REVIEW - CompTIA Network+ N10-005 (ACTUAL TEST Questions)

C. Channels Explanation: Protocol requires 16.25 to 22 MHz of channel separation (as shown above), adjacent channels overlap and will interfere with each other. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the most common channels to choose, and most routers will use one of them as the default channel—but the general idea is to be as far away from everybody else as you can.

A customer has requested a solution using multiple WAPs for wireless access. Which of the following should be different on each WAP to prevent wireless problems? A. Firewalls B. VLANs C. Channels D. Antenna types

C. Change the channel to a different channel than the other wireless networks. Explanation: To reduce interference between wireless APs, ensure that wireless APs with overlapping signals use unique channel frequencies. The 802.11b standard reserves 14 frequency channels for use with wireless APs. You can use any other channel instead of the one that you are using.

A customer is having problems connecting to a wireless network in a shared office space. The customer can detect several other wireless network signals. All of the wireless networks have different SSIDs but several are using the same encryption type. Which of the following should be configured on the customer's wireless network to improve connectivity to the wireless network? A. Change the SSID to match other wireless networks for increased throughput. B. Change the encryption type to a different mechanism to avoid interference. C. Change the channel to a different channel than the other wireless networks. D. Change the WAP to a different manufacturer than the other wireless networks.

C. PAT Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses.

A customer wants to keep cost to a minimum and has only ordered a single static IP address from the ISP. Which of the following must be configured on the router to allow for all the computers to share the same public IP address? A. VLANs B. PoE C. PAT D. VPN

A. WAP placement Explanation: Before going ahead with the deployment, the first thing that need to be check is where you are going to place your wireless router so that you can have internet connectivity from every location that you need.

A network administrator is tasked with deploying a company-wide wireless system which allows for accurate tracking of employees' wireless device locations via WAP triangulation. Which of the following is the MOST important aspect of the deployment? A. WAP placement B. TX/RX channel C. Signal strength D. Transmission power

C. EAP-TTLS Explanation: Extensible Authentication Protocol, or EAP, is an authentication framework frequently used in wireless networks and Point-to-Point connections. EAP is an authentication framework providing for the transport and usage of keying material and parameters generated by EAP methods.

A network administrator must ensure that both the server and the client are authenticated to the wireless system before access is granted. Which of the following should be implemented to meet this requirement? A. EAP-PEAP B. MAC ACL C. EAP-TTLS D. MS-CHAPv2

A. SNMP C. Syslog Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an "Internet-standard protocol for managing devices on IP networks". Devices that typically support SNMP include routers, switches, servers, workstations, printers, modem racks and more. It is used mostly in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices for conditions that warrant administrative attention. Syslog is a standard for computer message logging. It permits separation of the software that generates messages from the system that stores them and the software that reports and analyzes them.

A network administrator needs to implement a monitoring tool and be able to send log information to a server and receive log information from other clients. Which of the following should be implemented? (Select TWO). A. SNMP B. Network sniffer C. Syslog D. System log E. History log

D. Protocol analyzer Explanation: A "Protocol analyzer" is a tool (hardware or software) used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a communication channel.

A network administrator suspects a broadcast storm is causing performance issues on the network. Which of the following would be used to verify this situation? A. Environmental monitor B. Multimeter C. Toner probe D. Protocol analyzer

C. The network gateway is set incorrectly. Explanation: When user is able to ping everything in its own subnet that means that all the hosts are reachable however when you are not able to ping anything outside of this subnet then please check if the device is sending traffic to the correct host who should forward it to the further devices.

A network technician has just upgraded a switch. The new switch's IP range and subnet mask correctly match other network devices. The technician cannot ping any device outside of the switch's own IP subnet. The previous switch worked correctly with the same settings. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A. The proxy server is set incorrectly. B. The Ethernet cable is pinched. C. The network gateway is set incorrectly. D. The IP address is set incorrectly.

C. MAC address filtering Explanation: MAC Filtering (or EUI filtering, or layer 2 address filtering) refers to a security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network. MAC addresses are uniquely assigned to each card, so using MAC filtering on a network permits and denies network access to specific devices through the use of blacklists and whitelists. While the restriction of network access through the use of lists is straightforward, an individual person is not identified by a MAC address, rather a device only, so an authorized person will need to have a whitelist entry for each device that he or she would use to access the network.

A network technician is setting up a wireless access point that would only allow a certain laptop to be able to access the WAP. By using ACL, which of the following would be filtered to ensure only the authorized laptop can access the WAP? A. NetBIOS name filtering B. IP address filtering C. MAC address filtering D. Computer name filtering

A. Latency Explanation: During the high ping time users are using most of the bandwidth that causes latency so signal strength get affected by this.

A network technician is troubleshooting signal problems with certain WAPs in an office and finds consistently high ping times across the units. Such an issue is called which of the following? A. Latency B. Attenuation C. Crosstalk D. Frequency hopping

B. PoE Explanation: Power over Ethernet or PoE describes any of several standardized or ad-hoc systems which pass electrical power along with data on Ethernet cabling. This allows a single cable to provide both data connection and electrical power to devices such as wireless access points or IP cameras.

A network technician needs to configure a port on a switch to provide connectivity and electrical support to a WAP being installed in a warehouse. Which of the following features needs to be configured on the switch? A. STP B. PoE C. VTP trunking D. Port forwarding

D. Star Explanation: A bus topology is a type of network setup where each computer and network device is connected to a single cable or backbone.

A network where all traffic feeds through a centralized gateway uses which of the following topologies? A. Peer-to-peer B. Ring C. Bus D. Star

C. Content filtering E. Website caching Explanation: A content-filtering web proxy server provides administrative control over the content that may be relayed in one or both directions through the proxy. A caching proxy server accelerates service requests by retrieving content saved from a previous request made by the same client or even other clients.

A proxy server would MOST likely be installed to provide which of the following functions? (Select TWO). A. Combined DNS and DHCP hosting B. Encryption C. Content filtering D. Fault tolerance E. Website caching

B. Opposing antenna polarizations Explanation: The polarization of an antenna is the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation. It has nothing in common with antenna directionality terms: "horizontal", "vertical", and "circular". Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally.

A technician has low signal strength connecting two wireless bridges. Which of the following could be the problem? A. Low PoE wattage B. Opposing antenna polarizations C. Short distance between antennas D. WPA 2 encryption

C. Port mirroring E. VLANs Explanation: Port mirroring is used on a network switch to send a copy of network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to a network monitoring connection on another switch port. This is commonly used for network appliances that require monitoring of network traffic, such as an intrusion detection system, passive probe or real user monitoring (RUM) technology that is used to support application performance management (APM). In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a Virtual Local Area Network, Virtual LAN or VLAN.

A technician needs multiple networks, high speeds, and redundancy on a system. Which of the following configurations should be considered for these requirements? (Select TWO). A. Routing table B. Next hop C. Port mirroring D. Port monitoring E. VLANs

C. VLAN assignments Explanation: A VLAN is a group of end stations with a common set of requirements, independent of physical location. VLANs have the same attributes as a physical LAN but allow you to group end stations even if they are not located physically on the same LAN segment.

A technician needs to ensure that traffic from a specific department is separated within several switches. Which of the following needs to be configured on the switch to separate the traffic? A. Duplex settings B. SNMP string C. VLAN assignments D. Spanning tree

C. The router is not the only DHCP server Explanation: This happens when there are multiple DHCP servers in the same LAN subnet. Here some machines are getting ip address from the router while some are getting ip address from another DHCP server present in the same domain.

A technician replaces a failed router in an office with the same model unit using the default settings. After the installation, the technician reboots all of the PCs and servers. Upon reboot some of the PCs are receiving IP addresses on the same subnet as the new router; other PCs are receiving addresses on the same subnet as the servers. Which of the following most likely describes the issue? A. The DHCP lease pool was not large enough B. DHCP lease times were set too low C. The router is not the only DHCP server D. DHCP was not enabled on the replacement router

A. VLAN Explanation: A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.

A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this? A. VLAN B. Trunking C. Spanning tree D. Traffic filtering

D. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.33 Explanation: The given ip address is network id which we don't assign to the host so the next ip is applicable to this.

A user is unable to access any network resources. The IP configuration of the workstation is as follows: IP Address: 192.168.10.32 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.10.46 Which of the following would allow the user to connect to network resources? A. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.1 B. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.254 C. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.31 D. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.33

B. Channel overlap Explanation: To reduce interference between wireless APs, ensure that wireless APs with overlapping signals use unique channel frequencies. The 802.11b standard reserves 14 frequency channels for use with wireless APs.

A user reports that several spots within the company's office have intermittent connectivity issues with the newly installed wireless network. There are several WAPs located around the office to provide a strong signal wherever the users are. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Incompatible network card B. Channel overlap C. Latency D. WEP encryption

D. Faulty routing rule Explanation: This happens when the DNS server is able to resolve the URL but there can be a conflicting route pointing to somewhere else rather than to the correct device who is responsible for routing traffic to the internet.

A user reports that some normally accessible external sites are not responding, but most other sites are responding normally. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. VLAN tag mismatch B. Wrong subnet mask C. Smurf attack D. Faulty routing rule

B. Switch Explanation: They connect multiple PCs, printers, servers and other hardware. Switches allow you to send information, such as email, and access shared resources, including printers, in a smooth, efficient, and transparent manner.

A user wants to connect seven PCs together for a game night. Which of the following should the user install to help with this task? A. Media convertor B. Switch C. Firewall D. Bridge

C. WAP radio power Explanation: WAP radio power is the signal strength through which you can specify the range from which you can stay connected to the network and access internet. Here, when the user is not able to maintain a stable connection then it is a problem with the signal strength for sure so you can try to increase the signal strength by increasing the radio power.

A user's laptop is unable to keep a stable network connection. Which of the following measures would MOST likely need to be configured? A. SSID name B. WAP encryption strength C. WAP radio power D. Channel overlay

C. Bad connectors D. Bad patch cable Explanation: It could be problem with the bad connector because the user just moved furniture to the cubicle and it is quite possible that the movement of the furniture has created problem by disrupting the cabling and connections. These two are the important things which can be broken down whenever there is a physical movement.

After a new user moves furniture into a cubicle, the computer does not connect to the network any longer. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason? (Select TWO). A. Bad Ethernet switch port B. TX/RX reversed C. Bad connectors D. Bad patch cable E. Mismatched MTU

A. 25 Explanation: SMTP is an Internet standard for electronic mail (e-mail) transmission across Internet Protocol (IP) networks. SMTP uses TCP port 25.

An administrator notices SMTP traffic is being blocked by the company firewall. Which of the following ports should be opened? A. 25 B. 53 C. 110 D. 443

A. RDP Explanation: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft, which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection. The user employs RDP client software for this purpose, while the other computer must run RDP server software.

An employee connects to a work computer from home via the built-in Windows remote desktop connection. Which of the following is MOST likely being used to establish the connection? A. RDP B. RTP C. RIP D. RAS

B. Incorrect gateway Explanation: We usually give default gateway as an end device which is directly connected with ISP so in this case user has lost his connectivity with due to wrong default gateway configured.

Ann, a new user, has a workstation that has connectivity to the printer located in her department, but cannot access the Internet. The result of an ipconfig command on Ann's workstation is as follows: IP address: 192.168.0.124 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.128 Default Gateway: 192.168.0.254 Which is MOST likely preventing the user from accessing the Internet? A. Duplicate IP address B. Incorrect gateway C. Incorrect VLAN D. Bad switch port

B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration. Explanation: Due to wrong subnet entered user is unable to communicate with anyone so to communicate he needs to be in right subnet.

Ann, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count. B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration. C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost. D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.

C. Bad wiring Explanation: Bad wiring refers to the state when you do not follow a pattern and everything seems messed up and you are not able to figure out the cause.

Ann, a technician, is installing network cables for an office building. Some of the cables are not showing active on the switch even when moved to different ports. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. Port speed mismatch B. Faulty F-connectors C. Bad wiring D. Bad switch

C. Reservation Explanation: You might want to assign network printers and certain servers DHCP reservations to ensure that they always have the same IP address, but continue to receive updated configuration information from the DHCP server. For example, create reservations for servers that must always have the same IP address.

Assigning the same IP address to a network device is which of the following? A. SSID B. Scope C. Reservation D. Lease

A. OSI model Data link layer B. TCP/IP model Network Interface layer Explanation: The data link layer is concerned with local delivery of frames between devices on the same LAN. Data-link frames, as these protocol data units are called, do not cross the boundaries of a local network. Inter-network routing and global addressing are higher layer functions, allowing data-link protocols to focus on local delivery, addressing, and media arbitration. In this way, the data link layer is analogous to a neighborhood traffic cop; it endeavors to arbitrate between parties contending for access to a medium, without concern for their ultimate destination.

At which of the following layers do frames exist? (Select TWO). A. OSI model Data link layer B. TCP/IP model Network Interface layer C. OSI model Physical layer D. OSI model Network layer E. TCP/IP model Internet layer

C. Presentation Explanation: The presentation layer is responsible for the delivery and formatting of information to the application layer for further processing or display. It relieves the application layer of concern regarding syntactical differences in data representation within the end-user systems. An example of a presentation service would be the conversion of an EBCDIC-coded text computer file to an ASCII-coded file.

At which of the following layers of the OSI model does ASCII work? A. Session B. Transport C. Presentation D. Application

D. Dynamic IP addressing Explanation: In Dynamic IP addressing all the hosts with private ip address will be patted to the same ip so the administrator will not have to keep track of each and every host with private ip mapped to a static public ip address.

Companies trying to cut down on constant documentation of IP addresses could use which of the following? A. Longer lease times B. More reservations C. Larger scopes D. Dynamic IP addressing

C. DHCP Explanation: when we install a dhcp server into our network then dhcp server works on the basis of dora process first dhcp server sends a hello message in to the network to discover the clients pc and when any client pc found in the network then, dhcp server offers the IP to client pc. When client pc selects any IP from dhcp server then client pc request for selected IP to dhcp server then dhcp server provide that IP to client pc and both send ackonledgement to each other.

Discover, Offer, Request, and Acknowledge are the steps for which of the following protocols? A. DNS B. DOS C. DHCP D. DSL

D. WPA2, SSID disabled, and 802.11a. Explanation: WPA2 is a security technology commonly used on Wi-Fi wireless networks. WPA2 (Wireless Protected Access 2) replaced the original WPA technology on all certified Wi-Fi hardware since 2006 and is based on the IEEE 802.11i technology standard for data encryption.

During a disaster recovery test, several billing representatives need to be temporarily setup to take payments from customers. It has been determined that this will need to occur over a wireless network, with security being enforced where possible. Which of the following configurations should be used in this scenario? A. WPA2, SSID enabled, and 802.11n. B. WEP, SSID enabled, and 802.11b. C. WEP, SSID disabled, and 802.11g. D. WPA2, SSID disabled, and 802.11a.

A. Logical network diagrams Explanation: A logical network diagram illustrates the network architecture of a group of interconnected computers and other devices, such as printers, modems, switches, routers, and even mobile devices. These electronic components form the physical network that provides local area network (LAN) and wide area network (WAN) access to users. Once you know the layout and you have an idea about the packet flow then your job becomes easy and you can create an action plan to go for the implementation.

Enterprise IP routing policy is MOST clearly depicted in which of the following configuration management documents? A. Logical network diagrams B. Physical network diagrams C. Wiring schematics D. Group security role assignments

B. 254 Explanation: The Subnet Mask however, determines the "class" of a Network. 255.255.255.0 is a "Class C" network. A class c network can host up to 254 PC's

Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, how many usable IP addresses would be in that subnet? A. 250 B. 254 C. 255 D. 256

A. Physical Explanation: The NIC does not have light refers to a situation that there could be a fault in the LAN cable or the ports are down and all of these fall under the physical layer. To make it simple, it falls in physical layer because blinking lights refers to the physical connectivity.

If a NIC does not have a link light, there is a failure at which of the following OSI layers? A. Physical B. Session C. Data link D. Presentation

A. Scope options ****NOT C. Reservations. Read the question carefully****

In order to limit the number of dynamic addresses of hosts on a network, which of the following can be implemented? A. Scope options B. Leases C. Reservations D. DNS suffixes

C. Data Link Explanation: The ITU-T G.hn standard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of a selective repeat Sliding Window Protocol.

In which of the following layers of the OSI model would MAC addressing be found? A. Network B. Application C. Data Link D. Transport

C. Virtual PBX Explanation: Virtual PBX, a business phone system providing call routing, follow-me calling, voice-mail, faxmail, and ACD queues with no customer installed equipment.

Joe has a small office and is looking to replace his phone system with a lower cost solution that requires minimal in-house support. Which of the following is the BEST choice? A. Wide Area Network B. NAT C. Virtual PBX D. Virtual LAN

D. VLAN mismatch Explanation: As user has link light on NIC that means he has connectivity with switch so he need to check his vlan assignment

Joe, a user, has a computer that has a link light on his network interface card (NIC); however, Joe is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following is the cause of this issue? A. Faulty GBIC B. Faulty SFP C. Cable is a crossover D. VLAN mismatch

D. The administrator should create exclusions for the servers IP addresses. Explanation: Whenever you define the ip pool from which IP addresses are to be dynamically assigned to the users then in order to avoid assignment of static ip address we can creat exclusion for the static ip addresses so that they are not assigned to any other host and this is how we can avoid ip address conflict on the network.

Multiple servers' IP addresses fall within the DHCP scope assigned by the administrator. Which of the following should be implemented to ensure these static IP addresses are not assigned to workstations? A. The administrator should create exclusions for the workstations IP addresses. B. The administrator should change the servers to utilize DHCP to obtain IP addresses. C. The administrator should change the workstations to utilize static IP addresses. D. The administrator should create exclusions for the servers IP addresses.

B. Port filtering Explanation: TCP/IP port filtering is the practice of selectively enabling or disabling Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports on computers or network devices. When used in conjunction with other security practices, such as deploying firewall software at your Internet access point, applying port filters to intranet and Internet servers insulates those servers from many TCP/IP-based security attacks, including internal attacks by malicious users.

Network upgrades have been completed and the WINS server was shutdown. It was decided that NetBIOS network traffic will no longer be permitted. Which of the following will accomplish this objective? A. Content filtering B. Port filtering C. MAC filtering D. IP filtering

B. Data Link Explanation: The ITU-T G.hn standard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of a selective repeat Sliding Window Protocol.

On which of the following OSI model layers would a MAC address be used? A. Network B. Data Link C. Transport D. Physical

C. Improper VLAN assignment Explanation: Finance Server is placed in same VLAN which is assigned to finance users if they are able to access internet that's means connectivity to switch is good, so we have to check the VLAN assigned to users.

Several users from the finance department report that they are able to access the Internet, but unable to connect to their financial applications. The network technician is unable to ping the finance server. The technician decides to check the switch and determines that Internet access is working. Which of the following is a possible cause of the access issues? A. Faulty cable B. Remote management disabled C. Improper VLAN assignment D. Mismatched duplex

C. Switch Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is IEEE 802.1D. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.

Spanning-Tree Protocol is used with which of the following network devices? A. Router B. NIC C. Switch D. DHCP server

B. B Explanation: As the range for class B is from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255

The APIPA address 169.254.10.123 falls into which of the following class of addresses? A. A B. B C. C D. D

D. Physical E. Data Link Explanation: The network layer is responsible for packet forwarding including routing through intermediate routers, whereas the data link layer is responsible for media access control, flow control and error checking

The Network Interface Layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to which of the following layers of the OSI model? (Select TWO). A. Network B. Session C. Transport D. Physical E. Data link

D. Physical layer F. Data link layer Explanation: The lowest layer of the OSI Reference Model is the physical layer, which is responsible for the "nitty gritty" details of transmitting information from one place to another on a network. The layer just above the physical layer is the data link layer, called the network interface layer or just the link layer in the TCP/IP architectural model. Its primary job is to implement networks at the local level, and to interface between the hardware-oriented physical layer, and the more abstract, softwareoriented functions of the network layer and those above it.

The network interface layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds with which of the following layers of the OSI model? (Select TWO). A. Transport layer B. Network layer C. Session layer D. Physical layer E. Presentation layer F. Data link layer

B. Low signal strength or interference Explanation: This generally happens when the signals are weak in any particular area and any movement can make you lose connectivity to the internet. In this case you can try to increase the radio power so that the signal strength can be increased.

The network support team is constantly getting calls from users in a specific area of an office building. The users are able to connect to the office wireless network, but they sometimes disconnect or experience very slow download speeds. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A. Incorrect service set identifier B. Low signal strength or interference C. Incorrect encryption scheme D. Incorrect IP address or subnet mask

C. Tracert Explanation: Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.

Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party? A. Ping B. Protocol analyzer C. Tracert D. Dig

A. ping Explanation: Ping is a computer network administration utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.

Users have reported issues accessing an Internet website. The network technician wants to verify network layer connectivity. Which of the following tools can provide the verification? A. ping B. netstat C. route D. arp

A. DHCP is utilized to dynamically lease IP addresses to hosts. Explanation: Because DHCP server maintains a database of available IP addresses and configuration information. When the server receives a request from a client, the DHCP server determines the network to which the DHCP client is connected, and then allocates an IP address or prefix that is appropriate for the client, and sends configuration information appropriate for that client

Which of the following BEST describes the definition of DHCP? A. DHCP is utilized to dynamically lease IP addresses to hosts. B. DHCP is utilized to statically lease IP address to hosts. C. DHCP is utilized to permanently lease IP address dynamically to hosts. D. DHCP is utilized to permanently lease IP address statically to hosts.

B. Scope Explanation: A range of IP addresses that are available to be leased to DHCP clients by the DHCP Server service.

Which of the following DHCP properties defines the size of the pool of available IP addresses? A. Options B. Scope C. Leases D. Reservations

C. MX Explanation: A mail exchanger record (MX record) is a type of resource record in the Domain Name System that specifies a mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a recipient's domain, and a preference value used to prioritize mail delivery if multiple mail servers are available. The set of MX records of a domain name specifies how email should be routed with the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

Which of the following DNS records is used to identify a domain's SMTP server? A. CNAME B. PTR C. MX D. A

C. 200.200.100.63/27 E. 200.200.100.95/27 Explanation: A broadcast address is a logical address at which all devices connected to a multiple-access communications network are enabled to receive datagrams. A message sent to a broadcast address is typically received by all network-attached hosts, rather than by a specific host. ReferencE. http://www.wikihow.com/Calculate-Network-and-Broadcast-Address

Which of the following IP address/subnet mask combinations represent a broadcast address? (Select TWO). A. 200.200.100.0/28 B. 200.200.100.32/27 C. 200.200.100.63/27 D. 200.200.100.79/27 E. 200.200.100.95/27 F. 200.200.100.254/30

D. 1000BaseX Explanation: 1000BaseX identifies various Gigabit Ethernet physical layer standards as defined in IEEE802.3z, such as 1000BaseLX, 1000BaseSX, 1000BaseCX and 1000BaseLH. Basically, all standards included in 1000BaseX uses 8B/10B coding scheme with 8 bits of data and 2 bits of error-correction data. Each specification allows various cable (fiber or copper) lengths, and uses different cable media.

Which of the following LAN technologies is used to provide a MAXIMUM bandwidth of 1Gbps through singlemode fiber? A. 10GBaseLR B. 100BaseFX C. 100BaseTX D. 1000BaseX

D. Layer 7 Explanation: Basically File Transfer protocol (FTP) is responsible for file transfer which lies under Application layer (Layer 7) of OSI layers.

Which of the following OSI layers allows users to access network services such as file sharing? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 3 C. Layer 4 D. Layer 7

A. 20 B. 21 Explanation: FTP uses two ports by default: 21 for sending commands, and 20 for sending data. For instance if you said "FTP <ServerName>" it would make the attempt using port 21. If the session was established, port 20 would be using for the data. NotE. These are the default ports which is what I assume you were asking. A server administrator can however configure FTP to use whatever port he defines.

Which of the following TCP ports are used by FTP? (Select TWO). A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23 E. 25 F. 80

C. Application The Application layer provides applications the ability to access the services of the other layers and defines the protocols that applications use to exchange data. There are many Application layer protocols and new protocols are always being developed.

Which of the following TCP/IP model layers does the OSI model Presentation layer map to? A. Transport B. Internet C. Application D. Network Interface

A. SNMPv3 Explanation: SNMPv3 makes no changes to the protocol aside from the addition of cryptographic security, it looks much different due to new textual conventions, concepts, and terminology. SNMPv3 primarily added security and remote configuration enhancements to SNMP

Which of the following can function in an unsecure mode? A. SNMPv3 B. SSH C. SSL D. SCP

B. route Explanation: Explanation: The route command allows you to make manual entries into the network routing tables. The route command distinguishes between routes to hosts ...

Which of the following commands displays the routing table on a server or workstation? A. nbtstat B. route C. traceroute D. nmap

B. LC Explanation: LC connector is used in SFP modules.

Which of the following connectors is usable in SFP modules? A. ST B. LC C. LX D. SX

A. DHCP lease Explanation: By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one-day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid.

Which of the following defines the amount of time a host retains a specific IP address before it is renewed or released? A. DHCP lease B. DNS suffix C. Subnet mask D. DHCP reservation

A. VPN concentrator Explanation: The VPN Concentrator is used for Remote Access VPN's. In typical use, a Remote Access VPN allows users to use an encrypted tunnel to securely access a corporate or other network via the Internet.

Which of the following features can BEST be used to facilitate authorized remote access to a network? A. VPN concentrator B. Proxy server C. Content filter D. Load balancer

A. 10.4.0.1 Explanation: Class A ip address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

Which of the following is a Class A IP address? A. 10.4.0.1 B. 169.254.0.1 C. 192.168.0.1 D. 254.200.0.1

C. Star Explanation: A star network consists of one central switch, hub or computer, which acts as a conduit to transmit messages. This consists of a central node, to which all other nodes are connected; this central node provides a common connection point for all nodes through a hub. In star topology, every node (computer workstation or any other peripheral) is connected to central node called hub or switch.

Which of the following is a common physical network topology? A. Cross-over B. Loopback C. Star D. Straight

E. BGP Explanation: Because BGP involves a table of IP networks or "prefixes" which designate network reachability among autonomous systems (AS).

Which of the following is a path vector routing protocol? A. RIP B. EIGRP C. ISIS D. OSPF E. BGP

C. PuTTY Explanation: PuTTY is a free and open-source terminal emulator, serial console and network file transfer application. It supports several network protocols, including SCP, SSH, Telnet and rlogin.

Which of the following is a terminal emulator used to manage a network device? A. VPN B. IDS C. PuTTY D. IPS

C. The most specific route is selected over the default gateway. Explanation: Router always looks for the most closely matched route for forwarding the packet. For example if there are two routes in your router and you have to send a packet to a host with an ip 10.10.10.10 then it will forward packet to 192.168.1.10 rather than 192.168.1.1: Network Destination Netmask Gateway 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.10

Which of the following is always true when a router selects a destination? A. The default gateway is selected over any other static or dynamic route. B. The shortest route is always selected. C. The most specific route is selected over the default gateway. D. A dynamic route is selected over a directly attached network.

D. 192.168.1.105 Explanation: Class C address range varies from 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

Which of the following is an example of a Class C address? A. 10.19.0.79 B. 127.34.8.197 C. 176.96.1.222 D. 192.168.1.105

A. Create a MAC filter containing the current users. Explanation: MAC Filtering (or EUI filtering, or layer 2 address filtering) refers to a security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network. MAC addresses are uniquely assigned to each card, so using MAC filtering on a network permits and denies network access to specific devices through the use of blacklists and whitelists. While the restriction of network access through the use of lists is straightforward, an individual person is not identified by a MAC address, rather a device only, so an authorized person will need to have a whitelist entry for each device that he or she would use to access the network.

Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent new users from connecting to a wireless access point, but still allow already connected users to continue to connect? A. Create a MAC filter containing the current users. B. Turn off SSID broadcast. C. Change the encryption type to AES 256-bit for current users. D. Reduce the signal strength to 0 percent.

A. 10GBaseSR Explanation: 10GBASE-SR ("short range") is a port type for multi-mode fiber and uses 850 nm lasers. Its Physical Coding Sublayer 64b/66b PCS is defined in IEEE 802.3 Clause 49 and its Physical Medium Dependent PMD in Clause 52. It delivers serialized data at a line rate of 10.3125 Gbit/s.

Which of the following is the FASTEST Ethernet technology? A. 10GBaseSR B. 10BaseT C. 100BaseFX D. 1000BaseT

C. Layer 6 Explanation: The presentation level is translator between the application and network format. Unlike the lower layers, its concern is with the syntax and semantics of the information transmitted. Most user programs do not exchange random binary bit strings. They exchange data such as names, addresses, dates, etc. Different computers store the data in a different way. In order to allow these computers to transmit the data to each other the presentation layer translates the data into a standard form to be used on the network. Another function is data compression which can be used to reduce the number of bits needed to send the packet of information. Security is also added at this layer by using data encryption and decryption. This prevents others from intercepting the data and being able to decipher the meaning of the bits.

Which of the following is the OSI layer that handles file compression such as LZMA or DEFLATE? A. Layer 3 B. Layer 5 C. Layer 6 D. Layer 7

C. 143 Explanation: The Internet Message Access Protocol (commonly known as IMAP) is an Application Layer Internet protocol that allows an e-mail client to access e-mail on a remote mail server. The current version, IMAP version 4 revision 1 (IMAP4rev1), is defined by RFC 3501. An IMAP server typically listens on well-known port 143

Which of the following is the common port used for IMAP? A. 25 B. 53 C. 143 D. 443

B. Translates FQDN's to IP addresses Explanation: Domain Name System (DNS) is the name resolution protocol for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet. Client computers query a DNS server to resolve memorable, alphanumeric DNS names to the IP addresses that computers use to communicate with each other.

Which of the following is the definition of a DNS server? A. Hosts proprietary business applications B. Translates FQDN's to IP addresses C. Provides network IDS/IPS security D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices

C. Speed Explanation: 802.11b has a maximum speed of 11Mbps whereas 802.11g has a speed of 54Mbps.

Which of the following is the difference between 802.11b and 802.11g? A. Distance B. Frequency C. Speed D. Transmission power

B. DNS server Explanation: DNS server translate (resolution) the human-memorable domain names and hostnames into the corresponding numeric Internet Protocol (IP) addresses

Which of the following is used to register and resolve IP addresses with their plain language equivalents? A. Proxy server B. DNS server C. Brouter equipment D. DHCP server

A. DNS Explanation: An Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Because domain names are alphabetic, they're easier to remember. The Internet however, is really based on IP addresses. Every time you use a domain name, therefore, a DNS service must translate the name into the corresponding IP address. For example, the domain name www.example.com might translate to 198.105.232.4.

Which of the following network protocols is used to resolve FQDNs to IP addresses? A. DNS B. FTP C. DHCP D. APIPA

D. SMTP Explanation: While electronic mail servers and other mail transfer agents use SMTP to send and receive mail messages, user-level client mail applications typically use SMTP only for sending messages to a mail server for relaying

Which of the following network protocols is used to transport email between servers? A. IMAP4 B. POP3 C. SNMP D. SMTP

C. Bus Explanation: A bus network topology is a network topology in which a set of clients are connected via a shared communications line/cables, called a bus.

Which of the following network topologies would be separated into two networks if a client in the middle is removed or the cable is cut? A. Mesh B. Ring C. Bus D. Star

A. Switch D. Router Explanation: A Multilayer Switch and Router work from OSI layer 2, 3 or 4 to IP DSCP (if IP packet) and/or VLAN IEEE 802.1p.

Which of the following networking devices can exist at several layers of the OSI model at the same time? (Select TWO). A. Switch B. Cable C. Repeater D. Router E. Bridge F. Hub

B. Traffic shaping E. Quality of service Explanation: Traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time. The result of traffic shaping is a smoothed packet output rate. QoS (Quality of Service) is a major issue in VOIP implementations. The issue is how to guarantee that packet traffic for a voice or other media connection will not be delayed or dropped due interference from other lower priority traffic. Things to consider are: Latency: Delay for packet delivery Jitter: Variations in delay of packet delivery Packet loss: Too much traffic in the network causes the network to drop packets Burstiness of Loss and Jitter: Loss and Discards (due to jitter) tend to occur in bursts

Which of the following performance optimization techniques would be MOST beneficial for a network-wide VoIP setup? (Select TWO). A. Proxy server B. Traffic shaping C. Caching engines D. Load balancing E. Quality of service

C. 161 Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an "Internet-standard protocol for managing devices on IP networks". Devices that typically support SNMP include routers, switches, servers, workstations, printers, modem racks, UPSes and more. It is used mostly in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices for conditions that warrant administrative attention.

Which of the following port numbers is used for SNMP? A. 61 B. 151 C. 161 D. 1611

A. Reservations Explanation: Reservations are permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.

Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope? A. Reservations B. Lease times C. Removing IPs from the active leases D. Configuring the DNS options

B. TFTP Explanation: Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a file transfer protocol notable for its simplicity. It is generally used for automated transfer of configuration or boot files between machines in a local environment. Compared to FTP, TFTP is extremely limited, providing no authentication, and is rarely used interactively by a user.

Which of the following protocols is MOST commonly used for the transfer of router configuration files? A. SSL B. TFTP C. DNS D. IMAP

B. ARP Explanation: ARP is used to convert an IP address to a physical address such as an Ethernet address. ARP has been implemented with many combinations of network and data link layer technologies, such as IPv4, Chaosnet, DECnet and Xerox PARC Universal Packet (PUP) using IEEE 802 standards, FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay and Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM). IPv4 over IEEE 802.3 and IEEE 802.11 is the most common case.

Which of the following protocols resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses? A. DNS B. ARP C. RARP D. NTP

A. L2TP Explanation: Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is an extension of the Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) used by an Internet service provider (ISP) to enable the operation of a virtual private network (VPN) over the Internet.

Which of the following protocols works at the LOWEST layer of the OSI model? A. L2TP B. PPTP C. ISAKMP D. IPSec

D. SSH Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers that connects, via a secure channel over an insecure network, a server and a client (running SSH server and SSH client programs, respectively).

Which of the following provides secure access to a network device? A. SNMPv2 B. FTP C. RSH D. SSH

A. EIGRP Explanation: Diffusing Update Algorithm guarantees loop-free operation and provides a mechanism for fast convergence.

Which of the following routing protocols utilizes the DUAL algorithm for determining best path? A. EIGRP B. RIPv2 C. OSPF D. RIP

D. 802.11n Explanation: The 2.4 GHz ISM band is fairly congested. With 802.11n, there is the option to double the bandwidth per channel to 40 MHz which results in slightly more than double the data rate. However, when in 2.4 GHz, enabling this option takes up to 82%[10] of the unlicensed band, which in many areas may prove to be infeasible. The specification calls for requiring one primary 20 MHz channel as well as a secondary adjacent channel spaced ±20 MHz away. The primary channel is used for communications with clients incapable of 40 MHz mode. When in 40 MHz mode, the center frequency is actually the mean of the primary and secondary channels.

Which of the following standards can operate at either 20MHz or 40MHz channel spacing? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

B. Full-duplex Explanation: A full-duplex (FDX), or sometimes double-duplex system, allows communication in both directions, and, unlike half-duplex, allows this to happen simultaneously. Land-line telephone networks are full-duplex, since they allow both callers to speak and be heard at the same time

Which of the following switch features allows for both incoming and outgoing data across physical ports at the same time? A. Burst-frame B. Full-duplex C. Half-duplex D. VoIP

B. CIDR Explanation: Classless Inter-Domain Routing is based on variable-length subnet masking (VLSM), which allows a network to be divided into variously sized subnets, providing the opportunity to size a network more appropriately for local needs and also CIDR allows an address or routing prefix to be written with a suffix indicating the number of bits of the prefix, such as 192.168.2.0/24.

Which of the following uses classless subnet masks across a network? A. Subnetting B. CIDR C. Supernetting D. Summarization

D. RIP Explanation: Here the term distance vector refers to the fact that the protocol manipulates vectors (arrays) of distances to other nodes in the network

Which of the following uses distance vector algorithms to determine the BEST network route to a destination address? A. IS-IS B. OSPF C. BGP D. RIP

A. TELNET Explanation: Telnet is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection. User data is interspersed in-band with Telnet control information in an 8-bit byte oriented data connection over the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

Which of the following uses port 23 by default? A. TELNET B. IMAP C. FTP D. SNMP

B. 802.11b Explanation: The 802.11b standard allows for a maximum data transfer speed of 11 Mbps, at a range of about 100 m indoors and up to 200 metres outdoors (or even beyond that, with directional antennas.) Hypothetical speed Range(indoors) Range(outdoors) 11 Mbits/s (speed) 50 m (indoors) 200 m (outdoors) 5.5 Mbits/s (speed) 75 m (indoors) 300 m (outdoors) 2 Mbits/s (speed) 100 m (indoors) 400 m (outdoors) 1 Mbit/s (speed) 150 m (indoors) 500 m (outdoors)

Which of the following wireless standards has a MAXIMUM transfer rate of 11Mbps? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

D. Patch panel Explanation: A patch panel, patch bay, patch field or jack field is a number of circuits, usually of the same or similar type, which appear on jacks for monitoring, interconnecting, and testing circuits in a convenient, flexible manner.

Which of the following wiring distribution types, often found in company closets, is used to connect wiring from individual offices to the main LAN cabling? A. MDF B. 66 block C. IDF D. Patch panel

B. MPLS Explanation: MPLS is a mechanism in high-performance telecommunications networks that directs data from one network node to the next based on short path labels rather than long network addresses, avoiding complex lookups in a routing table. The labels identify virtual links (paths) between distant nodes rather than endpoints

Which of the following would the telecommunications carrier use to segregate customer traffic over long fiber links? A. VLAN B. MPLS C. VPN D. PSTN

A. It is the default route. Explanation: The address 0.0.0.0 generally means "any address". If a packet destination doesn't match an individual address in the table, it must match a 0.0.0.0 gateway address. In other words, default gateway is always pointed by 0.0.0.0:

While working on a PC, a technician notices 0.0.0.0 in the routing table. Which of the following does this indicate? A. It is the default route. B. This is the address for the DHCP server. C. The PC has not been assigned an IP address. D. The firewall is down.