Section 7
A 17-year-old football player collided with another player and has pain to his left clavicular area. He is holding his arm against his chest and refuses to move it. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to the midshaft clavicle. After assessing distal pulse, sensory, and motor functions, you should: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment. B. straighten his arm and apply a board splint. C. immobilize the injury with a sling and swathe. D. place a pillow under his arm and apply a sling.
C
A 76-year-old male experienced sudden pain to his left thigh when he was standing in line at the grocery store. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis and deformity to the distal aspect of his left femur, just above the knee. Distal circulation and sensory and motor functions are intact. The MOST appropriate method of splinting this injury involves: A. applying a traction splint to realign the deformity. B. applying and fully inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG). C. applying padded board splints to both sides of the leg. D. binding the legs together and elevating them 6″ to 8″.
C
A 77-year-old woman slipped and fell on a throw rug and landed on her left hip. She denies striking her head or losing consciousness. Assessment of her left leg reveals that it is shortened and externally rotated. Distal pulses, sensory, and motor functions are intact. You should: A. manually stabilize her left leg, apply a traction splint, and then secure her to a long backboard or scoop. B. carefully slide a long backboard underneath her, keep her in a supine position, and apply a splint to her leg. C. place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps. D. bind both of her legs together with triangular bandages and carefully secure her onto the ambulance stretcher.
C
A _______ is an injury to the ligaments, the articular capsule, the synovial membrane, and the tendons crossing the joint. A. dislocation B. strain C. sprain D. torn ligament
C
A motorcyclist crashed his bike and has closed deformities to both of his midshaft femurs. He is conscious, but restless; his skin is cool and clammy; and his radial pulses are rapid and weak. The MOST appropriate splinting technique for this patient involves: A. applying rigid board splints. B. applying two traction splints. C. securing him to a long backboard. D. immobilizing his femurs with air splints.
C
A(n) _______ is also known as a hairline fracture. A. closed fracture. B. open fracture. C. nondisplaced fracture. D. displaced fracture.
C
Although substantial ligament damage always occurs with a knee dislocation, the more urgent injury is to the _______ artery, which is often lacerated or compressed by the displaced tibia. A. tibial B. femoral C. popliteal D. dorsalis pedis
C
During your rapid secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25′, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: A. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. B. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. C. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine. D. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once
C
Fractures are almost always associated with _______ of the surrounding soft tissue. A. laceration B. crepitus C. ecchymosis D. swelling
C
In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. when distal circulation and neurological functions are absent B. if transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes C. if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain D. if a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity
C
In-line _______ is the act of exerting a pulling force on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment. A. stabilization B. immobilization C. traction D. direction
C
Joints are bathed and lubricated by _______ fluid. A. cartilaginous B. articular C. synovial D. cerebrospinal
C
Signs and symptoms of sprains include all of the following EXCEPT: A. point tenderness. B. pain preventing the patient from moving or using the limb normally. C. marked deformity. D. instability of the joint indicated by increased motion.
C
The _______ is one of the most commonly injured joints. A. knee B. elbow C. ankle D. hip
C
There is often a significant amount of blood loss, as much as _______ mL, after a fracture of the shaft of the femur. A. 100 to 250 B. 250 to 500 C. 500 to 1,000 D. 100 to 1,500
C
Traction splints are used primarily to immobilize and secure fractures of the: A. hip. B. pelvis. C. femur. D. humerus.
C
When caring for patients who have fallen, you must identify the _______ and the mechanism of injury so that you will not overlook associated injuries. A. site of injury B. height of fall C. point of contact D. twisting forces
C
Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock? A. hip B. femur C. pelvis D. humerus
C
Which of the following statements regarding shoulder dislocations is MOST correct? A. Posterior dislocations are most common. B. They are caused by forced arm adduction. C. Most shoulder dislocations occur anteriorly. D. They involve the acromion process and humerus.
C
You are called to the local assisted living facility where a 94-year-old man has fallen. He is alert and oriented and denies passing out. His respirations are 18 breaths/min and regular. Pulse is 106 beats/min, regular, and strong. Distal pulses are present. He states that he was walking and heard a pop and fell to the floor. You suspect a(n): A. greenstick B. comminuted C. pathologic D. epiphyseal
C
You have applied a zippered air splint to a patient's left arm. During transport, the patient complains of increased numbness and tingling in his left hand. You reassess distal circulation and note that it remains present. Your MOST appropriate action should be to: A. elevate the injured arm and reassess distal sensory function. B. inflate the splint with more air until the patient is comfortable. C. assess the amount of air in the splint and let air out as necessary. D. remove the air splint and reimmobilize with padded board splints.
C
You respond to a soccer game for a 16-year-old male with severe ankle pain. When you deliver him to the hospital, the physician tells you that he suspects a sprain. This means that: A. there is a disruption of the joint and the bone ends are no longer in contact. B. the patient has an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the bone. C. stretching or tearing of the ligaments with partial or temporary dislocation of the bone ends has occurred. D. the muscles of the ankle have been severely stretched, resulting in displacement of the bones from the joint.
C
_______ is the most reliable indicator of an underlying fracture. A. Crepitus B. Deformity C. Point tenderness D. Absence of distal pulse
C
Which of the following statements regarding intra-abdominal bleeding is FALSE? A. Intra-abdominal bleeding often causes abdominal distention. B. Intra-abdominal bleeding is common following blunt force trauma. C. The absence of pain and tenderness rules out intra-abdominal bleeding. D. Bruising may not occur immediately following blunt abdominal trauma.
C. The absence of pain and tenderness rules out intra-abdominal bleeding.
Breath-holding syncope is caused by a decreased stimulus to breathe and occurs when: A. a swimmer breathes shallowly before entering the water. B. a diver holds his or her breath during a staged ascent. C. a swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water. D. a diver holds his or her breath for a long period of time.
C. a swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water.
Signs of late heatstroke include: A. hot, moist skin. B. nausea and vomiting. C. a weak, rapid pulse. D. a change in behavior.
C. a weak, rapid pulse.
To assess a patient's general temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the: A. neck. B. chest. C. abdomen. D. forehead.
C. abdomen.
Pneumothorax is defined as: A. accumulation of air between the lungs. B. blood collection within the lung tissue. C. accumulation of air in the pleural space. D. blood collection within the pleural space.
C. accumulation of air in the pleural space.
Subcutaneous emphysema is an indication that: A. at least half of one lung has completely collapsed. B. your patient is experiencing a pericardial tamponade. C. air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung. D. blood is slowly accumulating within the tissue of the lung.
C. air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung.
Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should _______. Select one: A. include your opinion of the nature of the incident B. describe the status of the suspect(s) C. be objective and factual D. be subjective and summarize the crime
C. be objective and factual
You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should: Select one: A. forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition. B. begin documenting the call on the patient care form. C. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently. D. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment.
C. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.
You are transporting a stable patient with a possible pneumothorax. The patient is receiving 100% oxygen and has an oxygen saturation of 95%. During your reassessment, you find that the patient is now confused, hypotensive, and profusely diaphoretic. What is MOST likely causing this patient's deterioration? A. a total collapse of the affected lung B. hidden bleeding in the thoracic cavity C. compression of the aorta and vena cava D. blood accumulation in the pleural space
C. compression of the aorta and vena cava
When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as _______. Select one: A. instability. B. distention. C. guarding. D. crepitus.
C. guarding.
Even when seatbelts are worn properly and the airbags deploy, injury may occur to the: A. chest. B. extremities. C. iliac crests. D. lower ribcage.
C. iliac crests.
A 16-year-old boy was playing football and was struck in the left flank during a tackle. His vital signs are stable; however, he is in severe pain. You should be MOST concerned that he has injured his: A. liver. B. spleen. C. kidney. D. bladder.
C. kidney.
In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are _______. Select one: A. smaller in proportion to the abdomen B. more protected by the thorax compared to adults C. larger in proportion to the abdomen D. less likely to bleed when injured
C. larger in proportion to the abdomen
Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: Select one: A. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort. B. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression. C. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. D. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full.
C. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.
A frostbitten foot can be identified by the presence of: A. gross deformity. B. soft, smooth skin. C. mottling and blisters. D. blanching of the skin.
C. mottling and blisters.
If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: A. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury. B. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply. C. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume. D. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same.
C. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.
A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: A. immediate cardiac arrest. B. paralysis of the diaphragm. C. paralysis of the intercostal muscles. D. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles.
C. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.
The ________ nerves control the diaphragm. A. vagus B. costal C. phrenic D. intercostal
C. phrenic
Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: Select one: A. the EMT must perform a thorough exam. B. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated. C. prompt transport to the hospital is essential. D. vital signs should be monitored frequently.
C. prompt transport to the hospital is essential.
During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. As your partner is administering oxygen to the patient, you should: A. request a paramedic to decompress the chest. B. make note of it and continue your assessment. C. stabilize the chest wall with a bulky dressing. D. reassess the adequacy of the patient's breathing.
C. stabilize the chest wall with a bulky dressing.
Very young children tend to breathe predominantly with their diaphragm because: A. their chest wall and ribs are very pliable. B. they require less tidal volume per breath. C. their intercostal muscles are not fully developed. D. there is no nerve innervation of the intercostal muscles.
C. their intercostal muscles are not fully developed.
A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A. pelvic girdle. B. femoral shaft. C. pubic symphysis. D. proximal femur.
D
A young male has a musculoskeletal injury and is unresponsive. You will NOT be able to assess: A. false motion. B. distal pulses. C. capillary refill. D. sensory and motor functions.
D
A(n) _______ fracture occurs in a growth section of a child's bone, which may prematurely stop growth if not properly treated. A. greenstick B. comminuted C. pathologic D. epiphyseal
D
A(n) _______ fracture produces actual deformity, or distortion, of the limb by shortening, rotating, or angulating it. A. closed fracture. B. open fracture. C. nondisplaced fracture. D. displaced fracture.
D
Always check neurovascular function: A. after any manipulation of the limb. B. before applying a splint. C. after applying a splint. D. all of the above.
D
Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: A. bursa. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments.
D
Following direct trauma to the left upper back, a 44-year-old male presents with diaphoresis and restlessness. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Your assessment reveals abrasions and contusions over the left scapula. You should: A. hyperventilate him with a bag-mask device and monitor his oxygen saturation. B. apply high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport. C. focus your assessment on his scapulae and clavicles and apply high-flow oxygen. D. apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay.
D
Signs and symptoms associated with hip dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT: A. severe pain in the hip. B. lateral and posterior aspects of the hip region will be tender on palpation. C. being able to palpate the femoral head deep within the muscles of the buttock. D. decreased resistance to any movement of the joint.
D
Signs and symptoms of a dislocated joint include all of the following EXCEPT: A. marked deformity. B. tenderness on palpation. C. locked joint. D. ecchymosis.
D
Signs and symptoms of knee ligament injury include: A. swelling. B. point tenderness. C. joint effusion. D. all of the above.
D
The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: A. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. B. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. C. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. D. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.
D
The zone of injury includes the: A. adjacent nerves. B. adjacent blood vessels. C. surrounding soft tissue. D. all of the above.
D
When splinting an injury of the wrist, the hand should be placed: A. into a fist. B. in a straight position. C. in an extended position. D. in a functional position.
D
Which of the following is a basic type of splint? A. Rigid B. Formable C. Traction D. All of the above
D
Which of the following is not considered one of the "6 Ps" of the musculoskeletal assessment? A. Pain B. Pulselessness C. Pressure D. Peristalsis
D
_______ produce severe damage to the skeleton, surrounding soft tissues, and vital internal organs. A. Direct blow B. Indirect force C. Twisting force D. High-energy injury
D
The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at: A. C1 and C2. B. C3 and C4. C. C1, C2, and C3. D. C3, C4, and C5.
D. C3, C4, and C5.
Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys? Select one: A. Only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys. B. The kidneys are not well protected. C. Kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma. D. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs.
D. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs.
Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct? A. Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs. B. Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm. C. Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims. D. Laryngospasm following submersion in water makes rescue breathing difficult.
D. Laryngospasm following submersion in water makes rescue breathing difficult.
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? Select one: A. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. B. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. C. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration. D. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
D. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
You should suspect a kidney injury anytime the patient presents with _______. Select one: A. nausea B. abdominal distention C. dyspnea D. a hematoma in the flank region
D. a hematoma in the flank region
Other than applying a moist, sterile dressing covered with a dry dressing to treat an abdominal evisceration, an alternative form of management may include: A. placing dry towels over the open wound. B. cleaning the exposed bowel with sterile saline. C. applying the PASG to stop the associated bleeding. D. applying an occlusive dressing, secured by trauma dressings.
D. applying an occlusive dressing, secured by trauma dressings.
Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: Select one: A. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings. B. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. C. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport. D. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.
D. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.
Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured: Select one: A. aorta. B. spleen. C. stomach. D. diaphragm.
D. diaphragm.
Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. nausea. B. headache. C. tachycardia. D. hot, dry skin.
D. hot, dry skin.
You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. C. perform a focused secondary exam. D. immediately request ALS support.
D. immediately request ALS support.
You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should: Select one: A. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status. B. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min. C. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed. D. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM.
D. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM.
The MOST critical treatment for a tension pneumothorax involves: A. placing a bulky dressing over the affected side of the chest. B. assisting the patient's breathing with increased tidal volume. C. surgically removing the portion of the lung that is damaged. D. inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space.
D. inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space.
You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unconscious, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: A. massive hemothorax. B. tension pneumothorax. C. pericardial tamponade. D. laceration of the aorta.
D. laceration of the aorta.
Following blunt trauma to the chest, an 18-year-old female presents with respiratory distress, reduced tidal volume, and cyanosis. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and her pulse is 130 beats/min and thready. You should: A. apply 100% oxygen and immediately transport. B. place her supine and elevate her lower extremities. C. perform a rapid head-to-toe physical assessment. D. provide some form of positive-pressure ventilation.
D. provide some form of positive-pressure ventilation.
A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury: A. should be placed in Trendelenburg's position. B. is most likely experiencing severe blood loss. C. has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta. D. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
D. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
When assessing a patient with a hemothorax, you will MOST likely find: A. jugular venous engorgement. B. ipsilateral tracheal deviation. C. distant or muffled heart tones. D. signs and symptoms of shock.
D. signs and symptoms of shock.
All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. bladder. B. ureters. C. stomach. D. spleen.
D. spleen.
Peritonitis would MOST likely result following injury to the: A. liver. B. spleen. C. kidney. D. stomach.
D. stomach.
While drinking beer with his friends near a creek, a 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: A. applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly. B. transporting only with close, continuous monitoring. C. elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin. D. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.
D. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.
Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when: A. the diaphragm descends. B. abdominal contents descend. C. intrathoracic pressure decreases. D. the intercostal muscles contract.
D. the intercostal muscles contract.
A 21-year-old male was thrown over the handlebars of his motorcycle when he rear-ended a car that was stopped at a red light. He was wearing a helmet, which he removed prior to your arrival. He is conscious, but restless, and has closed deformities to both of his femurs. His skin is pale, his heart rate is rapid and weak, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. In addition to applying high-flow oxygen and protecting his spine, you should: A. bind his legs together on the backboard, keep him warm, and transport without delay. B. apply traction splints to both of his legs, keep him warm, and transport without delay. C. splint each of his deformed femurs with long board splints and transport immediately. D. apply the PASG to stabilize his femurs and transport at once.
A
A 31-year-old male fell and landed on his left elbow. Your assessment reveals that the elbow is grossly deformed, his forearm is cool and pale, and the distal pulse on the side of the injury is barely palpable. His vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries. Your transport time to the closest appropriate hospital is approximately 15 minutes. You should: A. splint the elbow in the position found and transport. B. gently manipulate the elbow to improve circulation. C. gently straighten the elbow and apply an air splint. D. apply a heat pack to the elbow to reduce swelling.
A
A _______ is a stretching or tearing of the muscle. A. strain B. sprain C. torn ligament D. split
A
A(n) _______ fracture is an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone but many still cause severe angulation. A. greenstick B. comminuted C. pathologic D. epiphyseal
A
A(n) _______ fractures the bone at the point of impact. A. direct blow B. indirect force C. twisting force D. high-energy injury
A
Blood in the urine is known as: A. hematuria. B. hemotysis. C. hematocrit. D. hemoglobin.
A
Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,000 D. 4,000
A
Fracture of the tibia and fibula are often associated with _______ as a result of the distorted positions of the limb following injury. A. vascular injury B. muscular injury C. tendon injury D. ligament injury
A
The MOST common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is: A. neurovascular compromise. B. internal bleeding and shock. C. ligament and cartilage damage. D. total depletion of synovial fluid.
A
The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is the: A. clavicle. B. scapula. C. radius and ulna. D. midshaft femur.
A
The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: A. traction. B. reduction. C. stabilization. D. immobilization.
A
The bones in the skeleton produce _______ in the bone marrow. A. blood cells B. minerals C. electrolytes D. hormones
A
The primary purpose for splinting a musculoskeletal injury is to: A. prevent further injury. B. maximize distal circulation. C. make the patient comfortable. D. facilitate ambulance transport.
A
To effectively immobilize a fractured clavicle, you should apply a(n): A. sling and swathe. B. air splint over the entire arm. C. rigid splint to the upper arm, then a sling. D. traction splint to the arm of the injured side.
A
When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: A. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. B. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back. C. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. D. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening.
A
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries has the GREATEST risk for shock due to blood loss? A. pelvic fracture B. posterior hip dislocation C. unilateral femur fracture D. proximal humerus fracture
A
Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of an amputation is FALSE? A. You should sever any partial amputation, because this will aid in the reattachment process. B. In some areas, wrapping the amputated part in a dry sterile dressing is appropriate. C. In some areas, wrapping the amputated part in dressings moistened with sterile saline is appropriate. D. After wrapping the amputated part, place it in a plastic bag.
A
While transporting a patient, you continue to recheck the splint you applied. You know that improperly applying a splint can cause all of the following EXCEPT: A. increase of distal circulation if the splint is too tight. B. delay in transport of a patient with a life-threatening injury. C. aggravation of the distal circulation. D. compression of nerves, tissues, and blood vessels.
A
You receive a call to a local gymnasium for a basketball player with a dislocated shoulder. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 17-year-old male, sitting on the ground. He is holding his left arm in a fixed position away from his body. There is an obvious anterior bulge to the area of injury. You should: A. assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions. B. gently attempt to move his arm toward his body. C. place a pillow under his arm and apply a swathe. D. flex his arm at the elbow and then apply a sling.
A
You respond to a 19-year-old woman who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. She is alert and oriented. Her airway is open, and respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. Pulse is 94 beats/min and is strong and regular. Distal pulses are present. Her upper arm has obvious deformity. You splint the upper arm. You know that splinting will do all of the following EXCEPT: A. prevent the need for surgery. B. reduce shock. C. minimize compromised circulation. D. reduce pain.
A
You respond to a 19-year-old woman who was kicked in the leg by a horse. She is alert and oriented. Respirations are 20 breaths/min, regular and unlabored. Pulse is 110 beats/min and regular. Distal pulses are present. She has point tenderness at the site of the injury. You should compare the limb to: A. the opposite uninjured limb. B. one of your limbs or one of your partner's limbs. C. an injury chart. D. none of the above.
A
Your 24-year-old patient fell off a balance beam and landed on his arm. He is complaining of pain in the upper arm, and there is obvious swelling. You know that swelling is a sign of: A. bleeding. B. laceration. C. a locked joint. D. compartment syndrome.
A
Which of the following organs would be the MOST likely to bleed profusely if severely injured? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Stomach D. Gallbladder
A. Liver
When should you visually inspect the external genitalia on your patient? Select one: A. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury B. Anytime the patient agrees to treatment and transport C. Only when ordered by medical direction D. Always during the secondary assessment
A. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury
While inspecting the interior of a wrecked automobile, you should be MOST suspicious that the driver experienced an abdominal injury if you find: A. a deformed steering wheel. B. that the airbags deployed. C. a crushed instrument panel. D. damage to the lower dashboard.
A. a deformed steering wheel.
A flail chest occurs when: A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. B. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. C. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. D. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase.
A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.
While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: A. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital. B. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. C. recognize that he needs a needle decompression. D. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest.
A. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital.
A 37-year-old male was pinned between a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemorrhaging. You should: A. aggressively manage his airway. B. request a paramedic ambulance. C. perform a secondary assessment. D. suspect a severe hemopneumothorax.
A. aggressively manage his airway.
A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing. B. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings. C. administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication.
A. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.
Patients with rib fractures will commonly: A. breathe rapidly and shallowly. B. take a series of deep breaths. C. prefer to lie in a supine position. D. develop a sucking chest wound.
A. breathe rapidly and shallowly.
The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: A. diaphragm. B. anterior rib cage. C. intercostal margin. D. costovertebral angle.
A. diaphragm.
Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? A. engorged jugular veins B. widening pulse pressure C. diminished breath sounds D. a rapid, irregular pulse
A. engorged jugular veins
A spontaneous pneumothorax would MOST likely occur as the result of: A. exertion of a person with a congenital lung defect. B. excessive coughing in a patient with pneumonitis. C. abnormally slow breathing in a patient with pleurisy. D. blunt or penetrating trauma to the anterior chest wall.
A. exertion of a person with a congenital lung defect.
Which of the following organs or structures does NOT reside within the mediastinum? A. lungs B. trachea C. vena cavae D. esophagus
A. lungs
When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: Select one: A. peritonitis may not develop for several hours. B. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock. C. the abdomen will become instantly distended. D. it commonly protrudes through the injury site.
A. peritonitis may not develop for several hours.
Irritation or damage to the pleural surfaces that causes sharp chest pain during inhalation is called: A. pleurisy. B. dyspnea. C. pneumonitis. D. pneumothorax.
A. pleurisy.
High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.
A. radiation.
Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically: A. superficial. B. third-degree. C. full-thickness. D. partial-thickness.
A. superficial.
When caring for a female with trauma to the external genitalia, the EMT should: A. use local pressure to control bleeding. B. carefully pack the vagina to reduce bleeding. C. remove any impaled objects from the vagina. D. cover any open wounds with moist, sterile dressings.
A. use local pressure to control bleeding.
A 19-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless after being struck in the center of the chest with a softball. Based on the mechanism of injury, what MOST likely occurred? A. ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle B. asystole secondary to massive intrathoracic hemorrhage due to traumatic rupture of the aorta C. fracture of the sternum that caused a rupture of the myocardium and led to a cardiac dysrhythmia D. collapse of both lungs due to fractured ribs that perforated the lung tissue and caused cardiac arrest
A. ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle
Pleural fluid is contained between the: A. visceral and parietal pleurae. B. parietal pleura and the heart. C. visceral pleura and the lung. D. parietal pleura and the chest wall.
A. visceral and parietal pleurae.
Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when: A. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere. B. the core body temperature is greater than 98°F (37°C). C. cool air is inhaled and displaces warm air. D. air temperature is greater than body temperature.
A. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere.
A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be MOST suspicious for: A. anterior hip dislocation. B. posterior hip dislocation. C. a thoracic spine fracture. D. fracture of the tibia or fibula.
B
A Colles fracture involves a fracture of the: A. distal ulna. B. distal radius. C. proximal radius. D. radius and ulna.
B
A _______ is a disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact. A. torn ligament B. dislocation C. fracture dislocation D. sprain
B
A patient injured her knee while riding a bicycle. She is lying on the ground, has her left leg flexed, is in severe pain, and cannot move her leg. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to her left knee. Distal pulses are present and strong. The MOST appropriate treatment for her injury involves: A. wrapping her entire knee area with a pillow. B. splinting the leg in the position in which it was found. C. straightening her leg and applying two rigid board splints. D. straightening her leg and applying and inflating an air splint.
B
A patient tripped, fell, and landed on her elbow. She is in severe pain and has obvious deformity to her elbow. You should: A. assess distal pulses. B. manually stabilize her injury. C. assess her elbow for crepitus. D. apply rigid board splints to her arm.
B
A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would MOST likely experience an accompanying fracture of the: A. thoracic spine. B. lumbar spine. C. coccygeal spine. D. symphysis pubis.
B
A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: A. radial head. B. distal humerus. C. proximal radius. D. olecranon process.
B
A(n) _______ is a fracture in which the bone is broken into two or more fragments. A. greenstick B. comminuted C. pathologic D. epiphyseal
B
A(n) _______ may cause a fracture or discoloration at a distant point. A. direct blow B. indirect force C. twisting force D. high-energy injury
B
Applying ice to and elevating an injured extremity are performed in order to: A. prevent further injury. B. reduce pain and swelling. C. enhance tissue circulation. D. maintain extremity perfusion.
B
Because of local tenderness and swelling, it is easy to confuse a nondisplaced or minimally displaced fracture at the knee with a: A. tendon injury. B. ligament injury. C. dislocation. D. fracture-dislocation.
B
During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: A. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. B. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse. C. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints. D. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow.
B
Regardless of the extent and severity of the damage to the skin, you should treat any injury that breaks the skin as a possible: A. closed fracture. B. open fracture. C. nondisplaced fracture. D. displaced fracture.
B
Smooth muscle is found in the: A. back. B. blood vessels. C. heart. D. all of the above.
B
The PASG is absolutely contraindicated in patients who have: A. pelvic fractures. B. pulmonary edema. C. bilateral femur fractures. D. any trauma below the pelvis.
B
The _______ is one of the most commonly fractured bones in the body. A. scapula B. clavicle C. humerus D. radius
B
The knee is especially susceptible to _______ injuries, which occur when abnormal bending or twisting forces are applied to the joint. A. tendon B. ligament C. dislocation D. fracture-dislocation
B
The purpose of splinting a fracture is to: A. reduce the fracture if possible. B. prevent motion of bony fragments. C. reduce swelling in adjacent soft tissues. D. force the bony fragments back into anatomic alignment.
B
What joint is frequently separated during football and hockey when a player falls and lands on the point of the shoulder? A. Glenohumeral joint B. Acromioclavicular joint C. Sternoclavicular joint D. None of the above
B
When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT should: A. assess proximal circulation. B. compare it to the uninjured leg. C. carefully move it to elicit crepitus. D. ask the patient to move the injured leg.
B
When splinting a possible fracture of the foot, it is MOST important for the EMT to: A. use a pillow as a splint. B. leave the toes exposed. C. apply a pneumatic splint. D. observe for tissue swelling.
B
When treating an open extremity fracture, you should: A. apply a splint and then dress the wound. B. dress the wound before applying a splint. C. irrigate the wound before applying a dressing. D. allow the material that secures the splint to serve as the dressing.
B
Which of the following injuries would be appropriate to treat with a traction splint? A. Injuries of the pelvis B. An isolated femur fracture C. Partial amputation or avulsions with bone separation D. Lower leg or ankle injury
B
Which of the following statements about compartment syndrome is FALSE? A. It occurs 6 to 12 hours after an injury. B. It most commonly occurs with a fractured femur. C. It is usually a result of excessive bleeding, a severely crushed extremity, or the rapid return of blood to an ischemic limb. D. It is characterized by pain that is out of proportion to the injury.
B
_______ are held together in a tough fibrous structure known as a capsule. A. Tendons B. Joints C. Ligaments D. Bones
B
Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below: A. 98°F (37°C). B. 95°F (35°C). C. 90°F (32°C). D. 88°F (31°C).
B. 95°F (35°C).
Compression injury is most likely due to which of the following? Select one: A. Stabbing B. Improperly placed lab belt C. Hollow-organ rupture D. Ejection of unrestrained driver
B. Improperly placed lab belt
You are transporting a patient with possible peritonitis following trauma to the abdomen. Which position will he MOST likely prefer to assume? A. Sitting up B. Legs drawn up C. Legs outstretched D. On his right side
B. Legs drawn up
Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured? Select one: A. Intestine B. Liver C. Stomach D. Bladder Feedback
B. Liver
Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia? A. The core body temperature exceeds 99.5°F (37°C). B. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose. C. Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water. D. The body eliminates more heat than it can generate.
B. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.
An open pneumothorax occurs when: A. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung. B. air enters the pleural space from outside the body. C. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture. D. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung.
B. air enters the pleural space from outside the body.
Injuries to the external male genitalia _______. Select one: A. are often life-threatening B. are rarely life-threatening C. usually result in permanent damage D. frequently lead to hypovolemic shock
B. are rarely life-threatening
The term "hematuria" is defined as: A. blood in the stool. B. blood in the urine. C. vomiting up blood. D. urinary bladder rupture.
B. blood in the urine.
Signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. profound cyanosis. B. collapsed jugular veins. C. bulging intercostal muscles. D. unilaterally absent breath sounds.
B. collapsed jugular veins.
Hemoptysis is defined as: A. vomiting blood. B. coughing up blood. C. abnormal blood clotting. D. blood in the pleural space.
B. coughing up blood.
Common signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. tachypnea. B. hematemesis. C. localized pain. D. chest wall ecchymosis.
B. hematemesis.
Abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever are most likely due to _______. Select one: A. hypovolemia B. infection C. evisceration D. hemorrhage
B. infection
When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm: A. contracts and flattens inferiorly. B. may rise as high as the nipple line. C. is less prone to penetrating trauma. D. descends below the level of the navel.
B. may rise as high as the nipple line.
If a person's tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged: A. minute volume will increase. B. minute volume will decrease. C. minute volume will remain unchanged. D. excess carbon dioxide will be eliminated.
B. minute volume will decrease.
A rapid, irregular pulse following blunt trauma to the chest is MOST suggestive of a: A. ruptured aorta. B. myocardial contusion. C. pericardial tamponade. D. tension pneumothorax.
B. myocardial contusion.
Signs and symptoms of an air embolism include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. dysphasia. B. pale skin. C. dizziness. D. joint pain.
B. pale skin.
You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: A. begin ventilatory assistance. B. partially remove the dressing. C. begin rapid transport at once. D. call for a paramedic ambulance.
B. partially remove the dressing.
In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: A. flail chest. B. pneumothorax. C. cardiac tamponade. D. myocardial contusion.
B. pneumothorax.
A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to applying 100% oxygen, you should: A. apply an automated external defibrillator (AED) and take his blood pressure. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. determine if he has cardiac problems. D. apply bulky dressings to the sternum.
B. prepare for immediate transport.
Immediate death from blunt chest trauma following a motor vehicle crash is MOST often the result of: A. a tension pneumothorax. B. traumatic aortic rupture. C. penetrating lung injuries. D. a massive cardiac contusion.
B. traumatic aortic rupture.
Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by: A. swelling. B. guarding. C. crepitus. D. ecchymosis.
A
In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: A. articular cartilage. B. synovial tendons. C. muscular fascia. D. gliding cartilage.
A
Of the following musculoskeletal injuries, which is considered to be the LEAST severe? A. nondisplaced pelvic fracture B. open fractures of a long bone C. an amputation of an extremity D. multiple closed long bone fractures
A
The musculoskeletal system refers to the: A. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. B. nervous system's control over the muscles. C. connective tissue that supports the skeleton. D. involuntary muscles of the nervous system.
A
The pectoral girdle consists of the: A. scapulae and clavicles. B. clavicles and rib cage. C. sternum and scapulae. D. acromion and clavicles.
A
Which of the following joints allows no motion? A. skull sutures B. sacroiliac joint C. shoulder joint D. sternoclavicular joint
A
Which of the following scenarios is an example of a direct injury? A. A passenger fractures her patella after it strikes the dashboard. B. A skier dislocates his knee after a twisting injury to the ankle. C. A person lands on his or her feet and fractures the lumbar spine. D. A child dislocates his elbow after falling on his outstretched arm.
A
Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? A. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. B. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. C. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. D. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis.
A
A person's ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below: A. 90°F (32°C). B. 92°F (33°C). C. 94°F (34°C). D. 95°F (35°C).
A. 90°F (32°C).
Which of the following statements regarding lightning strikes is correct? A. Lighting often results in a brief period of asystole that resolves spontaneously. B. The tissue damage pathway caused by lightning usually occurs through the skin. C. Victims who are struck by lightning often experience severe full-thickness burns. D. Cervical spine fractures are the most common cause of lightning-related deaths.
A. Lighting often results in a brief period of asystole that resolves spontaneously.
You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who is sick. The patient complains of a rash to her lower extremities and truncal area. Your assessment reveals a small, painful blister on her inner thigh. As your partner is taking the patient's vital signs, she states that she and her family returned from a camping trip two days ago. On the basis of this patient's presentation, you should suspect: A. Lyme disease. B. an allergic reaction. C. exposure to poison ivy. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
A. Lyme disease.
You are assessing a 33-year-old male who complains of severe abdominal pain, weakness, and nausea. He tells you that he was gathering wood to build a fire when he felt a sudden, sharp pain on the back of his hand. Your assessment reveals that the patient's abdomen is rigid and painful to palpation. You should suspect: A. a black widow spider bite. B. envenomation from a pit viper. C. a brown recluse spider bite. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
A. a black widow spider bite.
Patients with generalized hypothermia are at an increased risk of a local cold injury because: A. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core. B. peripheral vasodilation brings warm blood to the skin's surface. C. the major muscles of the body become rigid during hypothermia. D. the patient is usually unable to escape the cold ambient temperature.
A. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core.
The diving reflex may allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to: A. bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate. B. laryngospasm that protects the lungs from water. C. tachycardia and a lowering of the blood pressure. D. increases in the metabolic rate and oxygen demand.
A. bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate.
Geriatric patients are at a higher risk for heatstroke because: A. circulation to the skin is reduced. B. most geriatric patients are obese. C. their ability to sweat is enhanced. D. their ability to shiver is reduced.
A. circulation to the skin is reduced.
Covering a patient's _________ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss. A. head B. chest C. abdomen D. extremities
A. head
Shivering is a mechanism in which the body generates heat by: A. increasing the metabolic rate. B. decreasing the use of oxygen. C. decreasing the metabolic rate. D. retaining excess carbon dioxide.
A. increasing the metabolic rate.
To obtain the MOST accurate reading of a patient's core body temperature, you should place a special hypothermia thermometer: A. into the patient's rectum. B. under the patient's tongue. C. behind the patient's knee. D. under the patient's armpit.
A. into the patient's rectum.
A 48-year-old male was stung on the leg by a jellyfish while swimming in the ocean. He is conscious and alert, but complains of intense pain at the wound site. Specific treatment for this patient includes: A. irrigating the wound with vinegar and immersing his leg in hot water. B. pulling the nematocysts out with tweezers and bandaging the wound. C. immersing his leg in fresh cold water and scraping away the stingers. D. applying a chemical ice pack to the wound and encouraging movement.
A. irrigating the wound with vinegar and immersing his leg in hot water.
Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? A. local swelling and ecchymosis B. general weakness and diaphoresis C. syncope and bleeding at distal sites D. signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion
A. local swelling and ecchymosis
You and your partner are standing by at a large social event at a river resort when a frantic woman tells you that she found a young male floating face-down in the water. Nobody claims to have witnessed the event. After you and your partner enter the water and reach the patient, you should: A. move him as a unit to a supine position. B. begin ventilations with a barrier device. C. immediately secure him to a longboard. D. perform a jaw-thrust maneuver to open his airway.
A. move him as a unit to a supine position.
You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30′. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: A. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, position him on his left side with his head down, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility. B. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department. C. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber. D. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bagmask device, and contact medical control for further guidance.
A. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, position him on his left side with his head down, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.
A ____________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments. A. strain B. sprain C. fracture D. dislocation
B
A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a __________ fracture. A. greenstick B. pathologic C. transverse D. comminuted
B
A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A. total loss of function in a bone. B. break in the continuity of the bone. C. disruption in the midshaft of a bone. D. abnormality in the structure of a bone.
B
Bone marrow produces: A. platelets. B. blood cells. C. lymphocytes. D. electrolytes.
B
Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. swelling. B. deformity. C. ecchymosis. D. point tenderness.
B
During your rapid secondary assessment of a 19-year-old female with multiple trauma, you note bilateral humeral deformities and a deformity to the left midshaft femur. Her skin is diaphoretic and her pulse is rapid and weak. Your partner has appropriately managed her airway and is maintaining manual stabilization of her head. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. applying and inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) and transporting. B. immobilizing her to a backboard and rapidly transporting. C. applying a traction splint to immobilize her femur. D. carefully splinting each of her deformed extremities.
B
If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: A. distal circulation. B. the patient history. C. bruising to the shoulder. D. the presence of deformity.
B
In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: A. the patient is in severe pain. B. the patient is clinically unstable. C. deformity and swelling are present. D. transport time is less than 15 minutes.
B
Skeletal muscle is also referred to as __________ muscle. A. smooth B. striated C. connective D. involuntary
B
Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called: A. fascia. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments.
B
Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. smooth D. autonomic
B
Compared to adults, infants and children are at higher risk for hypothermia for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: A. a decreased ability to shiver. B. a relatively small surface area. C. a smaller amount of body fat. D. a smaller overall muscle mass.
B. a relatively small surface area.
A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (−1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unconscious, pale, and apneic. You should: A. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm. B. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 45 seconds. C. open his airway and give two rescue breaths. D. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae.
B. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 45 seconds.
When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: A. radiation. B. conduction. C. convection. D. evaporation.
B. conduction.
Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: A. temporary survival after submersion in water. B. death from suffocation after submersion in water. C. water in the lungs following submersion in water. D. death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water.
B. death from suffocation after submersion in water.
All of the following terms are used to describe a cold body part that is not frozen, EXCEPT: A. frostnip. B. frostbite. C. chilblains. D. trench foot.
B. frostbite.
In contrast to the brown recluse spider, the black widow spider: A. is very small and has a violin-shaped marking on its back. B. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen. C. has a bite that is typically painless until a blister develops. D. has a bite that usually produces local pain but no systemic signs or symptoms.
B. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen.
In order for sweating to be an effective cooling mechanism: A. several layers of clothing must be worn. B. it must be able to evaporate from the body. C. the relative humidity must be above 90%. D. the body must produce at least 1 L per hour.
B. it must be able to evaporate from the body.
The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: A. renal system. B. nervous system. C. respiratory system. D. cardiovascular system.
B. nervous system.
Your assessment of a 23-year-old female reveals a core body temperature of 93.4°F (34°C). She is conscious, answers your questions appropriately, is shivering, and complains of nausea. Her skin is cold and pale, her muscles appear rigid, and her respirations are rapid. In addition to monitoring her ABCs, administering oxygen, and turning up the heat in the back of the ambulance, you should: A. apply the AED in case she develops cardiopulmonary arrest, cover her with layers of blankets, and transport carefully. B. place heat packs to her groin, axillae, and behind her neck; cover her with warm blankets; and avoid rough handling. C. cover her with warm blankets and let her move about on the stretcher in order to generate body heat and increase her temperature. D. sit her up and give her small sips of warm water to drink, place heat packs to her axillae and groin, and cover her with blankets.
B. place heat packs to her groin, axillae, and behind her neck; cover her with warm blankets; and avoid rough handling.
A patient with a core body temperature of 95°F (35°C) will MOST likely experience: A. a slow pulse. B. rapid breathing. C. muscle stiffness. D. loss of consciousness.
B. rapid breathing.
Heatstroke occurs when: A. a person's core body temperature rises above 103°F (39°C). B. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed. C. a person becomes dehydrated secondary to excess water loss. D. the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F (32°C) and the humidity is high.
B. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed.
An air embolism associated with diving occurs when: A. the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water. B. the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent. C. the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure. D. high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum.
B. the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent.
Rough handling of a hypothermic patient with a pulse may cause: A. profound bradycardia. B. ventricular fibrillation. C. ventricular tachycardia. D. pulseless electrical activity.
B. ventricular fibrillation.
A subluxation occurs when: A. ligaments are partially severed. B. a fracture and a dislocation exist. C. a joint is incompletely dislocated. D. a bone develops a hairline fracture.
C
A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. A. greenstick B. diaphyseal C. epiphyseal D. metaphyseal
C
Assessing a person's neurovascular status following a musculoskeletal injury includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assessing motor function. B. assessing sensory function. C. evaluating proximal pulses. D. determining capillary refill.
C
Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: A. increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength. B. the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured. C. muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma. D. carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle.
C
Crepitus and false motion are: A. indicators of a severe sprain. B. only seen with open fractures. C. positive indicators of a fracture. D. most common with dislocations.
C
Which of the following structures is regulated by smooth muscle? A. heart B. skeleton C. blood vessels D. diaphragm
C
With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: A. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. B. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury. D. part of the body that sustained secondary injury.
C
You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should: A. immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after 5 minutes of treatment. B. focus your initial treatment efforts on the patients who are conscious because the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest. C. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible. D. recognize that the patients who are conscious are at high risk for developing cardiac arrest and quickly assess them for potentially life-threatening injuries.
C. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible.
The transfer of heat to circulating air, such as when cool air moves across the body's surface, is called: A. radiation. B. conduction. C. convection. D. evaporation.
C. convection.
All of the following snakes are pit vipers, EXCEPT for the: A. copperhead. B. rattlesnake. C. coral snake. D. cottonmouth.
C. coral snake.
Geriatric patients, newborns, and infants are especially prone to hyperthermia because they: A. have relatively smaller heads. B. have less body fat. C. exhibit poor thermoregulation. D. have smaller body surface areas.
C. exhibit poor thermoregulation.
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to increase a person's risk of hypothermia? A. hypoperfusion B. severe infection C. hyperglycemia D. spinal cord injury
C. hyperglycemia
You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year-old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. perform a rapid assessment and look for signs of trauma. B. place him in a sitting position and have him drink 1 L of water. C. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions. D. administer one tube of oral glucose and reassess his mental status.
C. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions.
The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by: A. an air embolism. B. alcohol intoxication. C. possible spinal injury. D. cold water immersion.
C. possible spinal injury.
A 20-year-old male was pulled from cold water by his friends. The length of his submersion is not known and was not witnessed. You perform a primary assessment and determine that the patient is apneic and has a slow, weak pulse. You should: A. suction his airway for 30 seconds, provide rescue breathing, keep him warm, and transport at once. B. ventilate with a bag-mask device, apply a cervical collar, remove his wet clothing, and transport rapidly. C. provide rescue breathing, remove wet clothing, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully. D. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport rapidly.
C. provide rescue breathing, remove wet clothing, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully.
The two MOST efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are: A. respiration and bradycardia. B. perspiration and tachycardia. C. sweating and dilation of skin blood vessels. D. hyperventilation and tachycardia.
C. sweating and dilation of skin blood vessels.
A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: A. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. B. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. C. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. D. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
D
A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: A. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. B. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury. C. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates. D. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
D
An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: A. bone ends protrude through the skin. B. a large laceration overlies the fracture. C. a bullet shatters the underlying bone. D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.
D
The MOST reliable indicator of an underlying fracture is: A. guarding. B. severe swelling. C. obvious bruising. D. point tenderness.
D
The disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is called a: A. strain. B. sprain. C. fracture. D. dislocation.
D
What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. striated D. smooth
D
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? A. severe strain B. moderate sprain C. hairline fracture D. displaced fracture
D
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? A. an amputated extremity B. bilateral femur fractures C. nondisplaced long bone fractures D. pelvic fracture with hypotension
D
Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct? A. Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it. B. Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels. C. Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage. D. It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.
D
The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: A. tightness in the chest. B. difficulty with vision. C. dizziness and nausea. D. abdominal or joint pain.
D. abdominal or joint pain.
A dysbarism injury refers to the signs and symptoms related to changes in: A. rapid ascent. B. rapid descent. C. decompression. D. barometric pressure.
D. barometric pressure.
Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to: A. cardiac arrhythmias. B. a decreased heart rate. C. severe muscular rigidity. D. blood clotting abnormalities.
D. blood clotting abnormalities.
The venom of a brown recluse spider is cytotoxic, meaning that it: A. suppresses the respiratory drive. B. destroys the body's red blood cells. C. weakens the structure of the bones. D. causes severe local tissue damage.
D. causes severe local tissue damage.
Which of the following medications increases a person's risk of a heat-related emergency? A. Motrin B. Tylenol C. Aspirin D. diuretics
D. diuretics
When the body loses sweat, it also loses: A. plasma. B. nutrients. C. erythrocytes. D. electrolytes.
D. electrolytes.
High humidity reduces the body's ability to lose heat through: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.
D. evaporation.
The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.
D. evaporation.
You are dispatched to a local high school track and field event for a 16-year-old male who fainted. The outside temperature is approximately 95°F (35°C) with high humidity. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious, alert, and complains of nausea and a headache. His skin is cool, clammy, and pale. You should: A. give him a liquid salt solution to drink. B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. apply chemical ice packs to his axillae. D. move him into the cooled ambulance.
D. move him into the cooled ambulance.
You are transporting a 28-year-old man with a frostbitten foot. The patient's vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries or symptoms. The weather is treacherous and your transport time to the hospital is approximately 45 minutes. During transport, you should: A. rewarm his foot in 100°F to 105°F (38°C to 40°C) water. B. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. cover his foot with chemical heat compresses. D. protect the affected part from further injury.
D. protect the affected part from further injury.
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to occur in a patient with a core body temperature of between 89°F (32°C) and 92°F (33°C)? A. bradypnea B. confusion C. stiff muscles D. tachycardia
D. tachycardia
Most of the serious injuries associated with scuba diving are caused by: A. water temperature lower than 70°F (21°C). B. too rapid of a descent. C. alcohol consumption. D. too rapid of an ascent.
D. too rapid of an ascent.
The body's natural protective mechanisms against heat loss are: A. shivering and vasodilation. B. vasodilation and respiration. C. respiration and vasoconstriction. D. vasoconstriction and shivering.
D. vasoconstriction and shivering.