spatial resolution b. increased source to image receptor distance c. decreased patient dose d. increased motion artifact

c. decreased patient dose

A dose area product (DAP) meter measures dose using all the following EXCEPT: a. number of ionizations. b. field size. c. distance. d. number of photons.

c. distance

Non-ionic, water-soluble iodinated contrast media: a. contains no iodine b. produces no adverse reactions c. does not dissolve into changed particles d. is less expensive than ionic water-soluble contrast media

c. does not dissolve into changed particles

Upon entering the room with a patient, you recognize the patient is depressed, and suppress your state of happiness to meet the needs of the patient. What is this action representative of? a. empathy b. sincerity c. emotional intelligence c. patient autonomy

c. emotional intelligence

What is the name of the cartilage that prevents food from entering the larynx during swallowing? a. thymus b. thyroid c. epiglottis d. parathyroid

c. epiglottis

A technologist must make an intravenous (IV) injection on a patient having an excretory urogram. After successfully catheterizing the vessel with the needle, the technologist begins to infuse saline before infusing the contrast media. After a few milliliters of saline have been infused, the technologist notices that the injection site area has become swollen and the patient is complaining of pain at the site. What is this condition called and what should the technologist do a. a hematoma; keep the needle in place to preserve access and apply an ice pack to the affected area b. intravasation; remove the needle and apply a warm pack over the affected area c. anaphylaxis; call for help immediately c. extravasation; remove the needle and apply an ice pack to the affected area

c. extravasation; remove the needle and apply an ice pack to the affected area

The ratio of a pixel's total size to its actual collection area is known as the: a. Nyquist frequency. b. pixel pitch. c. fill factor. d. charge modulation.

c. fill factor.

Fractures of two or more adjacent ribs is termed: a. pectus carinatum b. pectus excavatum c. flail chest d. atelectasis

c. flail chest

Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine? a. open-mouth projection b. moving-mandible AP c. flexion and extension laterals d. right and left bending AP

c. flexion and extension laterals

All of the following examinations are considered to have a high benefit-risk ratio EXCEPT: a. angiography for cardiac stent placement. b. head CT for suspected cerebral hemorrhage. c. fluoroscopic evaluation of nasal cannula placement. d. upper GI study to evaluate a peptic ulcer.

c. fluoroscopic evaluation of nasal cannula placement.

The medical condition, spondylolisthesis refers to: a. degeneration of the vertebrae b. inflammation of the spinal canal c. forward slipping of the vertebra on the one below it. d. degenerative disc space disease

c. forward slipping of the vertebra on the one below it.

The ________ measurement is an average calculated from the gonadal dose received by the entire population; the measurement is used to determine the effect of radiation exposure on future offspring. a. relative biologic effectiveness b. effective dose c. genetically significant dose d. lethal dose (LD) 50/30

c. genetically significant dose

Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine? a. oblique cervical spine, seated b. AP cervical spine, recumbent c. horizontal beam lateral d. laterals in flexion and extension

c. horizontal beam lateral

Children have epiphyseal plates made of ________ that can be evaluated as part of normal chronologic age for bone age analysis. a. fibrocartilage b. elastic cartilage c. hyaline cartilage d. osteogenic cartilage

c. hyaline cartilage

Which of the following mean there is a safe level of radiation for certain effects and those effects are directly proportional to the dose received when the safe level is exceeded? a. nonlinear-nonthreshold effect b. linear-nonthreshold effect c. linear-threshold effect d. nonlinear-threshold effect

c. linear-threshold effect

Which of the following statements would define spatial resolution in digital imaging? a. contrast in an image b. lack of distortion in an image c. measure of the amount of detail in an image d. number of gray tones in an image

c. measure of the amount of detail in an image

The process of eliminating as many organisms as possible by the use of water and chemical disinfectants is called: a. surgical asepsis b. sterilization c. medical asepsis d. boiling

c. medical asepsis

Which of the following medications should be withheld from patients who have diabetes on the day of their iodinated contrast study and for at least 48 hours afterward to avoid the potential development of lactic acidosis? a. furesomide (Lasix) b. insulin c. metformin d. diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl)

c. metformin

Which of the following will optimize patient exposure during a fluoroscopic procedure? a. minimizing distance between the x-ray tube and patient b. using the smallest input phosphor size c. minimizing distance between image intensifier and patient d. using a high-ratio grid

c. minimizing distance between image intensifier and patient

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of beam restriction? a. reduced scatter radiation production b. need to irradiate less biologic material c. need for less total filtration d. improved image contrast

c. need for less total filtration

A patient who has sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle accident arrived in the radiology department alert and well oriented. While radiographing the patient, the radiographer observed that the patient was becoming drowsy, irritable, and less coherent. Which of the following would be the correction action for the radiographer to take? a. continue the radiographic examination b. ignore the changes in patient's condition, and place the patient back on the stretcher after completing the examination c. notify the department supervisor or the attending physician of the change in the patient's condition d. sound an emergency code alert

c. notify the department supervisor or the attending physician of the change in the patient's condition

X-rays and gamma rays used in diagnostic imaging are: a. not of concern because the beam is filtered b. part of the natural background dose c. part of an artificial background radiation dose d. an insignificant dose to the general population because they are used safely.

c. part of an artificial background radiation dose

The primary source of occupational radiation exposure for technologists is the: a. x-ray tube b. primary beam c. patient d. image receptor

c. patient

Which structure is represented by number 2 in the image. a. lamina b. transverse process c. pedicle d. spinous process

c. pedicle

The unit measure for collective-effective dose is a. gray. b. sievert. c. person-sievert. d. roentgen

c. person-sievert.

What is the BEST way to monitor whole-body radiation dose? a. proportional counter b. quarterly blood count c. personnel dosimeter d. geiger-muller (GM) survey meter

c. personnel dosimeter

Which of the following structures serves as a common passageway for both food and air? a. trachea b. esophagus c. pharynx d. nasal cavity

c. pharynx

The atlantoaxial joint between the dens of the axis and the anterior arch of the atlas is a(n) ________ joint. a. ellipsoidal b. gliding c. pivot d. saddle

c. pivot

During C-arm fluoroscopy, which of the following actions reduces patient exposure? a. placing the x-ray tube close to the patient b. using an antiscatter grid c. placing the x-ray tube farther from the patient d. operating in high-level mode

c. placing the x-ray tube farther from the patient

Needles used for venipuncture should be properly disposed of by: a. placing them in biohazard bins. b. placing them in nearby trash cans, as long as no blood is visible on them. c. placing them in a sharps container. d. recapping undamaged needles for cleaning and reuse.

c. placing them in a sharps container.

If a patient convulses in the x-ray department, the radiographer should do which of the following? a. insert a padded tongue blade b. restrain the patient c. prevent injury to the patient d. put the patient on the floor

c. prevent injury to the patient

Beam quantity relates to: a. primary beam photon energy. b. tube voltage. c. primary beam photon number. d. electron energy

c. primary beam photon number.

What is the most likely result of failing to position the anatomy of interest over the active ionization chambers when using automatic exposure control? a foreshortening b. image blur c. quantum mottle d. elongation

c. quantum mottle

Which of the following is used to reduce the effect of scatter radiation? a. intensifying screen b. compensating filters c. radiographic grids d. compression devices

c. radiographic grids

When the x-ray beam is NOT properly aligned with the grid strips the ________ is changed. a. spatial resolution b. sampling frequency c. receptor exposure d. distortion

c. receptor exposure

The rationale behind the development of automatic exposure control (AEC) is to: a. decrease the need for technique charts. b. make the technologist more of a button pusher. c. reduce repeats and improve image quality. d. increase productivity and patient dose

c. reduce repeats and improve image quality

Infants and the elderly often can have trouble maintaining the necessary radiographic position. If an immobilization device cannot be used, who is the BEST choice for holding the patient? a. floor nurse b. orderly c. relative d. student radiographer

c. relative

A patient develops erythema in the shape of the exposure field following an interventional procedure. The legal doctrine MOST relevant to this injury would be: a. respondeat superior. b. borrowed servant. c. res ipsa loquitur. d. beneficence.

c. res ipsa loquitur.

With the patient in a 40 degree RPO position, affected side down, hip joint centered to IR, and CR directed perpendicularly to the IR at the level of the ASIS, the structure best demonstrated is the a. right SI joint b. left SI joint c. right ilium d. left ilium

c. right ilium

The AEC controls which of the following exposure variables? a. kVp b. focal spot size c. seconds d. mA

c. seconds

Radiographic quality is achieved by balancing which of the following? a. density and contrast b. recorded detail and distortion c. sharpness and visibility of detail d. recorded detail and contrast

c. sharpness and visibility of detail

During myelography, immediately after the radiologist inserts the spinal needle to the desired space: a. the puncture site is cleaned. b. scout images are taken. c. some cerebrospinal fluid can be withdrawn for laboratory analysis. d. a local anesthetic is given.

c. some cerebrospinal fluid can be withdrawn for laboratory analysis.

The pterygoid process is part of which bone? a. ethmoid b. vomer c. sphenoid d. lacrimal

c. sphenoid

The sella turcica is part of which bone? a. temporal b. frontal bone c. sphenoid d. occipital

c. sphenoid

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra upon the vertebra below it? a. spondylitis b. spondylolysis c. spondylolisthesis d. spondylosis

c. spondylolisthesis

The advantage of the dose area product (DAP) meter as a dose measuring device is: a. it measures dose at the level of the collimator. b. the DAP meter terminates exposure after a certain dose is reached. c. technologists do not have to place it into the field. d. regular calibration is required.

c. technologists do not have to place it into the field.

The central ray enters the ________ when performing an AP axial projection of the toes. a. third metacarpophalangeal joint b. distal interphalangeal joint of the third phalanx c. third metatarsophalangeal joint d. head of the first metatarsal

c. third metatarsophalangeal joint

All of the following are equipment characteristics designed to reduce occupational dose during fluoroscopy, EXCEPT for the: a. cumulative timer. b. Bucky slot cover. c. tube positioned over the table. d. dead-man exposure switch

c. tube positioned over the table.

The most common site of health care-acquired infections (HIA) is: a. open wound b. compound fracture c. urinary catheter d. surgical sutures

c. urinary catheter

What is another name for a mechanical respirator? a. urinary catheter b. chest tube c. ventilator d. venous catheter

c. ventilator

A(n) ________ is MOST helpful in demonstrating suspected vesicoureteral reflux. a. intravenous urogram b. cystogram c. voiding cystourethrogram d. retrograde urogram

c. voiding cystourethrogram

MOST cell damage from ionizing radiation occurs when x-rays interact with: a. free radicals. b. DNA. c. water molecules. d. electrons.

c. water molecules.

All of the following demonstrate adherence to the as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) principle EXCEPT: a. using gonadal shielding. b. minimizing repeat images. c. wearing occupational dosimeters. d. collimating to area of interest.

c. wearing occupational dosimeters.

All fluoroscopic machines must have an exposure switch that is of a deadman type. This types of switch is one that stops: a. automatically b. after a pre-set time c. when the pressure on it released d. after a five-minute cumulative time has been reached.

c. when the pressure on it released

Which of the following are important components in documenting drug administration? 1. time and date of the drug administration 2. patient's reaction to the medication 3. route of drug administration a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

When an exposure is made using 69 kVp, ________ of the primary beam consists of characteristic x-rays a. 100% b. 60% c. 30% d. 0%

d. 0%

During fluoroscopy, the Bucky tray is moved to the end of the examination table, leaving an opening in the side of the table approximately two inches wide at the gonadal level. This opening must be automatically covered with at least: a. 0.10 mm lead equivalent material b. 0.15 mm lead equivalent material c. 0.20 mm lead equivalent material d. 0.25 mm lead equivalent material

d. 0.25 mm lead equivalent material

the Centers for Disease Control recommends that all Healthcare Providers: 1. wear gloves when touching blood, body fluids, or broken skin of all patients. To. Wash hands immediately if they become contaminated with blood or other bodily fluids. 3. Place syringes needles and sharp items in puncture-resistant containers for disposal

d. 1, 2 & 3

The radiographer can help to alleviate patient anxiety in the following way(s) 1. careful explanation of the procedure 2. avoiding use of complex medical terms 3. listening carefully to the patient a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

Effective dose limit is defined as the upper boundary dose that: a. can be absorbed annually wish a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage to the individual b. can be absorbed, either in a single exposure or annually, with no risk of damage to the individual c. can be absorbed, either in a single exposure or annually, with no risk of somatic or genetic damage to the individual d. Can be absorbed, either in a single exposure or annually, with a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage to the individual

d. Can be absorbed, either in a single exposure or annually, with a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage to the individual

Types of gonadal shielding include all of the following EXCEPT: a. flat contact. b. shaped (contour) contact. c. shadow. d. Ferlic filter.

d. Ferlic filter.

Which of the following will not contribute to the underexposure of an image? a. mA set too low b. kVp set too low c. SID set too high d. Focal spot size too large

d. Focal spot size too large

Which of the following is an impacted fracture of the posterolateral aspect of the humeral head? a. Holstein-Lewis fracture b. Bankart lesion c. Bennett fracture d. Hill-Sachs lesion

d. Hill-Sachs lesion

What condition involves an intestinal obstruction? a. annular carcinoma b. crohn disease c. hiatal hernia d. Ileus

d. Ileus

What condition may be adynamic or mechanical? a. Annular carcinoma b. Crohn disease c. Hiatal hernia d. Ileus

d. Ileus

How does an increase in kVp affect the keV of the characteristic interaction? a. Increasing kVp slightly increases keV. b. Increasing kVp decreases keV. c. Doubling kVp doubles keV. d. Increasing kVp does not affect the keV of the interaction.

d. Increasing kVp does not affect the keV of the interaction.

What causes blood to pool in peripheral vessels? a. anaphylaxis b. cardiogenic shock c. hypovolemic shock d. Neurogenic shock

d. Neurogenic shock

Density was the term used to describe the overall blackening of a film- a screen radiograph. What term is used in digital imaging to describe this radiographic quality? a. Window width b. Exposure c. Contrast d. Receptor exposure

d. Receptor exposure

Which of the following will have the greatest effect on radiographic contrast? a. Increasing tube filtration b. Decreasing beam restriction c. Decreasing focal spot size d. Reducing scatter radiation

d. Reducing scatter radiation

Which of the following structures is most distal? a. Ascending colon b. Cecum c. Descending colon d. Sigmoid

d. Sigmoid

Which of the following is NOT considered one of the geometric factors that control spatial resolution? a. OID b. SID c. Focal spot size d. Size of the object

d. Size of the object

________ is the local processing function of renumbering pixel values for an entire image domain. a. The look-up table (LUT) b. The histogram c. Equalization d. Windowing

d. Windowing

Which of the following affects shape distortion? a. SID b. OID c. Focal spot size d. X-ray tube angulation

d. X-ray tube angulation

All of the following are useful resources for non-English-speaking patients, except: a. automated language lines b. special dual headset phones c. a certified interpreter d. a family member or friend.

d. a family member or friend.

To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that a. the glabellomeatal line is vertical b. the acanthiomeatal line is vertical c. a line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is vertical d. a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical

d. a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical

ALARA is an acronym for: a. as long as reasonably achievable b. as little as reasonably achievable c. as long as radiologist allows d. a radiation protection concept that encourages radiation users to keep the dose to the patient as low as reasonably achievable.

d. a radiation protection concept that encourages radiation users to keep the dose to the patient as low as reasonably achievable.

When is it acceptable for a radiographer to stand in the path of the primary beam? a. when radiologist's instructions require him/her to do so b. when taking a radiograph of an uncooperative patient c. to restrain a patient during a radiographic procedure d. a radiographer should never stand in the path of the primary beam

d. a radiographer should never stand in the path of the primary beam

Which of the following is a benign tumor arising from Schwann cells of the eighth cranial nerve? a. pituitary adenoma b. multiple myeloma c. osteoma d. acoustic neuroma

d. acoustic neuroma

The purpose of the rheostat in the x-ray circuitry is to: a. minimize electron repulsion. b. monitor tube current. c. alter anode rotation speed. d. adjust filament temperature

d. adjust filament temperature

What term best describes the approximate skin dose where the x-ray beam is entering the patient? a. effective dose b. nonoccupational dose c. in-air exposure d. air-kerma

d. air-kerma

Which of the following statements about cultural diversity is/are false? a. it is fair to assume that a patient wearing an American college sweatshirt and baseball cap understands English. b. nodding the head up and down is a universal sign of agreement c. gently patting your patient on his/her back will be perceived as a comforting gesture. d. all of the above

d. all of the above

MSDS provide directions for: a. housekeeping only b. engineering only c. radiology only d. all persons exposed to hazardous materials

d. all persons exposed to hazardous materials

All of the following statements regarding hand hygiene and skin care are correct except: a. hand should be cleansed before and after every patient examination b. faucets should be opened and closed with paper towels c. hands should be smooth and free from chapping d. any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing.

d. any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing.

A 65-year-old man arrives for a barium enema. He confirms that he completed the prep and is extremely weak and feeling "wobbly." Upon standing to get to the examination table, the patient experiences syncope. The technologist should: a. call in a code and make sure all objects near the patient have been moved. b. have someone nearby prepare the automatic external defibrillator (AED). c. squeeze the nasal septum for up to 10 minutes to stop bleeding. d. assist the patient to a recumbent position and elevate his feet.

d. assist the patient to a recumbent position and elevate his feet.

Positive beam limitation is also known as: a. use of collimators b. beam limitation used for all exams c. use of beam restrictors d. automatic collimation

d. automatic collimation

All of the following are examples of postprocessing functions EXCEPT FOR: a. edge enhancement. b. smoothing. c. electronic masking. d. automatic rescaling.

d. automatic rescaling.

If a patient has an allergic reaction to the contrast media during an IVU, which should be done first? a. apply cold compresses b. inject 5 cc's of Benadryl c. inject 5 ml's of adrenalin d. call for a doctor

d. call for a doctor

If you determine that a patient is in need of CPR, what should be your first response? a. begin cardiac compressions b. run for help c. begin mouth to mouth d. call for help

d. call for help

Which of the following are carpal bones? a. capitate, hamate, navicular, talus b. calcaneus, hamate, pisiform, scaphoid c. capitate, hamate, scaphoid, talus d. capitate, hamate, pisiform, scaphoid

d. capitate, hamate, pisiform, scaphoid

A double-contrast examination of the esophagus typically uses________ as the negative contrast medium. a. barium sulfate b. water-soluble iodinated contrast c. oxygen d. carbon dioxide crystals

d. carbon dioxide crystals

The most frequently performed examination using a contrast medium is a(n): a. small bowel study b. IVP c. Barium enema d. chest x-ray study

d. chest x-ray study

Which of the following is the most commonly used beam restricting device? a. aperture diaphragm b. grid c. shield d. collimator

d. collimator

The greatest source of medical radiation exposure in the United States is: a. radiography. b. interventional fluoroscopy. c. nuclear medicine. d. computed tomography (CT).

d. computed tomography (CT).

Assessing an image for visible differences between 2 selected areas of brightness means that the radiographer is evaluating the image's: a. receptor exposure. b. spatial resolution. c. distortion. d. contrast.

d. contrast.

Which of the following may alert fluoroscopic x-ray production after a preset period of time? a. dose area product (DAP) meter b. deadman switch c. cumulative dose timer d. cumulative timer

d. cumulative timer

The first step in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is to: a. perform rescue breathing. b. position the patient. c. use the automated external defibrillator (AED). d. determine unresponsiveness.

d. determine unresponsiveness.

Which of the following transmission-based precautions also require the use of standard precautions? a. airborne and droplet precautions b. only contact precautions c. only droplet precautions d. droplet, contact, and airborne precautions

d. droplet, contact, and airborne precautions

Which of the following is an advantage of the air gap technique? a. easier to position the patient b. greater exposure latitude c. allows for a short SID d. eliminates the need for a grid

d. eliminates the need for a grid

If an individual receives an acute, high dose of radiation to the forearm, what is the correct order in which the following effects will occur? a. desquamation, epilation, erythema b. erythema, desquamation, epilation c. epilation, erythema, desquamation d. erythema, epilation, desquamation

d. erythema, epilation, desquamation

An 89-year-old male outpatient has a barium swallow. After completing the study and exiting the examination room, the patient suddenly collapses to the floor and is unconscious. He strikes his hand on the way down and is bleeding from a laceration on his palm. The radiographer calls in a code, but before anyone arrives, the first priority in this emergency situation is to: a. provide emotional support by talking to and gently touching the patient. b. attend to wounds or fractures. c. control bleeding. d. evaluate for and establish an open airway.

d. evaluate for and establish an open airway.

All of the following affect patient dose, EXCEPT for: a. inherent filtration. b. added filtration. c. source-to-image distance (SID). d. focal spot size

d. focal spot size

The ________ grid design is manufactured to match the divergence of the x-ray beam. a. parallel b. crossed c. linear d. focused

d. focused

The most effective method used to prevent the spread of infection is: a. wearing of gloves b. wearing of gowns c. distance d. handwashing

d. handwashing

Which of the following transmission-based precautions also require the use of standard precautions? a. airborne and droplet precautions b. only contact precautions c. patient must not have any direct contact with the health care worker d. handwashing must be performed.

d. handwashing must be performed.

A typical cervical vertebra will have a spinous process that: a. is long and projects inferiorly. b. is thick and blunt. c. contains a foramen. d. has a bifid tip.

d. has a bifid tip.

A 58-year-old man is in the radiology department for an upper GI series (UGI). He has followed nothing by mouth (NPO) instructions and has diabetes. When the radiographer stands the patient to position him for the upright portion of the study, the patient says he is dizzy and feeling weak. He took his morning medications along with his normal dose of insulin. The patient MOST likely is experiencing ________, and the radiographer should ________. a. hyperglycemia; give the patient a cup of water to drink b. hypoglycemia; give the patient a carbonated drink such as seltzer water or a soda c. hyperglycemia; give the patient something salty to eat d. hypoglycemia; give the patient something sweet such as fruit juice

d. hypoglycemia; give the patient something sweet such as fruit juice

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding source-to-image distance (SID)? a. decreasing SID decreases Compton scatter b. decreasing SID decreases magnification. c. increasing SID increases receptor exposure d. increasing SID decreases distortion

d. increasing SID decreases distortion

The _____________ shows the lesser tubercle of the humerus in profile and directed anteriorly a. AP oblique projection (Apple method) b. AP oblique projection (Grashey method) c. tangential projection (Neer method) d. inferosuperior axial projection (Lawrence method)

d. inferosuperior axial projection (Lawrence method)

The phase of the cellular life cycle, in order, are: a. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase b. interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase c. G(1), S, G(2), telophase d. interphase (G1, S, G2), prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

d. interphase (G1, S, G2), prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Disclosing confidential information to an unauthorized individual is termed: a. defamation b. slander c. libel d. invasion of privacy

d. invasion of privacy

The ________ generator component converts DC current to high-frequency AC a. capacitor b. rectifier c. transformer d. inverter

d. inverter

What type of contrast medium dissociates into 2 molecular particles in water? a. nonionic agents b. hydroxyl groups c. amine groups d. ionic agents

d. ionic agents

Cosmic radiation: a. is present only in space b. is a source of exposure only to persons who lie in the sun c. is of concern only to space travelers d. is a part of natural background exposure

d. is a part of natural background exposure

The air-gap technique uses a ________ source-to-image distance (SID) and a ________ object-to-image distance (OID). a. short; short b. short; long c. long; short d. long; long

d. long; long

The condition in which an object's radiographic image size is greater than its actual size is called: a. foreshortening. b. elongation. c. distortion. d. magnification

d. magnification

If all other factors remain constant in intensified fluoroscopy, the shift of the focal point toward the input phosphor: a. increases image brightness. b. increases the number of electrons created. c. improves image contrast. d. magnifies the image.

d. magnifies the image.

A contrast medium overdose: a. cannot occur because a contrast medium is not a drug b. may occur in infants c. may occur if contrast material was injected during the week before the examination d. may occur in infants or adults who have renal, cardiac, or hepatic failure

d. may occur in infants or adults who have renal, cardiac, or hepatic failure

Hypodermic needles are described by their gauge, which is a: a. list of uses of the needle b. measure of the length of the needle c. measure of the diameter of the needle d. measure of the diameter of the needle opening-the larger the gauge, the smaller the diameter

d. measure of the diameter of the needle opening-the larger the gauge, the smaller the diameter

When acquiring a lateral image of the forearm, the central ray enters at the: a. ulnar styloid process. b. radial head. c. olecranon process. d. midpoint of the forearm.

d. midpoint of the forearm.

The thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the a. coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR b. midsagittal plane 90 degrees to the IR c. coronal plane 20 degrees to the IR d. midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR

d. midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR

During the fluoroscopic procedure, what effort would BEST reduce radiation exposure to the technologist? a. shielding the patient b. instructing the patient to hold still and cooperate c. explaining the procedure to the patient d. minimizing the time spent in the procedure.

d. minimizing the time spent in the procedure

In pediatric imaging, a neonate is usually described as a/an: a. preschooler b. toddler c. infant d. newborn

d. newborn

Which of the following means there is a safe level of radiation for certain effects and those effects are not directly proportional to the dose received when the safe level is exceeded? a. nonlinear-nonthreshold effect b. linear-nonthreshold effect c. linear-threshold effect d. nonlinear-threshold effect

d. nonlinear-threshold effect

A male technologist arrives at a patient's room for a portable lumbar spine radiograph, but the patient refuses the examination, stating that only a female can enter the room to perform any examinations. The MOST appropriate course of action for the technologist in this situation is to: a. immediately leave the patient's room and continue to the next patient. b. tell the patient she has no choice on who conducts the examination. c. cancel the patient's examination. d. notify the radiology supervisor of the patient's request so that a female technologist can perform the examination.

d. notify the radiology supervisor of the patient's request so that a female technologist can perform the examination.

Which of the following are cranial bones? a. frontal, occipital, and mandible b. sphenoid, vomer, and temporal c. palatine, lacrimal, and occipital d. occipital, temporal, and parietal

d. occipital, temporal, and parietal

On a PA axial projection of the mandibular rami, the ________ line should be perpendicular to the image receptor for accurate flexion. a. acanthiomeatal (AML) b. glabellomeatal (GML) c. infraorbitomeatal (IOML) d. orbitomeatal (OML)

d. orbitomeatal (OML)

A malignant tumor in the bone is a(n): a. chondrosarcoma. b. enchondroma. c. Ewing sarcoma. d. osteosarcoma

d. osteosarcoma

A correct position to wear a personnel dosimeter during fluoroscopy is: a. under the lead apron, at the waist level b. under the lead apron, at the collar level c. over the lead apron, at the waist level d. over the lead apron, at the collar level

d. over the lead apron, at the collar level

Which of the following involves interaction between an incident photo and an atomic nucleus? a, photoelectric interaction b. compton interaction c. coherent scatter d. pair production

d. pair production

A patient becomes severely agitated because he cannot understand instructions. The patient does not understand English, but the technologist has attempted to demonstrate what the patient needs to do with no success. The patient's younger sister is fluent in English and available in the waiting room. The BEST course of action is to: a. continue with the examination, ignoring the patient's agitation. b. stop the examination and ask the patient's sister to serve as interpreter. c. speak to the patient in a slow and calming voice. d. seek qualified medical interpretation services.

d. seek qualified medical interpretation services.

The bony structure in which the pituitary sits is the ________, which is in the ________ bone. a. clivus; sphenoid b. cribriform plate; ethmoid c. sphenoid strut; ethmoid d. sella turcica; sphenoid

d. sella turcica; sphenoid

What is the caused by an infection that results in extremely low blood pressure? a. anaphylaxis b. cardiogenic shock c. hypovolemic shock d. septic shock

d. septic shock

The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the: a. mucosa b. muscularis c. submucosa d. serosa (fibrous)

d. serosa (fibrous)

The anode heel effect is most prevalent with a ________ SID and ________ receptor size. a. long; small b. long; large c. short; small d. short; large

d. short; large

When obtaining images for a bone age protocol on an infant, it is BEST to use the ________ to: a. large focal spot; increase OID b. large focal spot; optimize spatial resolution c. small focal spot; increase OID d. small focal spot; optimize spatial resolution

d. small focal spot; optimize spatial resolution

All other factors remaining constant, the imaging system with which of the following will demonstrate the best spatial resolution? a. largest field of view b. highest contrast resolution c. lowest detective quantum efficiency d. smallest pixel size

d. smallest pixel size

The ________ sinus(es) sit(s) directly beneath the sella turcica. a. ethmoidal b. frontal c. maxillary d. sphenoidal

d. sphenoidal

A patient in the emergency department requires a mobile chest x-ray. What effort would BEST reduce radiation exposure to the technologist? a. explaining the procedure to the patient before beginning b. shielding the patient during the exposure c. providing good breathing instructions to the patient d. standing 6 feet from the x-ray tube during the exposure.

d. standing 6 feet from the x-ray tube during the exposure.

Which of the following is NOT a principle for safe transfer of patients? a. keeping the back stationary during a patient lift b. holding the patient's center of gravity close to one's own c. letting the patient do as much of the transfer as possible d. standing with feet together for stability

d. standing with feet together for stability

When evaluating an abdominal image for rotation, technologists can use ________ as a radiographic checkpoint. a. symmetry of the sternoclavicular joints b. demonstration of the psoas muscles c. demonstration of the pubic symphysis d. symmetry of the iliac alae

d. symmetry of the iliac alae

All of the following are inappropriate sites for venipuncture EXCEPT FOR: a. arms on the side of a mastectomy. b. edematous areas. c. sites above an intravenous access device. d. the dorsal side of the wrist.

d. the dorsal side of the wrist.

For a PA projection of the chest, the central ray is adjusted parallel to _______ and enters at the level of ________. a. T7; the midcoronal plane b. T7; the midsagittal plane c. the midcoronal plane; T7 d. the midsagittal plane; T7

d. the midsagittal plane; T7

Which of the following conditions must be met to prove malpractice? a. the injury actually occurred and is a result of negligence b. the standard of care was violated by the person being sued. c. the injury was caused by the person being sued and is a result of negligence d. the standard of care was violated and the injury actually occurred and was caused by the defendant and was a result of negligence.

d. the standard of care was violated and the injury actually occurred and was caused by the defendant and was a result of negligence.

The process of electrons boiling off the filament is referred to as: a. space charge effect. b. incandescence. c. space cloud limited. d. thermionic emission.

d. thermionic emission.

What portion of the radius may be seen slightly superimposing the distal ulna on an AP projection of the forearm? a. head b. neck c. styloid process d. tuberosity

d. tuberosity

A radiologic technologist is called to a patient floor to acquire a portable chest radiograph on a patient known to have an active tuberculosis infection. To prevent potential exposure to the pathogen, the radiographer should: a. remove the patient's mask during the exposure to ensure a deep breath has been taken. b. make the exposure from the other side of an open door. c. make sure the patient is kept in a positive-pressure isolation room due to the infectious nature of tuberculosis. d. wear specified respiratory protection and other protective means as stated on the patient's door, chart, or at the direction of the patient's nurse.

d. wear specified respiratory protection and other protective means as stated on the patient's door, chart, or at the direction of the patient's nurse.