Renal Disorders/Dialysis & Peritoneal Dialysis NCLEX

3. The drainage bag should be kept below the level of the bladder to prevent reflux of urine into the renal system; it should not be placed on the bed.

The nurse is observing the UAP providing direct care to a client with an indwelling catheter. Which data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse? 1.The UAP secures the tubing to the client's leg with tape. 2.The UAP provides catheter care with the client's bath. 3.The UAP puts the collection bag on the client's bed. 4.The UAP cares for the catheter after washing the hands.

3 A long-term complication of glomerulonephritis is it can become chronic if unresponsive to treatment,and this can lead to end-stage renal disease. Maintaining renal function is an appropriate long-term goal.

The nurse is preparing a plan of care for the client diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which statement is an appropriate long-term goal? 1.The client will have a blood pressure within normal limits. 2.The client will show no protein in the urine. 3.The client will maintain normal renal function. 4.The client will have clear lung sounds.

A client undergoing hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding from the heparin used during the hemodialysis treatment. The nurse assesses for this occurrence by periodically checking the results of which of the following lab tests? a. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) b. Prothrombin time (PT) c. Thrombin time (TT) d. Bleeding time

A Heparin is the anticoagulant used most often during hemodialysis. The hemodialysis nurse monitors the extent of anticoagulation by checking the PTT, which is the appropriate measure of heparin effect. The PT is used to monitor the effect of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Thrombin and bleeding times are not used to measure the effect of heparin therapy, although they are useful in the diagnosis of other clotting abnormalities.

A client with end-stage renal disease is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. The nurse is monitoring the client for signs of complications associated with peritoneal dialysis. Select all that apply. 1. Pruritus 2. Oliguria 3. Tachycardia 4. Cloudy outflow 5. Abdominal pain

Answer: 3, 4, 5 Rationale: Tachycardia can be caused by peritonitis, a complication of peritoneal dialysis; the heart rate increases to meet the metabolic demands associated with infection. Cloudy or opaque dialysate outflow (effluent) is the earliest sign of peritonitis; it is caused by the constituents associated with an infectious process. Abdominal pain is associated with peritonitis, a complication of peritoneal dialysis; pain results from peritoneal inflammation, abdominal distention, and involuntary muscle spasms. Severe itching (pruritus) is caused by metabolic waste products that are deposited in the skin; dialysis removes metabolic waste products, preventing this adaptation associated with kidney failure. The production of abnormally small amounts of urine (oliguria) is a sign of kidney failure, not a complication of peritoneal dialysis.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has returned from the dialysis unit following hemodialysis. The client is complaining of headache and nausea and is extremely restless. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Monitor the client. b. Notify the physician. c. Elevate the head of the bed. d. Medicate the client for nausea.

B Disequilibrium syndrome may be caused by the rapid decreases in the blood urea nitrogen level during hemodialysis. These changes can cause cerebral edema that leads to increased intracranial pressure. The client is exhibiting early signs of disequilibrium syndrome and appropriate treatments with anticonvulsive medications and barbiturates may be necessary to prevent a life-threatening situation. The physician must be notified.

The hemodialysis client with a left arm fistula is at risk for arterial steal syndrome. The nurse assesses this client for which of the following manifestations? a. Warmth, redness, and pain in the left hand. b. Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand. c. Edema and reddish discoloration of the left arm. d. Aching pain, pallor, and edema of the left arm.

B Steal syndrome results from vascular insufficiency after creation of a fistula. The client exhibits pallor and a diminished pulse distal to the fistula. The client also complains of pain distal to the fistula, caused by tissue ischemia. Warmth, redness, and pain probably would characterize a problem with infection. The manifestations described in options 3 and 4 are incorrect.

A client with chronic renal failure is about to begin hemodialysis therapy. The client asks the nurse about the frequency and scheduling of hemodialysis treatments. The nurse's response is based on an understanding that the typical schedule is: a. 5 hours of treatment 2 days per week. b. 3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week c. 2 to 3 hours of treatment 5 days per week d. 2 hours of treatment 6 days per week

B The typical schedule for hemodialysis is 3 to 4 hours of treatment three days per week. Individual adjustments may be made according to variables such as the size of the client, type of dialyzer, the rate of blood flow, personal client preferences, and others.

The diet order for a client receiving hemodialysis is written as 80-3-3. When the nurse explains the diet to the client, which of the following will be included in the teaching? Select all that apply. a. 80 grams of fat are allowed per day b. 80 grams of protein are allowed per day c. potassium is restricted to 3 grams a day d. phosphorus is restricted to 3 grams a day e. potassium is restricted to 80 mg per day f. sodium is restricted to 3 grams per day

B. 80 grams of protein are allowed per day C. potassium is restricted to 3 grams a day F. sodium is restricted to 3 grams per day A typical renal diet could be written as "80-3-3," which means 80 grams of protein, 3 grams of sodium, and 3 grams of potassium are allowed per day.

The nurse has completed client teaching with the hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse determines that the client best understands the information if the client states to record daily the: a. Amount of activity. b. Pulse and respiratory rate. c. Intake and output and weight. d. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels.

C The client on hemodialysis should monitor fluid status between hemodialysis treatments by recording intake and output and measuring weight daily. Ideally, the hemodialysis client should not gain more than 0.5 kg of weight/day.

A client diagnosed with chronic renal failure (CRF) is scheduled to begin hemodialysis. The nurse assesses that which of the following neurological and psychosocial manifestations if exhibited by this client would be unrelated to the CRF? a. Labile emotions. b. Withdrawal. c. Euphoria. d. Depression.

C The client with CRF often experiences a variety of psychosocial changes. These are related to uremia, as well as the stress associated with living with a chronic disease that is life-threatening. Clients with CRF may have labile emotions or personality changes and may exhibit withdrawal, depression, or agitation. Delusions and psychosis also can occur. Euphoria is not part of the clinical picture for the client in renal failure.

The nurse at the dialysis clinic notes when she reviews a client's labs that the labs indicated hyperkalemia. She makes a note to make sure the client is adhering to all dietary restrictions. Of the following possibilities, which might the nurse ask about? a. fiber supplements b. intake of whole grains c. salt substitutes d. sugar substitutes

C . Salt Substitutes Potassium may be restricted in some clients because hyperkalemia tends to occur in end-stage renal disease. Excess potassium can cause cardiac arrest. Because of this danger, renal clients should not use salt substitutes or low-sodium milk because the sodium in these products is replaced with potassium.

A client with renal failure is undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for this client? a) Impaired urinary elimination b) Toileting self-care deficit c) Risk for infection d) Activity intolerance

C) Risk for infection Explanation: The peritoneal dialysis catheter and regular exchanges of the dialysis bag provide a direct portal for bacteria to enter the body. If the client experiences repeated peritoneal infections, continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis may no longer be effective in clearing waste products. Impaired urinary elimination, Toileting self-care deficit, and Activity intolerance may be pertinent but are secondary to the risk of infection.

A male client has doubts about performing peritoneal dialysis at home. He informs the nurse about his existing upper respiratory infection. Which of the following suggestions can the nurse offer to the client while performing an at-home peritoneal dialysis? a) Perform deep-breathing exercises vigorously. b) Avoid carrying heavy items. c) Auscultate the lungs frequently. d) Wear a mask when performing exchanges.

D) Wear a mask when performing exchanges The nurse should advise the client to wear a mask while performing exchanges. This prevents contamination of the dialysis catheter and tubing, and is usually advised to clients with upper respiratory infection. Auscultation of the lungs will not prevent contamination of the catheter or tubing. The client may also be advised to perform deep-breathing exercises to promote optimal lung expansion, but this will not prevent contamination. Clients with a fistula or graft in the arm should be advised against carrying heavy items.

2. Elevating the scrotum on a towel for support is a task which can be delegated to the UAP.

The client is one (1) day postoperative TURP. Which task should the nurse delegate to the UAP? 1.Increase the irrigation fluid to clear clots from the tubing. 2.Elevate the scrotum on a towel roll for support. 3.Change the dressing on the first postoperative day. 4.Teach the client how to care for the continuous irrigation catheter.

1 Fever, chills, and costovertebral pain are symptoms of a urinary tract infection (acute pyelonephritis), which requires a urine culture first to confirm the diagnosis.

The client is reporting chills, fever, and left costovertebral pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse expect the HCP to prescribe first? 1.A midstream urine for culture. 2.A sonogram of the kidney. 3.An intravenous pyelogram for renal calculi. 4.A CT scan of the kidneys.

1. The nurse should place the client's chair with the head lower than thebody, which will shunt blood to the brain; this is the Trendelenburg position.

The client receiving dialysis is complaining of being dizzy and light-headed. Which action should the nurse implement first? 1.Place the client in the Trendelenburg position. 2.Turn off the dialysis machine immediately. 3.Bolus the client with 500 mL of normal saline. 4.Notify the health-care provider as soon as possible.

2. Increasing the irrigation fluid will flush out the clots and blood.

The nurse observes red urine and several large clots in the tubing of the normal saline continuous irrigation catheter for the client who is one (1) day postoperative TURP. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1.Remove the indwelling catheter. 2.Titrate the NS irrigation to run faster. 3.Administer protamine sulfate IVP. 4.Administer vitamin K slowly.

A client who has a renal mass asks the nurse why an ultrasound has been scheduled, as opposed to other diagnostic tests that may be ordered. The nurse formulates a response based on the understanding that: a) all other tests are more invasive than an ultrasound b) all other tests require more elaborate postprocedure care c) an ultrasound can differentiate a solid mass from a fluid-filled cyst d) an ultrasound is much more cost effective than other diagnostic tests

c) an ultrasound can differentiate a solid mass from a fluid-filled cyst

The home care nurse is making follow-up visits to a client following renal transplant. The nurse assesses the client for which signs of acute graft rejection? a) hypotension, graft tenderness, and anemia b) hypertension, oliguria, thirst, and hypothermia c) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise d) fever, vomiting, hypotension, and copious amounts of dilute urine

c) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise

The client arrives at the emergency department with complaints of low abdominal pain and hematuria. The client is afebrile. The nurse next assesses the client to determine a history of: a) pyelonephritis b) glomerulonephritis c) trauma to the bladder or abdomen d) renal cancer in the client's family

c) trauma to the bladder or abdomen Use the process of elimination. Eliminate options A and B, knowing that any inflammatory disease or infection is accompanied by fever. Because this client is afebrile, these are not possible options. Use knowledge of anatomy and pain assessment to select option C. Pain from renal cancer is a later finding and is localized in the flank area.

The client with an external arteriovenous shunt in place for hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding. The priority nurse action would be to: a) check the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill b) observe the site once as time permits during the shift c) check the results of the prothrombin time as they are determined d) ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing

d) ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing - An arteriovenous shunt is a less common form of access site but carries a risk for bleeding when it is used because two ends of an external cannula are tunneled subcutaneously into an artery and a vein, and the ends of the cannula are joined. If accidental disconnection occurs, the client could lose blood rapidly. For this reason, small clamps are attached to the dressing that covers the insertion site for use if needed. The shunt site also should be assessed at least every 4 hours.

A client has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. During history-taking the nurse first asks the client about a recent history of: a) bleeding ulcer b) deep vein thrombosis c) myocardial infarction d) streptococcal infection

d) streptococcal infection

4. This is a potentially life-threatening problem.

Which nursing diagnosis is priority for the client who has undergone a TURP? 1.Potential for sexual dysfunction. 2.Potential for an altered body image. 3.Potential for chronic infection. 4.Potential for hemorrhage.

2. These crystals are uremic frost resulting from irritating toxins deposited in the client's tissues. Bathing in cool water will remove the crystals, promote client comfort, and decrease the itching resulting from uremic frost.

The UAP tells the nurse the client with ARF has a white crystal-like layer on top of the skin. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1.Have the assistant apply a moisture barrier cream to the skin. 2.Instruct the UAP to bathe the client in cool water. 3.Tell the UAP not to turn the client in this condition. 4.Explain this is normal and do not do anything for the client.

A nurse is assigned to care for a client with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse assesses which important parameter on a daily basis? a) weight b) albumin levels c) activity tolerance d) blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

a) weight

The nurse develops a post-procedure plan of care for a client who had a renal biopsy. The nurse avoids documenting which intervention in the plan? a) administering analgesics as needed b) encouraging fluids to at least 3L in the first 24 hours c) testing serial urine samples with dipstick for occult blood d) ambulating the client in the room and hall for short distances

d) ambulating the client in the room and hall for short distances

The client with chronic renal failure who is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should plan to administer this medication: a. during dialysis b. just before dialysis c. the day after dialysis d. on return form dialysis

D on return form dialysis

3 Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is approximately 120 mL/min. If the GFR is decreased to 40 mL/min, the kidneys are functioning at about one-third filtration capacity.

The elderly client is diagnosed with chronic glomerulonephritis. Which laboratory value indicates to the nurse the condition has become worse? 1.The blood urea nitrogen is 15 mg/dL. 2.The creatinine level is 1.2 mg/dL. 3.The glomerular filtration rate is 40 mL/min. 4.The 24-hour creatinine clearance is 100 mL/min.

4. Use of the bladder training drill is helpful in stress incontinence. The client is instructed to void at scheduled intervals. After consistently being dry, the interval is increased by 15 minutes until the client reaches an acceptable interval.

The elderly client recovering from a prostatectomy has been experiencing stress incontinence. Which independent nursing intervention should the nurse discuss with the client? 1.Establish a set voiding frequency of every two (2) hours while awake. 2.Encourage a family member to assist the client to the bathroom to void. 3.Apply a transurethral electrical stimulator to relieve symptoms of urinary urgency. 4.Discuss the use of a "bladder drill," including a timed voiding schedule.

2. This client's dialysis access is compromised and he or she should be assessed first.

The nurse in the dialysis center is initiating the morning dialysis run. Which client should the nurse assess first? 1.The client who has hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL and hematocrit of 30%. 2.The client who does not have a palpable thrill or auscultated bruit. 3.The client who is complaining of being exhausted and is sleeping. 4.The client who did not take antihypertensive medication this morning.

4. Clients with acute bacterial prostatitis will frequently experience a sudden onset of fever and chills. Clients with chronic prostatitis have milder symptoms.

Which data support to the nurse the client's diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis? 1.Terminal dribbling. 2.Urinary frequency. 3.Stress incontinence. 4.Sudden fever and chills.

Which of the following is an expected finding in the client with chronic renal failure? a) anemia b) polyuria c) increased creatinine clearance d) increased serum calcium levels

a) anemia

The client in end-stage of renal failure had undergone kidney transplant. Which of the following assessment findings indicate kidney transplant rejection? a) increased urinary output, BUN = 15 mg/dL b) HCT = 50%, Hgb = 17 g/dl c) decreased urinary output, sudden weight gain d) decreased urinary output, sudden weight loss

c) decreased urinary output, sudden weight gain

A client newly diagnosed with renal failure has just been started on peritoneal dialysis. During the infusion of the dialysate, the client complains of abdominal pain. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? 1. Stop the dialysis. 2. Slow the infusion. 3. Decrease the amount to be infused. 4. Explain that the pain will subside after the first few exchanges.

4. Pain during the inflow of dialysate is common during the first few exchanges because of peritoneal irritation; however, the pain usually disappears after 1 to 2 weeks of treatment. The infusion amount should not be decreased, and the infusion should not be slowed or stopped.

The nurse has instructed a patient who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary management. Which diet choices by the patient indicate that the teaching has been successful? a. Scrambled eggs, English muffin, and apple juice b. Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and cranberry juice c. Split-pea soup, whole-wheat toast, and nonfat milk d. Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and herbal tea

A Rationale: Scrambled eggs would provide high-quality protein, and apple juice is low in potassium. Cheese is high in salt and phosphate, and tomato soup would be high in potassium. Split-pea soup is high in potassium, and dairy products are high in phosphate. Bananas are high in potassium, and the cream would be high in phosphate.

In preparation for hemodialysis, a patient has an AV native fistula created in the left forearm. When caring for the fistula postoperatively, the nurse should a. check the fistula site for a bruit and thrill. b. assess the rate and quality of the left radial pulse. c. compare blood pressures in the left and right arms. d. irrigate the fistula site daily with low-dose heparin.

A Rationale: The presence of a thrill and bruit indicates adequate blood flow through the fistula. Pulse rate and quality are not good indicators of fistula patency. Blood pressures should never be obtained on the arm with a fistula. Irrigation of the fistula might damage the fistula, and typically only dialysis staff would access the fistula.

A client with chronic renal failure has completed a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse would use which of the following standard indicators to evaluate the client's status after dialysis? a. Vital signs and weight. b. Potassium level and weight. c. Vital signs and BUN. d. BUN and creatinine levels.

A Following dialysis, the client's vital signs are monitored to determine whether the client is remaining hemodynamically stable. Weight is measured and compared with the client's predialysis weight to determine effectiveness of fluid extraction. Laboratory studies are done as per protocol but are not necessarily done after the hemodialysis treatment has ended.

The client being hemodialyzed suddenly becomes short of breath and complains of chest pain. The client is tachycardic, pale, and anxious. The nurse suspects air embolism. The priority action for the nurse is to: a. Discontinue dialysis and notify the physician. b. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the next hour. c. Continue dialysis at a slower rate after checking the lines for air. d. Bolus the client with 500 mL of normal saline to break up the embolus.

A If the client experiences air embolus during hemodialysis, the nurse should terminate dialysis immediately, notify the physician, and administer oxygen as needed. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

The nurse is educating a client who recently had a kidney transplant about the dietary changes that will be necessary. Which of the following statements could the nurse make to the client? Select all that apply. a. additional calcium may be needed b. carbohydrates may be restricted c. extra protein may be needed d. fats may be limited e. protein may be restricted f. sodium may be restricted

ALL--> A, B, C, D, E, F After kidney transplant, there may be a need for extra protein or for the restriction of protein. Carbohydrate and sodium may be restricted. The appropriate amounts of these nutrients will depend largely on the medications given at the time. Additional calcium and phosphorus may be necessary if there was substantial bone loss before the transplant. There may be an increased appetite after transplant, so fats and simple carbohydrates may be limited to prevent excessive weight gain.

A patient begins hemodialysis after having had conservative management of chronic kidney disease. The nurse explains that one dietary regulation that will be changed when hemodialysis is started is that a. unlimited fluids are allowed since retained fluid is removed during dialysis. b. increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. c. more protein will be allowed because of the removal of urea and creatinine by dialysis. d. dietary sodium and potassium are unrestricted because these levels are normalized by dialysis.

C Rationale: Once the patient is started on dialysis and nitrogenous wastes are removed, more protein in the diet is allowed. Fluids are still restricted to avoid excessive weight gain and complications such as shortness of breath. Glucose is not lost during hemodialysis. Sodium and potassium intake continues to be restricted to avoid the complications associated with high levels of these electrolytes.

A patient with acute renal failure (ARF) requires hemodialysis and temporary vascular access is obtained by placing a catheter in the left femoral vein. The nurse will plan to a. restrict the patient's oral protein intake. b. discontinue the retention catheter. c. place the patient on bed rest. d. start continuous pulse oximetry.

C Rationale: The patient with a femoral vein catheter must be on bed rest to prevent trauma to the vein. Protein intake is likely to be increased when the patient is receiving dialysis. The retention catheter is likely to remain in place because accurate measurement of output will be needed. There is no indication that the patient needs continuous pulse oximetry.

The nurse is calculating the protein requirement for a client who is switching from peritoneal dialysis to hemodialysis. The client is 5'5" tall and weighs 140 pounds. How many grams of protein does this client need per day? a. 42 to 63 b. 51 to 62 c. 64 to 76 d. 76 to 96

C. 64 to 76 A client on hemodialysis requires 1.0 to 1.2 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight. The client weighs 64 kg so the requirement is 64 to 76.

A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is started on hemodialysis, and after the first treatment, the patient complains of nausea and a headache. The nurse notes mild jerking and twitching of the patient's extremities. The nurse will anticipate the need to a. increase the time for the next dialysis to remove wastes more completely. b. switch to continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) to improve dialysis efficiency. c. administer medications to control these symptoms before the next dialysis. d. slow the rate for the next dialysis to decrease the speed of solute removal.

D Rationale: The patient has symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome, which can be prevented by slowing the rate of dialysis so that fewer solutes are removed during the dialysis. Increasing the time of the dialysis to remove wastes more completely will increase the risk for disequilibrium syndrome. CRRT is a less efficient means of removing wastes and, because it is continuous, would not be used for a patient with CKD. Administration of medications to control the symptoms is not an appropriate action; rather, the disequilibrium syndrome should be avoided.

4 Coffee, tea, cola, and alcoholic beverages are urinary tract irritants.

The female client in an outpatient clinic is being sent home with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which instruction should the nurse teach to prevent a recurrence of a UTI? 1.Clean the perineum from back to front after a bowel movement. 2.Take warm tub baths instead of hot showers daily. 3.Void immediately preceding sexual intercourse. 4.Avoid coffee, tea, colas, and alcoholic beverages.

1. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels reflect the balance between the production and excretion of urea from the kidneys. Creatinine is a by-product of the metabolism of the muscles and is excreted by the kidneys. Creatinine is the ideal sub-stance for determining renal clearance because it is relatively constant in the body and is the laboratory value most significant in diagnosing renal failure.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with ARF. Which laboratory values are most significant for diagnosing ARF? 1.BUN and creatinine. 2.WBC and hemoglobin. 3.Potassium and sodium. 4.Bilirubin and ammonia level.

2. Bladder spasms are common, but being relieved with medication indicates the condition is improving.

The nurse is caring for a client with a TURP. Which expected outcome indicates the client's condition is improving? 1.The client is using the maximum amount allowed by the PCA pump. 2.The client's bladder spasms are relieved by medication. 3.The client's scrotum is swollen and tender with movement. 4.The client has passed a large, hard, brown stool this morning.

1. A client with a peaked T wave could be experiencing hyperkalemia. Changes in potassium levels can initiate cardiac dysrhythmias and instability.

The telemetry monitor technician notifies the nurse of the morning telemetry readings. Which client should the nurse assess first? 1.The client in normal sinus rhythm with a peaked T wave. 2.The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation with a rate of 100. 3.The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction who has occasional PVCs. 4.The client with a first-degree atrioventricular block and a rate of 92.

Which of the following client responses shows a correct understanding of continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)? a) I am expected to perform the procedure at home b) the procedure lasts for one hour c) I have to sit and raise my legs during the procedure d) I have to go to the hospital for this procedure

a) I am expected to perform the procedure at home

Which of the following problems is expected in a client who is in end-stage renal failure? a) anemia b) thalassemia c) renal calculi d) hypotension

a) anemia

The client has been diagnosed to have glomerulonephritis. What should the nurse observe in the urine? a) blood b) pus c) white blood cells d) glucose

a) blood

The client with chronic renal failure has an indwelling abdominal catheter for peritoneal dialysis. The client spills water on the catheter dressing while bathing. The nurse should immediately: a) change the dressing b) reinforce the dressing c) flush the peritoneal dialysis catheter d) scrub the catheter with povidine-iodine

a) change the dressing - Clients with peritoneal dialysis catheters are at high risk for infection. A wet dressing is a conduit for bacteria to reach the catheter insertion site. The nurse ensures that the dressing is kept dry at all times. Reinforcing the dressing is not a safe practice to prevent infection in this circumstance. Flushing the catheter is not indicated. Scrubbing the catheter with povidone-iodine is done at the time of connection or disconnection of peritoneal dialysis.

The nurse instructs a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary modifications. The nurse determines that the client understands these dietary modifications if the client selects which items from the dietary menu? a) cream of wheat, blueberries, coffee b) sausage and eggs, banana, orange juice c) bacon, cantaloupe melon, tomato juice d) cured pork, strawberries, orange juice

a) cream of wheat, blueberries, coffee - the diet for a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis should include controlled amounts of sodium, phosphorus, calcium, potassium, and fluids. Option B, C, and D are high in sodium, phosphorus, and potassium.

The client hemodialyzed suddenly becomes short of breath and complains of chest pain. The client is tachycardic, pale and anxious. The nurse suspects air embolism. The priority action for the nurse is to: a) discontinue dialysis and notify the physician b) monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the next hour c) continue dialysis at a slower rate after checking the lines for air d) bolus the client with 500 ml of normal saline to break up the air embolus

a) discontinue dialysis and notify the physician

Which of the following should be considered in the diet of the client with end-stage-renal-disease (ESRD)? a) limit fluid intake during anuric phase b) limit phosphorus and vitamin D-rich food c) limit calcium-rich food d) limit carbohydrates

a) limit fluid intake during anuric phase during ESRD, fluid intake of the client should be limited during anuric phase to prevent fluid overload. Fluid overload increases renal workload, pulmonary edema, and congestive heart failure.

Which of the following should the nurse include in the nursing care plan of the client who is diagnosed to have renal failure, whose BUN is 32 mg/dl, serum creatinine is 4 mg/dl, hematocrit is 38%. He is complaining of fatigue and edema. a) low protein diet and fluid restriction b) high protein diet and fluid restriction c) low protein diet and increase in fiber d) high protein diet and potassium restriction

a) low protein diet and fluid restriction

The client has end-stage renal disease. He had undergone kidney transplant 5 days ago. Which of the following is the most important intervention for the client to prevent infection? a) observe asepsis b) increase fluid intake c) avoid clients with flu d) avoid crowded places

a) observe asepsis

The physician orders a combination of Sulfamethoxazole and Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Azogantrisol) for a patient. Which therapeutic effect should this combination drug have: a) plain relief and a decreased WBC count b) equal fluid intake and output c) polyuria with reddish stain d) increased complaints of bladder spasm after 20 minutes

a) plain relief and a decreased WBC count

The client with continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has cloudy dialysate. Which of the following is the best initial nursing action? a) send fluid to the laboratory for culture b) administer antibiotic c) do nothing, this is expected d) stop drainage of fluid

a) send fluid to the laboratory for culture cloudy diasylate indicates infection (peritonitis). Culture of the fluid must be done to determine the microorganism present.

The client with chronic renal failure is on chronic hemodialysis. Which of the following indicate improvement of the client's condition due to hemodialysis? Select all that apply a) the client's BP is 130/90 b) the client's serum potassium is 4.8 mEq/L c) the client's hemoglobin level is 10 g/dL d) the client's serum calcium is 7.7 mg/dL e) the client's serum sodium is 140 mEg/L f) the client's serum magnesium is 4 mEq/L g) the client's weight has increased from 60 kg to 63 kg

a) the client's BP is 130/90 b) the client's serum potassium is 4.8 mEq/L e) the client's serum sodium is 140 mEg/L

The client had been diagnosed to have chronic renal failure. He had undergone hemodialysis for the first time. What signs and symptoms when experienced by the client suggest that he is experiencing disequilibrium syndrome? a) restlessness, hypotension, headache b) nausea and vomiting, hypertension, dizziness c) lethargy, hypotension, dizziness d) thachycardia, hypotension, headache

b) nausea and vomiting, hypertension, dizziness disequilibrium syndrome is caused by more rapid removal of waste products from the blood from the brain. This is due to the presence of blood-brain barrier. This causes increased intracranial pressure.

The client with acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L. The nurse would plan which of the following as a priority action? a) check the sodium level b) place the client on a cardiac monitor c) encourage increased vegetables in the diet d) allow an extra 500 ml of fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration

b) place the client on a cardiac monitor

Three year old Carlo has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome: At Carlo's last check-up when he was 2 1/2 years old, his BP was 95/60, PR was 110/min and weight was 15 kg. Which unexpected assessment today would the nurse report to help the diagnosis? a) BP: 95/60 b) weight: 20 kg c) PR: 110 d) temp: 37 C

b) weight: 20 kg during the toddler period, the child gains 2.5 kg a year. Carlo has gained 5 kg in only 6 months. In nephrotic syndrome, this excessive weight gain is due to edema.

A adult client has had laboratory work done as part of a routine physical examination. The nurse interprets that the client may have a mild degree of renal insufficiency if which of the following serum creatinine levels is noted? a) 0.2 mg/dlL b) 0.5 mg/dL c) 1.9 mg/dL d) 3.5 mg/dL

c) 1.9 mg/dL the normal serum creatinine level foadults is 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. The client with a mild degree of renal insufficiency would have a slight elevated level. A creatinie level of 0.2 mg/dL is low, and a level of 0.5 mg/dL is just below normal. A creeatinie level of 3.5 mg/dL may be associated with acute or chronic renal failure.

Situation: Three year old Carlo has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. The diagnosis of Idiopathic Nephrotic Syndrome has been confirmed. Which unexpected finding would the nurse report? a) proteinuria b) distended abdomen c) blood in the urine d) elevated serum lipid levels

c) blood in the urine hematuria is rare in nephrotic syndrome but it is profuse is acute glomerulonephritis The manifestations of nephrotic syndrome are: Proteinuria - nephrosis is believed to be due to immunologic response that results in increased permeability of glomerular membrane to proteins resulting in massive protein losses in the urine -- proteinuria and albuminuria (+3 +4), the child losses 50-100 mg/kg weight/day from proteinuria. Hypoalbuminemia - loss of protein in blood results in hypoalbumenimia Edema - cardinal sign and appears first in the periorbital region followed by dependent edema and accompanied by pallor, fatigue and lethargy. Hypoalbuminemia leads to decreased oncotic pressure resulting in fluid shift from intravascular to interstitial causing generalized edema or anasarca.The child has lost appetite but gained weight -- puffiness of the eyes on awakening decreases during the day but appears on the legs and abdomen. Fluid shift causes decreased blood volume that leads to decreased blood supply to kidney. Decreased blood supply to kidney initiates release of aldosterone. Aldosterone causes sodium retention (in interstitial spaces so child will have hyponatremia) and water retention contributing to edema. Hypocholesteronemia and hyperlipidemia - triglycerides and fats are released by the liver in the blood to make up for the protein loss

Three year old Carlo has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Carlo's potential for impairment of skin integrity is related to: a) joint inflammation b) drug therapy c) edema d) generalized body rash

c) edema - management: reduce protein excretion Prevention of Skin Breakdown from Edema frequent turning keep nails short to prevent scratching meticulous skin care to dependent and edematous areas - sacrum, scrotum, labia, abdomen, legs loose clothing Monitor Edema weigh daily and monitor I and O check for pulmonary edema manifested by crackles on auscultation ascites - measure abdominal girth Prevention of Infection - pulmonary edema predisposes to respiratory infection and generalized edema predisposes to skin breakdown. Avoid contact with persons who have infection. Diet - usually anorexic because of GI edema high protein diet sodium restriction if with severe edema fluid intake equal to output and insensible loss vitamin and iron supplements small feedings, give favorite foods

The nurse has completed client teaching with the hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse determines that the best understands the information if the client states to record daily the: a) amount of activity b) pulse and respiratory rate c) intake and output and weight d) blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels

c) intake and output and weight

Diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis has been established your nursing intervention includes the following except: a) provide health teaching and discharge planning b) administer antibiotic c) measure I and O d) provide adequate comfort and rest

c) measure I and O

Which of the following complaints is common in a client with pyelonephritis? a) right upper quadrant pain b) left upper quadrant pain c) pain at the costovertebral region d) pain at the suprapubic region

c) pain at the costovertebral region

A client has been diagnosed to have chronic renal failure. Sodium polysterene sulfonate (exchange resin kayexalate) is prescribed. The action of the medication is that it releases a) bicarbonate in exchange for primarily sodium ions b) sodium ions in exchange for primarily bicarbonate ions c) sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions d) potassium ions in exchange for primarily sodium ions

c) sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions

Which of the following anti-hypertensive medications is contraindicated for clients with renal insufficiency? a) beta-adrenergic blockers b) calcium-channel blockers c) direct-acting vasodilators d) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

d) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

Which of the following may be included in the diet of the client with chronic renal failure? a) orange slices b) watermelon slices c) cantaloupe slices d) apple slices

d) apple slices the client with renal failure should be given low potassium diet because of hyperkalemia. Apple contains very little potassium. So, it can be given to the client.

In the oliguric phase of renal failure, what is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis? a) fluid volume deficit b) activity intolerance c) ineffective breathing pattern d) fluid volume excess

d) fluid volume excess

The client with chronic renal failure who is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should plan to administer this medication: a) during dialysis b) just before dialysis c) the day after dialysis d) on return form dialysis

d) on return form dialysis

1, 3, 4 The nurse should assess the drain postoperatively. The head of the bed should be lowered and the foot should be elevated to shunt blood to the central circulating system. The surgeon needs to be notified of the change in condition.

The client returned from surgery after having a TURP and has a P 110, R 24, BP90/40, and cool and clammy skin. Which interventions should the nurse implement?Select all that apply. 1.Assess the urine in the continuous irrigation drainage bag. 2.Decrease the irrigation fluid in the continuous irrigation catheter. 3.Lower the head of the bed while raising the foot of the bed. 4.Contact the surgeon to give an update on the client's condition. 5.Check the client's postoperative creatinine and BUN.

A client has been admitted to the hospital for urinary tract infection and dehydration. The nurse determines that the client has received adequate volume replacement if the blood urea nitrogen level drops to: a) 3 mg/dL b) 15 mg/dL c) 29 mg/dL d) 35 mg/dL

b) 15 mg/dL the normal blood urea nitrogen level is 8 to 25 mg/dL

The client is in end-stage renal failure (ESRD). Which of the following foods may be allowed for the client? a) banana b) apple c) carrot cake d) cantaloupe

b) apple APPLES ARE LOW IN POTASSIUM

Three year old Carlo has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome Prednisone is prescribed for Carlo. The nurse evaluate its effectiveness by a) checking his BP every 4 hours b) checking his urine for protein c) weighing him each morning before breakfast d) observing him for behavioral changes

b) checking his urine for protein Monitor side effect of prolonged steroid therapy Hyperglycemia - test urine monitor growth of child by checking height because steroid has growth suppressing effect by preventing calcium deposition in the bones Gastric Irritation - give milk or meals, test for occult blood, administer with antacids Avoid exposure to infection because child is immunosuppressed

The client with chronic renal failure is undergoing peritoneal dialysis. He asks why the nurse monitors his blood glucose levels. Which of the following will be the most appropriate response by the nurse? a) I have to check if you have diabetes mellitus b) the dialysate contains glucose c) the procedure may lower your blood glucose levels d) it is a routine procedure for every client who undergoes the treatment

b) the dialysate contains glucose

A nurse instructs a client about continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements if made by the client indicates an accurate understanding of CAPD? 1. A portable hemodialysis machine is used so that I will be able to ambulate during the treatment. 2. A cycling machine is used so the risk for infection is minimized. 3. No machinery is involved, and I can pursue my usual activities. 4. The drainage system can be used once during the day and a cycling machine for 3 cycles at night.

3. CAPD closely approximates normal renal function, and the client will need to infuse and drain the dialysis solution several times a day. No machinery is used, and CAPD is a manual procedure.

The nurse is reviewing the list of components contained in the peritoneal dialysis solution with the client. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of the glucose contained in the solution. The nurse bases the response on knowing that the glucose: 1. Decreases the risk of peritonitis. 2. Prevents disequilibrium syndrome. 3. Increases osmotic pressure to produce ultrafiltration. 4. Prevents excess glucose from being removed from the client.

3. Increasing the glucose concentration makes the solution more hypertonic. The more hypertonic the solution, the higher the osmotic pressure for ultrafiltration and thus the greater the amount of fluid removed from the client during an exchange. Options 1, 2, and 4 do not identify the purpose of the glucose.

The nurse is assessing an otherwise healthy client with renal disease. The client is taking several supplements that are not indicated for clients who have renal disease. Which of the following will the nurse think should be discontinued? Select all that apply. a. iron b. vitamin A c. vitamin C d. vitamin D e. vitamin E f. vitamin K

B. Vitamin A E. Vitamin E F. Vitamin K Renal clients often have an increased need for vitamins B, C, and D, and supplements are often given. Vitamin A should not be given because the blood level of vitamin A tends to be elevated in uremia. If a client is receiving antibiotics, a vitamin K supplement may be given. Otherwise, supplements of vitamins E and K are not necessary.

The client with an external arteriovenous shunt in place for hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding. The priority nurse action would be to: a. Check the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill. b. Observe the site once as time permits during the shift. c. Check the results of the prothrombin times as they are determined. d. Ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing.

D An arteriovenous shunt is a less common form of access site but carries a risk for bleeding when it is used because two ends of an external cannula are tunneled subcutaneously into an artery and a vein, and the ends of the cannula are joined. If accidental disconnection occurs, the client could lose blood rapidly. For this reason, small clamps are attached to the dressing that covers the insertion site for use if needed. The shunt site also should be assessed at least every 4 hours.

The nurse is preparing to care for a client receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following would be included in the nursing plan of care to prevent the major complication associated with peritoneal dialysis? 1. Maintain strict aseptic technique. 2. Add heparin to the dialysate solution. 3. Change the catheter site dressing daily. 4. Monitor the client's level of consciousness.

1. The major complication of peritoneal dialysis is peritonitis. Strict aseptic technique is required in caring for the client receiving this treatment. Although option 3 may assist in preventing infection, this option relates to an external site. Options 2 and 4 are unrelated to the major complication of peritoneal dialysis.

The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the clietn's outflow is less than the inflow. Select all nursing actions in the situation that apply. 1. Contact the physician. 2. Check the level of the drainage bag. 3. Reposition the client to his or her side. 4. Place the client in good body alignment. 5. Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks. 6. Increase the flow rate of the peritoneal dialysis solution.

2, 3, 4, 5. If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse attempts to stimulate outflow by changing the client's position. Turning the client to the other side or making sure that the client is in good body alignment may assist with outflow drainage. The drainage bag needs to be lower than the client's abdomen to enhance gravity drainage. The connecting tubing and peritoneal dialysis system are also checked for kinks or twisting and the clamps on the system are checked to ensure that they are open. There is no reason to contact the physician. Increasing the flow rate is an inappropriate action and is not associated with the amount of outflow solution.

The nurse is instructing a client with diabetes mellitus about peritoneal dialysis. The nurse tells the client that it is important to maintain the prescribed dwell time for the dialysis because of the risk of: 1. Infection. 2. Hyperglycemia. 3. Hypophosphatemia. 4. Disequilibrium syndrome.

2. An extended dwell time increases the risk of hyperglycemia in the client with diabetes mellitus as a result of absorption of glucose from the dialysate and electrolyte changes. Diabetic clients may require extra insulin when receiving peritoneal dialysis.

A nurse is giving general instructions to a client receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following statements would be appropriate for the nurse to include? a. Several types of medications should be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure. b. Medications should be double-dosed on the morning of hemodialysis to prevent loss. c. It's acceptable to exceed the fluid restriction on the day before hemodialysis. d. It's acceptable to eat whatever you want on the day before hemodialysis.

A Many medications are dialyzable, which means they are extracted from the bloodstream during dialysis. Therefore, many medications may be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure. It is not typical for medications to be "double-dosed," because there is no way to be certain how much of each medication is cleared by dialysis. Clients receiving hemodialysis are not routinely taught that it is acceptable to disregard dietary and fluid restrictions.

The nurse instructs a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary modifications. The nurse determines that the client understands these dietary modifications if the client selects which items from the menu? a. Cream of wheat, blueberries, coffee b. Sausage and eggs, banana, orange juice. c. Bacon, cantaloupe melon, tomato juice. d. Cured pork, grits, strawberries, orange juice.

A The diet for a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis should include controlled amounts of sodium, phosphorus, calcium, potassium, and fluids. Options 2, 3, and 4 are high in sodium, phosphorus and potassium.

The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2-L inflows. Which information should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of feeling bloated after the inflow. b. The patient's peritoneal effluent appears cloudy. c. The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase. d. The patient has an outflow volume of 1600 ml.

Answer: B Rationale: Cloudy-appearing peritoneal effluent is a sign of peritonitis and should be reported immediately so that treatment with antibiotics can be started. The other problems can be addressed through nursing interventions such as slowing the inflow and repositioning the patient.

A client undergoing hemodialysis has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left arm. A related nursing diagnosis for the client is risk for infection. The nurse should formulate which of the following outcome goals as most appropriate for this nursing diagnosis? a. The client's temperature remains less than 101F b. The client's WBC count remains within normal limits. c. The client washes hands at least once per day. d. The client states to avoid blood pressure measurement in the left arm.

B General indicators that the client is not experiencing infection include a temperature and WBC count within normal limits. The client also should use proper hand-washing technique as a general preventive measure. Hand washing once per day is insufficient. It is true that the client should avoid BP measurement in the affected arm; however, this would relate more closely to the nursing diagnosis risk for injury.

The client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should plan to administer this medication: a. During dialysis. b. Just before dialysis. c. The day after dialysis. d. On return from dialysis.

D Antihypertensive medications such as enalapril are given to the client following hemodialysis. This prevents the client from becoming hypotensive during dialysis and also from having the medication removed from the bloodstream by dialysis. No rationale exists for waiting an entire day to resume the medication. This would lead to ineffective control of the blood pressure.

A nurse is analyzing the posthemodialysis lab test results for a client with chronic renal failure (CRF). The nurse interprets that the dialysis is having an expected but nontherapeutic effect if the results indicate a decreased: a. Phosphorus. b. Creatinine. c. Potassium. d. Red blood cell count

D Hemodialysis typically lowers the amounts of fluid, sodium, potassium, urea nitrogen, creatinine, uric acid, magnesium, and phosphate levels in the blood. Hemodialysis also worsens anemia, because RBCs are lost in dialysis from blood sampling and anticoagulation during the procedure, and from residual blood that is left in the dialyzer. Although all of these results are expected, only the lowered RBC count is nontherapeutic and worsens the anemia already caused by the disease process.

A client has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in place in the right upper extremity for hemodialysis treatments. When planning care for this client, which of the following measures should the nurse implement to promote client safely? a. take blood pressures only on the right arm to ensure accuracy b. use the fistula for all venipunctures and intravenous infusions c. ensure that small clamps are attached to the AV fistula dressing d. assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and thrill every 4 hours

D assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and thrill every 4 hours

3. This is usually the length of time clients need to wait prior to having sexual intercourse; this is the information the client wants to know.

The client who is postoperative TURP asks the nurse, "When will I know if I will be able to have sex after my TURP?" Which response is most appropriate by the nurse? 1."You seem anxious about your surgery." 2."Tell me about your fears of impotency." 3."Potency can return in six (6) to eight (8) weeks." 4."Did you ask your doctor about your concern?"

1. An elevated PSA can be from urinary retention, BPH, prostate cancer, or prostate infarct.

The client asks, "What does an elevated PSA test mean?" On which scientific rationale should the nurse base the response? 1.An elevated PSA can result from several different causes. 2.An elevated PSA can be only from prostate cancer. 3.An elevated PSA can be diagnostic for testicular cancer. 4.An elevated PSA is the only test used to diagnose BPH.

1. Clients who have urinary incontinenceare often embarrassed, so it is the responsibility of the nurse to approach this subject with respect and consideration.

The elderly client being seen in the clinic has complaints of urinary frequency,urgency, and "leaking." Which priority intervention should the nurse implement when interviewing the client? 1.Ensure communication is nonjudgmental and respectful. 2.Set the temperature for comfort in the examination room. 3.Speak loudly to ensure the client understands the nurse. 4.Ensure the examining room has adequate lighting.

A nurse is assessing a client who is diagnosed with cystitis. Which assessment finding is inconsistent with the typical clinical manifestations noted in this disorder? a) hematuria b) low back pain c) urinary retention d) burning on urination

c) urinary retention

A registered nurse is instructing a new nursing graduate about hemodialysis. Which statement if made by the new nursing graduate would indicate an inaccurate understanding of the procedure for hemodialysis? a. Sterile dialysate must be used. b. Warming the dialysate increases the efficiency of diffusion. c. Heparin sodium is administered during dialysis. d. Dialysis cleanses the blood from accumulated waste products.

A Dialysate is made from clear water and chemicals and is free from any metabolic waste products or medications. Bacteria and other microorganisms are too large to pass through the membrane; therefore, the dialysate does not need to be sterile. The dialysate is warmed to approximately 100° F to increase the efficiency of diffusion and to prevent a decrease in the client's blood temperature. Heparin sodium inhibits the tendency of blood to clot when it comes in contact with foreign substances. Option 4 is the purpose of dialysis.

A nurse is assessing the patency of a client's left arm arteriovenous fistula prior to initiating hemodialysis. Which finding indicates that the fistula is patent? a. Palpation of a thrill over the fistula. b. Presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist. c. Absence of a bruit on auscultation of the fistula. d. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers of the left hand.

A The nurse assesses the patency of the fistula by palpating for the presence of a thrill or auscultating for a bruit. The presence of a thrill and bruit indicate patency of the fistula. Although the presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist and capillary refill shorter than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand are normal findings, they do not assess fistula patency.

A patient needing vascular access for hemodialysis asks the nurse what the differences are between an arteriovenous (AV) fistula and a graft. The nurse explains that one advantage of the fistula is that it a. can accommodate larger needles. b. increases patient mobility. c. is much less likely to clot. d. can be used sooner after surgery.

C Rationale: AV fistulas are much less likely to clot than grafts, although it takes longer for them to mature to the point where they can be used for dialysis. The choice of an AV fistula or a graft does not impact on needle size or patient mobility.

A patient with diabetes who has chronic kidney disease (CKD) is considering using continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). In discussing this treatment option with the patient, the nurse informs the patient that a. patients with diabetes who use CAPD have fewer dialysis-related complications than those on hemodialysis. b. home CAPD requires more extensive equipment than does home hemodialysis. c. CAPD is contraindicated for patients who might eventually want a kidney transplant. d. dietary restrictions are stricter for patients using CAPD than for those having hemodialysis.

Answer: A Rationale: Patients with diabetes have better control of blood pressure, less hemodynamic instability, and fewer problems with retinal hemorrhages when using peritoneal dialysis than when using hemodialysis. CAPD is less expensive and has fewer dietary restrictions than hemodialysis. CAPD is not a contraindication for a kidney transplant.

A patient who has been on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is hospitalized and is receiving CAPD with four exchanges a day. During the dialysate inflow, the patient complains of having abdominal pain and pain in the right shoulder. The nurse should a. massage the patient's abdomen and back. b. decrease the rate of dialysate infusion. c. stop the infusion and notify the health care provider. d. administer the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol).

Answer: B Rationale: Abdominal pain and referred shoulder pain can be caused by a rapid infusion of dialysate; the nurse should slow the rate of the infusion. Massage and administration of acetaminophen (Tylenol) would not address the reason for the pain. There is no need to notify the health care provider.

A patient receiving peritoneal dialysis using 2 L of dialysate per exchange has an outflow of 1200 ml. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Infuse 1200 ml of dialysate during the inflow. b. Assist the patient in changing position. c. Administer a laxative to the patient. d. Notify the health care provider about the outflow problem.

Answer: B Rationale: Outflow problems may occur because the peritoneal catheter is collapsed by a portion of the intestine, and repositioning the patient will move the catheter and allow outflow to occur. If less than the ordered 2 L of dialysate is infused, the dialysis will be less effective. Administration of a laxative may also help if the patient's colon is full, but this should be tried after repositioning the patient. If the problem with outflow persists after the patient is repositioned, the health care provider should be notified.

The nurse is educating the client about diet after the client was treated for calcium oxalate renal stones. The nurse tells the client about foods that should be avoided to reduce the risk of development of future renal stones. Which of the following foods could the nurse tell the client to avoid? Select all that apply. a. cheese b. chocolate c. milk d. spinach e. strawberries f. tea

B. chocolate D. spinach E. strawberries F. tea About 80% of the renal stones formed contain calcium oxalate. Recent studies provide no support for the theory that a diet low in calcium can reduce the risk of calcium oxalate renal stones. In fact, higher dietary calcium intake may decrease the incidence of renal stones for most people. Stones containing oxalate are thought to be partially caused by a diet especially rich in oxalate, which is found in beets, wheat bran, chocolate, tea, rhubarb, strawberries, and spinach.

A nurse is working with the client newly diagnosed with chronic renal failure (CRF) to set up a schedule for hemodialysis. The client states, "This is impossible! How can I even think about leading a normal life again if this is what I'm going to have to do?" The nurse assesses that the client is exhibiting: a. Withdrawal b. Depression c. Anger d. Projection

C Psychosocial reactions to CRF and hemodialysis are varied and may include anger. Other reactions include personality changes, emotional lability, withdrawal, and depression. The individual client's response may vary depending on the client's personality and support systems. The client in this question is exhibiting anger. The client has not projected blame on the nurse, nor does the client statement reflect withdrawal or depression.

The client with chronic renal failure returns to the nursing unit following a hemodialysis treatment. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client's temperature is 100.2F. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action? a. Encourage fluids. b. Notify the physician. c. Continue to monitor vital signs. d. Monitor the site of the shunt for infection.

C The client may have an elevated temperature following dialysis because the dialysis machine warms the blood slightly. If the temperature is elevated excessively and remains elevated, sepsis would be suspected and a blood sample would be obtained as prescribed for culture and sensitivity determinations.

The client newly diagnosed with chronic renal failure recently has begun hemodialysis. Knowing that the client is at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse assesses the client during dialysis for: a. Hypertension, tachycardia, and fever. b. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia. c. Restlessness, irritability, and generalized weakness. d. Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching.

D Disequilibrium syndrome is characterized by headache, mental confusion, decreasing level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting, twitching, and possible seizure activity. Disequilibrium syndrome is caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. At the same time, the blood-brain barrier interferes with the efficient removal of wastes from brain tissue. As a result, water goes into cerebral cells because of the osmotic gradient, causing brain swelling and onset of symptoms. The syndrome most often occurs in clients who are new to dialysis and is prevented by dialyzing for shorter times or at reduced blood flow rates.

A client with chronic renal failure who is not receiving dialysis is suffering from uremia. What nutrient will the nurse tell this client to limit in an attempt to control the uremia? a. carbohydrate c. potassium b. magnesium d. protein

D . Protein Uremia is a condition in which protein wastes that should normally have been excreted are instead circulating in the blood. The diet may limit protein to as little as 40 grams a day for predialysis clients.

The nurse is assessing a dialysis patient who is asking to receive continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) instead of hemodialysis. Which of the following complications of CAPD will the nurse review with the client? a. hypercalcemia b. hypertension c. hyponatremia d. hypotension

D. hypotension Clients on CAPD have a more normal lifestyle than do clients on either hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis. Complications associated with CAPD include peritonitis, hypotension, and weight gain.

4. Normal potassium level is 3.5 to5.5 mEq/L. A level of 6.8 mEq/L is life threatening and could lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the client may be dialyzed to decrease the potassium level quickly. This requires a health-careprovider order, so it is a collaborative intervention.

The client diagnosed with ARF has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which collaborative treatment should the nurse anticipate for the client? 1.Administer a phosphate binder. 2.Type and crossmatch for whole blood. 3.Assess the client for leg cramps. 4.Prepare the client for dialysis.

3. Carbohydrates are increased to provide for the client's caloric intake and protein is restricted to minimize protein breakdown and to prevent accumulation of toxic waste products.

The client diagnosed with ARF is admitted to the intensive care unit and placed on a therapeutic diet. Which diet is most appropriate for the client? 1.A high-potassium and low-calcium diet. 2.A low-fat and low-cholesterol diet. 3.A high-carbohydrate and restricted-protein diet. 4.A regular diet with six (6) small feedings a day.

2. When an elderly client's mental status changes to confused and irritable, the nurse should seek the etiology, which may be a UTI secondary to an indwelling catheter. Elderly client soften do not present with classic signs and symptoms of infection.

The nurse is caring for an elderly client who has an indwelling catheter. Which data warrant further investigation? 1.The client's temperature is 98.0˚F. 2.The client has become confused and irritable. 3.The client's urine is clear and light yellow. 4.The client feels the need to urinate.

4. The nephrostomy tube should never be clamped or have kinks because an obstruction can cause pyelonephritis.

Which intervention should the nurse implement when caring for the client with a nephrostomy tube? 1.Change the dressing only if soiled by urine. 2.Clean the end of the connecting tubing with Betadine. 3.Clean the drainage system every day with bleach and water. 4.Assess the tube for kinks to prevent obstruction.

The client who has a history of gout also is diagnosed with urolithisis and the stones are determined to be of uric acid type. The nurse gives the client instructions in which foods to limit, including: a) milk b) liver c) apples d) carrots

b) liver

The client had been diagnosed to have chronic renal failure. He had undergone hemodialysis for the first time. What signs and symptoms when experienced by the client suggest that he is experiencing disequilibrium syndrome? a) restlessness, hypotension, headache b) nausea and vomiting, hypertension, dizziness c) lethargy, hypotension, dizziness d) thachycardia, hypotension, headache

b) nausea and vomiting, hypertension, dizziness disequilibrium syndrome is caused by more rapid removal of waste products from the blood from the brain. This is due to the presence of blood-brain barrier. This causes increased intracranial pressure.

The client with chronic renal failure is undergoing peritoneal dialysis. He asks why the nurse monitors his blood glucose levels. Which of the following will be the most appropriate response by the nurse? a) I have to check if you have diabetes mellitus b) the dialysate contains glucose c) the procedure may lower your blood glucose levels d) it is a routine procedure for every client who undergoes the treatment

b) the dialysate contains glucose

A client is scheduled for computed tomography (CT) of the kidneys to rule out renal disease. As an essential preprocedure component of the nursing assessment, the nurse plans to ask the client about a history of: a) familial renal disease b) frequent antibiotic use c) long-term diuretic therapy d) allergy to shellfish or iodine

d) allergy to shellfish or iodine

After teaching a group of students about how to perform peritoneal dialysis, which statement would indicate to the instructor that the students need additional teaching? a) "The effluent should be allowed to drain by gravity." b) "It is important to use strict aseptic technique." c) "The infusion clamp should be open during infusion." d) "It is appropriate to warm the dialysate in a microwave."

D) It is appropriate to warm the dialysate in a microwave Explanation: The dialysate should be warmed in a commercial warmer and never in a microwave oven. Strict aseptic technique is essential. The infusion clamp is opened during the infusion and clamped after the infusion. When the dwell time is done, the drain clamp is opened and the fluid is allowed to drain by gravity into the drainage bag.

3. Regular insulin, along with glucose, will drive potassium into the cells,thereby lowering serum potassium levels temporarily.

The client diagnosed with ARF is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer to help decrease the potassium level? 1.Erythropoietin. 2.Calcium gluconate. 3.Regular insulin. 4.Osmotic diuretic.

4. The nurse should always assess any complaint before dismissing it as a commonly occurring problem.

The client with a TURP who has a continuous irrigation catheter complains of the need to urinate. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1.Call the surgeon to inform the HCP of the client's complaint. 2.Administer the client a narcotic medication for pain. 3.Explain to the client this sensation happens frequently. 4.Assess the continuous irrigation catheter for patency.

2. Hypotension, which causes a decreased blood supply to the kidney, is one of the most common causes of pre-renal failure(before the kidney).

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out ARF. Which condition predisposes the client to developing prerenal failure? 1.Diabetes mellitus. 2.Hypotension. 3.Aminoglycosides. 4.Benign prostatic hypertrophy

3 The client should be taught to take all the prescribed medication anytime a prescription is written for antibiotics.

The nurse is discharging a client with a health-care facility acquired urinary tract infection. Which information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? 1.Limit fluid intake so the urinary tract can heal. 2.Collect a routine urine specimen for culture. 3.Take all the antibiotics as prescribed. 4.Tell the client to void every five (5) to six (6) hours.

A client has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in place in the right upper extremity for hemodialysis treatments. When planning care for this client, which of the following measures should the nurse implement to promote client safely? a) take blood pressures only on the right arm to ensure accuracy b) use the fistula for all venipunctures and intravenous infusions c) ensure that small clamps are attached to the AV fistula dressing d) assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and thrill every 4 hours

d) assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and thrill every 4 hours

A client is being admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of urolithiasis and ureteral colic. The nurse assesses the client for pain that is: a) dull and aching in the costovetebal area b) aching and camplike thoughout the abdomen c) sharp and radiating posteriorly to the spinal column d) excruciating, wavelike, and radiating toward the genitalia

d) excruciating, wavelike, and radiating toward the genitalia

The client with chronic renal failure is on chronic hemodialysis. Which of the following indicate improvement of the client's condition due to hemodialysis? Select all that apply a) the client's BP is 130/90 b) the client's serum potassium is 4.8 mEq/L c) the client's hemoglobin level is 10 g/dL d) the client's serum calcium is 7.7 mg/dL e) the client's serum sodium is 140 mEg/L f) the client's serum magnesium is 4 mEq/L g) the client's weight has increased from 60 kg to 63 kg

a) the client's BP is 130/90 b) the client's serum potassium is 4.8 mEq/L e) the client's serum sodium is 140 mEg/L

2. Bed rest reduces exertion and the metabolic rate, thereby reducing catabolism and subsequent release of potassium and accumulation of endogenous waste products (urea and creatinine).

The client diagnosed with ARF is placed on bed rest. The client asks the nurse, "Why do I have to stay in bed? I don't feel bad." Which scientific rationale supports the nurse's response? 1.Bed rest helps increase the blood return to the renal circulation. 2.Bed rest reduces the metabolic rate during the acute stage. 3.Bed rest decreases the workload of the left side of the heart. 4.Bed rest aids in reduction of peripheral and sacral edema.

4. The white blood cell count is elevated;normal is 5,000 to 10,000/mm3.

The client had surgery to remove a kidney stone. Which laboratory assessment data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse? 1.A serum potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L. 2.A urinalysis shows microscopic hematuria. 3.A creatinine level of 0.8 mg/100 mL. 4.A white blood cell count of 14,000/mm3.

3. Dehydration results in concentrated serum, causing laboratory values to increase because the blood has normal constituents but not enough volume to dilute the values to within normal range or possibly lower.

The client is admitted to a nursing unit from a long-term care facility with a hematocrit of 56% and a serum sodium level of 152 mEq/L. Which condition is a cause for these findings? 1.Overhydration. 2.Anemia. 3.Dehydration. 4.Renal failure.

3. Venison, sardines, goose, organ meats,and herring are high-purine foods, which should be eliminated from the diet to help prevent uric acid stones.

The client is diagnosed with a uric acid stone. Which foods should the client eliminate from the diet to help prevent re-occurrence? 1.Beer and colas. 2.Asparagus and cabbage. 3.Venison and sardines. 4.Cheese and eggs.

Which of the following client responses shows a correct understanding of continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)? a) I am expected to perform the procedure at home b) the procedure lasts for one hour c) I have to sit and raise my legs during the procedure d) I have to go to the hospital for this procedure

a) I am expected to perform the procedure at home

The client with chronic renal failure has an indwelling abdominal catheter for peritoneal dialysis. The client spills water on the catheter dressing while bathing. The nurse should immediately: a) change the dressing b) reinforce the dressing c) flush the peritoneal dialysis catheter d) scrub the catheter with povidine-iodine

a) change the dressing - Clients with peritoneal dialysis catheters are at high risk for infection. A wet dressing is a conduit for bacteria to reach the catheter insertion site. The nurse ensures that the dressing is kept dry at all times. Reinforcing the dressing is not a safe practice to prevent infection in this circumstance. Flushing the catheter is not indicated. Scrubbing the catheter with povidone-iodine is done at the time of connection or disconnection of peritoneal dialysis.

A client with renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) to support erythropoiesis. The nurse questions the client about compliance with taking which of the following medications that supports red blood cell (RBC) production? a) iron supplement b) zinc supplement c) calcium supplement d) magnesium supplement

a) iron supplement

The client with continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has cloudy dialysate. Which of the following is the best initial nursing action? a) send fluid to the laboratory for culture b) administer antibiotic c) do nothing, this is expected d) stop drainage of fluid

a) send fluid to the laboratory for culture cloudy diasylate indicates infection (peritonitis). Culture of the fluid must be done to determine the microorganism present.