Science ACT Set 1

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1. According to the table, which material(s) will transmit light at 25 um? A. Potassium bromide only B. Potassium bromide and cesium iodide C. Lithium Fluoride and cesium iodide D. Lithium fluoride and flint glass

22. Which brand(s) of tape was/were used at only 2 different widths in both experiments? F. Brand X only G. Brand Y only H. Brand Z only J. Brands Y and Z only

37. Based on the data in Figure 2, at which of the following pHs, if any, do Enzymes A and B have the same acceleration factor? A. At pH 5 only B. At pH 6.7 only C. At all pHs between 2 and 11 D. At none of the pHs shown in the figure

37. Based on the information in Experiment 1, we can generalize that the relationship between the rate of reaction and the concentration of the substrate is which of the following? A. Inversely related B. Equivalent C. Directly correlated D. Both inversely and directly related at different points

1. Figure 1 shows that a seismograph located at a point 125° around Earth from an earthquake's focus would receive which type(s) of seismic waves, if either, from that earthquake? A. P-waves only B. S-waves only C. Both p-waves and s-waves D. Neither p-waves nor s-waves

1. according to the results of Experiment 1, if a pigeon correctly identified 52% of breast cancer tumor images on its first day of training, which of the following was most likely the magnification of the images? A. 1x B. 4x C. 10x D. 20x

34. "Genetic drift" occurs when some portion of a population moves to a new environment where one phenotype gives an advantage that was not hitherto experienced in the old environment, causing natural selection. Which of the following situations best illustrates the change to a population that would occur as a result of genetic drift? F. Kansas, 1993 G. Illinois, 1973 H. Minnesota, 1973 J. Nebraska, 1993

36. According to the passage, a similarity between DNA and proteins is that both types of molecules: F. are found only in gametes. G. are abundant in the cytoplasm. H. contain 20 different amino acids. J. are composed of smaller subunits.

7. According to Figure 3, at Sites 1, 2, and 3, the smallest (δ^18 O) value of the groundwater in the lake clay was recorded at a depth between: A. 0 m and 10 m. B. 10 m and 20 m. C. 20 m and 30 m. D. 30 m and 40 m.

7. According to Scientist 2's viewpoint, compared to the altitude at which a stony asteroid would have exploded in Earth's atmosphere, a comet of similar size would most likely have exploded at: A. the same altitude. B. a higher altitude. C. a slightly lower altitude. D. a much lower altitude.

If Trial 2 were repeated with a spring with k = 15, the displacement of the spring would be: A. less than 5. B. 5. C. greater than 5. D. indeterminable from the given information.

12. The lines separating continental plates on Figure 2 would most clearly be found in which of the following layers of Earth? F. Stratosphere G. Thermosphere H. Asthenosphere J. Lithosphere

13. Based on the results of Study 3, one could generalize that compared to hand-planting of seeds, ant-planting of seeds results in: A. increased seed germination. B. increased seed production per plant. C. decreased plant survival after 1 year. D. decreased plant survival after 2 years.

13. In Experiment 2, a result of shaking the can of flattasting beverage was that the: A. number of bubbles in the beverage immediately decreased. B. mass of the can of beverage increased. C. roll time of the can of beverage decreased. D. roll time of the can of beverage increased.

14. Based on the data in table 1. the boiling point of the straight-chain hydrocarbon C6H14 (molecular weight 86 g/mol) is most likely: F. 30 degrees C G. 70 degrees C H. 130 degrees C J none

16. In Study 2, Site 3 was used to study the: F. preference of a different ant species for the seeds of both plant species. G. seed preference of ants in an area in which both plant species were absent. H. growth and survival of both plant species in an area where ants were not present. J. effects of elaiosome mass on the seed preference of ants.

16. according to figure 2, if the trend in the CH4 concentration had continued to match the trend in the solar radiation intensity, the CH4 concentration at present would most likely be: F. less than 550 ppb G. between 550 ppb and 600 pp. h. between 600 pp. and 650 pp.. j. greater than 650 ppb.

17. Which of the two scientists used mechanical separation of the cells to conduct his experiment? A. Scientist 1 only B. Scientist 2 only C. Both of the Scientists D. Neither one of the Scientists

18. According to figure 1, at what temperature will Au begin to boil? F. 363 C G. 1063 C H. 1412 C J. none

18. The results of Study 2 suggest that which of the following factors most affects the seed preference of ants? F. Seed mass G. Elaiosome mass H. Percentage of seed mass composed of elaiosome J. Abundance of a plant in a given area

19. A person has had his arm removed in an accident. What would scientist 2 say about whether the genetic determinants to recreate the arm were present elsewhere in the body? A. They would be present in person's torso. B. They would be present in every cell of the person's body. C. They would be present in the arm that remained on the body. D. They would not be present elsewhere in the body.

19. Based on figure 1, an aloy that is atomically 50% Si and 50% Au will be in what state at a temperature of 600 C? A. Completely liquid B. Liquid with some amount of solid Si C. Liquid with some amount of solid Au D. Completely solid

19. The results of the 2 experiments support the conclusion that, for a given brand of tape, as the tape's width increases, the force required to remove the tape from a given wrapping: A. increases only. B. decreases only. C. remains constant. D. varies, but with no particular trend.

2. According to Figure 1, when p-waves encounter the boundary between the mantle and the core, the p-waves most likely: F. stop and do not continue into the core. G. enter the core and are refracted. H. change to s-waves. J. change to a third type of seismic wave.

2. Based on the model presented by Student 3, if all 6 genes are replicated and the first gene replicated is Gene G, the third gene replicated would be: F. Gene F. G. Gene A. H. Gene S. J. Gene X.

24. Given the data in the table, which of the following best expresses resistance in terms of resistivity (p), cross-sectional area (A), and length (L)? F. (pA)/L G. (pL)/A H. pAL J. (AL)/p

24. Suppose that a sixth KI/H2O solution had been measured in Experiment 2 and the mass of the solution in the graduated cylinder was 67.54 g. The density of this solution would most likely have been closest to which of the following? F. 1.25 g/mL G. 1.30 g/mL H. 1.35 g/mL J. 1.40 g/mL

26. In Experiments 1 and 2, the students tared the graduated cylinder in each trial so they could more easily determine: F. the mass of the substances added to the graduated cylinder. G. the density of the graduated cylinder. H. when the total volume of the added substances was equal to 50.0 mL. J. when all of the KI was dissolved in the H2O.

26. Insulators are materials that are poor heat conductors. According to Trials 7 through 10, a wall of a given thickness built of which of the following materials would provide the best insulation between a room and the outdoors? F. Wood G. Brick H. Concrete J. Steel

27. Based on the information in Figure 2, which sound wave(s) would provide the greatest sound volume to a listener? A. Natural Frequency B. First Harmonic C. Second Harmonic D. All three waves will produce an equivalent sound volume

31. Based on the results of Experiment 3, one can reasonably conclude that as the amount of NaCl added increased from 0 mol to 0.100 mol, the maximum rise in temperature within 15 min of the start of the reaction: A. increased only. B. increased, then stayed the same. C. decreased only. D. decreased, then stayed the same.

33. A "genetic bottleneck" occurs when there is a significant drop in population, and a recessive trait becomes dominant. Which of the following situations best demonstrates a genetic bottleneck? A. Kansas, 1993 B. Illinois, 1993 C. Minnesota, 1953 D. Nebraska, 1953

34. The average height of a full-grown person today is significantly greater than was the average height of a full-grown person 1,000 years ago. If it was proven that the increase in average height was due only to evolutionary changes, how would Scientist 1 most likely explain this increase? F. People genetically prone to growing taller have been more likely to produce offspring G. Over the last 1000 years, improvements in nutrition and medicine have led to greater average growth over a person's lifetime, and this growth has been passed from one generation to the next. H. Increased height is not a trait that can be acquired through mutation J. Measurements of average height were less accurate 1000 years ago than they are today

35. In Study 4, the researchers trapped birds for 10,000 hr per year. Thus, how many insectivores were trapped in Year 2 ? A. 80 B. 100 C. 800 D. 1,000

37. According to Figure 1, the oldest glacial advance in this area deposited which of the following till layers? A. Gray till A B. Yellow till C. Olive green and gray till D. Gray till D

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40. the presence of other negative ions, such as Cl-, results in an increase in the electrical conductivity of a solution. If all of the samples tested in experiment 2 contained trance concentrations of Cl-, how would the measurements have been affected? Compared to the actual F- concentrations, the F- concentrations apparently measured would be: f. higher G. lower H. the same J. higher for some of the samples, lower for others

5. A compound X has an oxidation-reduction potential of 1000 mV. Compared to the compounds in Figure 2, compound X is most likely to generate more: A. negative ions B. positive ions C. both positive and negative ions D. cannot be determined with the given information.

5. Hornfels is a metamorphic rock formed when magma (molten rock) heats sedimentary rocks on Earth's surface. According to Figure 1, hornfels is most likely a member of which of the following facies? A. Facies A B. Facies C C. Facies E D. Facies G

5. the addition of lead oxide to pure quartz has the effect of: a. decreasing the transmittance range and the reflective index. b. decreasing the transmittance range and increasing the refractive index. C. increasing the transmittance range and the useful prism range D. increasing the transmittance range and decreasing the useful prism range

6. According to Figure 2, the lake clay deposit is thinnest at which of the following cities or sites? F. Winnipeg G. Site 1 H. Site 2 J. Grand Forks

6. The researchers were concerned that the entry and exit of researchers from the lab was interfering with the pigeons' ability to select the correct breast tumor images. Which of the following modifications would best help them eliminate this problem? F. Increase the volume of the continuous white noise G. Increase the total number of images H. Decrease the duration of the training program J. Decrease the size of the touchscreen

6. Which of the following phrases best describes the major point of difference between the 2 scientists' hypotheses? F. The location of the event G. The speed the object was traveling H. The density of Earth's atmosphere J. The type of object that entered Earth's atmosphere

7. Based on figure 1, the tree pollen count on March 2 was closest to: A. 75 gr/m3 B. 150 gr/m3 C. 1500 gr/m3 D. 1900 gr/m3

7. Pigeons belong to which taxonomic domain? A. bacteria B. Archaea C. Eukaryota D. Fungi

Based on the results from Experiment 1, one can conclude that: A. brine shrimp hatch less quickly as salt concentration increases. B. brine shrimp hatch more quickly as salt concentration increases. C. hatching is unaffected by salt concentration. D. salt concentration is dependent on temperature.

1. According to Figure 2, which of the following minerals would most typically be found only in rocks of a medium grade? A. Muscovite B. Biotite C. Kyanite D. Plagioclase

1. According to Study 2, the thermal conductivity of rock salt measured at a temperature of 500°C would be closest to which of the following values? a. 1.0 W/m°C b. 2.0 W/m°C c. 3.5 W/m°C d. 4.0 W/m°C

1. The information in Tables 1 and 2 supports the conclusion that Sample 3 contains: a. Cu2+ and Cd2+ only. b. Co2+ and Hg2+ only. c. Ni2+, Co2+, and Cd2+ only. d. Ni2+, Cd2+, and Hg2+ only

1. Which of the following best describes how the 2 scientists explain how craters are removed from Europa's surface? A. Scientist 1:Sublimation Scientist 2: Filled in by water B. Scientist 1: Filled in by water Scientist 2: Sublimation C. Scientist 1: Worn smooth by wind Scientist 2: Sublimation D. Scientist 1: Worn smooth by wind Scientist 2: Filled in by water

10. According to Study 1, the reflectance of white S at a wavelength of 0.40 µm is closest to which of the following? F. 0.0 G. 0.1 H. 0.2 J. 0.3

11. Assume that changes in the body mass of a monarch butterfly are caused only by changes in the mass of the butterfly's stored lipids. The statement "The percent of a monarch butterfly's body mass that is made up of lipids is greater at the beginning of migration than at the end of migration" is supported by which of the hypotheses? A. Hypothesis 1 only b. Hypothesis 2 only c. Hypothesis 1 and 2 only d. Hypothesis 1, 2, and 3

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19. In Figure 2, at which of the following wavelengths does the rate of photosynthesis exceed the rate of photosynthesis at 670 nm ? A. 400 nm B. 430 nm C. 630 nm D. 700 nm

19. One solar radiation cycle is the time between a maximum in the solar radiation intensity and the next maximum in the solar radiation intensity. According to Figure 1, the average length of a solar radiation cycle during the past 250,000 years was: a. less than 15,000 years b. between 15,000 years and 35,000 years c. between 35,000 years and 55,000 years. d. greater than 55,000 years

25. Which of the following wires would have the highest resistance? A. A 1-cm aluminum wire with a cross-sectional area of 0.33 mm^2 B. A 2-cm aluminum wire with a cross-sectional area of 0.33 mm^2 C. a 1-cm tungsten wire with a cross-sectional area of 0.33 mm^2 D. A 2-cm tungsten wire with a cross-sectional area of 0.33 mm^2

30. Which student(s), if either, would predict that ice will melt under the blades of an ice skater who is NOT moving? F. student 1 only G. Student 2 only H. Both student 1 and Student 2 J. Neither Student 1 nor Student 2

35. Based on the information in Figure 2, at approximately what concentration of o-Dianisidine does the reaction, if plotted linearly, begin to have a slope of zero? A. 10^3 B. 10^4 C. 10^5 D. 10^6

39. Based on the results of experiments 1 and 2, if the measured conductivities for the samples tested in Experiment 2 were compared with their corrected conductivities, the measured conductivities would be A. lower for all of samples tested B. higher for all of the samples tested C. lower for some of the samples tested higher for others d. the same for all of the samples tested

5. Suppose that Student 2's model is correct and that the transfer of genes between 2 bacteria was interrupted after 30 min. Under these conditions, which of the following genes would definitely NOT be transferred from the donor bacterium to the recipient bacterium? A. Gene A B. Gene R C. Gene G D. Gene X

5. Which variables remained constant in experiments 1 and 2, respectively? a. Ex 1 rotation, Ex 2 reinforcement b. Ex 1 magnification, Ex 2 compression C. Ex. 1 reinforcement, EX. 2 rotation D. EX 1 compression, Ex 2 reinforecment

6. Which of the following procedures, in addition to Studies 1, 2, and 3, would best test whether the amount of heat generated by SF is related to the mass of the SF? e. Following the design of Study 1 but using concrete canisters containing 0.4 metric tons of SF f. Following the design of Study 1 but using stainless steel canisters containing 0.8 metric tons of SF G. Following the design of Study 2 but determining the thermal conductivities of twice as much of each rock type H. Following the design of Study 3 but determining the rock temperatures 0.5 km from the sites of SF burial

11. A scientist carrying out a version of Experiment 2 found a newly discovered transgenic protein that carried the following partial amino acid sequence, with each letter as an abbreviation of an amino acid: ACQGHIPDNRKC Which of the following allergen sequences of amino acids would the transgenic protein contain? A. AQHPNK B. CQGRKC C. GHINRK D. HIPDNR

11. According to Study 1 and Study 2, the crater floor of the volcano Pele has reflectances most similar to which of the following S allotropes? A. White S B. Orange S C. Red S D. Brown S

11. Based on table 1, most of the cases of allergic rhinitis in May in Northern Kentucky were caused by which of the following allergens? A. Tree and grass pollen B. Grass and weed pollen C. Grass and wed pollen D. Aspergillus

11. What was the most likely puropse of the dye place in the sucrose solutions in Experiments 1 and 2? A. The dye showed when osmosis was completed B. the dye showed the presence of ions in the solutions. c. The dye was used to make the experiment more colorful D. The dye was used to make the onset of osmosis visible

11. Which of the following statements would both scientists most likely use to explain the damage to the forest caused by the object's explosion? Energy from the explosion: A. traveled rapidly down to Earth's surface. B. dissipated in the upper atmosphere. C. was released less than 1 km above Earth's surface. D. was released as the object struck Earth's surface.

17. Based on Table 1 and Figure 1, which color of light is associated with the wavelength of light that results in the greatest absorption by chlorophyll b ? A. Blue B. Green C. Yellow D. Red

18. In eukaryotic organisms, the chemical reactions associated with the chemical equation shown in the passage typically occur within which of the following structures? F. Chloroplasts G. Mitochondria H. Lysosomes J. Nuclei

18. On which of the following statements do both Scientists 1 and 2 agree? F. Each cell of a two-celled embryo contains all of the genetic determinants for a complete organism. G. A one-celled embryo contains all of the genetic determinants for a complete organism. H. Genetic determinants for a complete organism are not present in a one-celled embryo. J. Genetic determinants for a complete organism are not present in each cell of a two-celled embryo.

18. Seedlings grown at a 40% humidity level under the same conditions as in Experiment 1 would have average leaf widths closest to: F. 1.6 cm G. 1.9 cm H. 2.2 cm J. 2.5

2. According to Figure 1, a Facies G rock will most likely form under which of the following pressure and temperature conditions? Pressure Temperature F. 3 kb, 800°C G. 5 kb, 400°C H. 8 kb, 1,000°C J. 11 kb, 600°C

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27. Assume that a person's blood oxygen saturation percentage is determined only by the oxygen partial pressure at the location at which they live and the efficiency of the person's respiratory system at incorporating oxygen into the blood. Which of the following pieces of information supports the hypothesis that people from population ha 2(not a typo) can incorporate oxygen into their blood more efficiently than people from population sl 1? A. Population ha 2 lives where the oxygen partial pressure is lower than that of where population sl 1 lives, yet population ha 2 has a higher blood oxygen saturation percentage than does population ha 1. B. Population ha 2 lives where the oxygen partial pressure is higher than that of where population sl 1 lives, yet population ha 2 has a lower blood oxygen saturation percentage than does population ha 1 C. Population ha 2 has a higher CR concentration than does population sl 1 D. Population ha 2 has an unusually high GST concentration.

29. According to Figure 1, 100 g of water at 4°C would exactly fill a container having which of the following volumes? A. 1 cm3 B. 10 cm3 C. 100 cm3 D. 1,000 cm3

29. Trials 1 and 3 provide evidence that heat flow depends on which of the following factors? A. Distance between walls B. Contact area C. Temperature of the hotter wall D. Temperature of the cooler wall

3. Experiment 2 differed from Experiment 1 in that Experiment 2: A. tested different magnifications B. tested different rotations c. tested different touchscreen sizes d. tested different reinforcements

3. Figure 1 indicates that as depth increases, pressure: A. decreases only. B. remains the same. C. increases only. D. increases, then decreases.

3. Welded tuff (another rock type) has a thermal conductivity of 1.8 W/m°C at 25°C. If measurements of the temperature of this rock type adjacent to SF canisters were taken as in Study 1, the recorded temperature would be closest to: a. 100°C b. 110°C c. 120°C d. 130°C

39. The average resistivity of the bedrock in the core is most similar to the average resistivity of which of the following till layers? A. Yellow till B. Gray till B C. Olive green and gray till D. Gray till C

39. what is control group in Experiment 1? A. Group A B. Group B C. Group C D. Group D

40. Based on Figure 1, on August 3, what percent of incoming solar radiation was NOT reflected from Plot 2? F. 20% G. 40% H. 60% J. 80%

6. Based on the information in Scientist 1's view, which of the following materials must be present on Europa if a magnetic field is to be generated on Europa? E. Frozen nitrogen F. Water ice G. Dissolved salts H. Molten magma

6. If the hypothesis made by the meteorologist in study 3 is correct, the glacier modeled in study 1 most likely experience unusually high temperatures at approximately what time during the stimulated 2,000-year study? F. 500 years G. 1,000 years H. 1500 years J. 2000 years

2. The meteorologist in Study 3 hypothesized that the faster the calving rate, the faster the sea level at a calving glacier's terminus would rise. If this hypothesis is correct, which of the following glaciers resulted in the fastest rise in sea level during years 6-10? F. Glacier A G. Glacier B H. Glacier C J. Glacier D

21. It was assumed in the design of the THRee experiments that all of the CYCAS seedlings were: A. more than 5 cm tall B. equally capable of germinating C. equally capable of producing flowers D. equally capable of further growth

22. Consider the following statement: "If a scientist were to remove the nucleus of an endothelial cell lining the stomach of an adult frog, and injected it into an embryonic tadpole cell in which the nucleus had previously been destroyed by radiation, the embryo would develop into a complete, healthy tadpole, then frog." Which scientist(s) would agree with this statement? F. Scientist 1 only G. Scientist 2 only H. Both Scientists 1 and 2 J. Neither Scientist

22. In Experiment 1, the density of ethanol was found to be: F. less than 0.793 g/mL. G. 0.793 g/mL. H. 0.999 g/mL. J. greater than 0.999 g/mL

23. Based on the results of Experiments 1−3, the density of PA-11 is most likely: A. less than 0.793 g/mL. B. between 0.853 g/mL and 0.958 g/mL. C. between 0.999 g/mL and 1.05 g/mL. D. greater than 1.11 g/mL.

28. Based on the description of the well plate and how it was used, the empty well plate would most likely have been which of the following colors? F. Black G. Blue H. Red J. White

28. Based on the information in Figure 1, after approximately how much time after a piano note was struck would there be a great deal of dissonance, i.e. destructive interference, in the sound? F. 0.1 seconds G. 5 seconds H. 17 seconds J. 36 seconds

28. Both scientist agree that: F. the environment affects evolution. G. the individuals of a generation have identical traits. H. acquired characteristics are inherited J. random mutations occur

3. When 8.0 eV photons were shone on the photocell, electrons ejected from the metal in the photocell had a maximum kinetic energy of 4.9 eV. Based on this information and Table 1, the relative intensity of the light shone on the photocell: a. was high. b. was medium. c. was low. d. cannot be determined.

3. Which students believe that any of the 6 genes on the plasmid can be the first gene transferred to a recipient bacterium? A. Students 2 and 3 B. Students 2 and 4 C. Students 3 and 4 D. Students 2, 3, and 4

33. suppose evidence was found that suggested that before the discovery of fire, human skin lacked the nerve endings necessary to detect extreme heat. Which of the following peices of information, if true, would most seriously weaken the hypothesis of scientist 2? A. Human skin is capable of generating nerve endings with new functions during life B. The total number of nerve endings in the skin of a human is determined at birth and remains constant until death C. An excess of nerve endings that are sensitive to extreme heat is a relatively common human mutation D. No evidence exists to suggest that an excess of nerve endings that are sensitive to heat could be acquired through mutation

34. An engineer is designing an FRH, to be used with 100 mL of H2O, that will most rapidly generate the greatest amount of heat with the least amount of materials. Based on the results of Experiments 1, 2, and 3, which of the following specifications should she choose? F. 0.50 mol Fe powder, 0.125 mol NaCl, and 0.10 mol of Mg powder G. 0.50 mol Fe powder, 0.125 mol NaCl, and 0.10 mol of Mg ribbon H. 0.70 mol Fe powder, 0.125 mol NaCl, and 0.10 mol of Mg powder J. 0.70 mol Fe powder, 0.125 mol NaCl, and 0.10 mol of Mg ribbon

36. A sample was also taken from the drinking water supply of the community of blue water in Experiment 2, and its conductivity was measured to be 20.69 uS/cm. which of the following correctly list the drinking water supplies of Newtown, Lakewood, and Bluewater in increasing order of F- concentration? F. lakewood, Newtown, Bluewater G. Bluewater, Newtown, Lakewood H. Newtown, Bluewater, Lakewood. J. Lake wood, bluewater, Newton

37. Based on the results of Experiment 1, if a solution with a concentration of 3.0 mg/L F- had been closest to which of the following values? A. 1.3 uS/cm B. 3.3 uS/cm C. 5.0 uS/cm D. 6.5 uS/cm

If the standard salt concentration used in Experiment 2 were changed from 0.3 mg/L to 0.4 mg/L, what would likely happen to the time it takes for the cysts to hatch? F. The time would increase. G. The time would decrease. H. The time would not change. J. The time would be reduced to zero.

Despite the scientists' findings in Experiment 2, due to the limited amount of information available in 2002 on allergenic proteins themselves, it was impossible to determine whether or not the homologous epitopes shared by allergenic and transgenic proteins were potential binding sites for IgE (which is the substance responsible for initiating the body's allergic reaction), and thus, an indication of a protein's potential allergenicity. 10. What is a possible explanation for the fact that the results for pollen in Experiment 1 contradict that experiment's prediction of what would result in an allergenic substance? F. The fact that pollen comes from a plant substance, rather than animal substance G. The fact that pollen is inhaled rather than absorbed through the stomach H. The fact that it is not successfully degraded in both SGF and SIF J. The fact that it is an allergenic rather than a transgenic substance

Despite the scientists' findings in Experiment 2, due to the limited amount of information available in 2002 on allergenic proteins themselves, it was impossible to determine whether or not the homologous epitopes shared by allergenic and transgenic proteins were potential binding sites for IgE (which is the substance responsible for initiating the body's allergic reaction), and thus, an indication of a protein's potential allergenicity. 8. What was the likely purpose of the two sets of experiments? F. To determine whether genetically-modified foods contributed to allergic reactions G. To determine whether allergenic substances are successfully digested H. To determine whether transgenic substances have the same amino acid sequences as allergens J. To determine the impact that wheat allergen has on pollen and peanut allergens

Despite the scientists' findings in Experiment 2, due to the limited amount of information available in 2002 on allergenic proteins themselves, it was impossible to determine whether or not the homologous epitopes shared by allergenic and transgenic proteins were potential binding sites for IgE (which is the substance responsible for initiating the body's allergic reaction), and thus, an indication of a protein's potential allergenicity 7. Based on the information in Tables 1 & 2, which of the following allergens creates the most severe allergic reaction in humans? A. Peanut B. Pollen C. Wheat D. Cannot be determined with the given information

1. Based on the information presented, if the transfer of the linear copy was interrupted 50 min after transfer began, how many complete genes would have been transferred to the recipient bacterium? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

1. If the glacier model used in study 1 is typical of all calving glaciers, the scientist would draw which of the following conclusions about the relationship between glacier length and calving rate? A. as calving rate decreases, glacier length always increases. B. As glacier length decreases, calving rate always decreases C. A sharp increase in calving rate results in a sharp decrease in glacier length. D. A sharp increase in calving rate results in a sharp increase in glacier length

1. Stable compounds are those that are unlikely to denature, i.e. unfold, through reactions. According to Figure 2, which of the following compounds would have the greatest stability? A. NADH B. CoQ C. CoC D. O²־

1. Which of the following statements about displacement and the force on the spring is consistent with the data in Table 1? A. The force on the spring increases as displacement increases. B. The force on the spring decreases as displacement increases. C. The force on the spring does not change as displacement increases. D. The force on the spring increases then decreases as displacement increases.

10. According to Figure 1, which of the following conclusions about the tree pollen count is most valid? F. The tree pollen count was highest on March 9 G. The tree pollen count was highest on March 16. H. The tree pollen count was lowest on Feburary 23. J. The tree pollen count was lowest on MArch 16

10. How would the behavior of the asteroid differ from that described in Scientist 2's viewpoint if the asteroid had not been flattened by the air pressure difference? The asteroid would: F. not have entered Earth's atmosphere. G. have struck another planet in the solar system. H. have decelerated more gradually. J. have frozen

10. Precipitation that falls at Sites 1, 2, and 3 soaks into the soil until it reaches the groundwater table about 3 m below the surface. Based on Figure 3, and assuming no alteration of the precipitation, the δ18O value of present-day precipitation in the study area is closest to: F. −26. G. −23. H. −20. J. −15.

11. In Experiment 3, what is the most likely reason the students used the plastic bottle rather than an aluminum can? Compared to an aluminum can, the plastic bottle: A. rolled more rapidly down the incline. B. made bubbles in the liquid easier to see. C. contained a greater quantity of liquid. D. had thicker walls and was less likely to break

12. Based on the results of Experiments 1 and 2, in which of the following trials, before shaking, were the average speeds of the cans the same? F. Trials 1 and 2 G. Trials 2 and 3 H. Trials 2 and 4 J. Trials 3 and 5

12. If the averaged reflectances for large plumes and for small plumes had been measured at a wavelength of 0.61 µm in Study 3, those reflectances would have been closest to which of the following? F. Large plumes 0.2, Small plumes 0.5 G. Large plumes 0.5, Small plumes 0.2 H. Large plumes 0.5, Small plumes 0.9 J. Large plumes 0.9, Small plumes 0.5

12. In experiment 3, for which of the following masses would Spring B, Spring C, and Spring D have closest to the same equilibrium lengths? F. 100g G. 270g H. 500g J. 1000g

g (I categorize this question as "What did he say?" Not. Scientist 1 said it was a comet that vaporized and exploded in the atmosphere. So you might go immediately to H reasoning that if comets often hit the atmosphere we would have them exploding all the time. But that would be thinking too much for the rather ordinary folk who write these tests. Elimination is a good way of checking to see if there is really simple answer that the ACT people would like better. Choices F and J can be eliminated because F is what the guy said and J has nothing to do with anything. Choice G, however, is ACT-simple. If you go back to the passage and find the size of the thing that hit Siberia, it is between 10 m and 100 m in diameter. The "giant comet theory" would negate what Scientist 1 said. You could still argue for choice H but the simpler answer is the one they want.)

12. Scientist 1's viewpoint would be weakened by which of the following observations about comets, if true? F. Comets are composed mainly of frozen materials. G. Comets are much larger than 100 m in diameter. H. Comets often pass close enough to Earth to intersect Earth's atmosphere. J. Comets orbit the Sun.

13. A student has hypothesized that as the length of the arm of a pendulum increases, the oscillation frequency of the pendulum during SMH will decrease. Do the results of Experiment 1 support her hypothesis? A. Yes; the oscillation frequency of the pendulum observed in Experiment 1 Decreased as the arm length increased B. yes although the longest pendulum arm resulted in the highest oscillation frequency, the frequency decreased with increasing arm length for the other three lengths tested C. No; the oscillation frequency of the pendulum observed in Experiment 1 increased as the other arm length increased D. No; although the longest pendulum arm resulted in the lowest oscillation frequency, the frequency increased with increasing arm length for the other three lengths tested

13. According to Figure 1, which of the following would one most likely find close to a subducting plate? A. Hot Spot B. Shield Volcano C. Stratovolcano D. None of the Above

13. According to Study 1, white S has a reflectance of 0.98 at a wavelength of 0.60 µm. This means that white S reflects: A. 2% of the 0.60 µm wavelength light that strikes its surface. B. 98% of the 0.60 µm wavelength light that strikes its surface. C. 2% of all the visible light that strikes its surface. D. 98% of all the visible light that strikes its surface.

14. Based on the results of experiment 2, if an enginner needs a spring that oscillates most slowly after being stretched and released, which of the following springs should be chosen? F. Spring A G. Spring B H. Spring C J. Spring D

14. In Experiment 1, the time constant of the circuit was the time required for the voltage across the capacitor to reach approximately 7.6 V. The time constant of the circuit used in Experiment 1 was: F. less than 12 sec. G. between 12 sec and 24 sec. H. between 24 sec and 36 sec. J. greater than 36 sec.

14. In Trial 5, is it likely that bubbles were present in large numbers immediately before the can was shaken? F. Yes; based on the results of Experiment 1, the bubbles produced in Trial 4 probably lasted for less than 15 min. G. Yes; based on the results of Experiment 1, the bubbles produced in Trial 4 probably lasted for more than 2 hr. H. No; based on the results of Experiment 3, the bubbles produced in Trial 4 probably lasted for less than 2 hr. J. No; based on the results of Experiment 3, the bubbles produced in Trial 4 probably lasted for more than 3 hr

14. Using the information in Figure 2 and Figure 3, what is the relationship, if any, between the length of the continental plate vectors and the presence of high magnitude earthquakes? F. The greater the vector length, the more high magnitude earthquakes. G. The lower the vector length, the more high magnitude earthquakes. H. The greater the vector length, the fewer high magnitude earthquakes. J. There is no relationship between vector length and high magnitude earthquakes.

14. When the monarch butterflies use their stored lipids, the lipids must be broken down to produce energy-rich molecules that can be readily used by cells. Which of the following molecules is produced as a direct result of the breakdown of the lipids F. ATP G. Strarch H. DNA J. Amino Acids

14. Which of the following variables was controlled in the design of Study 2 ? F. The number of ants in each site G. The number of seed dishes placed in each site H. The mass of the elaiosome of each seed J. The type of seeds taken by the ants in each site

15. According to the results of the studies, Species A and Species B are most similar in that their: A. seed masses are the same. B. germination rates on ant waste piles are the same. C. percentages of elaiosome mass per seed are the same. D. rates of production of seeds after 1 year are the same.

15. Based on the results of experiment 3, if a 700 g mass was suspended from Spring A, at what equilibrium length would the system come to rest? A. Less than 20 cm B. Between 20 cm and 30 cm C. Between 30cm and 50 cm D. Greater than 50 cm

15. If, in Experiment 2, a 1.5 × 10^-6 F capacitor had been used, the time required for the voltage across the capacitor to reach 6 V would have been closest to: A. 4.2 sec. B. 7.0 sec. C. 10.5 sec. D. 15.0 sec

15. Suppose that in Experiment 2, two hours after the completion of Trial 5, the students had measured the roll time of the can of liquid without first shaking the can. Based on the results of Trials 4 and 5, the roll time would most likely have been: A. less than 1.86 sec. B. between 1.86 sec and 1.93 sec. C. between 1.94 sec and 1.96 sec. D. greater than 1.96 sec.

15. Which of the following represent logical reasons as to why the different projections of the maps were chosen as they were in Figures 2 and 3 to portray data about earthquakes and continental shifts? I. The fully flattened map projection, in Figure 2, is used because it allows straight-line vectors to be more clearly portrayed. II. In Figure 3, the scientists thought that showing the actual size of land masses was preferable to showing a flat version, since it would more accurately show how much of an area is impacted by earthquakes. III. Doing a fully flattened map projection in Figure 3 is not necessary, since small circles can as easily be represented on an accurate-area map as they would be on a fully flattened map. A. I and III B. II and III C. II only D. I, II and III

15. according to Figure 2, the solar radiation intensity 8,000 years ago was closest to which of the following? a. 490 watts/m^2 b. 495 watts/m^2 c. 500 watts/m^2 d. 505 watts/m^2

16. A polar substance with a boiling point of 0 degrees C is likely to have a molar weight closest to which of the following: F. 58 G. 80 H. 108 j. 132

16. Based on the results of Trials 3−5 and Experiment 3, if the students had added 1 L of the flat-tasting beverage to one of the empty aluminum cans, sealed the can, and shaken it, how long would it most likely have taken for the number of bubbles in the beverage to become too few to affect the roll time? F. Less than 5 min G. Between 5 min and 14 min H. Between 15 min and 2 hr J. Over 2 h

16. The main purpose of Experiment 3 was to determine how varying the: F. battery's voltage affected the resistor's resistance at a given time. G. capacitor's capacitance affected the time required for the voltage across the capacitor to reach a set value. H. capacitor's capacitance affected the voltage across the battery at a given time. J. resistor's resistance affected the time required for the voltage across the capacitor to reach a set value.

16. The students tested a fifth spring, Spring E, in the same manner as in Experiment 2. With a 100 g mass suspended from Spring E, the oscillation frequency was 1.4 Hz. Based on the results of Experiment 2. Which of the following correctly list the 5 springs by their oscillation frequency (with a 100 g mass suspended) from fastest to slowest? F. Spring E, Spring D, Spring C, Spring B, Spring A G, Spring D Spring A, Spring C, Spring B, Spring E H. Spring A, Spring B, Spring C, Srping E, Spring D J, Spring D, Spring E, Spring C, Spring B, Spring A

16. What is the most probable reason that in Figure 2 there are far more continental plate shifting vectors in Europe and the United States than in other parts of the world? F. A higher prevalence of earthquakes G. A higher amount of satellite coverage data H. A higher prevalence of continental plates J. A lower amount of heat interference

17.

17. Which of the following is a weakness of the design of Study 2 ? A. Some plants were not present at each site. B. Some seeds were not present at each site. C. The seeds may have been removed from the dishes by animals other than ants. D. The plants may have been eaten by animals other than ants.

18. Consider a circuit like that shown in Figure 1. Based on Experiments 2 and 3, the voltage across the capacitor will reach a given value in the shortest amount of time if the circuit contains which of the following capacitances and resistances, respectively? F. 0.1 × 10^-6 F, 0.3 × 10^7 Ω G. 0.1 × 10^-6 F, 1.0 × 10^7 Ω H. 1.2 × 10^-6 F, 0.3 × 10^7 Ω J. 1.2 × 10^-6 F, 1.0 × 10^7 Ω

19. Consider the following hypothesis: In a circuit arranged as in Figure 1 containing a battery, a capacitor, and a constant resistance, as capacitance increases, the time required to reach a given voltage across the capacitor increases. Do the experiments support this hypothesis? A. Yes; in Experiment 1, as capacitance increased, the time required to reach a given voltage increased. B. Yes; in Experiment 2, as capacitance increased, the time required to reach a given voltage increased. C. No; in Experiment 1, as capacitance increased, the time required to reach a given voltage decreased. D. No; in Experiment 2, as capacitance increased, the time required to reach a given voltage decreased.

2. According to the information provided in the introduction and Table 1, which of the following is the largest mass? A. M1 B. M3 C. M5 D. M6

2. Suppose that an additional trial in experiment 2 was performed using a fourth compression, at a ration 21:1. The average percent correct for the pigeions that were non differentially reinforced in this trial would most likely have been: F. less than 70% G. between 70% and 80% H. between 80% and 95% J. greater than 95%

2. Using the information in Figure 2, approximately how many Kcal/Mol are generated as NADH is transformed in Complex 1? F. -200 G. 200 H. 5 J. 20

20. A solder is a metallic material designed specifically to have a very low melting point. To make a solder out of a Au-Si alloy, what atomic percentages of Au and Si would be most appropriate? F. 0% Si, 100% Au G. 19.5% Si, 80.5% Au H. 80.5% Si , 19.5% Au J. 100% Si, 0% Au

20. According to Tables 1 and 2, as the mass of successive sucrose samples increased, the change in the water temperature produced when the sample was burned most likely: F. increased only. G. decreased only. H. increased, then decreased. J. remained the same.

20. In Experiment 2, had Brand X tape in a 4.0 cm width been tested, the force required to remove the tape from the plastic wrapping would have been closest to: F. 5.0 N. G. 7.0 N. H. 9.0 N. J. 11.0 N.

20. In the chemical equation shown in the passage, the carbon in CO2 becomes part of which of the following types of molecules? F. Fat G. Sugar H. Protein J. Nucleic acid

20. Which variable remained constant throughout all of the experiments? F. The number of seedling groups G. The percent of humidity H. The daylight temperature J. The nighttime temperature

20. With the discovery of DNA in the 20th century, which scientist's theory was eventually proven to be correct? F. Scientist 1 only G. Scientist 2 only H. Neither Scientist 1 nor Scientist 2 J. Biologists have not yet reached a conclusion on this topic

21. An observer makes the following statement about the two scientists: "The sea urchin is a far more uniformly structured creature than a frog. Removal of one part of a sea urchin does not make the damaged urchin appear to be significantly different from a fully intact sea urchin." This observer is directing her critique towards which of the scientists? A. Scientist 1 only B. Scientist 2 only C. Both Scientist 1 and Scientist 2 D. Neither Scientist 1 nor Scientist 2

21. Based on the average results of Experiments 1 and 2, which of the following brands of tape adhered better to the paper than to the plastic? A. Brand X B. Brand Y C. Brands X and Y D. Brands Y and Z

21. Based on the information in figure 1, one could generalize that for Au-Si alloy compositions containing atomically less than 10% Si, the temperature at which the alloy becomes completely liquid decreases with: A. increasing Si atomic percentage B. decreasing Si atomic percentage C. increasing Au atomic percentage D. neither increasing nor decreasing Si atomic percentage. The melting point is constant for all alloy compostions.

21. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by Figures 1 and 2 ? The wavelength that results in the highest rate of photosynthesis also results in the: A. lowest relative absorption by chlorophyll a. B. lowest relative absorption by chlorophyll b. C. highest relative absorption by chlorophyll a. D. highest relative absorption by chlorophyll b.

21. if a block was pulled toward the east, the frictional force exerted on the block by the surface was directed toward the: a. north b. south c. east d. west

22. 2 Based on the data in Table 2, one can conclude that when the mass of sucrose is decreased by one-half, the amount of heat released when it is burned in a bomb calorimeter will: F. increase by one-half. G. decrease by one-half. H. increase by one-fourth. J. decrease by one-fourth

22. As a contination of the three expeiments listed, it would be most appropriate to next investigate: F. how many leaves over 6.0 cm long there are on each plant G. which animals consume CYCAS seedlings H. How the mineral content of the soil affects the leaf size and density J. what time of year the seedlings have the darkest coloring

22. liquid Au-Si alloy of unknown composition is gradually cooled from an initial temperature of 1500 C. Solid particles are observed to begin forming as the temperature drops to 1200 C the partifcles must consist of which material, and what be the approximate atomic composition of the alloy? F. the particles are Au, and the atomic composition of the alloy is 10% Si, 90% Au G. The particles are Au, and the atomic composition of the alloy is 19.5% Si, 80.5% Au H. the particles are Si, and the atomic composition of the alloy is 90% Si, 10% Au J. The particles are Si, and the atomic composition of the alloy is 90% Si, 10% Au

23. Based on the data in table 1, one would conclude that blood of high altitude dwellers contains a higher concentration of: A. CR than ECH B. CR than GST C. ECH Than GST D. GST than CR

23. For the students to determine the force required to remove tape from a wrapping, which of the following attractive forces had to exceed the adhesive force between the tape and the wrapping? A. The force between the clamp and the tape B. The force between the clamp and the paper or plastic wrapping C. The force between the Earth and the wrapping D. The force between the Earth and the tape

23. What would be a logical critique of Scientist 2 by Scientist 1? A. No simulation of what happens with the two-cell stage of development was conducted. B. A one-celled organism was used, which would not simulate multi-cellular organism development C. Since the dead cell was left attached to the living cell, differentiation was hindered D. Cell differentiation occurs independently of external conditions

23. Which of the following lists the foods from Tables 1 and 2 in increasing order of the amount of heat released per gram of food? A. Potato, egg, bread, sucrose, cheese B. Sucrose, cheese, bread, egg, potato C. Bread, cheese, egg, potato, sucrose D. Sucrose, potato, egg, bread, cheese

24. Based on the information given, one would expect that, compared to the high altitude dwellers, the sea level dwellers: F. Have blood with a lower percentage oxygen saturation G. have blood with a lower GST concentration H. can tolerate lower oxygen partial pressures j. can tolerate lower temperatures

24. Based on the information in Tables 1 and 2, the heat released from the burning of 5.0 g of potato in a bomb calorimeter would be closest to which of the following? F. 5 kJ G. 10 kJ H. 15 kJ J. 20 kJ

24. The students' instructor gave them a strip of tape that was 2.5 cm wide and asked them to identify the brand. The students repeated the procedures from Experiments 1 and 2 using the tape and obtained average forces of 4.9 N for paper and 4.1 N for plastic. Which of the following brands would most likely have produced these results? F. Brand X only G. Brand Y only H. Brands X and Y only J. Brands Y and Z only

24. To the nearest whole unit, what is the approximate amplitude of a First Harmonic Wave on a Piano at a time of 10 seconds? F. 4 G. 2 H. 0 J. -4

25. A plastic bead was tested as in Experiment 3 using Liquids 1−4. Which of the following is NOT a plausible set of results for the plastic? [Liquid] |1|2|3|4| A. RRRR B. RRSS C. SSRR D. SSSS

25. According to Figure 1, an atmospheric sample found at an oxygen partial pressure of 110 mm Hg was most likely found at a temperature of about: A. 8.1 C B. 0 C C. -5.4 C D. -12.5 C

25. According to Figure 1, as the temperature of liquid water decreases from 10°C to 0°C, the density: A. increases only. B. decreases only. C. decreases, then increases. D. increases, then decreases.

25. According to the information provided, heat flowed from the wall at temperature T2 to the wall at temperature T1 in which trial? A. Trial 4 B. Trial 6 C. Trial 10 D. Trial 12

25. Based on the information in Figure 2 and Figure 4, the sounds wave on the flute with a frequency of 400 Hz is which of the following? A. Natural Frequency B. First Harmonic C. Second Harmonic D. Identical to the wave at a frequency of 1200 Hz

26. A student claimed that "If the masses of 1 cm3 of any solid and 1 cm3 of any liquid are compared, the mass of the solid will be greater." Do the data in Table 1 support his claim? F. No; lead has a higher density than any of the liquids listed. G. No; mercury has a higher density than any of the solids listed. H. Yes; lead has a higher density than any of the liquids listed. J. Yes; mercury has a higher density than any of the solids listed.

26. According to the information given, which of the following statements is (are) correct? I. 10-gauge wire has a larger diameter than 16-guqge wire. ii. Gold has a higher resistivity than tungsten. III. Aluminum conducts electricity better than iron. F. I only G. II only H. III only J. I and III only

26. Based on the information in Experiment 1, what characteristic of the sound waves created by an instrument is most responsible for giving it its unique timbre, or sound? F. The frequency of the waves G. The amplitude of the waves H. The time that passes by after the instrument's sound is initiated J. The particular note that is played

26. ECH is an enzyme that improves the efficiency of cellular energy production. Assume that people with higher ECH concentrations in the blood can function normally at higher altitudes without any respiratory difficulties. Based on Table 1, people from which population can function normally at the highest altitude? F. sl 1 G. sl 2 H. ha 2 J. ha 3

27. A student claimed that polycarbonate is more dense than PA-6. Do the results of Experiments 1−3 support his claim? A. No, because in Liquid 8, polycarbonate stayed at the bottom and PA-6 rose. B. Yes, because in Liquid 8, polycarbonate stayed at the bottom and PA-6 rose. C. No, because in Liquid 8, polycarbonate rose and PA-6 stayed at the bottom. D. Yes, because in Liquid 8, polycarbonate rose and PA-6 stayed at the bottom

27. The results of Trials 1 and 5 are consistent with the hypothesis that heat flow from a hotter wall to a cooler wall is dependent on the: A. temperature of the hotter wall only. B. temperature of the cooler wall only. C. sum of the wall temperatures. D. difference between the wall temperatures.

27. Which of the following hypotheses about the relationship between the temperature and the density of a solid is best supported by the data in Figure 2 ? As the temperature of a solid increases, the density of the solid: A. increases only. B. decreases only. C. increases, then decreases. D. decreases, then increases.

28. According to student 1, which of the following quantities is greater for water molecules benath a lake's surface than for water molecules at the surface? F. Temperature G. Density H. Buoyant force J. hydrostatic pressure

28. In Experiment 1, which of the bacterial species fermented lactose? F. Species B only G. Species C only H. Species B and Species D only J. Species C and Species D only

28. Materials differ in their thermal conductivities: the higher the thermal conductivity, the greater the heat flow through the material. According to Trials 6 through 11, which of the following statements about relative thermal conductivities is NOT true? F. Brick has a higher thermal conductivity than glass wool. G. Brick has a higher thermal conductivity than wood. H. Steel has a higher thermal conductivity than aluminum. J. Steel has a higher thermal conductivity than concrete.

29. How would the two hypotheses be affected if it were found that all of the offspring of an individual with a missing leg due to an accident were born with a missing leg? A. It would support Scientist 1's hypothesis, because it is an example of random mutations occurring within a species. B. It would refute Scientist 1's hypothesis, because it is an example of random mutations occurring within a species C. It would support Scientist 2's hypothesis, because it is an example of an acquired characteristic being passed on to the next generation. D. It would support Scientist 2's hypothesis, because it is an example of random mutations occurring within a species.

29. When two ice skaters, wearing identical skates, skated across a frozen lake at the same speed, the ice under the blades of skater B was found to melt faster than the ice under the blades of skater A. What conclusion would each student draw about which skater is heavier? A. both student 1 and Student 2 would conclude that Skater A is heavier. B. Both student 1 and student 2 would conclude that skater B is heavier C. Student 1 would conclude that Skater A is heavier; Student 2 would conclude that Skater B is heavier D. Student 1 would conclude that Skater B is heavier; Student 2 would conclude that Skater A is heavier

29. Which of the following pairs of powers and unit areas would produce the most intense sound? A. 300 W, 200 M² B. 200 W, 500 M² C. 10 W, 5 M² D. 500 W, 700 M

3. According to Figure 1, which of the following reactions were anaerobic? A. Glycolysis and Oxidative Decarboxylation B. Oxidative Decarboxylation and Citric Acid Cycle C. Citric Acid Cycle and Glycolysis D. Glycolysis only.

3. Based on Figure 3, for a given seismograph, the time elapsed between the arrival of the first p-waves and the arrival of the first s-waves from an earthquake focus 10,500 km away would most likely be: A. less than 5 min. B. between 5 min and 7 min. C. between 8 min and 10 min. D. more than 10 min.

3. Based on the results of study 2, a calving glacier traveling at a velocity of 80 m/yr would most likely have a calving rate: A. between 72 m/yr and 106 m/yr B. between 106 m/yr and 189 m/yr. C. between 189 m/yr and 312 m/yr D. over 312 m/yr

30. In Study 4, as time increased from Year 0 to Year 6, the captures/1,000 hr of frugivores: F. decreased only. G. increased only. H. decreased, then increased. J. increased, then decreased.

30. In the state of Kansas in 1953, approximately how many prairie chickens will display a large beak? F. 100,000 G. 200,000 H. 300,000 J. 400,000

30. Suppose a scientist isolates a bacterial species that is 1 of the 4 species used in Experiment 1. She adds the species to sucrose broth and observes that neither acid nor CO2 is produced. She then adds the species to lactose broth and observes that both acid and CO2 are produced. Based on the results of Experiment 1, the species is most likely: F. Species A. G. Species B. H. Species C. J. Species D.

30. Which of the following characteristics can be inherited according to scientist 2? I. Fur color II. Bodily scars resulting from a fight with another animal III. poor vision F. I only G. II only H. I and II only J. I, II, and III

30. Which of the following is the most likely reason that amounts greater than 0.125 mol of NaCl were not tested in Experiment 3 ? The results showed that: F. adding more NaCl no longer increased the reaction rate. G. adding more NaCl would decrease the reaction rate. H. the boiling point was reached, so no further data could be gathered with this procedure. J. more Fe would need to be added for any greater increase in temperature to occur.

31. A beaker of ethanol is found to freeze from the bottom upward, instead of from the surface down ward. Student 2 would most likely argue that the density of frozen ethanol is: A. greater than the density of water b. less than the density of ice c. greater than the density of liquid ethanol d. less than the density of liquid ethanol

31. Based on the results of Study 4, how did fragmentation most likely affect the population sizes of insectivores and hummingbirds in the fragments studied? A. Fragmentation increased the population sizes of both insectivores and hummingbirds. B. Fragmentation decreased the population sizes of both insectivores and hummingbirds. C. Fragmentation increased the population size of insectivores and decreased the population size of hummingbirds. D. Fragmentation decreased the population size of insectivores and increased the population size of hummingbirds.

31. Scientist 1 believes that the evolution of the long neck of the giraffe: A. is an advantageous trait that resulted from overuse of neck muscles over many generations B. is an advantageous trait that resulted from a mutation that occured in response to a change in the enviornment C. is an advantageous trait that resulted from a mutation that occured in response to a change in the enviornment D. is a disadvantageous trait that resulted from a random mutation

31. The phenotype ratio of B to b in the state of Michigan was found to be 9:4. Based on the information in Table 1, it is most likely that the population sample used was: A. Relatively small B. Relatively large C. The population size would likely not have affected the phenotype ratio D. Cannot be determined from the experiment

31. What is the evidence from Experiments 1 and 2 that Species C and Species D acted synergistically in Experiment 2 ? A. No acid was produced when each species was alone in the sucrose broth, but acid was produced when the 2 species were together in the sucrose broth. B. No acid was produced when each species was alone in the lactose broth, but acid was produced when the 2 species were together in the sucrose broth. C. No CO2 was produced when each species was alone in the sucrose broth, but CO2 was produced when the 2 species were together in the sucrose broth. D. No CO2 was produced when each species was alone in the lactose broth, but CO2 was produced when the 2 species were together in the lactose broth.

g (In the sucrose broth, species D produces acid but no CO2. Acid turns the broth yellow. If no CO2 is produced, then no gas bubble is formed.)

32.

32. Assume that in the Harvey-Weinberg equation, p represents dominant traits and q represents recessive traits. Which of the following pairs will have the same phenotype? F. pp and qq G. pq and qq H. qq and qp J. pq and pp

32. Based on the results of Study 1, if the distance from the center of a 100 m × 100 m plot were 75 m from the nearest clearing, the expected average change in AGTB at the plot over 17 yr would be closest to which of the following values? F. -1.1 t/yr G. -2.6 t/yr H. +1.1 t/yr J. +2.6 t/yr

32. If a trial had been done in Experiment 3 with 0.060 mol of NaCl added, the maximum temperature increase of the mixture that would have occurred within 15 min would have been closest to: F. 34°C. G. 42°C. H. 50°C. J. 62°C.

32. The fundamental point of disagreement between the two scientist is whether: F. giraffes' ancestors had short necks. G. evolved traits come from random mutations or from the previous generation H. the environment affects the evolution of a species. J. the extinction of a species could be the result of random mutations

32. a toy boat was placed on the surface of a small pool of water, and the boat was gradually filled with sand. after a certain amount of sand had been added, the boat began to sink. Based on Student 2's explanation, the boat began to sink because: F. hydrostatic pressure became greater than the buoyant force of the water on the boat. G. atmospheric pressure became greater than the buoyant force of the water on the boat. J. the force of gravity of the boat on the water became less than the buoyant force of the water on the boat

33. After examining the results of Study 2, a student concluded that the AGTB at each of the 25 plots remained constant. Which of the following alternative explanations is also consistent with the results? A. The AGTB at all 25 plots increased. B. The AGTB at all 25 plots decreased. C. The AGTB at some of the plots increased and the AGTB at some of the plots decreased. D. The AGTB at plots bounded by forest increased and the AGTB at plots bounded by clearings remained constant.

33. Is the hypothesis that Species A and Species C acted synergistically supported by the results of Experiment 2 ? A. Yes, because both acid and CO2 were produced from sucrose. B. Yes, because both acid and CO2 were produced from lactose. C. No, because only acid, not CO2, was produced from both sucrose and lactose. D. No, because neither acid nor CO2 was produced from lactose

33. Which of the following factors affecting the reaction of Mg and H2O was studied in Experiment 1, but not in Experiments 2 or 3 ? A. Reaction temperature B. Addition of NaCl C. Addition of Fe D. Surface area of Mg

33. according to student 2, if friction between the ice and the blades of an ice skater's skates is reduced, which of the following quantites simultaneously decreases at the point where the blades and the ice are in contact? A. Pressure exerted by the blades on the ice B. Heat produce C. Force of gravity of the blades on the ice D. freezing point of water

34. Based on studetn 2's explanation, the reason a hot air ballon is able to rise above the ground is that the balloon and the air inside it are: F. less dense than the air outside the balloon' G. more dense than the air outside the balloon H. at a higher pressure than the air outside the balloon J. less buoyant than the air outside the balloon

34. Which of the following sets of results from the studies is least consistent with the prediction proposed by the researchers? F. The results of Study 1 for AGTB G. The results of Study 3 for AGTB H. The results of Study 4 for frugivores J. The results of Study 4 for hummingbirds

34. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the DNA Hypothesis? The amount of DNA will generally increase from cell type to cell type as the number of: F. amino acids in the nucleus increases from cell type to cell type. G. amino acids in the cytoplasm increases from cell type to cell type. H. chromosomes in the nucleus increases from cell type to cell type. J. chromosomes in the cytoplasm increases from cell type to cell type.

35. Based on the results of Experiment 1, if the concentration of F- in a solution is doubled, then the corrected conductivity of the solution will approximately: A. remain the same B. halve C. double D. quadruple

35. By referring to the observation that DNA is found exclusively in the nucleus while proteins are found throughout the cell, the scientist supporting the DNA Hypothesis implies that genes are made only of DNA because which of the following are also found only in the nucleus? A. Amino acids B. Proteins C. Gametes D. Chromosomes

35. It has been observed that as Mg and H2O react, the Mg(OH)2 (magnesium hydroxide) that is produced forms an unreactive coating on the Mg surface. Which of the following models for why NaCl speeds up the reaction is most consistent with this observation and the results of the experiments? A. NaCl absorbs heat produced in the reaction, causing the Mg(OH)2 to melt off of the Mg surface. B. NaCl binds with Fe to inhibit the reaction of Mg with H2O. C. NaCl reacts with Mg(OH)2 to form a stronger barrier against H2O. D. NaCl reacts with Mg(OH)2, removing the coating from the Mg, allowing more contact with H2O

35. Which of the following hypothesis was investigated in experiment 1? A. The injection of scrapie-infected sheep brains into cows' brains causes BSE. B. The ingestion of wild grasses causes BSE. C. The ingestion of scrapie-infected sheep meat causes scrapie D. the ingestion of scrapie-infected sheep meat causes BSE.

35. Why was the study designed so that the 3 plots had the same types of vegetation present and the same destiny of vegetation cover? These conditions ensured that any variation in albedo and soil temperature would most likely be attributable only to variations among the plots in the: A. amount of DM sprayed B. type of soil present C. plot area D. plot shape

36. According to Figure 2, Enzyme A has the fastest rate of reaction at a pH closest to: F. 5. G. 6. H. 8. J. 9.

36. On one day of the study period, a measurable rainfall occurred in the study area. The albedo calculated for the cloudless day just after the rainy day was lower than the albedo calculated for the cloudless day just before the rainy day. On which day did a measurable rainfall most likely occur in the study area? F. july 10 G. July 12 H. July 26 J. july 28

36. What is the best explanation as to why the rate of reaction in Experiment 2 increases as the temperature increases? F. The decrease in molecular kinetic energy prevents the molecules from overcoming the activation energy barrier G. The increase in molecular kinetic energy enables the molecules to overcome the activation energy barrier H. The increase in molecular kinetic energy prevents the molecules from overcoming the activation energy barrier J. The decrease in molecular kinetic energy enables the molecules to overcome the activation energy barrier

36. What is the purpose of Experiment 2? F. To determine whether BSE can be transmitted by injection G. to determine whether BSE can be transmitted by ingestion H. To determine whether ingestion J. To determine the healthiest diet for cows

37. According to the Protein Hypothesis, which of the following observations provides the strongest evidence that genes are NOT composed of DNA ? A. DNA is composed of only 4 types of nucleotides. B. DNA is composed of smaller subunits than are proteins. C. DNA is abundant in both the nucleus and the cytoplasm. D. The concentration of DNA is generally consistent from cell to cell.

37. Which of the following assumption is made by the researchers in Experiments 1 and 2? A. Cows do not suffer from scrapie B. A year and a half is a sufficient amount of time for BSE to develop in a cow C. Cows and sheep suffer from the same diseases D. Cows that eat scrapie-free sheep meat will not develop BSE

38. A researcher wishes to determine whether BSE can be transmitted through scrapie-infected goats. Which of the following experiments would best test this? F. Repeating Experiment 1, using a mixture of sheep and goat meat in Group C's feed G. Repeating Experiments 1 and 2, replacing sheep with healthy goats H. Repeating experiments 1 and 2, replacing healthy sheep with healthy goats and scrapie-infected sheep with scrapie-infected goats J. Repeating Experiment 2, replacing healthy cows with healthy goats

38. A scientist claims that the acceleration factor of Enzyme B is dependent on both enzyme and substrate concentration. Do the data in Figures 3 and 4 support her claim? F. No; the acceleration factor is dependent on enzyme concentration, but not on substrate concentration. G. No; the acceleration factor is not dependent on either enzyme or substrate concentration. H. Yes; the acceleration factor is dependent on enzyme concentration, but not on substrate concentration. J. Yes; the acceleration factor is dependent on both enzyme and substrate concentration.

38. According to Figure 1, which of the following statements best describes how the resistivity of the sand and gravel layer compares to the resistivity of the till layers? The resistivity measured in the sand and gravel layer is: F. lower than the resistivities measured in any of the till layers. G. higher than the resistivities measured in any of the till layers. H. the same as the resistivities measured in the surface sediments. J. lower than the resistivities measured in the bedrock.

38. Based on the information in Experiment 1, what is the most likely reason that the rate of the reaction levels off as the substrate concentration increases? F. Oversaturation of the enzyme G. Decrease in o-Dianisidine concentration H. The logarithmic increase in the substrate J. Overheating of the spectroscope

38. If experiments 1 and 2 were repeated to measure the concentration of chloride ions (CI-) in drinking water, then which of the following changes in procedure would be necessary? F. The solutions in Experiment 1 should be prepared by adding different concentrations of NaCl (or another chemical containing Cl-) to H2O G. The conductivity of the blank solution should be added to the measured conductivities H. The electrodynamic cells should be set to measure resistivity instead of conductivity J. Both NaCl and Na2SiF6 should be added to all of the samples

38. Mitochondria are organelles located in the cytoplasm that are responsible for energy transformation in a cell. After the 1940s, it was observed that mitochondria contain their own genes. This observation contradicts evidence stated in which hypothesis? F. The DNA Hypothesis, because if genes are made of DNA, the observation would show that DNA is present outside the nucleus. G. The DNA Hypothesis, because if genes are made of DNA, the observation would show that DNA is present inside the nucleus. H. The Protein Hypothesis, because if genes are made of proteins, the observation would show that proteins are present outside the nucleus. J. The Protein Hypothesis, because if genes are made of proteins, the observation would show that proteins are present inside the nucleus.

39. A scientist claims that for the conditions used to obtain the data for Figure 4, the acceleration factor of Enzyme B at a given concentration will always be greater than that of Enzyme A at the same concentration. Do the data support his conclusion? A. No; Enzyme B shows a lower acceleration factor at all the enzyme concentrations tested. B. No; Enzyme B shows a lower acceleration factor at all the substrate concentrations tested. C. Yes; Enzyme B shows a higher acceleration factor at all the enzyme concentrations tested. D. Yes; Enzyme B shows a higher acceleration factor at all the substrate concentrations tested.

39. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is defined as follows: The value that expresses how far the reaction proceeds before reaching equilibrium.^iv In Experiment 1, when the catalyst is added, how does this affect the equilibrium constant of the reaction compared to the reaction without the catalyst? A. It increases B. It decreases C. It increases then decreases D. It remains the same

39. The scientist who describes the DNA Hypothesis implies that the Protein Hypothesis is weakened by which of the following observations? A. For a given organism, the amount of protein in the gametes is half that found in other types of cells. B. For a given organism, the amount of protein in different types of cells is not the same. C. Protein molecules are composed of many subunits. D. Proteins are found only in the nucleus.

4. According to Figure 2, the presence of which of the following minerals in a metamorphic rock would be least helpful in determining that rock's grade? F. Chlorite G. Muscovite H. Staurolite J. Plagioclase

4. Based on the information provided, the "time earthquake starts at the focus" in Figure 2 corresponds to which of the following points on Figure 3 ? F. , 0 km, 0 min G. 2,000 km, 5 min H. 5,000 km, 12 min J. 10,000 km, 20 min

4. Le Chatelier's Principle is stated as follows: "If a chemical system at equilibrium experiences a change in concentration, temperature, volume, or partial pressure, then the equilibrium shifts to counteract the imposed change and a new equilibrium is established. The movement of which of the following molecules in Figure 3 most clearly illustrates Le Chatelier's Principle? F. H G. O² H. ATP J. Phosphate

4. Suppose that the model presented by Student 1 is correct and that the transfer of genes between 2 bacteria was interrupted after 45 min. Based on the information provided, which of the following genes would NOT have been transferred from the donor bacterium to the recipient bacterium? F. Gene G G. Gene X H. Gene R J. Gene S

4. Which of the following statements best describes the behavior of the glaciers observed during study 2? F. All of the glaciers observed traveled faster during the first five years than during the last five years. G. All of the glaciers observed traveled faster during the last five years than during the first five years H. The calving rate is always less than the average velocity for all of the glaciers observed J. The calving rate is always greater than or equal to the average velocity for all of the glaciers observed

4. the researchers had predicted that increasing the magnification of breast tumor images would increase the pigeons' ability, when tested, to determine whether the original images showed benign or malignant tumors. According to Figure 2, are the results of Experiment 1 consistent with this prediction? F. Yes; as magnification increases from 4x to 10x to 20x, the pigeons' ability to identify the images correctly also increases G. Yes; as magnification increases from 4x to 10x to 20x, the pigeons' ability to identify the images correctly decreases and then increases. H. No; as the training program continues over 15 days with changing magnification, the pigeons' ability to identify the images correctly decreases. J. No; as magnification increases from 4x to 10x to 20x, the pigeons' ability to identify the images correctly decreases and then increases

40. In Experiment 2, what is the most likely reason that the rate of reaction drops so drastically after approximately 95˚C? F. The activation energy barrier, i.e. the amount of energy needed to overcome the reaction, changes G. The concentrations of enzyme and substrate, i.e. the controls, are modified H. The enzymes become denatured, i.e. unfolded, after that point J. The reaction's catalysis, i.e. the rate of the chemical reaction, increases drastically

40. The sediments being deposited at the present time at the site where the core was taken have a much higher CO2 content than any of the tills. Given this information and the information in Figure 1, the CO2 content of sediments recently deposited at the site would most likely be in which of the following ranges? F. Less than 10 mL/g G. Between 10 mL/g and 25 mL/g H. Between 25 mL/g and 35 mL/g J. Greater than 35 mL/g

40. Which of the following conclusions is (are) supported by the experiments? I. Cows that are exposed to scrapie-infected sheep are more likely to develop bSE than cows that are not II. BSE is only transmitted by eating scrapie-infected sheep meat. III. A cow that eats scrapie-infected sheep meat is more likely to develop BSE than a cow that is injected with scrapie-infected sheep brains. F. II only G. III only H. I and III only J II and III only

5. According to Figure 2, which of the following statements best describes the relative amplitudes of the first p-waves to arrive at the seismograph and the first s-waves to arrive at the seismograph? The amplitude of the first p-waves to arrive at the seismograph is: A. smaller than the amplitude of the first s-waves to arrive at the seismograph. B. larger than the amplitude of the first s-waves to arrive at the seismograph. C. nonzero, and the same as the amplitude of the first s-waves to arrive at the seismograph. D. zero, as is the amplitude of the first s-waves to arrive at the seismograph.

6. Suppose that all 6 genes are transferred from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium. Under this condition, which student(s) would argue that Gene A could be the last gene transferred? F. Student 2 only G. Student 4 only H. Students 2 and 4 only J. Students 3 and 4 only

7. Suppose that the transfer of genes between 2 bacteria was interrupted, that the last gene transferred was Gene A, and that no incomplete copies of a gene were transferred. Based on this information, Student 1 would say that transfer was most likely interrupted how many minutes after the transfer began? A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60

8. According to Figure 2, as the thickness of the lake clay deposit increases from Grand Forks to Site 3, the thickness of the glacial till beneath it: F. increases. G. remains the same. H. first increases and then decreases. J. decreases

8. According to Figure 2, the mold spore count on the weeks after November 5: F. increased G. decreased H. varied between 1000 gr/m3 and 2000 gr/m3 J. remained above 2000 gr/m3

8. At the wavelengths used in Study 1, as the wavelength of the light increases, the reflectances of the S allotropes and of SO2 do which of the following? F. S allotropes increase only, SO2 Increase only G. S allotropes Increase only; SO2 Increase, then decrease H. S allotropes Decrease only SO2 Decrease only J. S allotropes Decrease only; SO2 Increase, then decrease

8. Scientist 1's viewpoint indicates that when the materials that compose most of a comet are sufficiently heated, they change to: F. solids. G. gases. H. liquids. J. a vacuum.

9. According to Study 3, compared with the corresponding average reflectance for small plumes, large plumes on Io have an average reflectance at a given wavelength that is: A. always higher. B. always the same. C. always lower. D. sometimes higher and sometimes lower.

9. Based on the data in figure 1, the tree pollen count increased the most between which two dates? A. February 9 to Feburary 16 B. Feburary 23 to March 2 C. March 2 to march 9 D. October 29 to november 5

9. Which of the following statements best describes how Scientist 2 would explain why no large, identifiable fragments of the object have been recovered? A. Any large, identifiable fragments that reached the ground have been removed from the area by erosion. B. Any large, identifiable fragments were thrown hundreds of kilometers from the site. C. No large, identifiable fragments of the object reached the ground. D. No large, identifiable fragments of the object have been recovered due to the soil conditions in the area.

Under which of the following conditions would you expect a brine shrimp cyst to hatch in the least amount of time? A. In the light, in water with 0.2 mg/L salt concentration at 25 degrees Celsius. B. In the dark, in water with 0.3 mg/L salt concentration at 35 degrees Celsius. C. In the light, in water with 0.4 mg/L salt concentration at 25 degrees Celsius. D. In the dark, in water with 0.2 mg/L salt concentration at 25 degrees Celsius.

What would be the best method of determining how the spring constant affects displacement? A. Reproduce Trials 1-6 but use only springs with spring constant k = 5. B. Reproduce Trials 1-3. C. Reproduce Trials 4-6. D. Reproduce Trials 1-6 but change the masses in Trials 4-6 to M1, M2, and M3, respectively.

What would be the best way to study the effects of changing pH (acidity) on the hatching time of brine shrimp cysts? A. Putting all three bottles in the light and keeping temperature constant while changing salt concentration and pH. B. Putting all three bottles in the dark and keeping temperature constant while changing salt concentration and pH. C. Putting all three bottles in the light and keeping temperature and salt concentration levels constant while varying the pH in each bottle. D. Putting all three bottles in the dark and varying temperature, salt concentration, and pH in all three bottles.

Which of the following was studied in Experiment 3? A. The effect of light on the time it takes for brine shrimp to hatch. B. The effect of light on salt concentration. C. The effect of light on temperature. D. The effect of light on the survival rate of brine shrimp.

1. In general, the results of Study 1 suggest that peony seeds that are placed in a petri dish containing damp paper are most likely to germinate when they are maintained at which of the following temperatures? a. 13° C b. 18° C c. 23°C d. 28°C

33. Based on the results of Experiments 1-3, which of the Solutions I-IV has the lowest pH? A. Solution I B. Solution II C. Solution III D. Solution IV

1. In which of studies 1 and 2 did some of the fruit flies live for more than 75 days, and what diet were those fruit flies fed? a. study 1; 5%SY medium b. Study 1; 15 % SY medium c. Study 2; 5% SY medium d. Study 2; 15% SY medium

12. To store lipids, monarch butterflies covert sugar from nectar they have consumed into lipids. A supporter of which hypothesis, if any, would be likely to claim that to ensure the butterflies canister lipids for the overwintering period, nectar must be present at the butterflies' overwintering sites? F. Hypothesis 1 G. Hypothesis 2 H. hypothesis 3 J. None

2. According to the information provided, which of the following descriptions of Europa would be accepted by both scientists? E. Europa has a larger diameter than does Jupiter. F. Europa has a surface made of rocky material. G. Europa has a surface temperature of 20°C. H. Europa is completely covered by a layer of ice.

2. A scientist hypothesizes that any material with poor chemical resistance would have a transmittance range wider than 10 um. The properties of which of the following materials contradicts this hypothesis? F. Lithium fluoride G. Flint glass H. Cesium iodide j. quartz

32. A student claimed that Solution III has a pH of 7.3. Are the results of experiments 1-3 consistent with this claim? F. No, because in Solution III metaling yellow was yellow. G. No, because in solution III resorcin blue was red. H. Yes, because in solution III metaling yellow was yellow J. Yes, because in solution III resorcin blue was red.

38. According to figure 1 and the description of the study, was July 20 a cloudless day? F. No, because albedo data were not collected on that day G. No. because albedo data were collected on that day. H. Yes, because albedo data were not collected on that day. J. Yes, because albedo data were collected on that day.

a (Figure 1 shows that the boiling point of Material A was 10°C, because at this temperature, Material A was transformed from being entirely liquid to being entirely gas. Material A was at its boiling point from Time 2 sec to Time 22 sec. During these 20 sec, it was heated at a rate of 10 cal/sec. So, 200 cal were needed to turn 1 g of liquid Material A at its boiling point into a gas. The amount of heat required to transform a liquid at its boiling point into a gas is given in Table 2 for Materials B, C, and D. These values were 500 cal, 610 cal, and 270 cal, respectively. Thus, the amount of heat required to make this transformation is lowest for Material A. So, Material A will be completely turned into a gas more rapidly than will the other materials.)

5. Suppose 1 g samples of liquid Materials A-D are just beginning to boil. If each of the liquids absorbs heat at the rate of 10 cal/sec while kept at 1 atm, which of the liquids will be the first to be completely turned into a gas? a. Material A b. Material B c. Material C d. Material D

6. Suppose the researchers wanted to determine whether a defect in the ability to detect odors would change the life span of fruit flies fed 15% SY medium when live yeast is added to the diet, which of the following experiments should be performed? F. Repeat Study 1 except with Strain X fruit flies G. Repeat Study 1 except with Strain N fruit flies H. Repeat Study 2 except with Strain X fruit flies J. Repeat Study 2 except with Strain N fruit flies

7. The results for which 2 tubes should be compared to determine how a reduced calorie diet affects life span in the absence of live yeast and additional odors from live yeast? A. Tube 1 and Tube 4 B. Tube 1 and tube 2 c. tube 2 and Tube 5 D. tube 5 and tube 6

7. according to Experiment 2, if methanol was used as a solvent, what pressure must be applied to a 0.5 mol/l solution of sucrose at 298 k to prevent osmosis? A. 1.23 atm B. 2.45 atm C. 12.23 atm d. 24.46 atm

8. A 0.10 mol/L aqueous sucrose solution is separated from an equal volume of pure water by a semipermeable membrane. If the solution is at a pressure of 1 atm and a temperature of 298 K: F. water will diffuse across the semipermeable membrane from the sucrose solution side to the pure water side G. water will diffuse across the semipermeable membrane from the pure water side to the sucrose solution side H. water will not diffuse across the semipermeable membrane j. water will diffuse across the semipermeable membrane, but the direction of diffusion cannot be determined.

8. Which hypothesis, if any, asserts that monarch butterflies store lipids during 2 distinct periods? F. Hypothesis 1 G. Hypothesis 2 H. Hypothesis 3 J. None of the hypothesis

9. In Experiment 1, the scientists investigated the effect of: a. solvent and concentration on osmotic pressure. b. volume and temperature on osmotic pressure. c. concentration and temperature on osmotic pressure d. temperature on atmospheric pressure

9. Which hypothesis, if any, asserts that monarch butterflies require energy from stored lipids neither for migration nor during the overwintering period? a. Hypothesis 1 B. Hypothesis 2 C. Hypothesis 3 D. none

c (According to Table 2, the boiling point of Material D is 28°C. So, the horizontal portion of the graph should be at 28°C. Because 270 cal is required to transform 1 g of liquid Material D at its boiling point into a gas, the width of the horizontal portion of the graph must correspond to 270 cal of heating. Heating occurred at a rate of 10 cal/sec. Thus, the horizontal portion of the graph must extend over 27 sec.)

3. Based on the information in Table 1, which of the following lists the metal ions in order from the fastest to slowest speed with which they moved up the paper? a. Hg2+, Cd2+, Cu2+, Co2+, Ni2 b. Cd2+, Cu2+, Co2+, Hg2+, Ni2+ c. Ni2+, Hg2+, Co2+, Cu2+, Cd2+ d. Ni2+, Co2+, Cu2+, Cd2+, Hg2+

3. In Study 2, at the storage temperature of 5°C, as germination temperature increased from 13°C to 28°C, the number of seeds that germinated: a. decreased only. b. increased only. c. decreased, then increased. d. increased, then decreased.

3. study 1 differed from study 2 in which of the following ways? A. Female fruit flies were tested in study 1, whereas male fruit flies were tested in study 2 b. Male fruit flies were tested in Study 1, whereas female fruit flies were tested in study 2 c. The SY medium tested in study 1 contained a lower percent of sugar than did the SY medium tested in study 2 d. The SY medium tested in study 1 contained a higher percent of sugar than did the SY medium tested in Study 2

3. when light travels from one medium to another, total internal reflection can occur if the first medium has a higher refractive index than the second. Total internal reflection could occur if light were traveling from: A. lithium fluoride to flint glass B. potassium bromide to cesium iodide. C. quartz to potassium bromide D. flint glass to calcium fluroride

4. According to the results of Study 1, which of the following best describes the relationship between thermal conductivity and rock temperature? As thermal conductivity increases, the rock temperature recorded adjacent to buried SF canisters: e. decreases only. f. increases only. g. increases, then decreases. h. remains the same.

f (F is the best answer. According to the passage, the maximum kinetic energy an ejected electron can have is the photon's energy minus the metal's work function. In Trials 4-6, the energy per photon was 4.0 eV and the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons ejected from the metal was 0.9. In Trials 7-9, the energy per photon was 6.0 eV and the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons ejected from the metal was 2.9. Thus, the work function was 3.1 eV.)

4. Based on the passage and Table 1, the work function of the metal used in the photocell was: e. 2.0 eV f. 3.1 eV g. 4.9 eV h. 6.0 eV

13. Which of the following conclusions is supported by the observed results? I. Boiling point varies directly with molecular weight II. boiling point varies inversely with molecular weight. III. boiling point is affected by molecular structure. A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. II and III only

20. which of the following statements best describes the primary effect of CH4 on earth's climate? f. CH4 gives off visible light to space, cooling Earth's climate. G. CH4 gives off ultraviolet radiation to space, warming Earth's climate. H. CH4 absorbs heat as it enters Earth's atmosphere from space, cooling Earth's climate J. CH4 absorbs heat that comes up from earth's surface, warming Earth's climate

5. If another student wanted to test a factor that was not studied in Experiments 1-3, which of the following should he do next? He should test how the diffusion rates of gases are affected by: a. atmospheric pressure. b. tube length. c. temperature. d. tube diameter.

5. the researchers had predicted that decreasing a fruit fly's ability to detect odors would increase its life span. are the results of study 3 consistent with this prediction? A. No; for each SY medium tested, the average life span of Strain X fruit flies was longer than the average life span of Strain N fruit flies b. No; for each SY medium tested, the average life span of Strain N fruit flies was longer than the average life span of Strain X fruit flies c. Yes; for each SY medium tested, the average life span of Strain X fruit flies was longer than the average life span of Strain N fruit flies D. Yes; for each SY medium tested, the average life span of Strain N fruit flies was longer than the average life span of Strain X fruit flies

6. According to the experimental results, osmotic pressure is dependent upon the: F. solvent and temperature only G. solvent and concentration only H. temperature and concentration only J. solvent, temperature, and concentration

6. The experimental designs of Study 2 and Study 1 differed in that in Study 2: e. storage temperature was held constant. F. storage time was held constant. G. germination temperature was varied. H. germination time was varied.

6. The student concluded that NH3 diffuses at a greater rate than HCl. Do the results of Experiments 1-3 support her conclusion? e. No; in Trials 1-9 the HCl vapors traveled farther than the NH3 vapors. f. No; in Trials 1-9 the NH3 vapors traveled farther than the HCl vapors. g. Yes; in Trials 1-9 the HCl vapors traveled farther than the NH3 vapors. h. Yes; in Trials 1-9 the NH3 vapors traveled farther than the HCl vapors.

Assume Scientist 2's view about the similarities between Europa's surface features and flowing glaciers on Earth is correct. Based on this assumption and the information provided, Earth's glaciers would be least likely to exhibit which of the following features? a. Pressure ridges b. Cracks c. Meteorite craters d. Dark bands

5. In the photocell discussed in the passage, suppose the work function of the metal had been 5.1 eV. If the energy per photon had been the same as in Trials 7-9, the maximum kinetic energy of electrons that were ejected from the metal would have been: a. 0.9 eV b. 2.0 eV c. 4.0 eV d. 5.1 eV

5. Scientist 2 explains that ice sublimes to water vapor and enters Europa's atmosphere. If ultraviolet light then broke those water vapor molecules apart, which of the following gases would one most likely expect to find in Europa's atmosphere as a result of this process? a. Nitrogen b. Methane c. Chlorine d. Oxygen

Suppose another set of 25 peony seeds had been included in Study 2 and these seeds had a storage temperature of 25°C and a germination temperature of 18°C. Based on the information provided, the number of seeds that would have germinated after being maintained for 30 days would most likely have been closest to: e. 0 f. 8 g. 16 h. 24

Which of the following best describes the difference between the procedures used in Experiments 1 and 2 ? In Experiment 1, the: a. temperature was varied; in Experiment 2, the diameter of the tube was varied. b. diameter of the tube was varied; in Experiment 2, the temperature was varied. c. distance between the swabs was varied; in Experiment 2, the temperature was varied. d. temperature was varied; in Experiment 2, the distance between the swabs was varied.

Which of the following statements about meteorite craters on Europa would be most consistent with both scientists' views? E. No meteorites have struck Europa for millions of years. F. Meteorite craters, once formed, are then smoothed or removed by Europa's surface processes. G. Meteorite craters, once formed on Europa, remain unchanged for billions of years. H. Meteorites frequently strike Europa's surface but do not leave any craters.

d (During the time interval 0-2 sec, the temperature of Material A increased by about 20°C. During the time interval 2-12 sec, the temperature of Material A remained constant. During the time interval 12-22 sec, the temperature of Material A remained constant. During the time interval 22-24 sec, the temperature of Material A increased by about 25°C. Since the duration of the time interval 0-2 sec equals the duration of the time interval 22-24 sec and the increase in temperature was greater during the latter time interval, the temperature increased the fastest during the time interval 22-24 sec.)

. 1. Based on Figure 1, Material A's temperature increased the fastest during which of the following time intervals? a. 0- 2 sec b. 2-12 sec c. 12-22 sec d. 22-24 sec

1. Based on Table 1, which of the following statements best explains the results of Trials 1-3? a. The light was too intense to eject electrons from the metal in the photocell. b. The light was too intense to eject photons from the metal in the photocell. c. The energy per electron was too high to eject photons from the metal in the photocell. d. The energy per photon was too low to eject electrons from the metal in the photocell.

10. which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the experimental results? 1. Osmotic pressure is independent of the solvent used. II. Osmotic pressure is only dependent upon the temperature of the system III. Osmosis occurs only when the osmotic pressure is exceeded F. I only G. III only H. I and II only J. I and III only

12. Which of the following straight-chain hydrocarbons would NOT be a gas at room temperature? F. C2H6 G. C3H8 H. C4H10 J. C5H12

13. Which of the following statements about lipids in monarch butterflies is consistent with all 3 hypotheses? a. The butterflies' lipid masses do not change during the overwintering period b. The butterflies' lipid masses change during migration c. The butterflies use energy from stored lipids during the overwintering period d. The butterflies use energy from stored lipids for migration

15 Based on the data in Table 2, as molecular weight increases, the difference between the boiling points of polar and non polar substances of similar molecular weight: A. increases B. decreases. C. remains constant D. varies randomly

17. Which of the following conclusions can be made based on the results of experiment 2 alone? a. The seedlings do not require long daily periods to grow b. the average leaf density is independent of the humidity the seedings recieve c. The seedlings need more water at night than during the day D. The average length of the leaves increases as the amount of sunlight increases

18. based on Figure 1, the average solar radiation intensity over the past 250,00 years was closest to which of the following? F. 400 watts/m^2 G. 440 watts/m^2 H. 480 watts/m^2 j. 520 watts/m^2

19. according to the experimental results, under which sets set of conditions would a CYCAS seedlings be most likely to produce the largest leaves? A. 95% humidity and 3 hours of sunlight B. 75% humidity and 3 hours of sunlight C. 95% humidity and 6 hours of sunlight D. 75% humidity and 6 hours of sunlight

2. According to Study 3, if another set of temperatures had been calculated for a time 1,000,000 years in the future, the calculated temperature increase in any of the 4 rock types would most likely be closest to: e. 0°C f. 10°C g. 20°C h. 30°C

2. Based on the information in Tables 1 and 2, one can conclude that Sample 2 contains: E. 1 metal ion only. F. 2 metal ions only. G. either 1 or 2 metal ions. H. more than 2 metal ions.

f (Figure 1 shows that Material A was in the liquid phase from Time 0 to Time 2. Table 1 shows that Material A had a volume of 1 cm3 during this time. According to the passage, the mass of Material A was 1 g. So while Material A was a liquid, its density was (1 g) ÷ (1 cm3) = 1 g/cm3.)

2. Based on the passage and Table 1, what was the density of liquid Material A ? e. 0.5 g/cm3 f. 1 g/cm3 G. 5 g/cm3 H. 10 g/cm3

2. During Studies 1 and 2, why did the size of the fruit fly population in eah tube decrease rather than increase? f. the birthrate was 0, because the initial population contained only males G. The birthrate was 0, because the initial population contained only virgin females H. the death rate was 0, because the initial population contained only males J. The death rate was 0, because the initial population contained only virgin females

2. Which of the following sets of trials in Experiments 1, 2, and 3 were conducted with identical sets of conditions? e. Trials 2, 3, and 4 f. Trials 1, 5, and 9 g. Trials 4, 7, and 9 H. Trials 10, 11, and 12

22. based on Figure 2 what is the order of the 3 blocks, from the block that required the shortest time to reach 15 m/sec to the block that required the longest time to reach 15 m/sec ? F. 2.00 kg block, 2.50 kg block, 3.00 kg block g. 2.00 kg block, 3.00 kg block, 2.50 kg block h. 3.00 kg block, 2.00 kg block, 2.50 kg block j. 3.00 kg block, 2.50 kg block, 2.00 kg block

23. Based on figure 2, what was the approximate value of the acceleration of the 3.00 kg block? a. 0.0 m/sec^2 b. 5.0 m/sec^2 c. 15.0 m/sec^2 d. 20.0 m/sec^2

24. Based on figure 1, the results of experiment 1 are best modeled by which of the following equations? f. Block speed (m/sec) = 0.2 x time (sec) G. Block speed (m/sec) = 5.0 x time (sec) H. Pulling force (N) = 0.2 x block mass (kg) J. Pulling force (N) = 5.0 x block mass (kg)

25. At each of the times plotted in Figure 2 (except 0.00 sec), as block mass increased, block speed: A. increased only B. decreased only. C. varied, but with no general trend. D. remained the same

26. Based on Figure 1, an applied force of 30.00N would most likely have been required to maintain the constant speed of a block having a mass of: F. 4.00 kg G. 5.00 kg H. 6.00 kg J. 7.00 kg

27. One way Experiment 2 differed from Experiment 3 was that in Experiment 2: a. the solutions to which indicators were added were of known pH b. the solution to which indicators were added were of unknown pH c. metaling yellow was used D. metaling yellow was not used

29. based on the results of experiments 1 and 2, which of the following is a possible transition range for curcumin? A. pH = 3.9 to pH = 7.3 B. pH = 4.2 to pH = 6.6 C. pH = 7.4 to pH = 8.6 D. pH = 8.4 to pH = 9.5

3. With which of the following statements about the conditions on Europa or the evolution of Europa's surface would both Scientist 1 and Scientist 2 most likely agree? The surface of Europa: A. is being shaped by the movement of ice. B. is covered with millions of meteorite craters. C. is the same temperature as the surface of the Arctic Ocean on Earth. D. has remained unchanged for millions of years.

30. A chemist has 2 solutions, one of pH = 1 and one of pH = 6. Based on the results of Experiments 1 and 2, could indigo carmine be used to distinguish between these solutions? F. No; indigo carmine is blue at both pH = 1 and ph = 6 G. No; indigo carmine is blue at pH = 1 and is yellow at pH = 6. H. Yes; indigo carmine is blue at both pH = 1 and pH= 6

31. The indicator PROPYL RED has a transition range of pH = 4.6 to pH = 6.8. IF propyl red had been included in Experiments 1 and 2, it would have produced results most similar to those produced by which of the 5 indicators? A. Metanil yellow B. Resorcin blue C. Curcumin D. Indigo carmine

34. Albedo was measured at noon because that time of day is when solar radiation reaching the ground is: F. 100% reflected G. 100% absorbed H. least intense J. Most intense

37. For each plot, the number of temperature a. 5 b. 12 c. 50 D. 60

d (In these two figures above, Plot 1 contains no DM (drilling mud), plot 2 contains 40 m³/ha, plot 3 contains 80 40 m³/ha. So what you have to do is look at the positions of the 3 curves in each figure, for each plot, and determine which answer choice is correct. From Figure 1 you can see that as DM is added, albedo decreases (since the curve for plot 3 < plot 2 < plot 1), and as DM is added, soil temperature increases (since the curve for plot 3 > plot 2 > plot 1).) (In figures with multiple data plots, it can help you save time to first identify which curve corresponds to which label (given in the key), so that trends can quickly be made out. In the figures above, the "stacking" order of the plots enables you to quickly determine whether the trend is increasing or decreasing.)

39. According to the results of the study, did the presence of a cover of DM increase or decrease the albedo, and did the presence of a cover of DM increase or decrease the soil temperature? a. albedo increase, soil temperature increase b. albedo increase, soil temperature decrease c. albedo decrease, soil temperature decrease D. albedo decrease, soil temperature increase

4. Based on the information in the table, how is the transmittance range related to the useful prism range? F. The transmittance range is always narrower than the useful prism range G. The transmittance range is narrower than or equal to the useful prism range. H. The transmittance range increase as the useful prism range decreases. j. The transmittance range is wider than and includes within it the useful prism range

4. If a trial in Experiment 3 had been performed with the swabs 25 cm apart, the distance from the HCl swab to the ring would most likely have been closest to: e. 8 cm f. 10 cm g. 12 cm h. 14 cm

g ( According to Figure 1, Material A was entirely in the gas phase from Time 22 sec to Time 24 sec. During this time, the temperature of Material A increased. According to Table 1, during this time, the volume of Material A also increased.)

4. Table 1 and Figure 1 best support which of the following hypotheses about the temperature and volume of Material A? (Note: Pressure is assumed to stay constant.) E. If liquid Material A is in contact with gaseous Material A and the volume of the gas increases, the gas's temperature will increase. F. If liquid Material A is in contact with gaseous Material A and the volume of the gas increases, the gas's temperature will decrease. G. When the temperature of gaseous Material A increases, its volume will increase. H. When the temperature of liquid Material A increases, its volume will increase.

4. Which of the following sets of seeds were exposed to the same conditions prior to being placed in the petri dishes? e. The seeds from Study 1 that were stored for 8 weeks and the seeds from Study 2 that were stored at 5°C F. The seeds from Study 1 that were stored for 8 weeks and the seeds from Study 2 that were stored at 15°C G. The seeds from Study 1 that were stored for 10 weeks and the seeds from Study 2 that were stored at 5°C H. The seeds from Study 1 that were stored for 10 weeks and the seeds from Study 2 that were stored at 15°C

4. suppose that an additional trial in Study 3 had been performed using a 12% SY medium (a diet with 12% sugar and 12% killed yeast). The average life span of the Strain X fruit flies in this trial would most likely have been: F. Less than 55.6 days G. between 55.6 days and 58.6 days H. between 58.6 days and 61.6 days j. greater than 61.6 days

5. Based on the information in Table 1, to best identify a metal ion using paper chromatography, one should know the: a. spot color for the ion only. b. distance the solvent traveled only. c. Rf value and spot color for the ion only. d. distance the solvent traveled and spot color of the ion only.

5. Based only on the information provided, which of the following rock types would be the safest in which to bury SF? a. Rock salt b. Granite c. Basalt d. Shale

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